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57 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What is the cause of cauda equina syndrome?
What are the main features?
Cauda equina syndrome is due to compression of most descending nerve roots in lumbar spinal canal (<L2). Usually caused by central disc prolapse. Rare: tumour, epidural metastases.

Features:
- saddle area loss (S2-S5 dermatome)
- distended tonic bladder
- Constipation (reduced rectal tone & incontinence)
- Weak sacral myotomes.
What are the 2 types of condition lead to block of neuron?
- Demyelination = conduction block
- Axonal destruction
What is the electromyography (EMG) reading at rest of: conduction block and axonal destruction?
EMG -> record muscle activity with conscious contraction - recorded during rest and light voluntary activity

At rest:
Conduction block = silence
Axonal destruction = fibrillation potential
Fibrillation potential is because the denervated muscle is no longer electrically silent at rest.
What is the EMG reading at mild effort of: conduction block and axonal destruction?
Both conduction block and axonal destruction = motor unit dropout
What is the nerve conduction / velocity study results for conduction block and axonal destruction?
Conduction block = corrected with distal stimuli
Axonal destruction = Not corrected with distal stimuli
What is the characteristics of the spinal cord at the level of:
- Cervical
- Thoracic
Cervical:
- both funiculus cuneatus and gracilis in the dorsal column
- largest white matter to grey matter ratio

Thoracic:
- contains only funiculus gracilis
- lateral horn (T1 - L2) - sympathetic innervation of the body
What are the characteristics of the spinal cord at the level of:
- Lumbar
- Sacral
Lumbar:
- Lateral horn - only up to L2
- Largest ventral horn

Sacral:
- Smallest white matter to grey matter ratio
- Ventral horn
- Small funiculus gracilis
For the following spinal cord nucleus, state the spinal cord level where it can be find, laminae on the spinal cord and function.

Clarke's Nucleus
Clarke's Nucleus:

SC lvl - T1 - L2
Laminae - VII
Function - posterior spinocerebellar tract cells
For the following spinal cord nucleus, state the spinal cord level where it can be find, laminae on the spinal cord and function.

Intermediolateral nuclei (column)
Intermediolateral nuclei.

SC lvl - T1 - L3
Laminae - VII
Function - preganglionic sympathetic neurons
For the following spinal cord nucleus, state the spinal cord level where it can be find, laminae on the spinal cord and function.

Sacral parasympathetic nucleus
Sacral parasympathetic nucleus.

SC Lvl - S2 - S4
Laminae - VII
Function - preganglionic parasympathetic neurons -> pelvic viscera
Describe what’s happening on the ‘stretch’ reflex in terms of information transmission and muscle activation.
Stretch reflex:
o Tapping patellar tendon => activates muscle spindle (detects stretch or length; located on the muscle belly)) => 1a (A alpha) afferent fibre => synapse on alpha motor neurons at the same level of the SC => contracting extensor muscle => passive stretch.
o The stretch information carried by 1a afferent fibres is also passed onto interneurons of the intermediate grey => inhibits alpha motor neurons of the opposite (hamstring - flexor) muscle => reciprocal inhibition.
Describe the process of ‘clasp-knife’ response. What type of motor lesion is associated with this condition
‘Clasp-knife’ response:
o Golgi Tendon Organs (GTO) sense tension in the muscle tendons => information transmission by fast ‘1b’ afferent fibres.
o 1b fibres synapse on both excitatory and inhibitory neurons in the intermediate grey – which synapse on the same motor neuron (? alpha motor neuron) => muscle contraction can be either facilitated, or inhibited.
o When there is damage to descending pathways, muscle resistance is greatly increased – passive flexion of a joint may be at first strongly resisted (facilitation of extensors) but may slowly then completely disappeared (inhibition of extensor).
 Characteristic of upper motor neuron lesion.
Describe the process of withdrawal reflex.
Withdrawal reflex - in response to pain

2 components:
 Flexor reflex
• Cutaneous receptor => involve many levels of SC => requires coordination of extensor and flexor responses, including reciprocal inhibition.
 Crossed extensor reflex
• Simultaneous and opposite pattern of activity in the other limb, to prepare to support the body’s weight.
Label the following diagram of SC pathway
Diagram
What are the 2 types of nociceptor neurons?
o A-delta - lightly myelinated, large, fast
o C fibre - non myelinated, small, slow
What receptor responsible in detecting hot temp? Cold? Touch?
Cutaneous receptor:
o Hot – Organ of Ruffini
o Cold – Bulbs of Krause
 The extreme of both hot and cold are perceived as ‘pain’ by these receptors – the concept of parallel processing
o Touch – Meisner’s corpuscles (fine touch; superficial location / epidermis) & Pacinian corpuscle (deep pressure; deeper location / dermis)
What are the 3 types of neuron (based on structure) and give an example for each?
o Pseudounipolar e.g. sensory neuron
o Bipolar e.g. bipolar cells of the retina
o Multipolar e.g. motor neuron
Name 5 sensory tracts and fill in the details.
Sensory tracts.
Where do fibres of dorsal column and spinothalamic tract cross over?
Level of cross over:
- Dorsal column - Just before the midbrain.
- Spinothalamic tract - at the level of spinal cord
The thalamus is divided by internal lamina into 4 groups of nuclei. What are they?
o Anterior group
o Lateral group
o Medial group
o Intralaminar nuclei
What is the name of the nucleus where the somatosensory pathways projects in the thalamus?

