Reading...
Play button
Play button
Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
367 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
1. Mental deterioration with impaired memory and judgment, widespread changes in personality and behavior and disorientation of space and time. This is a definition of:
a. Paralysis b. Neuralgias c. Stroke d. Dementia |
d
|
|
|
2. Which disorder involves forceful involuntary contraction of voluntary muscles?
a. Seizure b. Convulsion c. Dementia d. Epilepsy |
b
|
|
|
3. For patients on renal dialysis, dental treatment should be done:
a. 2 days before dialysis b. Same day as dialysis c. The day following dialysis d. Patient can’t receive dental treatment at all while on dialysis |
c
|
|
|
4. Swollen ankles, shortness of breath and coughing are all indicative of which of the following:
a. Congestive Heart Failure b. Severe Hypertension c. Atherosclerosis d. Both A & B |
a
|
|
|
5. What drug or group of drugs given to treat Hypertension, can cause gingival Hyperplasia?
a. Digitalis b. Diuretics (chlorothiazide) c. ACE inhibitors d. Calcium channel blockers (Nifedipine) |
d
|
|
|
6. All of the following are cardiac contraindications to dental treatment EXCEPT:
a. Unstable angina b. Severe congestive heart failure c. Uncontrolled hypertension d. All are true |
d
|
|
|
7. Which of the following are signs of failure on the right side of the heart?
a. Dyspnea b. Orthopnea c. Shortness of breath d. Edema of extremities |
d
|
|
|
8. Cardiac Compensation involves all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Tachycardia b. Enlargement of the heart c. A decrease in the heart rate d. An increase in contractility |
c
|
|
|
9. Which of the following is a cardiac contraindication to dentistry?
a. Myocardial infarction (8-12 mos.) b. Mild congestive heart failure c. High cholesterol (greater than 250) d. Uncontrolled hypertension |
d
|
|
|
10. Which is not a sign of inflammation?
a. Redness b. Pain c. Heat d. All are signs of inflammation |
b
|
|
|
11. What does the “I” stand for in the MIND Paradigm?
a. Infectious b. Inflammatory c. Immunologic d. I don’t know |
b
|
|
|
12. What is the most important concern you as a dentist have for a patient with Congestive obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?
a. Susceptibility to infection b. Allergies to penicillin c. Getting something stuck in their throat d. Local anesthetic adversely affecting them |
a
|
|
|
13. Rust-colored phlegm would be most indicative of which of the below problems?
a. Flu plus bronchitis b. Allergies c. Cold d. Flu plus pneumonia |
d
|
|
|
14. Which of these is mismatched? (this is a trick question, remember, the MIND concept is based on what histopathologic problem leads To oral cavity problems)
a. Metabolic diseases - pernicious anemia (vit B12 deficiency) b. Immunological diseases - AIDS c. Neoplastic diseases – hepatitis B leading to bleeding problems d. Developmental diseases – dentigerous cyst |
b
|
|
|
15. What is the most common metabolic problem with oral manifestations?
a. Grave’s Disease b. Lyme Disease c. AIDS. d. Diabetes |
d
|
|
|
16. In diagnosing a patient with liver problems, a physician may elect to run which tests?
a. SMA 20 b. BUN (Blood Urea Nitrogen) c. Glycated Hemoglobin d. Angioplasty |
a
|
|
|
17. Jaundice is usually first seen in the:
a.Skin b.Whites of the eyes c.Oral mucosa d.Nails |
b
|
|
|
18. What is Ecchymosis?
a.Gingival bleeding b.Bleeding subcutaneously c.Bacterial infection d.You can get it by not brushing |
b
|
|
|
19. Hepatitis A is associated with all of the following EXCEPT:
a.Blood transfusion b.Hides in RNA c.Infectious / Short incubation d.Fecal ― oral transmission |
a
|
|
|
20. Which vitamin is used in prothrombin production?
a. B b. C c. A d. K |
d
|
|
|
21. Which of the following is mismatched?
a. Laennec's Cirrhosis ― spontaneous gingival bleeding in late-stage failure b. Hepatitis C ― Vaccine Recommended for travel c. Biliary Cirrhosis ― back up of fluid in bile duct d. Hepatitis B ― 10% of carriers are chronic e. Tylenol ― Hepatotoxic |
b
|
|
|
22. The liver is involved with all the below processes EXCEPT:
a.Coagulation b.Drug metabolism c.Protein metabolism d.White cell replacement |
d
|
|
|
23. All of the following are associated with Diabetes Mellitus EXCEPT:
a.Polyphagia b.Polydipsia c.Hypolipidemia d.Glucosuria |
c
|
|
|
24. What molecules can glucose bind to over 2-3 months that doctors can measure?
a.Calcium b.Fructosamines c.Hemoglobin d.Corticosteroids |
c
|
|
|
25. Which of the following is associated with insulin shock?
a.Too little insulin b.Too much insulin c.Too much glucose in the blood d.Ketoacidosis |
b
|
|
|
26. Which of the following is NOT part of the dental management of a diabetic?
a.Patient should have eaten balanced meal within 2 hours prior to appointment b.Patient should have taken their medication c.Food should be available if appointment lasts more than 2 hours d.Appointments should be made in the morning e.Patient should abstain from alcohol 48 hours prior to appointment |
e
|
|
|
27. What is the most important question to ask a diabetic patient?
a.When was your last dental visit? b.Is your diabetic condition well controlled? c.Do you have high blood pressure? d.Do you have a genetic factor contributing to your diabetes? |
b
|
|
|
28. Choose the incorrect pairing:
a.Pancreas ― Insulinoma / Diabetes Mellitus b.Thyroid ― Grave’s disease c.Parathyroid ― Cushing's Syndrome / Addison's Disease d.Pituitary ― Gigantism / Dwarfism |
c
|
|
|
29. Tardive dyskinesia is associated with which disease?
a.Myasthenia gravis b.Multiple sclerosis c.Parkinson’s disease d.AIDS |
c
|
|
|
30. Shingles is a secondary infection caused by which virus?
a.Herpes simplex b.Varicella zoster virus c.Epstein-Barr virus d.Coxsackie virus |
b
|
|
|
31. Which of the following conditions or diseases are or are associated with autoimmune diseases?
a.Lupus Erythematosis b.Scleroderma c.Blisters on skin and in mouth d.All of above |
d
|
|
|
32. If a patient is HIV infected, but has no signs or symptoms of disease and has no medical problems, what special precautions are needed for an initial exam?
a. Refer to physician b. Lab diagnosis needed immediately, prior to initial exam c. Refer to other dentist d.None |
d
|
|
|
33. What do you call a severe allergic response that causes massive release of histamines with resulting edema of throat, closure of bronchioles, dilation of blood vessels and difficulty in breathing?
a. Chancre b. Molecular mimicry c. Milinary response d. Anaphylactic shock |
d
|
|
|
34. Infection with which of the following conditions would you find granulomas in the lungs?
a. Syphilis b. Tuberculosis c. Lupus erythematosus d. Anaphylactic shock |
b
|
|
|
35. All of the below can be the etiologic factor in liver damage EXCEPT:
a. Alcohol consumption b. Medication c. Infectious agents d. Hereditary blood dyscrasias |
d
|
|
|
36. Which of the below problems is a side effect a patient may experience who’s hypertension is controlled with a calcium channel blocker like Nefidipine:
a. Low salivary flow b. Bleeding hyperplastic gums c. Nervousness d. Weight loss |
b
|
|
|
37. A patient presents in your office for extraction of a 3rd molar. The patient is HIV positive (has been for 5 years) and has no primary or secondary problems associated with HIV and is taking no medications. Before treatment you should:
a.Request a medical consult b.Prescribe premedication for the patient c.Proceed with no modification of dental treatment d.Request a t-cell count e.Request patient’s most recent lab results, for your evaluation |
e
|
|
|
38. All of the below medications are used to manage Hypertension, EXCEPT:
a.Diuretic b.Calcium channel blockers c.ACE inhibitors d.Acetaminophen |
d
|
|
|
39. How many milligrams of epinephrine are in a standard local anesthetic cartridge at a concentration of 1:100,000 epinephrine?
a. 0.018 mg (18 micrograms) b. 0.100 mg c. .18 mg d. 36 mg |
a
|
|
|
40. Which of the following dental procedures do not need antibiotic prophylaxis?
a. Endodontic treatment beyond the apex b. Extractions c. Initial placement of implants d. Restorative dental procedures like a crown preparation. |
d
|
|
|
41. Leukemia can lead to all of these oral changes EXCEPT:
a. Bleeding gums b. Recurrent caries c. Oral fungal infection (candidiasis) d. Periodontal disease |
b
|
|
|
42. Bleeding problems can be caused by all EXCEPT:
a. HIV infection b. Medications c. Diabetes mellitus d. Liver problems |
c
|
|
|
43. The immunodeficient state associated with HIV infection is due primarily to the virus effect on:
a. B lymphocytes b. Macrophages c. T lymphocytes (helper) d. T lymphocytes (suppressor) |
c
|
|
|
44. Which term refers to the fact that the body tries to rid itself of disease?
a.Auto-immunity b.Allergies c.Host response d.Trauma |
c
|
|
|
45. Which of the following is NOT a long-term complication due to Diabetes?
a. Hypertension b. Retinopathy c. Deafness d. Blindness e. Strokes |
c
|
|
|
46. Words that end in “itis”, such as bronchitis, always signify that what pathology or problem is going on?
a. Allergic reaction b. Infection c. Inflammation d. Swelling |
c
|
|
|
47. Dyspnea means:
a.Lack of thyroid function b.Difficult breathing c.Poor circulation d.Altered hearing |
b
|
|
|
48. A stroke or “brain attack” is caused by what?
a.Blocked or blown out blood vessel in the brain b.Seizure c.Hypercholosterolemia d.Diabetes |
a
|
|
|
49. What type of medication used in dentistry may put a patient with a cardiovascular problem especially hypertension, at risk?
