Barry Brain Bowl Question

Front 1

Most appropriate therapeutic agent for acute influenza

Back 1

zanamivir (Relenza)

Front 2

Viral diarrhea treatment symptomatically with

Back 2

IV hydration

Front 3

What is the treatment for Asymptomatic bacteriuria in an ECF (EXTENDED CARE FACILITY) patient with no DM or structural abnormalities of the GU tract

Back 3

No treatment necessary

Front 4

AAA are best followed up with

Back 4

US of the abdomen

Front 5

B12 absorption requires intrinsic factor that is secreted by

Back 5

parietal cells

Front 6

Side effects of Hydroxychloroquine include

Back 6

impaired night vision

Front 7

A pt with a hx of PHTN, and cor pulmonale with a visible jugular venous pulse and a systolic flow murmur on right side of sternum has

Back 7

Tricuspid regurgitation

Front 8

a patient that is frightened at the thought of a X-ray and can’t face it has

Back 8

Phobic Neurosis

Front 9

Pt with ischemic Cardiomyopathy, CAD, EF 20 % and inducible sustained VT should receive

Back 9

an implantable defibrillator

Front 10

Most common cause of IE (infective endocarditis) in a IV drug abuser is

Back 10

Staph Aureus

Front 11

Loose and watery stool, with no blood and negative fecal leukocytes most likely has

Back 11

viral gastroenteritis

Front 12

Expected finding in a patient with an arterial embolism

Back 12

pulselessness

Front 13

A condition that presents with forceful, projectile vomiting and the presence of a small palpable mass in the epigastrium

Back 13

Pyloric stenosis

Front 14

A 72 y/o patient with recurrent kidney stones with elevated serum calcium and decreased phosphate most likely has

Back 14

Hyperparathyroidism

Front 15

A 55 y/o non smoking male with a Hgb of 18.5 & a Hct of 56 and will have splenomegally most likely suffers from

Back 15

PV (polycythemia vera)

Front 16

16. Autosomal dominant inheritance of endocrine disorders most commonly manifested as pancreas, pituitary, and parathyroid tumors:

Back 16

Wermer’s syndrome (MEN 1)

Front 17

17. Associated with malignancy, hyperparathyroidism, sarcoidosis, vitamin D intoxication, Milk-alkali syndrome:

Back 17

Hypercalcemia

Front 18

Associated with hypertension, bilateral carpal tunnel syndrome, macroglossia, large and doughy hands and a prominent mandible:

Back 18

Acromegaly

Front 19

Most common cause of hyperthyroidism

Back 19

Grave's disease

Front 20

Most common cause of hypothyroidism

Back 20

Hashimoto's Thyroiditis

Front 21

Most common cause of hypothyroidism

Back 21

Diabetes Insipidus

Front 22

Associated with hirsutism, irregular periods, elevated levels of lutenizing hormone (LH) & serum 17-OH progesterone concentrations:

Back 22

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

Front 23

Most common precipitating factor in the development of diabetes ketoacidosis:

Back 23

infection

Front 24

Associated with amenorrhea, galactorrhea and decreased libido

Back 24

Prolactinoma

Front 25

These eosinophilic rods are found in the cytoplasm of myeloblasts in AML (acute myelogenous leukemia).

Back 25

Auer’s rods.

Front 26

Squamous cell carcinoma in-situ:

Back 26

Bowen’s disease

Front 27

Beta thalassemia major also known as

Back 27

Cooley’s anemia

Front 28

Complication of long standing RA (rheumatoid arthritis) with neutropenia & splenomegaly. Thrombocytopenia and anemia may be present.

Back 28

Felty’s syndrome

Front 29

Syndrome usually occurs in children: hematuria, abdominal pain, and allergic Purpura usually on the back of the legs.

Back 29

Henoch-Schonlein Purpura

Front 30

Granules in RBC’s that indicate absence of splenic function:

Back 30

Howell–Jolly bodies

Front 31

A highly undifferentiated lymphoblastic lymphoma characterized as a “starry sky” on H & E (a type of staining procedure) and strongly associated with Epstein-Barr virus:

Back 31

Burkitt’s lymphoma

Front 32

This X-linked hemophilia seen in males is characterized by Factor IX deficiency:

Back 32

Christmas disease

Front 33

This test used to diagnose hemolytic anemia determines the presence of antiglobulins against red blood cells

Back 33

Coombs test

Front 34

Autosomal dominant asymptomatic anomaly of neutrophils characterized by rod shaped or bilobed nuclei

Back 34

Pelger-Huet anomaly

Front 35

Large connective tissue cells seen in Hodgkin’s lymphoma that is required for diagnosis. They are characterized by an “owl eye” appearance

Back 35

Reed-Sternberg cells

Front 37

Deficiency of coagulation factor VIII characterized by prolonged bleeding, epistaxis, easy brusing, and excess menstruation. PTT and bleeding time usually prolonged. Most common congenital bleeding disorder

Back 37

Von Willebrand’s disease

Front 38

X-linked recessive defect in T and B cell function characterized by thrombocytopenia and bleeding, increased infections, and eczema

Back 38

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

Front 39

May be caused by allergies, parasites, collagen diseases, neoplasm’s, and adrenal insufficiency

Back 39

Eosinophilia

Front 40

Characterized by marrow fibrosis, extramedullary hematopoiesis, leukoerythroblastic smear, teardrops on peripheral smear and splenomegaly

Back 40

Myelofibrosis

Front 41

Major causes include Fe deficiency, Lead poisoning, Thalassemia, and chronic diseases

Back 41

Microcytic hypochromic anemia

Front 42

Measure of the intrinsic coagulation pathway

Back 42

PTT

Front 43

Factor II, VII, IX, and X

Back 43

Vitamin K dependent factors

Front 44

Malignancy of plasma cells seen in older adults

Back 44

Multiple myeloma

Front 45

Fever of unknown etiology characterized by painful raised plaques on the face, neck and limbs. Associated with neutrophil leukocytosis and dermal neutrophil infiltration

