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44 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What kind of neoplasm is a multiple myeloma and what do the myeloma cells produce?
-plasma cell neoplasm (SOLID)
-myeloma cells produce:
excess intact IgG or IgA and excess LIGHT chains
osteoclast activating factor (IL-6 which produces osteolytic lesions--> punched out lesions)
IL-1 which is another potent osteoclast
A patient presents with flame cells, fatigue, weaknessm skin and mucosal bleeding, headached, visual problems, and neurological problems. What are flame cells and what is this disorder due to?
Flame cells - eosinophilic neoplastic plasma cells
Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia which is due to overproduction of IgM (huge molecule that tremendously thickens the blood
What is atherosclerosis due to (including risk factors) and what cytokines are involved?
-due to high LDL cholesterol (contains foam cells) in large or medium sized arteries with a calcium covering
-smoking and homocysteine (fix by giving B12) excess are risk factors
-IL-1 and TNF-alpha
Compare and contrast hyaline and hyaline arteriosclerosis.
both affect small arteries and arterioles but hyaline is called nephrosclerosis with kidney
hyperplastic: affects media, has an onion skin appearance, and is compensatory resulting from malginant HTN (>210 / or >150)
hyaline: affects BM, from inflammation and use; from HTN, old age, DIABETES MELLITUS
What are the blood vessels affected by the different types of arteritis?
large vessels - giant cell, Takayasu
medium vessels - Polyarteritis nodosa, Kawasaki, thromboangiitis obliterans
small vessels - Wegener's, Henoch-Schonlein, hypersensitivty arteritis, Churg-Strauss, microscopic polyangiitis, thromboangiitis obliterans
Compare and contrast Polyarteritis nodosa and microscopic polyangitts
both are due to WBCs invading BV walls to cause inflammatory damage but PAN - medium sized arteries and microscopic is small BV

PAN: secondary to HBV, HCV, or hair cell leukemia; fever, ab pain and melena, renal disease (without glomerulonephritis) with HTN, neuritis of motor neurons, diffuse myalgia, fatal in most untreated

microscopic: usually initated by reaction to drugs, +p-ANCA, causes severe glomerulonephritis (to become RPGN) and pulmonary capillartiis, palpable purpura, hemoptysis, hematuria, mylagia
What do you do if you suspect a person has giant cell arteritis and what is the systemic form of this disease called?
start them on steroids immediately
polymylagia rheumatica - flu-like symptoms with arthralgia and myalgia
A patient has a history of asthma and presents with recurrent attacks of asthma that are not being affected by their medication. What type of vasculittis do they have and how does it present?
Churg-Strauss
granulomas + WBC infiltrates in BV wall, massive eosinophil invasion in both vessel wall and surrounding tissues
+p-ANCA
affects mostly BV of skin, nerves, muscles, LUNG, HEARt
death usually results from coronary vessel destruction +/- myocarditis
mostly confined to occuring in patients with a history of asthma
What is a vasculitis that causes a positive anti-human oral mucosa antibodies and can be confused with herpes and how does it present?
Behcet's syndromee is a vaculitis of veins and venules
recurrent painful oral and genital ulcerations +/- uveitis, iritis, arthritis of knees
may cause life-threatening brain and GI damage
males get it much more severely
A patient presents with aortic regurgitation and "tree-barking" of the initma, what cuased this and what do they have?
Trponema pallidum causes an obliterative endarteritis of vasa vasorum of thoracic aorta and results in a syphilitic = luetic aneusym (tertiary syphillis)
How does an aortic dissection present?
major risk facotr is hypertension, Marfan's syndrome,
horrible,tearing chest pain that radiates to the back, different pulses
What is the different between micro and mycotic aortic dissection?
micro = small cerebral aneursyms due to HTN or small retinal aneuryms secondary to diabetes
mycotic = due to infections of vessel wall; usually BACTERIAL; infection damages the media, allowing for wall weakening (infection is in the wall itself)
What are the DOC for mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) in a person with HIV?
clarithromycin, ethambutol, rifampin
For people with HIV, what is the DOC for the treatment and prophylaxis of Pneumocystis? prophylaxis and treatment for toxoplasmosis?
TMP-SMX for all
another DOC for toxoplasmosis = pyrimthamine + sulfadiazine + leucovorin
For a person with HIV, what are the DOC for prophylaxis against coccidiodomycosis? for prophylaxis or histoplasmosis?
coccidiomycosis - fluconcazole or itraconazole
histoplasmosis - itraconazole
What is the DOC for mycoplasma pneumoniae?
macrolides
What is the DOC in penicillin allergic patients?
erythromycin
What is the DOC for anaerobic infections that occur above the diaphragm?
Clindamycin
What purine analog is used to treat ALL?
mercaptopurine
What pyrimidine analogs treat nonlymphocytic leukemias?
cytarabine
What pyrimidine analog is used to treat slow growing tumors, such as breast, colorectal, and gastric tumors?
5-FU (florouracil)
What is the main drug class used in HAART and what drugs belong to this class?
nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs)
Didanosine
Lamivudine
Tenofovir
Zidovudine
Emtricitabine
What are the drug combos that can be used for HIV therapy and when should they be initiated?
2 NRTIs (usually tenofovir + emtricitabine) + (1 NNRTI OR 1 boosted PI OR 1 integrase inhibitor OR 1 CCR5 antagonist) --> (NOT FUSION INHIBITORS)