a.Epinephrine b.Codeine c.Erythromycin d.Propoxyphene |
a
|
|
|
50. Coumadin is a common anticoagulant given to prevent blood clots in patients that have had heart attacks or strokes. What test should be run to evaluate the patient’s anticoagulation status, if they are taking Coumadin?
a.INR b.Platelet aggregation potential c.Bleeding time d.PTT |
a
|
|
|
51. A patient with severe kidney disease is prone to what type of lesion in the oral cavity?
a.Non healing ulcers b.Lichen planus c.Multiple fibromas d.Oral cancer |
a
|
|
|
52. Name a medication or type of medication that can suppress the body’s immune system.
a.Calcium channel blockers b.Antiretroviral drugs c.Parasympatholytics d.Chemotherapeutic agents |
d
|
|
|
53.What lab test best evaluates renal functions?
a.Bilirubin levels b.Creatine Clearance c.Fasting blood sugar d.Gamma globulin titers |
b
|
|
|
54. The best definition of a myocardial infarction is:
a.A disturbance in the heart conduction system b.Ischemic necrosis of heart muscle c.Bacterial infection of the heart d.Abnormal heart sound resulting from a damaged heart valve |
b
|
|
|
55. Your patient complains reports that she takes nitroglycerin for periodic chest pain. Her condition is best characterized as:
a.Myocardial infarction b.Congenital heart defect c.Infective endocarditis d.Angina pectoris |
d
|
|
|
56. Your patient has asthma. What advise should you give the patient prior to dental visits?
a.Bring your medication to the appointment b.Avoid medication for 24 hours prior to the visit. c.Do not eat prior to the appointment d.Take prophylactic antibiotics prior to the appointment |
a
|
|
|
57. All of the following are oral conditions associated with HIV infection except one. Which is the EXCEPTION:
a.Hairy leukoplakia b.Geographic tongue c.Kaposi’s sarcoma d.Candidiasis |
b
|
|
|
58. The accumulation of lipid plaques in the walls of the arterial blood vessels best describes which of the following:
a.Hypertension b.Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease c.Atherosclerosis d.Diabetes mellitus |
c
|
|
|
59.Excessive aspirin can affect:
a.The stickiness of platelets b.Factor VIII levels c.The extrinsic pathway d.The intrinsic pathway e.Both extrinsic and intrinsic pathways |
a
|
|
|
60. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate question during health history reviews?
a.Do you have a heart murmur? b.Do you have any allergies? c.Any medications? d.Anything you haven’t told me that I should know about your health? e.None of the above |
e
|
|
|
61. What is the difference between a sign and a symptom?
a. A doctor can see a symptom just by looking at the patient b. The patient must tell the doctor a sign s/he has, because the doctor can’t see it c. The doctor can see a sign that the patient has d. None of the above |
c
|
|
|
62. A common oral problem in pregnant patients is:
a. Gingival hyperplasia b. Pyogenic granulomas c. Candidiasis d. Aphthous ulcers |
b
|
|
|
63. What term characterizes the coughing up of sputum?
a. Non productive b. Hemoptysis c. Productive d. Dyspnea |
c
|
|
|
64. How long should you wait to do elective dentistry on a patient after a myocardial infarction?
a. 1 month b. 2 months c. 6 months d. 2 years |
c
|
|
|
65. What is the primary disease associated with hairy leukoplakia?
a. HIV b. Kidney problems c. Congestive heart failure d. Heart murmur |
a
|
|
|
66. Of the following, which is a concern when treating a patient with bleeding problems?
a. Bleeding time greater than 10 minutes b. Platelet count less than 60, 000 c. PTT greater than 2.8 d. INR greater than 3.5 e. All of the above |
e
|
|
|
67. Nitroglycerine is used to treat which of the following diseases?
a) Diabetes b) Congestive heart failure c) Angina d) Pulmonary edema |
c
|
|
|
68. All of the following should be taken into consideration when dealing with a patient who has a history of kidney problems EXCEPT:
a) Creatine clearance rate b) Dosage of erythromycin c) Toxicity of acetaminophen d) Dosage of penicillin you give |
b
|
|
|
69. When a patient presents with kidney dysfunction, the dentist must be alert for:
a. Hepatitis b. Decreased salivary flow c. Periapical problems d. Poor healing and oral ulcerations |
d
|
|
|
70. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
a. Allergy – high fever b. Neoplasia – benign or malignant tumor c. Papillary growth – pedunculated d. Dysphonia – vocal cord paralysis |
a
|
|
|
71. Nutritional deficiencies, endocrine dysfunction and enzyme deficiencies all fall into which category of the M.I.N.D pneumonic?
a. Metabolic b. Inflammatory c. Neoplasia d. Developmental |
a
|
|
|
72. When is the best time to perform dental treatment on a patient on dialysis due to end stage renal disease?
a. No special time, anytime is good b. Two days prior to dialysis c. The day after dialysis d. The same day as dialysis |
c
|
|
|
73. The acronym COPD is associated with the diagnosis of all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Emphysema b. Pneumonia c. Eczema d. Asthma |
c
|
|
|
74. A crackling, crepitus sounds of the lungs when listened to with a stethoscope are called?
a. Rales and ronchi b. Pneumonia c. Bronchitis d. Tuberculosis |
a
|
|
|
75. What does the term “pedunculated” mean (when describing a tumor)?
a. A circular shaped tumor b. A small tumor c. A mass on a large (wide) base d. A mass on a narrow (stem) |
d
|
|
|
Bleeding problems are associated with all of the following except:
a. Periodontal disease b. Fungal Infections c. Bleeding problems d. Doesn’t have any affect on recurrent caries |
d
|
|
|
Thrombocytopenia:
|
Presence of relatively few platelets in blood
|
|
|
Leukocytosis vs. Leukopenia:
|
Leukocytosis: increased number of WBCs whereas in leukopenia there are decreased number of WBCs
|
|
|
76. Which patient presents the greatest risk if you are planning an endodontic procedure?
a. A man who had a Myocardial Infarction 9 months ago b. A man experiencing angina during moderate exercise c. A woman with moderate congestive heart failure d. A woman with uncontrolled hypertension e. You can treat all |
d
|
|
|
77. Cardiac compensation is done by all EXCEPT:
a. Increased heart rate b. Hyperapnea c. Enlarged heart (hypertrophy) d. Increased blood pressure |
b
|
|
|
78. Right side cardiac failure will cause:
a. Orthopnea and dyspnea b. Peripheral edema c. Rales d. End stage renal disease |
b
|
|
|
79. Immunosuppressant drugs that may be used in heart transplant patients may lead to which oral cavity problem:
a. Yeast (candida infection) b. Periodontal disease c. Advanced caries d. Has no oral effect |
a
|
|
|
80. Patients take daily low dose (30mg/day) of aspirin to:
a. Prevent dyspnea b. Prevent blood clots c. Prevent inflammatory pain d. To insure adequate clotting |
b
|
|
|
81. Which lipoprotein is the Highly Desirable one, reducing your risk of heart problems?
a. HDL -- high density lipoprotein b. LDL -- low density lipoprotein c. VLDL -- very low density lipoprotein d. VD -- very dense (describes the person who missed the hint given in the question) |
a
|
|
|
82. Angina pectoris is a sign of:
a. Kidney failure b. Bleeding in the chest from COPD c. Heart failure (ischemia) d. Intercostal muscle spasms |
c
|
|
|
83. Bradycardia is when:
a. The heart goes slower than normal b. The bronchial arch is malformed c. When the heart starts to flutter d. Another term for syncope |
a
|
|
|
84. All are appropriate steps for emergency treatment of angina in the dental office EXCEPT:
a. Stop dental procedure treatment b. Vasodilation c. Oxygen d. Defibrillation |
d
|
|
|
85. What is the most important first step in helping a patient having a heart attack?
a. Recognizing the symptoms b. Acting immediately — grab the defibrillator c. Calling 911 and giving the patient an aspirin d. Starting CPR |
a
|
|
|
86. What is the amount of epinephrine in a standard cartridge of 2% lidocaine 1:100,000 epinephrine?
a. 8 mg / cartridge b. 18 mg / cartridge c. 36 mg / cartridge d. 180 mg / cartridge |
Correct Answer was not given; it is: 0.018 mg / cartridge
|
|
|
87. Which of the following medications can be prescribed for a patient allergic to amoxicillan (penicillin) to prophylax the patient against infectious endocarditis for dental procedures?