Back 45

Sweet’s Syndrome

Front 46

Fever of Hodgkin’s disease characterized by cycles of fever lasting three to ten days separated by an afebrile period of nearly the same length of time

Back 46

Pel-Epstein fever

Front 47

Most common type of Hodgkin’s disease

Back 47

Nodular sclerosing

Front 48

Form of leukemia most commonly associated with the Philadelphia chromosome

Back 48

CML (chronic myelogenous leukemia)

Front 49

Glucocerebroside accumulates in bone marrow, brain, liver, and spleen. Autosomal recessive disorder. Cells with eccentrically placed nuclei and increased cytoplasm that classically emulates “crinkled paper”

Back 49

Gaucher’s disease

Front 50

Congenital platelet abnormality of platelet aggregation characterized by epistaxis and easy bruising

Back 50

Glanzmann’s thombasthenia

Front 51

Initial treatment of idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura

Back 51

Prednisone

Front 52

This factor acts to stabilize the fibrin clot. It is not measured by either the PT or PTT

Back 52

Factor XIII

Front 53

Activation of the extrinsic pathway of coagulation begins with

Back 53

Factor VII

Front 54

The end result of the reactions in the fibrinolytic system is the generation of a substance important in the dissolution of fibrin clots This substance is

Back 54

Plasmin

Front 55

The naturally occurring anticoagulant of primary significance is

Back 55

antithrombin III

Front 56

This assay is a specific indicator of intravascular thrombus formation and subsequent degradation of fibrin

Back 56

D dimer

Front 57

This immunoglobulin inhibits the interaction of phospholipids with the coagulation factors. Its presence may result in a prolonged PT or APTT, but is more likely to produce thrombus formation than bleeding tendency

Back 57

Lupus anticoagulant

Front 58

The disorder that results from a platelet adhesion defect as a consequence of low levels of portions of the factor VIII complex is

Back 58

Von Willebrand’s disease

Front 59

Industrial toxins is associated with tumors of the liver

Back 59

Vinyl chloride

Front 60

The most common type of small bowel tumor is

Back 60

adenocarcinoma

Front 61

The most common skin cancer is

Back 61

basal cell carcinoma

Front 62

The most common cause of high serum calcium in a patient with a known cancer is

Back 62

Production of parathyroid hormone-like substance

Front 63

Which laboratory tests best distinguishes the coagulopathy of liver disease from DIC

Back 63

D-Dimer assay

Front 64

A 65 year old female has pallor, a red beefy tongue, diarrhea, weakness, ataxia and decreased vibration sense. CBC reveals: decreased Hgb and Hct with MCV = 115fL. What test would be most useful in working up her disease?

Back 64

B 12 level

Front 65

Most common cause of vitamin B 12 deficiency is

Back 65

Pernicious anemia

Front 66

What is the most common cause of anemia of chronic disease

Back 66

Chronic Renal failure

Front 67

The most common presentation of non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma is

Back 67

Painless Lymphadenopathy

Front 68

A 45-year-old woman with long-standing rheumatoid arthritis is diagnosed as having "anemia of chronic disease." The predominant mechanism causing this type of anemia in persons with chronic inflammatory disorders is

Back 68

Impaired transfer of reticuloendothelial storage iron to marrow erythroid precursor

Front 69

Mucus spirals seen in sputum of asthma patients

Back 69

Curschman’s spirals

Front 70

Disease caused by inhaling a gram-negative bacillus (Legionella pneumophilia) from water aerosols. Characterized by atypical pneumonia

Back 70

Legionnaires disease

Front 71

Flu-like illness caused by Legionella with associated diarrhea

Back 71

Pontiac fever

Front 72

Most common cause of CAP (community acquired pneumonia)

Back 72

Strept. Pneumonia

Front 73

Disease of the lungs and kidneys associated with anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies. Patients may present with hemoptysis and hematuria. Most commonly affects males 20-40

Back 73

Goodpasture’s syndrome

Front 74

AKA as Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

Back 74

Hamman-Rich syndrome

Front 75

Mediastinal emphysema with spontaneous onset

Back 75

Hamman’s disease

Front 76

Ciliary dyskinesia. Characterized by the triad of Bronchiectasis, sinusitis, and dextrocardia

Back 76

Kartagener’s syndrome

Front 77

Reduced response of the respiratory center to CO2. Also describes respiratory function loss due to cervical spine cord lesion

Back 77

Ondine’s curse

Front 78

Polyps, aspirin sensitivity and asthma

Back 78

Samter’s triad

Front 79

Disease of lungs and kidneys associated with C-ANCA marker. May present with hemoptysis, cough, dyspnea, perforation of nasal septum, chronic sinusitis, mastoiditis and otitis media

Back 79

Wegener’s granulomatosis

Front 80

Most common cause of hemoptysis

Back 80

Bronchitis

Front 81

Breath sounds normally auscultated over most of the lung fields are called

Back 81

Vesicular

Front 82

Most common cause of COPD

Back 82

cigarette smoking

Front 83

Rare pulmonary neoplasm only seen in patients exposed to asbestos

Back 83

mesotheliomas

Front 84

Most common type of pulmonary neoplasm

Back 84

Squamous cell carcinoma

Front 85

The therapeutic mainstay for interstitial lung disease

Back 85

corticosteroids

Front 86

The presence of a deviated trachea and hyperresonance to percussion is indicative of:

Back 86

tension pneumothorax

Front 87

Nosocomial infection, which has the most significant impact on mortality and excess hospital stay

Back 87

Pneumonia

Front 88

Most common organism in nosocomial pneumonia(hospital acquired)

Back 88

Gram negative organisms

Front 89

Initial treatment regimen for pulmonary TB:

Back 89

INH, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol

Front 90

Most common etiology of a transudative pleural effusion

Back 90

CHF

Front 91

Presence of a chronic productive cough for 3 months in each of two successive years in a patient in who other causes of chronic cough has been excluded

