Bbc Assignments 42-50

Front 1

What are the 3 stage of HIV?

Back 1

1) acute
2) latent
3) advanced symptomatic (AIDS)

Front 2

How do you diagnose AIDS?

Back 2

a (+) HIV test AND one of the following
1) less than 200 CD4 count
2) AIDS defining opportunistic infections (pneumocystis, CMV retinitis)
3) AIDS assoc malignancies (Kaposis sarcoma, brain lymphoma)
4) HIV complicating infections (extrapulmonary TB, HIV dementia)

Front 3

What are signs of HIV infections?

Back 3

fever, weight loss, cachexia, night sweats

Front 4

What is Hageman factor?

Back 4

Factor XII, starts off intrinsic pathway

Front 5

What test tests platelet fxn?

Back 5

bleeding time

Front 6

VWF binds to this other factor, and VWdz also causes def in it

Back 6

VIII

Front 7

What tests are positive in VWD?

Back 7

PTT AND bleeding time

Front 8

What tests are positive in hemophilia A and B?

Back 8

increased PTT, normal bleeding time and PT

Front 9

What can cause Vit K deficiency?

Back 9

1) fat malabsorption
2) ABX (destroy gut flora which produce vit K
3) newborns bc they lack gut flora, are hypocoagulable for first few days
4) coumadin

Front 10

Why do you need to give heparin during first day of coumadin therapy?

Back 10

Coumadin prevents Vit K dependent gamma carboxylation of proteins C and S, which normally impose tonic inhibition of factors V and VIII and have a 1/2 life of 24 hours. During first day of coumadin, proteins C and S are inhibited, so factors V and VIII will go haywire

Front 11

Spherocytosis is due to deficiency in:

Back 11

spectrin

Front 12

What happens to RBCs in G6PD def?

Back 12

they lyse when exposed to excess radicals (fava beans, sulfa drugs, quinine derivatives)

Front 13

What is the most Common enzymopathy?

Back 13

G6PD def

Front 14

Sickle cell is due to single AA substitution of ____ for _____ at the _____ position of the ______ chain

Back 14

valine for glutamate
6th AA position of the beta globin chain

Front 15

When is sickling promoted?

Back 15

less than optimal oxygenation:
hypoxia, dehydration, acidosis

Front 16

What is Cooleys anemia?

Back 16

B thal Major - didnt inherit an functional alleles --> SEVERE microcytic anemia

Front 17

What is difference b/t indirect and direct Coombs?

Back 17

Direct: detects ABs bound DIRECTLY to RBCs

Indirect: detects free floatiing ABs

Front 18

What is the test of choice to detect isoimmunization in Rh (-) females?

Back 18

Indirect Coombs, bc would have neg Direct Coombs

Front 19

What are some causes of B12 deficiency?

Back 19

Diphylloborthrium latum
Poor diet
Type A gastritis

Front 20

What GI findings are seen in Plummer Vinson anemia?

Back 20

esophageal webs and dysphagias for solids only

Front 21

Heinz bodies are a/w:

Back 21

G6PD def

Front 22

What do Howell-Jolly bodies indicate?

Back 22

basophilic blue granules, indicate that RBCs are leaving bone marrow while still immature

Front 23

Basophilic stippling indicates what type of poisoning?

Back 23

lead

Front 24

What special RBCs appear in iron overload 2ndary to deranged bone marrow function (not excess dietary Fe)?

Back 24

siderocytes

Front 25

What is Felty's syndrome?

Back 25

variant of RA which includes immune mediated destruction of neutrophils via anti-neutrophil ABs

Front 26

Difference b/t leukemia and lymphoma?

Back 26

leukemia is fluid cancer, cant really image or pinpoint it

lymphoma is a solid tumor of cancerous lymphocytes

Front 27

What is the most common malignancy in children?

Back 27

ALL

Front 28

Where are Auer rods seen? What do they indicate?

Back 28

AML
indicate evid of myeloid prolif

Front 29

What is the main thing with CML?