a. Cephalexin b. Clindamycin c. Arithromycin d. Any of the above can be prescribed |
b
|
|
|
88. Platelet aggregation due to loss of endothelium in the blood vessels creates a(an):
a. Bolus b. Fundus c. Thrombus d. Activase |
c
|
|
|
89. Thrombocytopenia can cause:
a. Severe infection b. Increased risk of fungal disease c. Bleeding problems d. Factor VII deficiency |
c
|
|
|
90. Petechiae are suggestive of / associated with:
a. Hemangiomas b. Kidney disease c. Bronchial dilation d. Platelet problems |
d
|
|
|
91. Leukemia can lead to all of the problems below EXCEPT:
a. Bleeding problems b. Bacterial Infections c. Fungal infections d. Immunosupression e. Increased decay rate |
e
|
|
|
92. The International Normalized Ratio (INR) measures/ evaluates:
a. The prothrombin time ( PT) ( extrinsic system) b. The partial thrombopastin time (PTT) (intrinsic system) c. Extent of anemia d. Bleeding time |
a
|
|
|
93. Red pinpoint bruise/submucosal bleeding markings in the mouth are called:
a. Lacunae b. Perimechatemi c. Petechiae d. Alopecia |
c
|
|
|
94. Which of the following is NOT a white blood cell disorder?
a. Leukopenia b. Leukemia c. Lymphoma d. Anemia |
d
|
|
|
95. Dr. M.O. Andalaymama checked off the following on his patient's health history form. Which is least likely to be associated with a bleeding problem?
a. Medications used to prevent strokes b. Excessive alcohol intake c. Swollen ankles secondary to congestive heart failure d. Hepatitis |
c
|
|
|
96. Aplastic anemia is defined as the failure to produce:
a. RBC's b. WBC's c. Platelets d. All of the above |
d
|
|
|
97. What is another name for "coughing up blood"?
a. Hemoptysis b. Melena c. Hematuria d. Petechiae |
a
|
|
|
98. Which of the following is a white blood cell disease?
a. Clotting factor disorders b. Platelet disorders c. Leukemia d. Anemia |
c
|
|
|
99. The following choices are associated with coagulation factor disorders. Which of these is incorrectly paired?
a. Hereditary defect — Hemophilia b. Liver disease — cirrhosis c. Anti-coagulant medication — Heparin d. GI malabsorption problem — Vitamin C deficiency |
d
|
|
|
100. Thrombocytopenia is:
a. Decrease in the number of platelets b. Increase in the number of platelets c. Normal number of platelets, but defect in platelet function d. Abnormal number and defect in function |
a
|
|
|
101. Which of the following does NOT make a person more vulnerable to infection?
a. Leukemia b. HIV c. Organ transplant d. Jaundice |
d
|
|
|
102. Which is not a clinical manifestation of someone with a bleeding disorder?
a. Syncope b. Spontaneous gingival bleeding c. Petechiae d. Ecchymoses |
a
|
|
|
103. Hematologic diseases affecting white blood cell dysfunction or deficiency include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Leukemia b. Leukoplakia c. Leukopenia d. Lymphoma |
b
|
|
|
104. Which is incorrectly matched?
a. Cirrhosis ― Scarring of the liver b. Prothrombin ― Made in the liver c. Hepatobiliary disease ― Caused by a virus d. Jaundice ― Yellowing of the skin and whitening of the eyes |
c
|
|
|
105. Jaundice is usually first seen in the:
a. Skin b. Whites of the eyes c. Oral mucosa d. Nails |
b
|
|
|
106. What is Ecchymosis?
a. Gingival bleeding b. Bleeding subcutaneously (a bruise) c. Bacterial infection of the inner ear d. Swollen gums |
b
|
|
|
107. Which of the following is TRUE concerning (viral) hepatitis:
a. Hepatitis C is enteric related b. Hepatitis A has a carrier state c. Hepatitis C has a carrier state d. Hepatitis B is a DNA virus |
c and d
|
|
|
108. Which of the following is NOT a cause of liver disease:
a. Toxins b. Infections c. Bile Excretions/Disturbance d. Tumors e. Hormone imbalance |
e
|
|
|
109. Which vitamin is used in prothrombin production?
a. K b. B c. C d. A |
a
|
|
|
110. On the medical history form, which is NOT a "red flag" for liver disease?
a. Blood transfusions b. Alcohol c. Jaundice d. Easily broken bones |
d
|
|
|
111. Which of the following is toxic to the liver:
e. Penicillin f. Acetaminophen g. Amoxicillan h. Clindamycin |
f
|
|
|
112. Which of the following is NOT produced by the liver?
a. Globulin b. Aldosterone c. Prothrombin d. Clotting factors |
b
|
|
|
113. Jaundice is a complication of the liver caused by:
a. Low WBC count b. Low RBC count c. High levels of bilirubin d. Low levels of glucose |
c
|
|
|
114. In considering liver disease, which of the following is of most concern relative to dental treatment:
a. Anesthetic dosage b. Duration of antibiotic treatment c. Type of antibiotic prescribed d. Bleeding problems |
d
|
|
|
115. All of the following are oral complications of long-standing diabetic patients EXCEPT:
a. Xerostomia b. Candidiasis c. Renal Failure d. Delayed wound healing |
c
|
|
|
116. Which of the following is associated with insulin shock?
a. Too little insulin b. Too much insulin c. Too much glucose in the blood d. Ketoacidosis |
b
|
|
|
117. All of the following is true of Type I insulin dependent Diabetes Mellitus (IDDM) EXCEPT:
a. Occurs in 10% of the population b. Is seen in younger, fragile patients c. Treated by oral hypoglycemic medication d. Requires insulin replacement |
c
|
|
|
118. What is the most important question to ask a diabetic patient?
a. When was your last dental visit? b. Is your diabetic condition well controlled? c. Do you have high blood pressure? d. Do you have a genetic factor contributing to your diabetes? |
b
|
|
|
119. Choose the incorrect pairing
a. Pancreas ― Insulinoma/Diabetes Mellitus b. Thyroid ― Hyper / Hypothyroidism c. Parathyroid ― Cushing's Syndrome/Addison's Disease d. Pituitary ― Gigantism/Dwarfism |
c
|
|
|
120. Oral freckles are most commonly associated with:
a. Tobacco abuse b. Fungus infection c. Endocrine dysfunction d. Age |
c
|
|
|
121. The following are tests diagnostic Diabetes Mellitus EXCEPT:
a. Fasting Blood Glucose b. CD4 T-helper cell count c. Glucose Tolerance Test d. Fructosamine Test |
b
|
|
|
122. Which of the following is NOT a complication associated with a patient having Diabetes Mellitus:
a. Xerostomia b. Candidiasis c. Delayed wound healing d. Hairy leukoplakia |
d
|
|
|
123. Endocrine glands:
a. Metabolize sugars b. Process proteins c. Secrete hormones d. Inhibit blood clotting |
c
|
|
|
124. The disease Diabetes Mellitus results from: (read the answers closely; only one is correct as a cause for the disease)
a. Excess insulin production b. Eating too much sucrose c. Cell's inability to utilize insulin d. Lytic lesion in osseous tissue |
c
|
|
|
125. The 3 "polys" associated with diabetics are all EXCEPT:
a. Polyuria b. Polydipsia c. Polyposis d. Polyphagia |
c
|
|
|
126. Diabetes lab test results often show all EXCEPT:
a. Glucosuria b. Hyperglycemia c. Hyperlipidemia d. Hypercalcinemia |
d
|
|
|
127. Two-hour postprandial blood glucose is a measure used to diagnose diabetes. The test is taken 2 hours after:
a. Waking up in the morning b. Drinking glucola c. Urinating d. Eating |
d
|
|
|
128. A test used to evaluate diabetics to see how well controlled they are over the long-term (2-3 months) is:
a. Glucose tolerance test b. Glycosylated hemoglobin c. Fructosamine d. 2 hour postprandial |
b
|
|
|
129. Insulin shock comes from
a. Hypoglycemia b. Polyphagia c. Eating too much d. Ketoacidosis |
a
|
|
|
130. Diabetes often results in all of the below EXCEPT:
a. Hypertension b. Diabetic retinopathy c. Diabetic neuropathy d. None of the above |
d
|
|
|
131. Oral problems related to diabetes include all EXCEPT:
a. Poor wound healing b. Increased periodontal problems c. Candidasis d. Multiple cyst formation |
d
|
|
|
132. Lytic lesions (radiolucent, holes) in bone are most commonly found in:
a. Hyperparathyroidism b. Diabetes c. Cushing's Syndrome d. Hyperthyroidism e. Addison's disease (Hypoadrenal cortex secretion) |
a
|
|
|
149. The following are symptoms of Congestive Heart Failure (CHF) EXCEPT:
a. Swollen ankles b. Shortness of breath c. Drowsiness d. Coughing e. All of the above are symptoms of CHF |
a
|
|
|
150. When is the best time to perform dental treatment on a patient on dialysis due to end stage renal disease?
a. No special time, anytime is good b. Two days prior to dialysis c. The day after dialysis d. The same day as dialysis |
c
|
|
|
151. Common signs and symptoms of chronic obstruction pulmonary disease are the following EXCEPT:
a. Emphysema b. Smoking c. Dyspnea d.Hemoptysis |
b
|
|
|
152. You have an eighteen-year-old girl in your practice with gum problems and easy fatigue. You are concerned about leukemia, what lab test should be run?
