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70 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
1. Pollution can result when which of the following types of agents is/are introduced into the air, water, or soil?
1. Biological
2. Chemical
3. Physical
4. All of the above
All of the above
2. Which of the following operations causes the most pollution?
1. Industrial
2. Municipal
3. Transportation
4. All of the above
All of the above
3. Which of the following materials is the primary municipal pollutant?
1. Raw or inadequately treated sewage
2. Radioactive waste
3. Petroleum products
4. Acids
Raw or inadequately treated sewage
4. Which of the following modes of transportation creates most air pollutants?
1. Trains
2. Waterborne vessels
3. Motor vehicles
4. Aircraft
Motor vehicles
5. Which, if any, of the following effects of pollution is the most serious?
1. Psychological
2. Biological
3. Physical
4. None of the above
Biological
6. Steel erodes faster than normal when exposed to which of the following air pollutants?
1. Pesticides
2. Herbicides
3. Zinc oxides
4. Sulfur oxides
Sulfur oxides
7. Most pesticides fall into which of the following categories?
1. Selective
2. Nonselective
3. Preselective
4. Control selective
Nonselective
8. What is the primary pollution concern of Navy personnel?
1. Noise pollution
2. Shore command wastes
3. Shipboard wastes
Shipboard wastes
9. Which of the following terms identifies abatement?
1. Maintaining
2. Raising
3. Lowering
4. Containing
Lowering
10. Under the Clean Air Act, what government body has the primary responsibility for assuring air quality?
1. Federal government
2. Each state
3. Local municipalities
4. Department of Transportation
Each state
11. Virtually all Navy ships have some type of sanitation device installed. Which of the following types of systems retains sewage on board for discharge ashore or in waters where discharging is allowed?
1. Direct discharge
2. Positive flow
3. Marine sanitation
4. Collection, holding, and transfer
Collection, holding, and transfer
12. When operating sanitation devices in foreign waters, Navy ships comply with which of the following requirements?
1. Status of Forces Agreement
2. Coast Guard instructions
3. NAVFAC guidelines
4. All of the above
Status of Forces Agreement
13. Vessels may not discharge unpulped trash within what minimum distance from the U.S. coastline?
1. 20nm
2. 25nm
3. 30nm
4. 35nm
25nm
14. Submarines may discharge negatively buoyant compacted trash not less than 12 nm from the U.S. coastline only if the water depth is greater than how many fathoms?
1. 1,000
2. 500
3. 100
4. 50
1,000
15. The Navy’s land management program involves which of the following efforts?
1. Migratory bird management
2. Production and sale of forest products
3. Soil and water conservation
4. Use of off-road vehicles
Soil and water conservation
16. From what part of the world does the U.S. import most of its crude oil?
1. Southeast Asia
2. Central Europe
3. South America
4. Middle East
Middle East
17. What program provides information and support for Navy personnel who are guests in foreign lands?
1. Navy Sponsor Program
2. Overseas Duty Support Program
3. Navy Assistance Program
4. Navy Relocation Program
Overseas Duty Support Program
18. The Military Cash Awards Program (MILCAP) provides monetary recognition of up to what maximum amount?
1. $ 5,000
2. $10,000
3. $20,000
4. $25,000
$25,000
19. The Navy’s Health and Physical Readiness Program promotes health and fitness at the command level. As part of this program, naval personnel are required to undergo fitness testing at what interval?
1. Biennially
2. Annually
3. Semiannually
4. Quarterly
Semiannually
20. “Informing the public and members of the naval service about Navy operations and programs” is the mission of
1. BUPERS
2. CNO
3. PAO
4. SECNAV
PAO
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 21 THROUGH 23, SELECT THE TERM USED TO DEFINE THE QUESTION.
21. Extravagant, careless, or needless expenditure of government resources.
1. Fraud
2. Waste
3. Abuse
4. Mismanagement
Waste
22. Intentional misleading or deceitful conduct that deprives the government of its resources or rights.
1. Fraud
2. Waste
3. Abuse
4. Mismanagement
Fraud
23. Intentional wrongful or improper use of government resources.
1. Fraud
2. Waste
3. Abuse
4. Mismanagement
Abuse
24. You can report fraud, waste, abuse, and mismanagement to which of the following offices?
1. The Navy hotline
2. The chain of command
3. The Naval Criminal Investigative Service
4. All of the above
All of the above
25. To maintain public confidence in its integrity, all naval personnel must comply with the Standards of Conduct and Professional Ethics.