Back 91

Chronic bronchitis

Front 92

The INITIAL treatment of COPD:

Back 92

Bronchodilators

Front 93

Most common blood gas combinations seen in a acute pulmonary embolism

Back 93

reduced pCO2 and reduced pO2

Front 94

Persistent fever following treatment for bacterial pneumonia is suggestive of

Back 94

empyema

Front 95

The MOST frequently diagnosed AIDS-defining illness is

Back 95

PCP (pneumocystis carinii pneumonia)

Front 96

drug of choice for treating pneumonia caused by Legionella pneumophilia is

Back 96

Erythromycin

Front 97

A chest radiograph revealing diaphragmatic pleural plaques and interstitial lung disease is suggestive of

Back 97

Asbestos

Front 98

Syndrome characterized by PHTN and hyperplasia that leads to right heart failure and reversal of a left to right shunt into a right to left shunt. Patients present with cyanosis in this often-irreversible lesion

Back 98

Eisenmenger’s syndrome

Front 99

Congenital heart disease characterized by downward displacement of the tricuspid valve. Associated with symptoms of dyspnea, fatigue and palpitations:

Back 99

Epstein’s anomaly

Front 100

Vasospasm of coronary arteries characterized by pain at rest

Back 100

Prinzmetal’s angina

Front 101

A re-entry SVT from an accessory pathway back into the conducting system characterized by delta waves and short PR intervals

Back 101

WPW syndrome

Front 102

Form of 2nd degree heart block characterized by a progressive lengthening of the P-R interval until there is a dropped QRS on EKG

Back 102

Wenckebach’s phenomenon

Front 103

Congenital defects consisting of PS, RVH, VSD, and a overriding aorta

Back 103

Tetralogy of Fallot

Front 104

Thrombus at the bifurcation of the abdominal aorta or iliacs characterized by a triad of claudication, buttock atrophy and pain and impotence

Back 104

Leriche’s syndrome

Front 105

Hereditary chronic leg edema

Back 105

Milroy’s syndrome

Front 106

Autonomic nervous system deficiency characterized by chronic orthostatic hypotension:

Back 106

Shy-Drager syndrome

Front 107

A low to medium frequency vibratory crescendo-decrescendo systolic “innocent” murmur heard along the left sternal border

Back 107

Still-type functional murmur

Front 108

Congenital heart defect characterized by a pulmonary artery that arises from both ventricles, a septal defect, and an aorta that arises from the RV

Back 108

Taussig-Bing syndrome

Front 109

“Smokers disease” or thromboangiitis is an idiopathic segmental thrombosing vasculitis of small to intermediate sized peripheral arteries and veins, which may be relieved by abstaining from smoking

Back 109

Buerger’s disease

Front 110

Normal range of the QRS axis

Back 110

-30 -> + 90

Front 111

Only 3 causes of holosystolic murmurs

Back 111

MR, TR, & VSD

Front 112

Only 3 causes of holosystolic murmurs

Back 112

MR, TR, & VSD

Front 113

The “a “ wave of the jugular venous pulse represents

Back 113

Right atrial contraction

Front 114

The “v “wave of the jugular venous pulse represents

Back 114

Right atrial filling

Front 115

Tear at the GE junction caused by severe vomiting and usually seen in chronic alcoholics. May result is severe UGI hemorrhage:

Back 115

Mallory-Weiss syndrome

Front 116

Persistent yolk stalk approximately 2 feet from the distal ileum. May result in early hemorrhage or late obstructive signs

Back 116

Meckel’s diverticulum

Front 117

Virus that causes more than half of epidemic gastroenteritis:

Back 117

Norwalk Virus

Front 118

Weblike tissue at squamocolumnar junction of esophagus characterized by dysphagia when opening is less than 1.3 cm diameter:

Back 118

Schatzki ring

Front 119

RUQ pain, jaundice, fever/chills: Charcot’s triad; and shock with mental status changes

Back 119

Reynold’s pentad

Front 120

Acute syndrome following intake of excess alcohol characterized by jaundice, hyperlipidemia, abdominal pain, and hemolytic anemia:

Back 120

Zieve’s syndrome

Front 121

Esophageal herniation of the hypopharyngeal region near the upper esophageal sphincter. May cause eventual obstruction and halitosis:

Back 121

Zenker’s diverticulum

Front 122

Syndrome of malabsorption caused by Tropheryma whippelii. Characterized by steatorrhea, macrophage infiltration of the intestinal villi, unusual pigmentation, chronic arthritis; AKA intestinal lipodystrophy:

Back 122

Whipple’s disease

Front 123

Post-sinusoidal obstruction(IVC or hepatic veins) often from tumor invasion or thrombosis associated with myeloproliferative disorders or a hypercoagulable state

Back 123

Budd-Chiari syndrome

Front 124

Familial polyposis of the colon. Autosomal dominant inherited syndrome associated with a high risk of colon carcinoma, multiple osteomas, desmoid tumors and sebaceous cysts:

Back 124

Gardner’s syndrome

Front 125

Extremely common inherited defect in UDP-glucuronyl transferase activity characterized by mild chronic unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia:

Back 125

Gilbert Syndrome

Front 126

Fibrous outer layer of the liver:

Back 126

Glisson’s capsule

Front 127

Macrophages lining liver sinusoids

Back 127

Kupffer cells

Front 128

Autosomal dominant disorder characterized by proximal intestinal polyps(hamartomas), mucocutaneous melanin pigmentation

Back 128

Peutz-Jeghers syndrome

Front 129

May be caused by trauma, toxins, hypertriglyceridemia, Biliary obstruction, alcohol and drugs

Back 129

Acute pancreatitis

Front 130

The most common cause of acute pancreatitis in non-alcoholic Americans:

Back 130

Biliary tract disease

Front 131

High BUN/Cr ratio > 20: 1 indicates

Back 131

Pre-renal azotemia.