What are the sub divisions of the nucleus? What are the input and output of each subdivision?
VP (Ventral posterior) nucleus.
From the VP nucleus of the thalamus, they projected to the somatosensory cortex. Where is this?
Post central gyrus of the cerebrum.
o The primary somatosensory cortex is also called ‘S1’ area.
S1 is mapped according to the body plan, it is somatotopic. More sensitive regions occupy more cortex than less sensitive ones.
In the 2 somatosensory tract, the information is ‘mapped’. In which part of the pathway does it integrated?
VP nucleus of the thalamus.
Describe the steps involved in the process of transmission of NT.
Transmission process:
o NT molecules are packed into membranous vesicle and docked at the presynaptic terminal
o Depolarisation of presynaptic membrane causes Vg-Ca2+ to open and allows Ca2+ into the terminal.
o Increase in intracellular [Ca2+] leads to fusion of vesicles with presynaptic membrane (exocytosis)
o NT release into extracellular space and diffuse passively to post-synaptic membrane across the synaptic cleft.
o NT bind to the receptors in the post-synaptic membrane: ionotropic or metabotropic receptors; causes ion influx leading to depolarisation of the post synaptic membrane.
What are the 3 mechanisms by which NT can be cleared from the synaptic cleft?
NT in the synaptic cleft is cleared away by continuous diffusion, enzymatic degradation or active uptake into cells.
What are the 5 steps of classical transmission (Katz’ postulate – to establish new NT)?
5 steps of classical transmission (SSRBT):
o Synthesis – presynaptic
o Storage – presynaptic
o Release – into the synaptic cleft via exocytosis
o Binding to receptor – post-synaptic; to iono or metabotropic receptors
o Termination
Describe the mechanism of action of ionotropic and metabotropic receptors. How are they different from each other?
• Ionotropic receptor = ligand gated ion channel
o Direct opening of ion channel upon ligand binding
• Metabotropic receptor = G-protein Coupled Receptors (GPCR)
o Ligand binding to receptor => activated GPCR => release of subunits => acts directly on ion channel or via activation of effector protein
Name the ionotropic and metabotropic glutamate receptors.
Ionotropic:
• AMPA, NMDA, KA

Metabotropic
• mGluR 1-8
What are the possible fates of Glu in the synaptic cleft?
• Bind to (R) post-synaptically
• Reuptake into pre-synaptic terminal via EAA
• Diffused and taken up by glial cells by Glu transporters.
What is the characteristic of all ionotropic Glu (R)s?
All Glu (Rs) are heteromultimer of 4 subunits.
NMDA (R) – Is it slow or fast? What is NMDA-R permeable to? What is its association with [Mg2+]? What is required for channel opening?Antagonists?
NMDA R – slow
• Once Glu binds => release Mg2+ from channel => Ca2+, Na+ influx & K+ efflux. Mg2+ topically inhibits ion movement. Block by high [Mg2+]. Required [gly] for channel opening.
• Antagonist: ketamine.
AMPA R – Slow or fast? What is it permeable to?
AMPA R – fast
• Permeable to: Na+, K+, Ca2+
mGluR 1-8
 What are the roles of mGluR?
Act as autoreceptors on the pre-synaptic membrane to inhibit NT release.
Describe the process of glutamate cycle (SSRBT).
• Synthesis – in glial cells by glutamate synthase converting uptake glutamate to glutamine (Gln).
• Storage – uptake by neuron in the form of Gln which deamidated by PAG (phosphate-activated glutaminase) to glutamate and stored in the vesicle.
• Release
• Binding to receptors
• Termination
Describe the GABA cycle. How is it deactivated?
GABA cycle:

• Synthesis – in glia cells, glutamate synthase converts Glu to Gln. Uptake by pre-synaptic cells and converted by glutaminase to Gln and by GAD (Glutamate decarboxylase) to GABA.
• Storage
• Release - exocytosis
• Binding to receptors
• Termination

Deactivation by:
• Diffusion
• Uptake into glia
• Reuptake as glutamine
Name GABA ionotropic and metabtropic receptors.
Ionotropic receptors: GABA-A, GABA-C.