1. True
2. False
True
26. If you disclose information about a person to unauthorized personnel, you could be fined up to what maximum amount?
1. $5,000
2. $3,000
3. $2,000
4. $1,000
$5,000
27. The guidance and policy for making sure that equal opportunity works rests with what office?
1. Command master chief
2. Commanding officer
3. Chief of Naval Operations
4. Secretary of the Navy
Chief of Naval Operations
28. Which of the following persons is responsible for making equal opportunity a reality with a command?
1. Commanding officer
2. Executive officer
3. Operations officer
4. Command master chief
Commanding officer
29. Your performance evaluation does not reflect your attitude toward and your conduct in support of the Navy’s equal opportunity program.
1. True
2. False
False
30. If a Sailor takes part in insensitive practices, he/she receives counseling on treating people equally. If counseling isn’t effective, what action, if any, may take place?
1. Administrative action only
2. Disciplinary action only
3. Administrative or disciplinary action
4. None
Administrative or disciplinary action
31. On what basis should supervisors assign duties such as food service and compartment cleaning?
1. Skills and abilities
2. Seniority
3. A fair, rotational basis
4. Time in service
A fair, rotational basis
32. The Department of the Navy sets the requirements for advancement for pay grades
E-1 through E-9. Which of the following is the determining factor in advancement?
1. A vacancy
2. Having a high multiple
3. Passing the advancement-in-rate exam
4. All of the above
A vacancy
33. Navy personnel are prohibited from taking part in a civil rights demonstration under which of the following circumstances?
1. When the demonstration occurs during duty hours
2. While they are in uniform
3. When the demonstration occurs on a military reservation
4. Each of the above
Each of the above
34. If you cannot resolve a complaint among the personnel involved, you can attach a written complaint to a special request chit and forward it through the chain of command. You must do this within 5 days?
1. True
2. False
False. You must do this in a timely matter from the event.
35. Which of the following personnel can be victims of sexual harassment?
1. Men only
2. Women only
3. Both 1 and 2 above
Both 1 and 2 above
36. Which of the following phrases describes sexual harassment?
1. Unwelcome sexual advances
2. Requests for sexual favors
3. Verbal or physical conduct that is sexual in nature
4. Each of the above
Each of the above
37. Someone in a command position makes sexual advances towards you, making it impossible to do your job. You are being sexually harassed.
1. True
2. False
True
38. Which of the following is a criteria for a person’s behavior to be considered sexual harassment?
1. Unwelcome
2. Sexual in nature
3. Occur or impact your work
4. Each of the above
Each of the above
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 39 AND 40, SELECT THE ZONE USED TO DESCRIBE THE QUESTION.
39. Sexually explicit pictures.
1. Red
2. Green
3. Yellow
Red
40. Suggestive posters, calendars, and off-color jokes.
1. Red
2. Green
3. Yellow
Yellow
41. What person has the responsibility of appointing the command ombudsman?
1. Commanding officer
2. Executive officer
3. Division officer
4. Command master chief
Commanding officer
42. What person determines the content and priorities of the command ombudsman program?
1. Commanding officer
2. Executive officer
3. Division officer
4. Command master chief
Commanding officer
43. Which of the following statements is a purpose of the Reenlistment Quality Control Program?
1. To provide a personnel management program to control rating manning
2. To issue reenlistment criteria
3. To establish standardized professional growth points
4. All of the above
All of the above
44. All first-term Sailors in pay grades E-1 through E-6 requesting reenlistment must be approved for reenlistment through what program?
1. CREO
2. ENCORE
3. HYT
4. EEO
ENCORE
45. What person directs and supervises the Navy’s voting program?
1. Chairman, Joint Chiefs of Staff
2. Chief of Naval Operations
3. Chief of Naval Personnel
4. Chief of Naval Information
Chief of Naval Personnel
46. Which of the following are sources that set forth the basic disciplinary laws for the U.S. Navy?
1. U.S. Navy Regulations
2. Standard Organization and Regulations of the U.S. Navy
3. Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ)