Front 132

Cast is diagnostic of ATN (acute tubular necrosis)

Back 132

Granular cast

Front 133

Commonest cause of Nephrotic syndrome in adults

Back 133

Membranous glomerulonephritis

Front 134

Most common cause of WBC casts

Back 134

Acute pyelonephritis

Front 135

Causes include diabetic ketoacidosis, uremia, methanol, ethanol or ethylene glycol intoxication, lactic acidosis, salicylates, phenformin or paraldehyde administration

Back 135

Anion gap Metabolic acidosis

Front 136

Most common cause of RBC casts

Back 136

Acute glomerulonephritis

Front 137

Predominant protein excreted in most disease states:

Back 137

Albumin

Front 138

Most common cause of intrinsic acute renal failure

Back 138

Acute tubular necrosis

Front 139

Preferred screening test for microalbuminuria in diabetics

Back 139

urine albumin: creatinine ratio

Front 140

The leading cause of chronic renal failure in the United States is

Back 140

DM

Front 141

Disease responsible for the most frequent form of nephrotic syndrome in children:

Back 141

Minimal change

Front 142

The most common electrolyte abnormality seen in hospitalized patients is

Back 142

hyponatremia

Front 143

This form of glomerulonephritis is associated with circulating immune complexes. It presents in early adulthood and is often diagnosed with an episode of macroscopic hematuria occuring 1 to 2 days after an upper respiratory illness. It may progress to end-stage renal disease

Back 143

IgA Nephropathy

Front 144

This illness is often associated with rash, renal insufficiency, and arthritis

Back 144

SLE

Front 145

Patients with this form of glomerulonephritis develop hemoptysis in association with rapidly progressive renal insufficiency

Back 145

Goodpasture’s syndrome

Front 146

Patients present with chronic bone pain, hypercalcemia, and renal failure

Back 146

Multiple Myeloma

Front 147

These patients present with heavy proteinuria but few formed elements (cells, casts, etc.) in their urine

Back 147

Nephrotic syndrome

Front 148

Renal disease associated with Methicillin use

Back 148

Interstitial nephrhitis

Front 149

Renal vein thrombosis is most commonly associated with which renal syndrome

Back 149

Nephrotic Syndrome

Front 150

The most common cause of hypocalcemia is

Back 150

chronic renal failure

Front 151

Renal disease associated with micrangiopathic hemolytic anemia:

Back 151

TTP

Front 152

An important immunosuppressive drug in renal transplant patients is

Back 152

cyclosporine

Front 153

Associated with ascites, liver failure, renal failure, low urine sodium

Back 153

Hepatorenal Syndrome

Front 154

Intracellular cation with the highest concentration in normal cells

Back 154

Potassium

Front 155

The most common complication of peritoneal dialysis for chronic renal failure is:

Back 155

Bacterial peritonitis

Front 156

In the syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH), the volume status of the patient is most often:

Back 156

Euvolemic

Front 157

Type of acid base disturbance that may be caused by thiazide diuretic administration

Back 157

Metabolic alkalosis

Front 158

ECG pattern typically seen with Hypokalemia

Back 158

Flattened T waves and “U: waves

Front 159

Diabetic nephropathy typically occurs after:

Back 159

15-20 years

Front 160

Antihypertensive medication that has been shown to have a renoprotective effect in diabetic nephropathy

Back 160

angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor

Front 161

Acute renal failure and elevated creatinine kinase enzyme levels are associated with:

Back 161

Rhabdomyolysis

Front 162

Acid-base disturbance most often seen in chronic renal failure

Back 162

Metabolic acidosis

Front 163

The most important cause for an inadequate response to erythropoeitin therapy

Back 163

Fe deficiency

Front 164

Type of kidney stone that is associated with fat malabsorption or jejunoileal bypass surgery

Back 164

Calcium oxalate stone

Front 165

Most common hereditary renal disease is

Back 165

Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease

Front 166

The anemia of chronic renal disease is treated with

Back 166

erythropoietin

Front 167

A disease process that may presents as anuria is

Back 167

obstructive uropathy

Front 168

The most common organism found in urinary tract infection is

Back 168

Escherichia coli

Front 169

The average patient undergoing chronic hemodialysis requires

Back 169

3.5 to 4.0 hours of dialysis three times a week

Front 170

The most common complication that occurs during hemodialysis is

Back 170

Muscle cramps

Front 171

Kidney stones most commonly are composed of

Back 171

calcium

Front 172

The urine specific gravity is a measure of which renal functions:

Back 172

Concentration

Front 173

If the urine dipstick test for blood is positive but no red blood cells are seen by urine sediment microscopy, a diagnosis to strongly consider is

Back 173

Myoglobinuria

Front 174

Diabetes insipidus results from a deficiency of

Back 174

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

Front 175

A finding of an elevated serum osmolarity in the presence of a low serum sodium concentration is suggestive of:

Back 175

Pseudohyponatremia

Front 176

Primary Hyperparathyroidism is most commonly caused by a

Back 176

parathyroid adenoma

Front 177

Most common wrist fracture usually caused by a fall onto the outstretched hand. It is characterized by a transverse fracture of the distal radius and results in a dorsally and outwardly displaced wrist.:

Back 177

Colles’ fracture

Front 178

Sign of a fractured scapula characterized by a triangular swelling along the outline of the scapula

Back 178

Comolli’s sign

Front 179

Aseptic necrosis of the head of the femur

Back 179

Calve-Perthes disease

Front 180

Contracture of the palmar fascia with resultant decreased ability to extend the hand. Occurs more frequently in men and is often familial.