a. SMA 20 b. CBC with differential c. Viral load d. Bleeding time |
b
|
|
|
153. Your patient has severe liver disease. What problems would you be worried about when doing dental extractions?
a. Fainting b. Poor healing c. Bleeding d. Drug metabolism |
c
|
|
|
154. Words that end in “itis”, such as bronchitis, always signify that what pathology or problem is going on?
a. Allergic reaction b. Infection c. Inflammation d. Swelling |
c
|
|
|
155. Dyspnea means
a. Lack of thyroid function b. Difficult breathing c. Poor circulation d. Altered hearing |
b
|
|
|
156. A stroke or “brain attack” is caused by what?
a. Blocked or blown out blood vessel in the brain b. Seizure c. Hypercholosterolemia d. Diabetes |
a
|
|
|
157. Left sided congestive heart failure causes fluids to back up in what location in the body?
a. Lungs b. Ankles c. Brain d. Peritoneal cavity |
a
|
|
|
158. Name a type of medication used to treat high blood pressure?
a. Digitalis b. Hypoglycemic c. Calcium Channel Blockers d. Thyroxin |
c
|
|
|
159. What type of medication used in dentistry may put a patient with a cardiovascular problem especially hypertension, at risk?
a. Epinephrine b. Codeine c. Erythromycin d. Propoxyphene |
a
|
|
|
160. A properly functioning liver is important to ensure there are no problems with what in the oral cavity?
a. Bleeding b. Mucosal sloughing c. Viral infections d. Recurrent aphthous ulcers |
a
|
|
|
161. Coumadin is a common anticoagulant given to prevent blood clots in patients that have had heart attacks or strokes. What test should be run to evaluate the patient’s anticoagulation status, if they are taking Coumadin?
a. INR b. Platelet aggregation potential c. Bleeding time d. PTT |
a
|
|
|
162. Thrombocytopenia is a problem with what part of the blood?
a. Macrophage b. Platelets c. Monocytes d. Anemia |
b
|
|
|
163. What drug used in dentistry is primarily excreted by the kidney?
a. Digitalis b. Penicillin c. Ketoconazol d. Acetaminophen |
b
|
|
|
133. Inability of the body to respond to the physiologic stress of a surgical procedure is most commonly related to:
a. Hyperparathyroidism b. Diabetes c. Cushing's Syndrome d. Hyperthyroidism e. Addison's disease (Hypo adrenal cortex secretion) |
e
|
|
|
134. Mental deterioration with impaired memory and judgement with widespread changes in personality and behavior and disorientation of space and time. This is a definition of:
a. paralysis b. neuralgias d. dementia e. stroke |
d
|
|
|
135. Seizures are often proceeded by:
a. disorientation b. slurring of speech c. mood change d. all of the above |
d
|
|
|
136. Which of the following medications DOES NOT cause gingival hyperplasia?
a. Tegretol b. Cyclosporin A c. Calcium channel blockers d. Dilantin |
a
|
|
|
137. What word is used to describe the forceful involuntary contraction of voluntary muscles, regardless of the cause?
a. seizure b. convulsion c. epilepsy d. trets syndrome |
b
|
|
|
138. Epilepsy is all of the below EXCEPT:
a. a spontaneous, uncontrollable, excessive discharge of cerebral neurons b. forceful involuntary contractions of voluntary muscles c. a chronic recurrent condition of seizures d. mental deterioration with impaired memory and judgement |
d
|
|
|
139. What is an aura relative to seizure disorders?
a. migraines b. clinical sign c. subjective symptom d. blank stare |
c
|
|
|
140. Multiple sclerosis is a disease where the immune system attacks the:
a. myelin sheath of nerves b. dermis of the skin c. retina of the eye d. nephrons of the kidney |
a
|
|
|
141. What primary muscular disease entails muscles that don’t work well enough (underdo)?
a. Bell's Palsy b. Parkinson's disease c. Petit Mal seizures d. Myasthenia gravis |
d
|
|
|
142. A dentist's main concern relative to blood borne infectious diseases is:
a. Hepatitis B & Hepatitis C b. Hepatitis A c. Hepatitis B & Hepatitis D d. Hepatitis A & Hepatitis B |
a
|
|
|
143. Which of the following conditions or diseases is an autoimmune disease?
a. Lupus Erythematosis b. Scleroderma c. All of above d. Blisters on skin and in mouth |
a or c
|
|
|
144. What do you call a severe allergic response that causes massive release of histamines with resulting closure of bronchioles and dilation of blood vessels and difficulty breathing?
a. Chancre b. Molecular mimicry c. Miliary response d. Anaphylactic shock |
d
|
|
|
145. The immunodeficient state associated with HIV infection is due primarily to the virus effect on:
a. B lymphocytes b. Macrophages c. T lymphocytes (helper) CD4 d. T lymphocytes (suppressor) CD8 |
c
|
|
|
146. Which term refers to the fact that the body tries to rid itself of disease?
a. auto-immunity b. allergies c. host response d. trauma |
c
|
|
|
147. Which of the following infection diseases are of most concern to dental professionals – e.g.: easiest to catch?
a. TB b. Hepatitis B c. HIV/AIDS d. Syphilis |
a
|
|
|
148. All of the following raise a concern about bleeding problems EXCEPT:
a. Impaired kidney function b. Vitamin K deficiency c. Ecchymoses d. Coumarin therapy |
a or c
|
|
|
149. The following are symptoms of Congestive Heart Failure (CHF) EXCEPT:
a. Swollen ankles b. Shortness of breath c. Drowsiness d. Coughing e. All of the above are symptoms of CHF |
e
|
|
|
150. When is the best time to perform dental treatment on a patient on dialysis due to end stage renal disease?
a. No special time, anytime is good b. Two days prior to dialysis c. The day after dialysis d. The same day as dialysis |
c
|
|
|
151. Common signs and symptoms of chronic obstruction pulmonary disease are the following EXCEPT:
a. Emphysema b. Smoking c. Dyspnea d. Hemoptysis |
b
|
|
|
152. You have an eighteen-year-old girl in your practice with gum problems and easy fatigue. You are concerned about leukemia, what lab test should be run?
a. SMA 20 b. CBC with differential c. Viral load d. Bleeding time |
b
|
|
|
153. Your patient has severe liver disease. What problems would you be worried about when doing dental extractions?
a. Fainting b. Poor healing c. Bleeding d. Drug metabolism |
c
|
|
|
154. Words that end in “itis”, such as bronchitis, always signify that what pathology or problem is going on?
a. Allergic reaction b. Infection c. Inflammation d. Swelling |
c
|
|
|
155. Dyspnea means
a. Lack of thyroid function b. Difficult breathing c. Poor circulation d. Altered hearing |
b
|
|
|
156. A stroke or “brain attack” is caused by what?
a. Blocked or blown out blood vessel in the brain b. Seizure c. Hypercholosterolemia d. Diabetes |
a
|
|
|
157. Left sided congestive heart failure causes fluids to back up in what location in the body?
a. Lungs b. Ankles c. Brain d. Peritoneal cavity |
a
|
|
|
158. Name a type of medication used to treat high blood pressure?
a. Digitalis b. Hypoglycemic c. Calcium Channel Blockers d. Thyroxin |
c
|
|
|
159. What type of medication used in dentistry may put a patient with a cardiovascular problem especially hypertension, at risk?
a. Epinephrine b. Codeine c. Erythromycin d. Propoxyphene |
a
|
|
|
160. A properly functioning liver is important to ensure there are no problems with what in the oral cavity?
a. Bleeding b. Mucosal sloughing c. Viral infections d. Recurrent aphthous ulcers |
a
|
|
|
161. Coumadin is a common anticoagulant given to prevent blood clots in patients that have had heart attacks or strokes. What test should be run to evaluate the patient’s anticoagulation status, if they are taking Coumadin?
a. INR b. Platelet aggregation potential c. Bleeding time d. PTT |
a
|
|
|
162. Thrombocytopenia is a problem with what part of the blood?
a. Macrophage b. Platelets c. Monocytes d. Anemia |
b
|
|
|
163. What drug used in dentistry is primarily excreted by the kidney?
a. Digitalis b. Penicillin c. Ketoconazol d. Acetaminophen |
b
|
|
|
164. A patient with severe kidney disease is prone to what type of lesion in the oral cavity?
a. Non healing ulcers b. Lichen planus c. Multiple fibromas d. Oral cancer |
a
|
|
|
165. Name an oral problem commonly associated with diabetes?
a. Periodontal disease b. Mucosal cysts c. Geographic stomatitis d. Bleeding |
a
|
|
|
166. Diabetic patients have the greatest risk of going into what type of shock during a stressful or long dental appointment?