Back 29

Philadelphia chromosome (9:22 translocation such that bcr-abl fusion gene is created

Also have low LAP = cells arent metabolically active

Front 30

What is (+) TRAP (tartrate-R-acid phosphatase) seen in?

Back 30

Hairy cell leukemia
involves only B cells that develop hairy like projections

Front 31

What are some characteristics of Hodgkins lymphoma?

Back 31

(+) Reed Sternberg cells (more = worse prognosis)
contiguous spread
nodal involvement

Front 32

What are the 4 subtypes of Hodgkins lymphoma? Which are the worst?

Back 32

1) lymphocyte predominance
2) nodular sclerosis
3) mixed cellularity
4) lymphocyte depletion

3 and 4 are worst because of more RS cells

Front 33

How does amantidine work?

Back 33

it impairs uncoating for virus

Front 34

What does interferon do to the cells in the body?

Back 34

induces MHC-1 expression, increasing body's sensitivity toward and ability to eradicate virally infected cells.

Front 35

Why is acyclovir only effective against HSV, VZV, EBV?

Back 35

because the phosphorylation process can only be accomplished with viral thymidine kinase only present in those viruses

Front 36

What are the three herpesviridae viruses?

Back 36

HSV, VZV, EBV

Front 37

Gancylcovir treats _____ because _____ is not needed for its phosphorylation. It is DOC for ____

Back 37

CMV
thymidine kinase
CMV retinitis

Front 38

How does AZT work?

Back 38

it inhibits viral DNA synthesis after being incorporated into the growing viral DNA chain. It is a nuke

Front 39

Protease inhibitors work by inhibiting cleavage of:

Back 39

the "giant" protein (gag-pol-env) that HIV must cut apart in order to have the functional components of that protein

they end in -navir (ritonavir, indinavir)

Front 40

Non-nucleoside RTIs work by :

Back 40

directly inhibiting reverse transcriptase

Front 41

How do fusion inhibitors work?

Back 41

prevent fusion between HIV virion and the cell

Front 42

What do integrase inhibitors do?

Back 42

prevent HIV viral integrase enzyme from inserting HIV DNA into Human DNA

Front 43

How do CCR5 receptor antagonists work?

Back 43

prevent entry of virus into cell

Front 44

Foscarnet is an alternative to ____ in tx of _____

Back 44

gancyclovir in tx of CMV

Front 45

Drug of choice for herpes keratitis?

Back 45

Trifluridine

Front 46

Which are considered the atypical ribs?

Back 46

1, 2, 11, 12

Front 47

What are the three types of rib motion and which ribs have which?

Back 47

Pump handle (1-5)
Bucket handle (6-10)
Caliper (11-12)

Front 48

What are the primary muscles of respiration?

Back 48

diaphragm and intercostals

Front 49

Where does the diaphragm attach?

Back 49

ribs 6-12 b/l, bodies and IV discs of L1-L3, xiphoid process

Front 50

What Thoracic vertebrae is the inferior angle of the scapula at?

Back 50

T7

Front 51

Rule of Threes

Back 51

T1-3- transverse process at same level as vertebra

T4-6- transverse process halfway between that vertebras spinous process and one above it

T7-9- transverse process is next to SP of vertebra above it

Front 52

Which is the broadest and most curved rib?

Back 52

rib 1

Front 53

What is the DOC for vaginal candidiasis?

Back 53

miconazole

Front 54

DOC for blastomycosis?

Back 54

itraconazole

Front 55

DOC for aspergillosis?

Back 55

voriconazole

Front 56

What is ketoconazole the DOC for?

Back 56

tinea versicolor

Front 57

How does Amphotericin B cause fungal death?

Back 57

binds to ergosterol, forming a pore in the fungal membrane through which electrolytes cross at will, causing severe electrolyte imbalances and fungal death.

Front 58

This antifungal interacts with microtubules to disrupt mitotic spindles:

Back 58

Griseofulvin

Front 59

This drug is the DOC for onychoycosis. It works to inhibit ergosterol synthesis by inhibiting enzyme squalene epoxidase

Back 59

Terbinafine

Front 60

What is the DOC for vaginal candidiasis?