Back 180

Dupuytren’s contracture

Front 181

Syndrome characterized by short and tender second metatarsal bone and associated callosities and pain under the second and third metatarsal

Back 181

Morton’s disease

Front 182

Epiphyseal osteochrondritis of the tibial tuberosity:

Back 182

Osgood-Schlatter disease

Front 183

Abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis tenosynovitis

Back 183

Quervain’s disease

Front 184

Most commonly fractured bone

Back 184

Clavicle

Front 185

Anatomical area most likely involved in impingement syndrome

Back 185

Supraspinatus tendon

Front 186

Drop arm test” is useful to diagnose

Back 186

Rotator cuff tears

Front 187

Rheumatoid pneumoconiosis, a rheumatoid arthritis seen in coal miners and other pneumoconiosis characterized by a progressive massive pulmonary fibrosis

Back 187

Caplan’s syndrome

Front 188

Painless bone decalcification and marginal overgrowth of the joint characterized by hypermobility and instability of the joint. Associated with syringomyelia, tabes dorsalis, and other diseases or injuries of the spinal cord.

Back 188

Charcot’s joint

Front 189

Complication of congenital syphilis characterized by knee joint hydarthrosis. Often associated with interstitial keratosis

Back 189

Clutton’s joint

Front 190

Aseptic, verrucous endocarditis associated with SLE (systemic lupus erythematosus)

Back 190

Libman-Sacks disease

Front 191

Vascular disease most commonly seen in females. Characterized by intense vasoconstriction of the extremities upon exposure to cold resulting in reversible cyanosis and pallor of the digits

Back 191

Raynaud’s disease

Front 192

Triad of arthritis (usually arthralgias), dry eyes (xeropthalmia, conjunctivitis), and dry mouth (dysphagia, xerostomia with parotid gland enlargement). Most commonly affects females between 40-60 years of age. Increase risk of B cell lymphoma

Back 192

Sjogren’s syndrome

Front 193

Triad of Urethritis, conjunctivitis, anterior uveitis, and arthritis often in young males. Associated with HLA-B27:

Back 193

Reiter’s Syndrome

Front 194

Consists of calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, Esophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, and telangiectasia:

Back 194

CREST syndrome of scleroderma

Front 195

Psoriatic arthritis, Ankylosing spondylitis, Inflammatory bowel disease,, Reiters syndrome:

Back 195

HLA-B 27 associated disease

Front 196

Associated with low back pain and stiffness, sacroiliac tenderness and aortic insufficiency:

Back 196

Ankylosing spondylitis

Front 197

Disease characterized by aching and stiffness primarily in the proximal muscles and synovial joints of the shoulder and hip girdle of elderly patients

Back 197

PMR (polymyalgia rheumatica)

Front 198

Goniometer is used to assess:

Back 198

joint range of motion

Front 199

X-linked recessive muscular degeneration as a result of a deleted dystrophin gene. Seen in males by 5 years of age. Progressive weakness from the pelvic girdle superiorly. Associated with pseudohypertrophy of the calf and cardiac myocytes:

Back 199

Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy

Front 200

Benign epithelial retention cysts on the palate of newborn infants which disappear within weeks:

Back 200

Epstein’s pearls

Front 201

Startle reflex in infants characterized by a rapid abduction and embracing motion of the arms in response to a stimulus:

Back 201

Moro reflex

Front 202

Syndrome characterized by web neck, congenital heart disease, low set ears, cubitum valgum, and occasional mental retardation:

Back 202

Noonan’s syndrome

Front 203

GM2 gangliosidosis. Autosomal recessive hexosaminidase A deficiency carried by 1 in 30 European Jews. Characterized by a cherry red spot on macula, mental retardation, spasticity, head enlargement, convulsions and an increased startle response characteristic. GM 2 ganglioside accumulates resulting in death by age 3:

Back 203

Tay-Sach’s disease

Front 204

Disease characterized by involuntary movements and memory and speech impairments. Usually seen in children between five and fifteen and associated with rheumatic fever;

Back 204

Sydenham’s chorea

Front 205

This renal tumor characterized by rapid growth occurs in children. AKA as nephroblastoma

Back 205

Wilm’s tumor

Front 206

Fatal hemorrhages, Hematuria, jaundice, splenomegaly, and convulsions in the newborn:

Back 206

Winckel’s disease

Front 207

Characterized by coryza, cough, conjunctivitis, and Koplik spots:

Back 207

Measles

Front 208

Histiocytic granulomas from lipid accumulation in the viscera, skin, and bones with onset in childhood or young adulthood; AKA Xanthoma disseminatum

Back 208

Hand-Schuller-Christian disease

Front 209

Signs of congenital syphilis characterized by notched cutting edge of the central incisors and peg-like lateral incisors

Back 209

Hutchinson’s teeth

Front 210

Triad of deafness, Hutchinson’s teeth, and interstitial keratosis seen in congenital syphilis:

Back 210

Hutchinson’s triad

Front 211

Absence of Auerbach’s and Meissner’s plexuses that presents as constipation and megacolon early in life:

Back 211

Hirschsprung’s disease

Front 212

A self limited childhood disease diagnosed by 4 out of 5 of the following: bilateral injected conjunctiva, oral lesions or erythema, rash, lymphadenitis, and high fever. Associated with a 70% risk of necrotizing vasculitis-derived coronary artery aneurysms:

Back 212

Mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome or Kawasaki disease

Front 213

Rare but possible fatal hepatic encephalopathy in children associated with viral URTI. Associated with use of salicyaltes:

Back 213

Reye’s syndrome

Front 214

Causes include diabetic ketoacidosis, uremia, methanol, ethanol or ethylene glycol intoxication, lactic acidosis, salicylates, phenformin or paraldehyde administration

Back 214

Anion gap Metabolic acidosis

Front 215

Earache with red bulging immobile tympanic membrane is characteristic of

Back 215

Otitis media

Front 216

Congenital deafness and progressive loss of vision due to retinitis pigmentosa

Back 216

Usher’s syndrome

Front 217

Congenital mental retardation syndrome characterized by angioma of the leptomeninges and choroids, intracranial calcifications, seizures, glaucoma, and port-wine nevi along the trigeminal nerve distribution:

Back 217

Sturge-Weber syndrome

Front 218

This myopathy involving proximal muscles characterized by weakness, hyporeflexia, and autonomic dysfunction. Nearly half of the cases are associated with small cell carcinoma:

Back 218

Eaton-Lambert syndrome

Front 219

Paralysis of the upper brachial plexus:

Back 219

Duchenne-Erb paralysis

Front 220

Rare disease characterized by involuntary tics and/or purposeless movements. Often associated with involuntary swearing and coprolalia:

Back 220

Tourette’s syndrome

Front 221

This scoring system is used to quanitate the degree of coma

Back 221

Glasgow coma scale

Front 222

A prion encephalopathy also known as Subacute spongiform encephalopathy. May be sporadic, familial, or acquired. The course of the illness evolves over weeks to months characterized by early mental deterioration and motor abnormalities:

Back 222

Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease

Front 223

Any transient interference in CO that results in reduced cerebral blood flow and altered consciousness:

Back 223

Stokes-Adams syndrome

Front 224

Known as hepatolenticular degeneration. This is an autosomal recessively inherited deficiency of ceruloplasmin that leads to copper accumulation in various organs. Patients present with choreiform movements from basal ganglia degeneration, Kayser-Fleisher rings, asterixis, dementia, cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma:

Back 224

Wilson’s disease

Front 225

Memory loss, disorientation and confabulation

Back 225

Wernicke’s syndrome

Front 226

Reversible triad of psychosis, ataxia, and opthalmoplegia associated with thiamine deficiency in chronic alcoholism, hyperemesis gravidarum, or gastric carcinoma

Back 226

Wernicke’s encephalopathy

Front 227

A nonfluent “expressive” aphasia associated with lesion in the inferior frontal gyrus. Comprehension is intact unlike Wernicke’s aphasia

Back 227

Broca’s aphasia

Front 228

Hemisection of the spinal cord causing hemiparalysis, loss of vibratory and proprioception, and ataxia on the same side of the lesion and loss of pain and temperature on the opposite approximately two vertebral levels below the lesion

Back 228

Brown-Sequard’s syndrome

Front 229

Most common familial peripheral neuropathy characterized by a progressive motor and sensory loss. Causes foot drop, decreased/absent reflexes, muscle atrophy. Often presents in childhood:

Back 229

Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease

Front 230

Paralysis of the upper brachial plexus

Back 230

Duchenne-Erb paralysis

Front 231

Autosomal recessive degeneration dorsal and lateral columns of the spinal cord characterized by ataxia, kyphoscoliosis, pes cavus, and hypesthesia with onset in the second decade:

Back 231

Hereditary spinal ataxia or Friedreich’s ataxia

Front 232

Ascending motor, sensory and autonomic neuron degeneration associated with a viral infection. Presents with symmetric and variable sensory loss. Elevated CSF protein with a normal cell count:

Back 232

Guillan-Barre or Acute idiopathic polyneuritis

Front 233

Dementia of brainstem and basal ganglia. Autosomal dominant inheritance.

Back 233

Chorea: Huntington”s disease

Front 234

Irreversible triad of confabulation, confusion, and memory loss associated with thiamine deficiency in alcoholics:

Back 234

Korsakoff’s syndrome

Front 235

Neurological disease associated with degeneration of the dopaminergic neurons of the substantia nigra. Characterized by a low frequency resting tremor, weakness, rigidity, “shuffle” gait, a mask-like expression, and frequently depression”

Back 235

Parkinson’s disease

Front 236

Causes temporary unilateral facial paralysis:

Back 236

Bells Palsy

Front 237

Heavy EtOh and tobacco are major risk factors for (xxx) and coughing or hoarseness can occur if (xxx)

Back 237

Esophageal cancer; laryngeal nerves are involved

Front 238

Barrett’s esophagus can occur in pts with untreated

Back 238

GERD

Front 239

In Gastric Cancer with mets, a classic sentinel node called (xxx) can be found on the (xxx)

Back 239

Virchow's node; left supraclavicular side

Front 240

Helicobacter pylorid is a risk factor for

Back 240

gastric cancer

Front 241

Zollinger Ellison syndrome is a (xxx) usually found in the (xxx)

Back 241

gastrin secreting tumor; duodenum

Front 242

Upon conducting a Barium Enema in a pt with suspected left sided Colon Ca the classic (xxx) defect can be noticed.

Back 242

"apple core filling";

Front 243

Upon conducting a Barium Enema in a pt with suspected right sided Colon Ca the classic (xxx) can be seen

Back 243

"napkin ring appearance"

Front 244

Most common cause of large bowel obstruction is

Back 244

tumor

Front 245

A palpable nontender gallbladder in a jaundiced pt (painless jaundice) also called (xxx) is also indicative of cancer of the (xxx)

Back 245

Courvoisier’s sign; pancreatic head

Front 246

Hepatocellular Ca is associated with chronic

Back 246

HBV or HCV

Front 247

Liver mets are much more common than

Back 247

primary liver cancer

Front 248

Most common cancer today in Lung Ca. In order of highest prevalence

Back 248

squamous cell > adenocarcinoma > small cell (oat cell) carcinoma > large cell carcinoma.

Front 249

Paraneoplastic disorders are commonly seen with small cell carcinoma, for example, an apical lung tumor is called Pancoast’s tumor, and when it invades the sympathetic ganglia, it can cause

Back 249

Horner’s Syndrome (miosis, anhydrosis, ptosis)

Front 250

254. Superior Vena Cava Syndrome is an obstruction of the venous drainage of the head and neck and can be caused by

Back 250

small cell ca and lymphoma.