a. Hypotensive b. Traumatic c. Hypoglycemic d. Hyperglycemic |
c
|
|
|
167. Name a medication or type of medication that can suppress the body’s immune system.
a. Calcium channel blockers b. Antiretroviral drugs c. Parasympatholytics d. Chemotherapeutic agents |
d
|
|
|
168. The white cells are the mediator of the body’s immune system and fight infection. When the white cells fall below what number should you not do any elective dental therapy?
a. 500 b. 1000 c. 2000 d. 5000 |
c
|
|
|
169. What is the most common oral infection associate with immunosuppression?
a. Viral infections b. Fungal infections (candida) c. Streptococci d. Ketoconazol |
b
|
|
|
170. The word for low thyroid function is?
a. Grave’s disease b. Hypothyroid c. Thyrocytogenia d. Lowdahhpenia |
b
|
|
|
171. The parathyroid glands regulate what body element?
a. Calcium b. Magnesium c. Sodium d. Protein |
a
|
|
|
172. Anybody with a blood pressure of ____________ or higher is considered hypertensive?
a. 120/70 b. 140/80 c. 140/90 d. 160/110 |
c
|
|
|
173. What lab test best evaluates renal function?
a. Bilirubin levels b. Creatine Clearance c. Fasting blood sugar d. Gamma globulin titers |
b
|
|
|
174. Cirrhosis may occur as a result of:
a. Alcohol abuse b. Biliary obstruction c. Viral infections d. Chemical toxins e. All of the above |
e
|
|
|
175. The term to describe the spitting up of blood is:
a. Hematuria b. Hemarthrosis c. Ecchymosis d. Hematemesis e. Epistaxis |
d
|
|
|
176. All of the following are risk factors for coronary atherosclerosis except:
a. High level of HDL b. Cigarette smoking c. Hypertension d. Obesity e. Physical inactivity |
a
|
|
|
177. Stable angina pectoris symptoms can be initiated by:
a. Exercise b. Emotional stress c. Smoking d. All of the above e. None of the above |
d
|
|
|
178. The drug of choice for preventing bacterial endocarditis is amoxicillin. Your patient is allergic to amoxicillin you would therefore give:
a. Penicillin b. Clindamycin c. Erythromycin d. Tetracycline e. None of the above |
b
|
|
|
179. Your next patient marks on her medical history that she has a heart murmur but does not know whether it is a non-organic or organic murmur. The best treatment plan would be:
a. Proceed as though it was a non-organic murmur b. Proceed as though it were an organic murmur c. Refer to her physician to determine the exact cause of the murmur. d. Perform an auscultation on the patient to determine the type of murmur e. None of the above |
c
|
|
|
180. The best definition of a myocardial infarction is:
a. A disturbance in the heart conduction system b. Ischemic necrosis of heart muscle c. Bacterial infection of the heart d. Abnormal heart sound resulting from a damaged heart valve |
b
|
|
|
181. The pathogenic classification of disease includes which of the following?
a. Inflammatory b. Neoplastic c. Developmental d. Metabolic e. All of the above |
e
|
|
|
182. End stage renal disease (ESRD):
a. Is reversible (can be cured) in most patients b. Is usually caused by stress c. Eventually requires dialysis and/or renal transplant d. Is the same as renal failure with uremia |
c
|
|
|
183. The immunodeficiency state associated with HIV infection is due primarily to the virus’s effect on:
a. B-lymphocytes b. T-lymphocytes (helper – type_ c. T-lymphocytes (suppresser – type) d. Macrophages |
b
|
|
|
184. Your patient complains reports that she takes nitroglycerin for periodic chest pain. Her condition is best characterized as:
a. Myocardial infarction b. Congenital heart defect c. Infective endocarditis d. Angina pectoris |
d
|
|
|
185. In the medical history your patient reports that he is taking a “thiazide diuretic.” Which of the following conditions would you suspect he is being treated for?
a. Pneumocystis pneumonia b. Chronic renal failure c. Infective endocarditis d. Hypertension |
d
|
|
|
186. Your patient has asthma. What advise should you give the patient prior to dental visits?
a. Bring your medication to the appointment b. Avoid medication for 24 hours prior to the visit. c. Do not eat prior to the appointment d. Take prophylactic antibiotics prior to the appointment |
a
|
|
|
187. All of the following are oral conditions associated with HIV infection except one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
a. Hairy leukoplakia b. Geographic tongue c. Kaposi’s sarcoma d. Candidiasis |
b
|
|
|
188. The accumulation of lipid plaques in the walls of the arterial blood vessels best describes which of the following?
a. Hypertension b. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease c. Atherosclerosis d. Diabetes mellitus |
c
|
|
|
189. Excessive aspirin can affect
a. The stickiness of platelets b. Factor VIII levels c. The extrinsic pathway d. The intrinsic pathway e. Both extrinsic and intrinsic pathways |
a
|
|
|
190. Your best weapon(s) in treatment planning and minimizing any medical complications relative to dental treatment:
a. Your intelligence and knowledge b. Health history c. Health history interview d. All of the above |
d
|
|
|
191. What is the side effect a patient may experience whose hypertension is controlled with calcium channel blockers like Nefidipine:
a. Low salivary flow b. Bleeding hyperplastic gums c. Nervousness d. Weight loss |
b
|
|
|
192. A patient presents in your office for an extraction of a 3rd molar. The patient has been HIV positive for 5 years. He has no primary or secondary problem associated with HIV and is taking no medications. Before treatment you should:
a. Request a medical consult b. Prescribe premedications for the patient c. Proceed with no modification of dental treatment d. Request and review the patients’ most recent lab results. |
d
|
|
|
193. Which of the following is not an appropriate question during health history reviews:
a. Do you have a heart murmur b. Do you have any allergies c. Any medications d. Anything you haven’t told me that I should know about your health e. None of the above |
e
|
|
|
194. Which of the following would lead you to believe a patient may be at risk for congestive heart failure:
a. Contact lens b. Sinus problems c. Swollen ankles d. Hepatitis B |
c
|
|
|
195. If you have an AIDS patient with CD4 count of 250 and you have planned to do 3 extracts, what should you most be concerned about?
a. Bacterial infection b. Bleeding problems c. Healing rate d. Timing |
b
|
|
|
196. For patients that are pregnant, when should you do the necessary dental work?
a. Anytime before the 8th month b. No treatment is appropriate when a patient is pregnant c. 1st trimester/ 1st half of 3rd d. 2nd trimester/ 1st half of 3rd |
d
|
|
|
197. What is the difference between a sign and a symptom?
a. A doctor can see a symptom just by looking at the patient b. The patient must tell the doctor a sign s/he has, because the doctor can’t see it c. The doctor can see a sign that the patient has d. None of the above |
c
|
|
|
198. Bleeding problem can occur secondary to
a. Impaired liver function b. Low numbers of platelets c. Medications that interfere with coagulation factors d. Systemic diseases that destroy platelets e. All of the above |
e
|
|
|
199. A clinical sign of bleeding problems is:
a. Patient’s muscles and joints are sore after physical exercise b. Patient has dizziness after climbing stairs c. Patient has easy bruising or multiple bruises and they do not remember traumatizing the area d. Patient is taking aspirin |
c
|
|
|
200. A patient who is at risk for bacterial endocarditis should be alert for certain symptoms following a dental procedure, even if they have been properly prophylaxed. These symptoms are most easily described as
a. Stiff joints b. Flu-like symptoms of tiredness, fever and generally feeling poor c. Nausea and diarrhea d. Vertigo and memory loss |
b
|
|
|
201. A clinical manifestation of inadequate oxygenation of the heart, for any reason, could include:
a. Angina Pectoris (pain in the chest) b. Stroke c. Seizure d. Congestive heart failure |
a
|
|
|
202. Patients with diabetes may have all of the below oral problems, secondary to the diabetes, EXCEPT:
a. Periodontal disease b. Poor healing c. Candidiasis d. Extensive dental decay |
d
|
|
|
203. Precautions to take with the diabetic patient relative to dental treatment include all of the below EXCEPT:
a. Patient to have eaten a balanced meal within two hours before the appointment. b. Patient to have taken their medication or insulin on the proper schedule c. Early morning appointments tend to be the best d. They should be allowed to rinse with a clorhexidine rinse to decrease bacterial infections |
d
|
|
|
204. No elective dental treatment should be done if a patient’s:
a. T-lymphocytes count is below 500 b. If their platelets levels are 150,000 or above c. If their white cell count is below 2,000 d. If their blood glucose levels are between 80 to 100 mg percent |
c
|
|
|
205. Liver pathology (problems) can be caused by all of the below reasons EXCEPT:
a. Prolonged alcohol abuse b. Viral infections of the liver (viral hepatitis) c. Chronic thrombocytopenia d. Toxicity from certain organic solvents |
c
|
|
|
206. A common oral problem in pregnant patients is
a. Gingival hyperplasia b. Pyogenic granulomas c. Candidiasis d. Aphthous ulcers |
b
|
|
|
207. After treatment, the patient, who takes medication to control his hypertension stands up and promptly falls backwards. What is the most probable cause?