4. Each of the above
Each of the above
47. Which of the following characteristics are traits of a good Sailor?
1. Puts the good of the ship and the Navy above personal likes and dislikes
2. Obeys the rules of military courtesy and etiquette
3. Demonstrates loyalty, self-control, honesty, and truthfulness
4. All of the above
All of the above
48. In what year was the Code of Conduct first prescribed?
1. 1965
2. 1955
3. 1945
4. 1935
1955
49. The Code of Conduct was adopted to provide guidance for service personnel in which of the following circumstances?
1. When stationed on foreign soil
2. When traveling at home and abroad
3. When facing the enemy as prisoners of war
4. All of the above
When facing the enemy as prisoners of war
50. In what year was Executive Order 12633 issued amending the Code of Conduct to use neutral-gender language?
1. 1987
2. 1988
3. 1989
4. 1990
1988
51. How many articles make up the Code of Conduct?
1. Two
2. Four
3. Six
4. Eight
Six
52. When, if ever, may you voluntarily surrender to the enemy?
1. If alone and completely isolated from friendly troops
2. If no longer able to inflict casualties on the enemy
3. If able to detain the enemy and let others escape capture
4. Never
Never
53. Who may be assigned shore patrol duties?
1. Officers only
2. Petty officers only
3. Officers and petty officers
4. All Navy personnel
Officers and petty officers
54. In areas where different armed services are located, the military police from each service may be combined to form one unit. What term identifies this unit?
1. Armed Forces Police Department
2. Armed Forces Police Detachment
3. Armed Forces Police Service
4. Armed Forces Police Group
Armed Forces Police Detachment
55. Aboard ship, the master-at-arms (MAA) force is headed by the chief master-at-arms
(CMAA). The CMAA works directly for which of the following officers?
1. Weapons officer
2. Security officer
3. Executive officer
4. Administrative officer
Executive officer
56. Discipline training develops which of the following personal traits?
1. Character
2. Efficiency
3. Self-control
4. All of the above
All of the above
57. Discipline is important to the Navy for which of the following reasons?
1. To instill fear of punishment
2. To decrease command responsibility
3. To provide punishment for wrongdoers
4. To enable personnel to function as a unit with a high degree of efficiency
To enable personnel to function as a unit with a high degree of efficiency
58. Punishment is administered in the Navy for which of the following reasons?
1. To serve as an object lesson to the wrongdoer and others
2. To pacify those who have suffered a wrong
3. To correct a wrong
4. To avenge a wrong
To serve as an object lesson to the wrongdoer and others
59. What chapter of the United States Navy Regulations describes the rights and responsibilities of all Navy members?
1. 12
2. 11
3. 10
4. 9
11
60. What person is responsible for making sure that the Navy Regs conforms to the current needs of the Department of the Navy?
1. The Secretary of the Navy
2. The Judge Advocate General
3. The Chief of Naval Operations
4. The Commandant of the Marine Corps
The Chief of Naval Operations
61. Navy Regs and changes to it are issued by the Secretary of the Navy after what person approves them?
1. The President
2. The Vice President
3. The Attorney General
4. The Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
The President
62. Failure to obey any regulation subjects the offender to charges under what UCMJ article?
1. 91
2. 92
3. 93
4. 94
92
63. What article of the Navy Regs lists the publications that must be made available upon request by any active-duty person?
1. 1020
2. 1010
3. 0917
4. 0818
0818
64. What article of the Navy Regs gives officers the authority necessary to perform their duties?
1. 1021
2. 1023
3. 1025
4. 1033
1021
65. Navy Regs, article 1033, Authority in a Boat, provides which of the following officers the authority and responsibility over all persons embarked?
1. The senior line officer eligible for command at sea
2. The junior line officer eligible for command at sea
3. The senior staff officer
4. The junior staff officer
The senior line officer eligible for command at sea
66. Which of the following Navy Regulations articles outlines the authority of a sentry?
1. 1037
2. 1038
3. 1052
4. 1053
1038
67. You may not be ordered to active duty without the permission of which of the following persons?
1. Commandant of the Marine Corps
2. Commandant of the Coast Guard
3. Chief of Naval Operations
4. Chief of Naval Personnel
Chief of Naval Personnel
68. Navy Regulations, article 1104, Treatment and Release of Prisoners, prohibits cruel and/or unusual treatment. According to this article, prisoners must be checked on at what minimum interval?
1. 10 hours
2. 8 hours
3. 6 hours
4. 4 hours
4 hours
69. During a Saturday duty day, one of your shipmates asks you to change watches with him/her. You agree but fail to get permission from proper authority. Under what article of Navy Regs you could be charged?
1. 1138
2. 1134
3. 1133
4. 1129
1134
70. Sexual harassment is offensive and illegal. Under what article of Navy Regs a person may be charged with sexual harassment?
1. 1166
2. 1164
3. 1162
4. 1160
1166