Front 251

Thyroid Ca in order if prevalence and best prognosis

Back 251

Papillary > Follicular > Anaplastic > Medullary

Front 252

a catacholamine secreting tumor of the adrenal gland

Back 252

pheochromocytoma

Front 253

Rare but possible fatal hepatic encephalopathy in children associated with viral URTI. Associated with use of salicyaltes

Back 253

Reye’s syndrome

Front 254

Causes include diabetic ketoacidosis, uremia, methanol, ethanol or ethylene glycol intoxication, lactic acidosis, salicylates, phenformin or paraldehyde administration

Back 254

Anion gap Metabolic acidosis

Front 255

Earache with red bulging immobile tympanic membrane is characteristic of

Back 255

Otitis media

Front 256

Congenital deafness and progressive loss of vision due to retinitis pigmentosa

Back 256

Usher’s syndrome

Front 257

Congenital mental retardation syndrome characterized by angioma of the leptomeninges and choroids, intracranial calcifications, seizures, glaucoma, and port-wine nevi along the trigeminal nerve distribution

Back 257

Sturge-Weber syndrome

Front 258

This myopathy involving proximal muscles characterized by weakness, hyporeflexia, and autonomic dysfunction. Nearly half of the cases are associated with small cell carcinoma

Back 258

Eaton-Lambert syndrome

Front 259

Paralysis of the upper brachial plexus

Back 259

Duchenne-Erb paralysis

Front 260

Rare disease characterized by involuntary tics and/or purposeless movements. Often associated with involuntary swearing and coprolalia

Back 260

Tourette’s syndrome

Front 261

This scoring system is used to quanitate the degree of coma

Back 261

Glasgow coma scale

Front 262

A prion encephalopathy also known as Subacute spongiform encephalopathy. May be sporadic, familial, or acquired. The course of the illness evolves over weeks to months characterized by early mental deterioration and motor abnormalities

Back 262

Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease

Front 263

Any transient interference in CO that results in reduced cerebral blood flow and altered consciousness

Back 263

Stokes-Adams syndrome

Front 264

228. Known as hepatolenticular degeneration. This is an autosomal recessively inherited deficiency of ceruloplasmin that leads to copper accumulation in various organs. Patients present with choreiform movements from basal ganglia degeneration, Kayser-Fleisher rings, asterixis, dementia, cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma

Back 264

Wilson's disease

Front 265

Memory loss, disorientation and confabulation

Back 265

Wernicke’s syndrome

Front 266

Reversible triad of psychosis, ataxia, and opthalmoplegia associated with thiamine deficiency in chronic alcoholism, hyperemesis gravidarum, or gastric carcinoma

Back 266

Wernicke’s encephalopathy

Front 267

A nonfluent “expressive” aphasia associated with lesion in the inferior frontal gyrus. Comprehension is intact unlike Wernicke’s aphasia

Back 267

Broca’s aphasia

Front 268

Hemisection of the spinal cord causing hemiparalysis, loss of vibratory and proprioception, and ataxia on the same side of the lesion and loss of pain and temperature on the opposite approximately two vertebral levels below the lesion

Back 268

Brown-Sequard’s syndrome

Front 269

Most common familial peripheral neuropathy characterized by a progressive motor and sensory loss. Causes foot drop, decreased/absent reflexes, muscle atrophy. Often presents in childhood

Back 269

Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease

Front 270

Paralysis of the upper brachial plexus

Back 270

Duchenne-Erb paralysis

Front 271

Autosomal recessive degeneration dorsal and lateral columns of the spinal cord characterized by ataxia, kyphoscoliosis, pes cavus, and hypesthesia with onset in the second decade

Back 271

Hereditary spinal ataxia or Friedreich’s ataxia

Front 272

Ascending motor, sensory and autonomic neuron degeneration associated with a viral infection. Presents with symmetric and variable sensory loss. Elevated CSF protein with a normal cell count

Back 272

Guillan-Barre or Acute idiopathic polyneuritis

Front 273

Dementia of brainstem and basal ganglia. Autosomal dominant inheritance

Back 273

Chorea: Huntington”s disease

Front 274

Irreversible triad of confabulation, confusion, and memory loss associated with thiamine deficiency in alcoholics

Back 274

Korsakoff’s syndrome

Front 275

Neurological disease associated with degeneration of the dopaminergic neurons of the substantia nigra. Characterized by a low frequency resting tremor, weakness, rigidity, “shuffle” gait, a mask-like expression, and frequently depression”

Back 275

Parkinson’s disease

Front 276

Causes temporary unilateral facial paralysis

Back 276

Bells Palsy

Front 277

Heavy EtOh and tobacco are major risk factors for

Back 277

Esophageal Cancer

Front 278

Coughing or hoarseness may occur if (blank) nerves are involved.

Back 278

laryngeal

Front 279

Barrett’s esophagus can occur in pts with untreated

Back 279

GERD

Front 280

What microbe is a risk factor for gastric cancer

Back 280

Helicobacter Pylorus

Front 281

245. In Gastric Cancer with mets, a classic sentinel node called (blank) can be found on the left supraclavicular side.

Back 281

Virchow's node

Front 282

What is a gastrin-secreting tumor usually found in the duodenum

Back 282

Zollinger Ellison syndrome

Front 283

Upon conducting a Barium Enema in a pt with suspected left sided Colon Ca the classic “_____” filling defect can be noticed

Back 283

apple core

Front 284

A “_____” appearance can be noted in right sided colon Ca.