a. Postural hypotension b. Not enough blood sugar level c. Insomnia d. Diabetes e. Inner ear infection |
a
|
|
|
208. What is a major concern for dental treatment of a patient who has recently had a kidney transplant?
a. Hypertension b. Frequent urination c. When was their last dialysis d. Opportunistic infections as a result of immunosuppression |
c
|
|
|
209. Which of the following is not a dental management procedure for a patient with a renal disease?
a. Avoidance of Acetaminophens b. Alter dosage of drugs excreted by kidney c. Schedule appointment of the day after dialysis d. Be alert for signs of diabetes mellitus |
d
|
|
|
210. What is a symptom of hypertension?
Peter J. Note: Pay attention! This has the potential to be a trick question. Be clear about the difference between a sign and symptom. a. High blood pressure b. Dizziness c. Excessive bleeding d. Swollen ankles |
b
|
|
|
211. The best treatment for a dental patient having an asthma attack is:
a. Sit the patient upright b. Let the patient use their inhaler c. Give them O2 d. Give them a valium injection to relax them and relieve the anxiety |
b
|
|
|
212. A patient with severe smphysema should not be given which drug below:
a. Antibiotics b. Valium c. Nitrous oxide d. Aspirin based analgesics |
b
|
|
|
213. Which of the following is not a result of cigarette smoking?
a. Tuberculosis b. Bronchitis c. Emphysema d. Neoplasms |
a
|
|
|
214. What term characterizes the coughing up of sputum?
a. Non productive b. Hemoptysis c. Productive d. Dyspnea |
c
|
|
|
215. Rales and Ronchin refer to:
a. The two scientists that invented the respirator b. Sounds made by heart during certain pathogenic processes c. Gurgling and popping sounds in the lungs caused by fluid accumulation d. None of the above |
c
|
|
|
216. How long should you wait to do elective dentistry on a patient after a myocardial infarction?
a. 1 month b. 2 months c. 6 months d. 2 years |
c
|
|
|
217. What is the definition of syncope?
a. Shortness of breath b. Fainting c. Increased heart rate d. Swelling in the ankles |
b
|
|
|
218. What is Cyanosis?
a. Lack of O2 to tissues b. Dizziness c. Death of tissue d. A term of swollen nasal tissue |
a
|
|
|
219. Normal heart rate is approximately between 68-72. A heart rate below 50 beats per minute is called:
a. Tachycardia b. Bradycardia c. Arrhythmia d. None of the above |
b
|
|
|
220. Which best reflects diabetes control over the short term (last 2-3 weeks)?
a. Fructosamine test b. Howlengs test c. Glycosylated hemoglobin test d. Both (a) and (c) |
a
|
|
|
221. A complete blood count (CBC) with a different report test for all of the following except:
a. White blood count b. Viral load c. Platelets d. Hematocrit % |
b
|
|
|
222. For a patient on renal dialysis, dental treatment should be done:
a. 2 days before dialysis b. Same day as dialysis c. The day following dialysis d. Patient can’t receive dental treatment at all while on dental dialysis |
c
|
|
|
223. Enlargement of the heart is called:
a. Hypertrophy b. Tachycardia c. Dystrophy d. Congestive Heart Disease |
a
|
|
|
224. A patient walks into the office and says that she has a sore spot on her gums. The sore spot could be categorized under:
a. Neoplastic disease b. Metabolic disease c. Developmental disease d. All of the above |
d
|
|
|
225. Signs and symptoms of sinusitis include all of the following, except:
a. Sneezing b. Fever c. Syncope d. Nasal discharge |
c
|
|
|
226. Congestive Heart Failure is when:
a. Plaque builds up in arteries over time b. Cardiac function does not meet body’s needs c. Open contacts and/or lateral interferences are found in heart d. Cardiac tissue becomes nonvital |
b
|
|
|
227. Which of the following is indicative of right-sided heart failure?
a. Dyspnea b. Pneumonia c. “Pitting” Edema/Edema in the legs and ankles d. Pulmonary congestion |
c
|
|
|
228. Which of the below is the highly desirable lipoprotein – if you have this
lipoprotein, you have a decrease heart problem risk? a. LDL b. ULDL c. HDL d. BFD |
c
|
|
|
229. A patient comes into the clinic with an abcessed tooth, his B/P is 135/90 you should:
a. Proceed with Tx b. Get a medical consult before any treatment is undertaken c. Postpone treatment until B/P is under control d. Run like hell – he’s going to blow |
a
|
|
|
230. Which of the following is an emergency treatment for Angina Pectoris?
a. Vasoconstrictor b. Continue treatment, but with extreme care and caution c. O2 d. Nitroglycerine intravenously |
c
|
|
|
231. For which of the following procedures is Endocarditis Prophylaxis recommended:
a. Restorative procedures b. Rubber Dam placement c. Dental extractions d. Anesthetic injections |
c
|
|
|
232. Which of the following procedures could the patient with Endocarditis have to premedicate?
a. Root canal therapy b. Scaling and root planning c. Prophy cleaning d. All of the above |
d
|
|
|
233. Petechia and ecchymoses can both be signs of a:
a. Kidney problem b. Lung problem c. Liver problem d. Oral infection |
c
|
|
|
234. When should dental treatment, with the potential for severe bleeding, not be performed?
a. INR greater than 3.5 b. Platelet count less than 60,000 c. PTT greater than 2.8 d. All of the above |
d
|
|
|
235. Which association is not correct?
a. Cirrhosis – liver scarring b. Jaundice – blockade of common bile duct c. Alcoholism – shrinkage d. Hepatitis C – transfusion related |
c
|
|
|
236. The most dangerous allergic reaction a patient can get in a dental chair is:
a. Contact dermatitis b. Immune complex disease c. Anaphylactic shock d. Type IigG hypercomplex disease |
c
|
|
|
237. Seizures are often proceeded by:
a. Aura b. Grand Malls c. Post ictal d. Convulsions |
a
|
|
|
238. What muscular disease entails muscles that don’t work well enough (underdo)?
a. Petit mal b. Convulsions c. Seizures d. Myasthenia gravis |
d
|
|
|
239. Epilepsy is all of the below EXCEPT:
a. A spontaneous, uncontrollable, excessive discharge of cerebral neurons b. Forceful involuntary contractions of voluntary muscles c. A chronic recurrent condition of seizures d. Mental deterioration with impaired memory and judgment |
d
|
|
|
240. Mental deterioration with impaired memory and judgment with widespread changes in personality and behavior and disorientation of space and time. This is a definition of:
a. Paralysis b. Neuralgias c. Dementia d. Stroke e. An average day |
c
|
|
|
241. Seizures are often proceeded by:
a. Disorientation b. Slurring of speech c. Mood change d. All of the above |
d
|
|
|
242. Which of the following medications does NOT cause gingival hyperplasia?
a. Tegretol b. Cyclosporin A c. Calcium channel blockers d. Dilantin |
a
|
|
|
243. Bell’s Palsy is caused by damage to what cranial nerve?
a. CN - V b. CN - VII c. CN - XI d. CN - XII |
b
|
|
|
244. Epilepsy is:
a. A spontaneous, uncontrollable excessive discharge of cerebral neurons b. Forceful involuntary contractions of voluntary muscles c. A chronic recurrent condition of seizures d. Mental deterioration with impaired memory and judgement |
c
|
|
|
245. Tartive dyskinesia is associated with which disease?
a. Myasthenia gravis b. Multiple sclerosis c. Parkinson’s disease d. AIDS |
c
|
|
|
246. How would you check platelet count?:
a. Antibody test b. CBC with differential test c. PTT test d. SMA 20 |
b
|
|
|
247. What is the most common time frame within which the flu like symptoms of bacterial endocarditis manifest themselves?:
a. Within the first several hours after the dental appointment b. Within 2 days – 2 weeks c. After 1 month d. After 6 months |
b
|
|
|
248. For patients that are pregnant, when should you treat?
a. Day after conception b. Ninth month c. 1st trimester / 1st half of 3rd month d. 2nd trimester / 1st half of 3rd |
d
|
|
|
249. If a patient is allergic to Amoxicillin, what antibiotic is the preferred alternative for the prophylaxis of bacterial endocarditis?:
a. Tetracycline b. Erythromycin c. Clindamycin d. Tequila |
c
|
|
|
250. What is the difference between a sign and a symptom?:
a. A doctor can see a symptom just by looking a the patient b. The patient must tell the doctor a sign she/he has because the doctor can’t see it c. The doctor can see a sign that the patient has d. None of the above |