start: anyone who is HIV + anddddd
CD4 <350
AIDS defining illness
HIV associated nephropathy
current Hep B infection
pregnant
How do you treat HIV + pregnant women?
2 NRTIs + 1 PI
lopinavir + zidovudine + lamivudine
C-section
With regard to folate metabolism, which drugs inhibit dihydropteroate synthase (only in bacteria-making folate) and which drugs inhibit dihydrofolate reductase (bacteria and eukaryotes-using folate)?
synthase - sulfamethozazole, sulfadizine, sulfasoxazole, dapsone
reducatase - trimethoprim, pyrimethamine, methotrexate
When do you administer MMR and HBV vaccines to patients with HIV?
MMR - patients with CD4 >500
HBV - patients who have never been exposed
What drugs inhibit translation at the 30 and 50s?
30s - aminoglycosides (bacterioCIDAL), tetracyclines (bacteriostatic)
50s - chloramphenicol (bacteriostatic), erthromycin (bacteriostatic and other macrolides), clinidamycin (protein syn inhibitor reserved for fighting special infections)
What is a protein synthesis inhibitor in Eukaryocytes?
Diphteria toxin
What are the 4 anti-folate drugs, what does this inhibit and what adverse effect can it lead to?
pyrimethamine
trimethamine
all sulfa antibiotics
dapsone

inhibits DNA replication

can lead to megaloblastic anemia
What drug causes psuedotumor cerebri and who should this drug be avoided in?
tetracyclines (obese, fertile women)
What drug causes aplastic anemia and grey baby syndrome?
chloramphenicol
DOC for UTI treatment
TMP-SMX
What drug causes fever, malaise, bone pain, conjunctivitis, rash, and chest pain and what is this reaction called?
"cytarabine syndrome"
cytarabine (pyrimadine analog used to treat non-lymphocytic anemia) causes it
What antibiotics work by inhibiting DNA replication?
dactinomycin, doorubicin, bleomycin, (first three treat cancer becausecytoxic to human cells); fluoroquinolones
What drug causes risk of joint cartilage injury esp Achille's tendon rupture in kids <16 and what can cuase a false-positive urine assay for opiates?
Fluroquinoles
What type of pain does atlas dysfunction typically cause?
retro-orbital pain
What does the spinal cord end in most people and where is the site of a typical lumbar puncture? 35
Spinal cord ends at L1-2
Lumbar puncture is L4-5
What is the difference between sacralization and lumbarixation? 36
sacralization - one or both of the transverse processes of L5 articulate with the sacrum
lumbarization - SI failes to fuse with the rest of the sacrum, instead remaining as a separate vertebral segment
Where can spina bifida occur and over how many segments does it usually occur? 37
most common in sacral, lumbar, and lower thoracic regions and usually extends for 3-6 vertebral segments
What is associated with a "Scotty dog" collar on x-ray and what is this caused by? 38
Spondylolysis
fracture, disintegration or dissolution of a vertebra
causes achy low back pain exacerbated by any activity
on xray the pars interarticularis fracture is seen
What is spondylolithesis and what is the congenital type called? 39
anterior displacement of one vertebrae with respect to the vertebrae inferior to it, most common bw L4-L5 and represents a beheaded scotty dog
congenital type = type 1 - dysplastic spondylolisthesis which is a deficiency of L5 or sacral neural arch and deficiencies of superior sacral facets more common in girls
What are the types of spondylolithesis? 40
Type I = congenital type = dysplastic spondylolithesis
Type II = isthmic sponylolithsis - most common in people less an 50 type due to PATHOLOGY OF PARS INTERARTICULARIS
Type III = degenerative type - not seen in those less than 40
Type IV = Traumatic spondylolithesis - least common type
Type V = pathologic spondylolithesis - due to bone disease secondary to disorders such as cancer, Pagets, osteogenesis imperfecta etc
What is the difference between ankylosis and spondylosis? 41
ankylosis - abnormal immbolity of the joint - if true, then immobility is due to fusion of bones that form the joint and causes restriction of movement which can be accompanies by muscle spasms and achiness if neural structures are impinged
spondylosis - degenerative changes of the IV discs accompanied by ankylosis of adjacent vertebral bodies, leading to a narrowed spinal canal or neural foramen which causes chronic achy low back pain
What is the most common and second most common anomalies of the lumbar area?
most common = asymmetry of the joint facets known as zygopophyseal tropism
second most common = sacralization