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83 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
5 types of PAMPs
LPS
lipoproteins/peptides
teichoic acid
PG
nucleic acid
what receptors recognize PAMPs
TLR
anti-inflammatory cytokines
IL-4, IL-10, IL-13
3 chemotactic factors
complement component C5a

leukotrienes

bacterial N-formyl methionyl peptides
4 cell surface receptors that mediate attachment
receptor for complemtn C3b (opsonins)

receptor for immunoglobulins (Fc fragment)

fibronectin receptor

lectins
in absence of serum opsonins, what binds microbial surface polysaccharides?
PMN surface receptors
complement C3b binds to LPS by _____ pathway
alternative
phagosome is formed from...
phagocytosis of particles by invagination of the plasmalemma
formation of phagolysosome
fusion of phagosome with lysosome (macrophages)

fusion of phagosome with granules (PMNs) = degranulation
binding of receptors on phagocyte surface to ligands on bacterial surface triggers two killing mechanisms:
oxygen -dependent

oxygen - independent
enzyme that mediates superoxide formation
NADPH oxidase
enzyme that mediates H2O2 formation
superoxide dismutase
enzyme hypochlorite formation
myeloperoxidase
oxygen-dependent killing particularly important for killing what type of bacteria?
gram-positive
3 types of oxygen-independent killing
lysozyme and other hydrolases
cationic proteins
acidification of phagolysosome
oxygen-independent killing is particularly important for killing what type of bacteria?
gram-negative
6 means of evading complement
G+ bacteria: thick peptidoglycan layer
cover up with capsule
hold MAC at arm's length on long O-Ag chains
incorporation of sialic acid into surface molecules
enzymes that degrade C3b
LPS residues that inhibit C' from binding
3 modes of chemotaxis inhibition
cord factor of Mycobacterium tuberculosis inhibits PMN migration

elastase of Ps aeruginosa inactivates C5a

C5a peptidase of S. pyogenes degrades C5a
6 modes of phagocytosis inhibition
capsule
porins
S. pyogenes M protein blocks binding of C3b
protein A (Staph aureus)

hiding in clot or granuloma
- S. aureus coagulase
- M. tuberculosis --> forms granulomas that may harbor viable bacteria for years
5 types of destruction of phagocytes
P. aeruginosa exotoxin A

S. pyogenes streptolysins

P. haemolytica RTX leukocidin

S. aureus hemolysins and leukocidins

phosphatases and kinases injected by T3SS of Yersinia and Salmonella
Mycobacterium leprae menas of immunosuppression
causes decreased CMI
3 viruses that induce immunosuppression
HIV

CMV

EBV
how does Bordetella pertussis induce immunosuppression?
AC toxin interferes with chemotaxis and superoxide production by PMNs
proteins that inactivate antibodies (4)
protein A of S. aureus

protein G of S. pyogenes

IgA proteases of Neisseria and Haemophilus spp

proteases of P. aeruginosa
Mycoplasma pneumoniae mimics what type of host cell?
RBCs
S. pyogenes mimics...
heart tissue
Treponema pallidum mimics...
cardiolipin
antigenic mimcry is less likely to protect bacteria than to...
induce immunopathologic reactions
shedding of Ag can lead to...
absorption/titration of antibodies

e.g.: outer membrane blebs of Neisseria
8 diseases for which passive immunization is available
Hep A & B
measles
rabies
chickenpox
CMV
tetanus
botulism
diphtheria
when is passive immunization usually given?
after exposure to infectious agent
5 important qualities for good vaccine
immunogenic

doesn't cause disease

able to make in large quantities

protects against all variants of an organism

long-lasting
conjugate vaccine
purified component of agent

attached to component that will elicit and immune response
DNA vaccine
DNA encoding immunogen is injected, taken up by cells that then express the gene, eliciting a natural immune response
11 diseases vaccinated against using live vaccines
tularemia
TB
typhoid
polio
measles
mumps
rubella
varicella-zoster
adenovirus
yellow fever
influenza
disadvantages to inactivated vaccines
immunity not as long-lasting
may only elicit B cell response
does not elicit local IgA response
boosters generally required
larger doses must be used
adjuvant used can cause undesired side affects
7 ypes killed, whole cell vaccines
cholera
typoid
plague
Hep A
influenza
Salk vaccine for polio
rabies
subunit vaccines
usually a component (i.e.: virulence factor) of the pathogen that elicits a protective immune response
6 subunit vaccines
Hep B
diphtheria toxoid
tetanus toxoid
anthrax cell-free culture filtrate
pertussis purified toxins
papilloma virus (HPV)
carbohydrate vaccines are an example of what kind of vaccine
subunit
3 examplesof carbohydrate vaccines
S. pneumoniae