c
|
|
|
251. What is the drug of choice for a patient with infection and severe kidney problems?:
a. Erythromycin b. Penicillin c. Clindamycin d. Amoxicillin |
a
|
|
|
252. What problem is not considered a risk or complication of high blood pressure?
a. Accelerated Atherosclerosis b. Liver damage c. Kidney damage d. Heart Problems (congestive heart failure) |
b
|
|
|
253. What blood pressure is the highest diastolic that is still considered normal
a. 90 b. 140 c. 165 d. 95 |
a
|
|
|
254. Pheochromacytoma
a. Is a primary type of hypertension b. Releases serotonin and dopamine as a vasoconstrictor c. Comes about from the adrenal medulla d. Also known as Cushing’s Syndrome |
c
|
|
|
255. Swollen ankles, shortness of breath and coughing are all indicative of which of the following :
a. Congestive Heart Failure b. Severe Hypertension c. Atherosclerosis d. Both A & B |
a
|
|
|
256. For a patient on renal dialysis, dental treatment should be done:
a. 2 days before dialysis b. Same day as dialysis c. The day following dialysis d. Patient can’t receive dental treatment at all while on dialysis |
c
|
|
|
257. The clinical term for coughing up blood is:
a. Dyspnea. b. Hemitis. c. Hemoptysis. d. Corpuscylitis. |
a
|
|
|
258. Which of the following categories would an allergy to toothpaste fall under?
a. Metabolic. b. Inflammatory. c. Neoplastic. c. Developmental. |
b
|
|
|
259. What is the most common metabolic problem with oral manifestations?
a. Grave’s Disease. b. Lyme Disease. c. Recurrent fungal infections d. Diabetes. |
d
|
|
|
260. Which disease of the upper airway is associated with a yellow nasal discharge?
a. Sinusitis. b. Laryngitis. c. Polyps. d. Cancer. |
a
|
|
|
261. What is your major concern, as a dentist, with treating a patient with COPD?
a. Infection through aerosol inhalation. b. Cardiac arrest. c. Bacteremia. d. There is no problem. |
c
|
|
|
262. Rust-colored phlegm may be indicative of:
a. Flu plus bronchitis. b. Allergies. c. Cold. d. Flu plus pneumonia. |
d
|
|
|
263. Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for a dental procedure on a patient with CVD:
a. Severe congestive heart failure b. Recent MI ( 3-6 months) c. Stable Angina d. Uncontrolled hypertension |
c
|
|
|
264. How much epinephrine is in a standard local anesthetic cartridge at a 1:1000,000 epi?
a. 0.018 mg (18 micrograms) b. 0.100 mg c. .18 mg d. 36 mg |
Should be 0.0018 mg
|
|
|
265. Bradycardia is when:
a. The heart goes slower than normal b. The bronchial arch is malformed c. When the heart starts to flutter d. Another term for syncope |
a
|
|
|
266. Quinidine is a medication used to treat:
a. Premature clotting b. Cardiac ischemia c. Cardiac arrhythmia d. Sever kidney infection |
c
|
|
|
267. All are treatments for a patient who shows signs of myocardial infarction EXCEPT:
a. Anti-clot drugs (streptokinase) b. Aspirin c. Anti-platelet drugs d. Antacid tablets |
d
|
|
|
268. It is true that:
a. In acute Myocardial Infarction, "time is muscle" - get the patient to the hospital b. Brain damage begins within 5 minutes of no oxygen c. Aspirin and streptokinase TPA are ER treatments for M.I. d. All of the above |
d
|
|
|
269. Which is not a clinical manifestation of someone with a bleeding disorder?
a. Spontaneous gingival bleeding b. Petechiae c. Ecchymoses d. Syncope |
d
|
|
|
270. Hematologic diseases affecting white blood cell dysfunction or deficiency include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Leukemia b. Leukoplakia c. Leukopenia d. Lymphoma |
b
|
|
|
271. Thrombocytopenia is:
a. Decrease in the number of platelets b. Increase in the number of platelets c. Normal number of platelets, but defect in platelet function d. Abnormal number and defect in function |
a
|
|
|
272. Which of the following is a white blood cell disease?
a. Clotting factor disorders b. Platelet disorders c. Leukemia d. Anemia |
c
|
|
|
273. Which disease has little or no effect of bleeding?
a. Anemia (from iron deficiency) b. HIV c. Hepatitis d. Leukemia |
a
|
|
|
274. Pinpoint red bleeding or bruised markings in the mouth, associated with bleeding disorders, are called:
a. Lacunae b. Perimechatemi c. Petechiae d. Alopecia |
c
|
|
|
275. Leukepenia can lead to:
a. Bleeding problems b. Bacterial infections c. Stroke d. Cardiac malfunction |
b
|
|
|
276. The International Normalized Ratio (INR) measures/ evaluates:
a. The prothrombin time ( PT) ( extrinsic system) b. The partial thrombopastin time (PTT) (intrinsic system) c. Extent of anemia d. Bleeding time |
a
|
|
|
277. Leukemia can lead to:
a. Bleeding b. Infections c. Immunosupression d. All of the above |
d
|
|
|
278. Another word for ecchymoses is:
a. Hemoptosis b. Bruise c. Petechiae d. Edema |
b
|
|
|
280. All of the following are correctly paired EXCEPT:
a. Hepatitis A ― infectious b. Hepatitis C ― enteric related c. Hepatitis D ― delta d. Hepatitis B ― serum |
b
|
|
|
281. In considering liver disease, which of the following is important to dentists:
a. Anesthetic dosage b. Duration of antibiotic treatment c. Type of antibiotic prescribed d. Bleeding problems |
d
|
|
|
282. The liver is involved with all the below processes EXCEPT:
a. Coagulation b. Drug metabolism c. Protein metabolism d. White cell replacement |
d
|
|
|
283. Hepatitis can be caused by all of the below problems EXCEPT:
a. Alcoholism b. Virus infection c. Chemical toxins d. Excessive TSH secretion |
d
|
|
|
284. Cirrhosis is:
a. Fibrosis of the liver b. Same as hepatitis c. Severe inner ear damage d. Blockage of the biliary ducts |
a
|
|
|
285. Patients with advance liver damage have a number of physiological problems. The one that has the greatest potential to impact dental procedures is:
a. Poor drug metabolism b. Altered protein metabolism c. Bleeding problems d. Oral fungal infections |
c
|
|
|
286. Which of the following is toxic to the liver:
a. Penicillin b. Acetaminophen c. Amoxicillin d. Clindamycin |
b
|
|
|
287. Which vitamin is used in prothrombin production?
a. B b. C c. A d. K |
d
|
|
|
288. Jaundice is usually first seen in the:
1. Skin 2. Whites of the eyes 3. Oral mucosa 4. Nails |
2
|
|
|
289. Infection with which of the following conditions would you find granulomas in the lungs?
a. Syphilis b. Tuberculosis c. Lupus erythematosus d. Bronchitis |
b
|
|
|
290. The immunodeficient state associated with HIV infection is due primarily to
the virus effect on: a. B lymphocytes b. Macrophages c. T lymphocytes (helper) d. T lymphocytes (suppressor) |
c
|
|
|
291. Antigen antibody reactions are NOT closely associated with:
a. Plasma cells b. B lymphocytes c. Macrophages d. delayed hypersensitivity |
c
|
|
|
292. Immunoglobulins are:
a. Contracted plasma cells b. A fraction of blood filled with cytokines c. Associated with T cells and delay hypersensitivity reactions d. Antibodies |
d
|
|
|
293. HIV virus destroys primarily:
a. T cells b. B cells c. Plasma cells d. Immunologic stem cells |
a
|
|
|
294. Anaphylactic allergic reactions are primarily associated with:
a. T cell associated cytokines b. A nonspecific macrophage agglutination c. Histamine released from basophils d. Delayed hypersensitivity |
c
|
|
|
295. Which cells are most important in delayed hypersensitivity reactions?
a. Limphocytes b. Macrophages c. Red blood cells d. Eosinophils |
b
|
|
|
296. Phagocytosis refers to the process of a cell:
a. Swelling b. Dilating c. Eating d. Turning red |
c
|
|
|
297. Suppuration means:
a. Pus draining out b. The same as cellulitis c. Basophil reaction d. The process of cell division |
a
|
|
|
298. Tuberculosis is indicated by:
a. Edema b. Hemoptysis c. Stridor d. Runny nose (rhinits) |
b
|
|
|
299. Which of the following is indicative of right sided heart failure?
a. Dyspnea b. Pneumonia c. “Pitting” Edema/Edema in the legs and ankles d. Pulmonary congestion |
c
|
|
|
300. A lack of oxygen in the blood is known as:
a. Rales b. Dyspnea c. Cyanosis d. “Pitting” Edema |
c
|
|
|
301. Petechia and ecchymoses can both be signs of a:
a. Kidney problem b. Lung problem c. Liver problem d. Oral infection |
c
|
|
|
302. Which association is NOT correct?
a. Cirrhosis – liver scarring b. Jundice – blockade of common bile duct c. Alcoholism – shrinkage or parotid d. Hepatitis C – transfusion related |
c
|
|
|
303. All of the below can be causes of liver damage EXCEPT:
a. Alcohol consumption b. Medication c. Infectious agents d. Hereditary blood dyscrasias |
d
|
|
|
304. Which of the following is NOT a test used to diagnose diabetes mellitus?
a. Fasting blood glucose b. Glucose tolerance test c. Glucosuria d. 2 hour post prandial blood glucose |
c
|
|
|
305. The most long term medical problem diabetics have, secondary to their diabetes is:
a. Vascular problems b. Kidney problems c. Autoimmune disease d. Adrenal damage |
a
|
|
|
306. Atherosclerosis is a common cause of:
a. Diabetes b. Blindness c. Polyphagia d. Autoimmune disease |
a
|
|
|
307. A patient presents in your office for an extraction of a 3rd molar. The patient has been HIV positive for 5 years. He has no primary or secondary problems associated with HIV and is taking no medications. Before treatment you should:
a. Request a medical consult b. Prescribe premedication for the patient c. Proceed with no modification of dental treatment d. Request and review the patient's most recent lab results. |
d
|
|
|
308. Which of the following is not an appropriate question during health history reviews:
a. Do you have a heart murmur b. Do you have any allergies c. Any medications d. Anything you haven't told me that I should know about your health e. None of the above |
e
|
|
|
309. If you have an AIDS patient with CD4 count of 250 and you have planned to do 3 extracts, what should you be most concerned about?