Back 284

napkin ring

Front 285

Most common cause of large bowel obstruction is a

Back 285

tumor

Front 286

What is the physical exam finding of a palpable nontender gallbladder in a jaundiced patient (painless jaundice) that is indicative of cancer in the pancreatic head

Back 286

Courvoisier’s sign,

Front 287

Hepatic cancer is associated with which two viruses

Back 287

Hep B and C

Front 288

252. Most common cancer today in Lung Ca. In order of highest prevalence: large cell carcinoma, adenocarcinoma, squamous cell, small cell (oat cell) carcinoma

Back 288

squamous cell > adenocarcinoma > small cell (oat cell) carcinoma > large cell carcinoma

Front 289

Horner’s Syndrome causes

Back 289

miosis, anhydrosis, ptosis

Front 290

What type of disorders are commonly seen with small cell carcinoma, for example, an apical lung tumor is called Pancoast’s tumor, and when it invades the sympathetic ganglia, it can cause Horner’s Syndrome

Back 290

paraneoplastic disorder

Front 291

Superior Vena Cava Syndrome is an obstruction of the venous drainage of the head and neck and can be caused by

Back 291

small cell ca and lymphoma

Front 292

List Thyroid Ca in order if prevalence and best prognosis: anaplastic, follicular, papilary, and medullary

Back 292

Papillary > Follicular > Anaplastic > Medullary

Front 293

What is the diagnosis for pheochromocytoma, a catecholamine secreting tumor of the adrenal gland

Back 293

Dx: 24 hr urine for catecholamines and VMA.

Front 294

What is the most common type of bladder cancer

Back 294

transitional cell carcinoma

Front 295

What is the most common type of renal cancer in adults

Back 295

renal cell carcinoma

Front 296

What is the most common type of renal cancer in children

Back 296

Wilms’ tumor or Nephroblastoma

Front 297

what is the most common type of testicular cancer with the best prognosis

Back 297

seminoma

Front 298

What is a common risk factor of testicular cancer

Back 298

crytorchidism

Front 299

what is a typical prostate cancer screening

Back 299

DRE and PSA in all men starting at 50. (20% are found by DRE in those with nl PSA’s)

Front 300

what virus and types cause cervical cancer

Back 300

HPV 16 18 31

Front 301

what correlation do endometrial cancer and breast cancer have

Back 301

high estrogen states

Front 302

any postmenopausal bleeding should be evaluated for

Back 302

endometrial cancer

Front 303

which tumor marker is often elevatedin ovarian cancer

Back 303

CA-125

Front 304

an ovarian cancer antigen that is the basis for a widely used serum assay for the monitoring of patients with ovarian cancer

Back 304

CA-125

Front 305

Hard, fixed, painless ovarian mass or lymph nodes are often present in

Back 305

ovarian cancer

Front 306

painless lump, nipple retraction, peau d’orange, axillary or supraclavicular lymph node involvement

Back 306

breast cancer

Front 307

preeclampsia in the first half of pregnancy, B-HCG is very high when compared to suspected gestational age, “snowstorm” appearance on US.

Back 307

Hydatidiform Mole (molar pregnancy) or Choriocarcinoma

Front 308

a precancerous lesions that may predispose a pt to developing squamous cell skin ca. Both are found on the sun exposed areas of the skin. Mets is rare.

Back 308

Actinic keratosis

Front 309

common condition found on sun exposed areas, present as pearly papules surrounded by telangiectasia

Back 309

Basal Cell Carcinoma

Front 310

tumor of melanocytes, remember ABCD, Asymmetry, irregular Borders, change in Color, Diameter

Back 310

Malignant Melanoma

Front 311

The most common cancers that mets to bone are

Back 311

breast, lung, prostate, kidney, and thyroid. Identify with bone scan, do bone bx for definitive

Front 312

Primary brain tumors in adults that are the most common and have the highest mortality

Back 312

glioblastoma multiforme

Front 313

Primary brain tumors in adults that are the most common benign tumor

Back 313

meningioma

Front 314

Look for increased ICP: HA, vomiting, papilledema, seizures, personality changes, and decreased mental function.

Back 314

brain tumors

Front 315

Most common childhood brain tumors are

Back 315

cerebellar astrocytoma and medulloblastoma

Front 316

common metastasizing cancers to brain are

Back 316

bronchogenic carcinoma, breast, and melanoma

Front 317

is usually related to inflammation or disruption of the esophageal mucosa, such as from infectious (Candida, viral) esophagitis.

Back 317

odynophagia

Front 318

the sensation of a lump in the throat and is most commonly related to GERD (reflux) or anxiety.

Back 318

globus

Front 319

Patients with (_________) have accumulation of food in the mouth; aspiration; inability to initiate a swallow; nasal regurgitation

Back 319

oropharyngeal dysphagia

Front 320

Etiology of oropharyngeal dysphagia is commonly

Back 320

neurologic (stroke, ALS, multiple sclerosis)

Front 321

a videofluoroscopic swallowing study

Back 321

cineradiography

Front 322

Evaluate suspected oropharyngeal dysphagia with (_____) not (_____)

Back 322

cineradiography; barium swallow (esophagram)

Front 323

Patients with (_____) commonly incorrectly localize the site of the dysfunction to more

Back 323

esophageal dysphagia

Front 324

Obstructive dysphagia typically results in

Back 324

dysphagia for solids

Front 325

Motor disorders of the esophagus typically present with

Back 325

liquid and solid food dysphagia

Front 326

Upper endoscopy is the test of choice for diagnosing

Back 326

obstructive dysphagia.

Front 327

Malignant dysphagia (_____) causes dysphagia for solids

Back 327

slowly progressive

Front 328

which of the esophageal cancers are related to smoking and alcohol, as well as other head & neck cancers

Back 328

Squamous cell carcinoma

Front 329

which of the esophageal cancers are commonly associated with long-standing reflux and Barrett esophagus

Back 329

Adenocarcinoma

Front 330

(_______) cause intermittent dysphagia and the “steakhouse syndrome”: acute esophageal obstruction from a large bolus, brought on by eating rapidly with inadequate chewing of the food.

Back 330

Esophageal (Schatzki) rings

Front 331

causes dysphagia, halitosis, and sometimes a bulge in the neck

Back 331

Zenker’s diverticulum

Front 332

caused by GERD, lye ingestion, or certain medications

Back 332

Esophageal strictures

Front 333

bisphosphonates (aledronate/Fosamax), NSAIDs, iron, potassium, vitamin C, and tetracycline

Back 333

Medications associated with pill-induced esophagitis and strictures