N. meningitidis (meningococcus)

H. influenzae (Hib)
transient flora
present in some healthy people for a short time

without causing disease

eventually cleared
are newborns sterile?
yes - colonized soon after birth
do species making up normal microbiota vary greatly between individuals?
yes
3 benefits of normal microbiota
development and priming of the immune system

production of essential nutrients

keeping out the bad guys
probiotics
live microorganisms which when administered in adequate amounts confer a health benefit on the host
probiotics are usually what kind of bacteria
lactic acid bacteria

lactobacilli - G+
prebiotics
non-digestible dietary supplements that modify the balance of the intestinal microbiota

stimulating the growth and/or activity of beneficial organisms and suppressing potentially deletrious bacteria
4 sterile sites in body in which presence of bacteria is usually diagnostic of disease
CNS/CSF

blood

hematopoietic-lymphoreticular system

peritoneum
13 sterile sites of body
stomach
lower respiratory tract
kidneys
digestive glands, pancreas, gallbladder
CNS & meninges
skeleton
skeletal muscles
CVS
hemotopoietic-lymphoreticular system
pleura
peritoneum
urinary system, bladder, urethra
male genital system
resident microbiota on skin
S. epidermis
P. acnes
micrococcus
propionibacterium
transient microbiota on skin
corynebacterum
S. aureus
S. pyogenes
clostridium perfringes
why are there very few G- bacteria on skin?
too dry
normal microbiota in eyes
coagulase-negative Staph
nasopharynx microbiota
normal microbiota in ears
coagulase-negative Staph
a few members of skin microbiota
S. pneumoniae, P. aeruginosa, enterics
lots of what type of bacteria in gums?
anaerobes
esophagus have mostly ____
transients from mouth and URT
small intestine microbiota
flora scarce, increasing with distance from stomach

enterococci, peptostreptococci, Porphyromonas, Prevotella
99.9% of bacteria in large intestine
99.9% anaerobes
normal microbiota in male anterior urethra
coagulase-negative Staphylococci

streptococci

latobacillus
normal microbiota in vagina,
pre-menarche and post-menopause
scanty flora, usually derived from skin and colon

staph, strep, enterococci, enterobacteriaceae
normal microbiota in vagina with estrogen production & deposition of glycogen
lactobacillus
coagulase-negative staph
strept
gardnerella
mycoplasma
ureaplasma
mobinuncus
clostridium
enterococcus
cervis and uterus are usually ____
sterile
pasteurization
heating, usually of a liquid, to a temperature suffficent to inactivate important pathogenic organisms

not high enough to ensure sterilization
dry heat standard methods of sterilization
160*C for 2 hours
moist heat method of sterilization
autoclave
4 sterilizing gases
ethylene oxide

formaldehyde

H2O2

plasma gas
modes of light-based sterilization
UV light

ionizing radiation
2 types sterilizing filters
0.2 micron filters

HEPA filters
2 chemical sterilants
peracetic acid

glutaraldehyde
asepsis
processes designed to prevent microorganisms from reaching a protected environment
germicide
agent that kills microbes,
but spores may survive
sporicide
germicide that kills spores
antiseptic
a disinfectant that can be used on body surfaces
high levels of disinfection are used for...
invasive instruments that are sensitive to other methods of sterilization (i.e.: can't be autoclaved)
intermediate levels of disinfection are used for...
semi-critical instruments or surfaces not likely to be contaminated with spores
low levels of disinfection are used for...
non-critical instruments that do not penetrate mucosal surfaces
commonly used alcohol disinfectants
70-90% ethanol

90-95% isopropanol
commonly used halogen disinfectants
betadine (iodine)

bleach
quaternary ammonium compound used for disinfection
bezalkonium chloride
2 commonly used phenolics for disinfecting
hexachlorophene

chlor-hexidine
oxidizing agents used commonly for disinfecting
H2O2
PCMX and Triclosan are...
disinfectants