a. Bacterial infection b. Bleeding problems c. Healing rate d. Timing |
b
|
|
|
310. A patient who is at risk for bacterial endocarditis should be alert for certain symptoms following a dental procedure, even if they have been properly prophylaxed. These symptoms are most easily described as:
a. Stiff joints b. Flu-like symptoms of tiredness, fever and generally feeling poor c. Nausea and diarrhea d . Vertigo and memory loss |
b
|
|
|
311. Immunosuppression can be caused by all of the below problems EXCEPT:
a. Repeated epileptic seizures b. Chemotherapeutic agents used to treat cancer c. Immunosuppressing drugs such as corticosteroids d. A viral disease such as HIV that destroys the immune system |
a
|
|
|
312. No elective dental treatment should be done if a patient's:
a. T-lymphocytes count is below 500 b. If their platelets levels are 150,000 or above c. If their white cell count is below 2,000 d. If their blood glucose levels are between 80 to 100 mg percent |
c
|
|
|
313. When treating patients with hepatitis-B or HIV infection, all of the precautions below should be taken EXCEPT:
a.Evaluate whether there are any potential bleeding problems b. Take special infection control precautions not usually taken with uninfected patients c. Evaluate whether the patient is healthy enough to withstand elective dental procedures d. Evaluate whether they are taking any medications which may interact with medications you might prescribe |
b
|
|
|
314. A primary concern in a patient with renal (kidney) failure is:
a. Immunosuppression because of the kidney's inability to destroy naturally occurring corticosteroids b. Alteration in their partial thromboplastin time leading to bleeding problems c. Their inability to eliminate metabolic by-products and drugs d. Stroke problems secondary to anti-coagulants the patient may be taking. |
c
|
|
|
315. In diagnosing a patient with liver problems, a physician may elect to run which tests:
a. SMA 20 b. BUN (Blood Urea Nitrogen) c. Glycated Hemoglobin d. Angioplasty |
a
|
|
|
316. After treatment, the patient, who takes medication to control his hypertension stands up and promptly falls backwards. What is the most probable cause?
a. Postural hypotension b. Not enough blood sugar level c. Isomnia d. Diabetes e. Inner ear infection |
a
|
|
|
317. What is a major concern for dental treatment of a patient who has recently had a kidney transplant?
a. Hypertension b. Frequent urination c. When was their last dialysis d. Opportunistic infections as a result of immunosuppression |
d
|
|
|
318. What is a symptom of hypertension?
Peter J. Note: Pay attention! This has the potential to be a trick question. Be clear about the difference between a sign and a symptom. a. High blood pressure b. Dizziness c. Excessive bleeding d. Swollen ankles |
b
|
|
|
319. What is Auscultation?
a. Another term for a med consult b. Listening to the heart or lung sounds with a stethoscope c. Coughing up phlegm d. None of the above |
b
|
|
|
320. Rales and Ronchin refer to:
a. The two scientists that invented the respirator b. Sounds made by heart during certain pathogenic processes c. Gurging and popping sounds in the lungs caused by fluid accumulation d. None of the above |
c
|
|
|
321. All of the following are forms of cardiac compensation EXCEPT:
a. Increased contractility b. Enlargement of the heart c. Increased heart rate d. Edema |
d
|
|
|
322. Emphysema is ____________________
|
a disease of the lungs due to the loss of elastic recoil
|
|
|
323. What is the side effect a patient may experience who’s hypertension is controlled
with a calcium channel blocker like Nefidipine: a) Low salivary flow b) Bleeding hyperplastic gums c) Nervousness d) Weight loss |
b
|
|
|
324. A patient presents in your office for extraction of a 3rd molar. The patient is HIV positive (has been for 5 years) and has no primary or secondary problems associated with HIV and is taking no medications. Before treatment you should:
a. Request a medical consult b. Prescribe premedication for the patient c. Proceed with no modification of dental treatment d. Request a t-cell count e. Request patient’s most recent lab results, for your record |
e
|
|
|
325. Define Hematuria
|
blood in the urine
|
|
|
326. Which of the following is not one of the medications that could be taken by patients suffering from Hypertension?
a. Diuretic b. Calcium channel blockers c. ACE inhibitor d. Acetaminophen |
d
|
|
|
327. For a patient on renal dialysis, dental treatment should be done:
a. 2 days before dialysis b. Same day as dialysis c. The day following dialysis d. Patient can’t receive dental treatment at all while on dialysis |
c
|
|
|
328. When discussing hearts, CHF stands for
|
congestive heart failure
|
|
|
329. Which drug listed below does not cause gingival hyperplasia (enlargement):
a. calcium channel blocker (nifedipine) b. digitalis c. dilantin d. cyclosporine A |
b
|
|
|
330. All of the following are symptoms of failure on the left side of the heart except?
a. dyspnea b. orthopnea c. shortness of breath d. edema of extremities |
d
|
|
|
332. How much epinephrine is in a standard local anesthetic cartridge at a 1:100,000 epi?
a. 0.018 mg (18 micrograms) b. 0.100 mg c. .18 mg d. 36 mg |
a
|
|
|
332. Which of the following dental procedures do not need antibiotic prophylaxis?
a. Endodontic treatment b. Extractions c. Initial placement of ortho bands d. Restorative dentistry |
d
|
|
|
333. Define Dyspnea
|
difficulty breathing
|
|
|
334. Which is not a sign of inflammation?
(a) Redness (b) Pain (c) Heat (d) All are signs of inflammation |
b
|
|
|
335. What is the most important concern you as a dentist have for a patient of COPD?
(a) Susceptibility to infection (b) Allergies to penicillin (c) Getting something stuck in their throat (d) Local anesthetic adversely affecting them |
a
|
|
|
What is Jaundice?
|
an excess of bilirubin, resting in yellowing of skin and eyes
|
|
|
337. What is NOT included in the symptoms of hepatitis?
a. Yellow eyes b. Dizziness c. Loss of appetite d. Nausea |
a
|
|
|
338. Which vitamin is used in prothrombin production?
a. B b. C c. A d. K |
d
|
|
|
339. Thrombocytopenia means
|
deficiency of platelets in the blood
|
|
|
340. Leukemia can lead to all of these oral changes except:
a. bleeding gums b. recurrent caries c. oral fungal infection (candidiasis) d. periodontal disease |
b
|
|
|
341. Bleeding problems can be caused by all except:
a. HIV infection b. medications c. diabetes mellitus d. liver problems |
c
|
|
|
342. Define Inflammation:
|
Inflammation is the first response of the immune system to infection or irritation and may be referred to as the innate cascade. Inflammation normally constitutes the body's initiation of healing. Inflammation is characterized by the following quintet: redness, heat, and swelling
|
|
|
343. The immunodeficient state associated with HIV infection is due primarily to the virus effect on:
a. B lymphocytes b. Macrophages c. T lymphocytes (helper) d. T lymphocytes (suppressor) |
c
|
|
|
344. Which term refers to the fact that the body tries to rid itself of disease?
a. auto-immunity b. allergies c. host response d. trauma |
c
|
|
|
Define hyperlipidemia:
|
the presence of elevated or abnormal levels of lipids and/or lipoproteins in the blood
|
|
|
346. All of the following are associated with Diabetes Mellitus EXCEPT:
a. Polyphagia b. Polydipsia c. Hypolipidemia d. Glucosuria |
c
|
|
|
347. Which of the following is NOT a long-term complication due to Diabetes:
a. Hypertension b. Retinopathy c. Deafness d. Blindness e. Strokes |
c
|
|
|
348. Define aura:
|
Subjective symptoms occurring on the onset of a partial epileptic seizure or migraine headache. Parts of the brain that cause seizures or migraines are affected. ie. auditory aura, visual aura.
|
|
|
349. Mental deterioration with impaired memory and judgment with widespread changes in personality and behavior and disorientation of space and time. This is a definition of:
a. seizure b. neuralgias c. stroke d. dementia e. how I felt when I woke up this morning |
d
|
|
|
350. Drug(s) that cause gingival hyperplasia:
a. dilantin b. Calcium channel blockers c. Cyclosporin A d. All of the above e. a and b only |
d
|