Back 60

miconazole

Front 61

DOC for blastomycosis?

Back 61

itraconazole

Front 62

Why would you use butenafine vs terbinafine?

Back 62

same MOA, butenafine is not an oral agent (cream). This limits tox. It is DOC for all types of tinea except t. capitis

Front 63

DOC for aspergillosis?

Back 63

voriconazole

Front 64

What is ketoconazole the DOC for?

Back 64

tinea versicolor

Front 65

How does Amphotericin B cause fungal death?

Back 65

binds to ergosterol, forming a pore in the fungal membrane through which electrolytes cross at will, causing severe electrolyte imbalances and fungal death.

Front 66

This antifungal interacts with microtubules to disrupt mitotic spindles:

Back 66

Griseofulvin

Front 67

This drug is the DOC for onychoycosis. It works to inhibit ergosterol synthesis by inhibiting enzyme squalene epoxidase

Back 67

Terbinafine

Front 68

Why would you use butenafine vs terbinafine?

Back 68

same MOA, butenafine is not an oral agent (cream). This limits tox. It is DOC for all types of tinea except t. capitis

Front 69

How does metronidazole work?

Back 69

acts as electron receptor (like the metro, picks up electrons) creating compounds that readily bind to organisms proteins and DNA --> death

Front 70

MOA of stibogluconate?

Back 70

inhibits glycolysis

Front 71

How do Albendazole and Mebendazole work?

Back 71

bind to tubulin in the cells of roundworms, preventing microtubule formation

Front 72

What is Permethrin cream used for?

Back 72

head lice, public lice, scabies

Front 73

What is Myiasis?

Back 73

infestation of tissue by the larvae of flies (maggots)

Front 74

Ziehl Neelsen stain is used for

Back 74

acid fast bacteria

Front 75

Prussian blue stains for

Back 75

iron

Front 76

Congo red stains for

Back 76

amyloid

Front 77

Giemsa stains for

Back 77

blood smears

Front 78

Where is strep viridans normal flora?

Back 78

nasopharynx and mouth.

Risk of endocarditis after dental work

Front 79

ENDOtoxins cause

Back 79

TNF, IL-1 release --> fever, shock
are heat stable

Front 80

Are TB and pseudomonoas obligate aerobes or anaerobes?

Back 80

obligate aerobes
(reactivation of TB usually occurs in upper lung lobes where V/Q ratio highest

Front 81

Similarities and differences b/t cholera toxin and pertussis toxin?

Back 81

Similarity- both stimulate adenylate cyclase

Difference- cholera activates Gs while pertussis activates Gi

Front 82

Which is catalase positive, staph or strep?

Back 82

Staph

Front 83

Which staph is coagulase pos?

Back 83

Staph aureus

Front 84

What are the 2 types of Neisseria?

Back 84

N. Meningococcus- Gram stain of CSF is diagnostic

N. Gonococcus

Front 85

What are two signs of Tetanus?

Back 85

Risus sardonicus- fixed smile and elevated eyebrows

Lock jaw

Front 86

Is Salmonella or Shigella motile?

Back 86

Salmonella (remember salmon swim)

Front 87

What infection results from dog/cat bites?

Back 87

pasteurella

Front 88

What bug is causes "walking pneumonia"?

Back 88

chlamydia pneumonia

Front 89

What kind of rash is classic in Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?

Back 89

rash that first appears on wrists and later spreads to trunk

Front 90

What kind of diarrhea does V. Cholera cause?

Back 90

rice-watery diarrhea

Front 91

What is the most common cause of diarrhea in the US?

Back 91

Campylobacter jejuni

Front 92

Shigella is _____ times more infective than Salmonella

Back 92

1000

Front 93

Which bug looks like chinese characters?

Back 93

Corynebacterium, causes diphtheria

Front 94

What is most common cause of UTIs?

Back 94

E coli

Front 95

What kind of renal calculi does Proteus cause?

Back 95

urease production --> ammonium calculi