Metabotropic receptors: GABA-B
What is the action of GABA-A? What other molecule that binds to this receptor at different site?
GABAA role: fast inhibitory signalling in CNS. Used as sleeping pills.

Benzodiazepines bind to GABAA at different binding sites.
What is the action of activated GABA-B? Name 2 agonists to GABA-B.
GABA-B:
• Coupled to GIRK (G-protein Coupled Inward Rectifier) – leads to K+ efflux.
• Action: inhibition in CNS postsynaptically and presynaptic inhibition.
• 2 agonists: GABA & baclofen (to treat spinal spasticity).
What is the definition of Central Pattern Generator (CPG)? Give one example of proof of this concept.
Central pattern generator = neural network that can endogenously (i.e. without rhythmic sensory or central input) produce rhythmic patterned outputs – inhibition/stimulation of certain groups of cells.

Proof:
o Stimulation can initiate locomotion in spinal patients (paraplegic)
What is Brown-sequard syndrome? What is it characterised by?
It is a hemi lesion of the spinal cord at the level of lumbar vertebtrae, affecting the lower limbs.

It is characterised by:
- Loss of vibration and position sense of the affected side (dorsal column)
- Weakness of the lesion side (anterolateral motor pathway)
- Loss of pain and temperature sensation (spinothalamic pathway)
For the following spinal cord syndrome, describe the location of the lesion and symptoms associated with it.

Posterior cord syndrome.
Posterior cord syndrome = lesion of the posterior spinal cord at the cervical level.

Symptom:
- loss of vibration and position sense (dorsal column) of both sides of the body from neck down.
For the following spinal cord syndrome, describe the location of the lesion and symptoms associated with it.

Anterior cord syndrome.
Anterior cord syndrome = lesion of the anterior spinal cord at the level of spinal cord.

Symptom:
- loss of motor function and sense of pain and temperature from the neck down.
For the following spinal cord syndrome, describe the location of the lesion and symptoms associated with it.

Transverse cord lesion.
Transverse cord lesion = lesion spanning the whole spinal cord at the lumbar level.

Symptom:
- loss of motor function, vibration and position sense, and pain and temperature bilaterally from waist down.
Where does the corticospinal originate from?
1/3 M1, 1/3 M2 (area 6), 1/3 S1 (area 3, 1, 2)
- Both frontal and parietal cortex.
From what type of cells in the cortex does corticospinal tract originate from?
Pyramidal cells in layer V of the cortex.
Describe the pathway of corticospinal tract.
Corticospinal tract:

Cereberal cortex (M1, SMA, PMC, S1) -> corona radiata -> internal capsule -> cerebral peduncles -> enter pyramids on the ventral aspect of medulla -> 90% cross over at the pyramidal decussation (lateral corticospinal tract), 10% do not cross (ventral corticospinal tract) - most of these cross before entering the ventral horn.
What is the function of corticospinal tract?
Provide input to motor neurons that innervate skeletal muscles, esp flexors.
Describe the corticobulbar fibres pathway.
Head and face regions of the motor areas (M1) -> corona radiata -> genu of internal capsule -> cerebral peduncles (medial to the corticospinal) -> synapse bilaterally on the motor nuclei of cranial nerves (except for CN VII (facial) - only contralaterally for lower CN VII)+ cells of the reticular formation.
What is the characteristics of the following? Is it glutamatergic or GABAergic?
- Corticospinal tract
- Corticobulbar tracts
- Corticospinal tract - Glutamatergic
- Corticobulbar fibre - Glutamatergic
Describe what happens in the left upper motor neuron lesion of CN VII (facial CN).
Weakness of the lower left face muscle but spared left forehead - forehead is innervated bilaterally by both left and right CN VII nuclei.
Describe what happens in the right lower motor neuron lesion of CN VII (facial CN).
Weakness of the left side of the face; both forehead and the rest of the face.
Name the tracts that are included in the bulbospinal tract and the cells of origin of each tract.
Bulbospinal tract = brainstem to spinal cord

a) Rubrospinal tract: red nucleus
b) Reticulo-spinal: reticular formation
c) Tecto-spinal: tectum (superior and inferior colliculus)
d) Vestibulospinal: vestibulocochlear nerve (CN III)
Describe the rubrospinal tract pathway. Where does it cross over? Where does it end?
Somatotopic M1 -> red nucleus -> cross over in midbrain or medulla -> lateral medulla -> terminate in SC intermediate grey (Rexed's V - VIII) -> flexor groups.
Where does reticulo spinal tract originate from? What are its functions?
Origin: peri-aqueductal grey.
Functions:
- mediating motor function
- mediating autonomic functions
- modulating pain impulses
There are 2 reticulospinal tracts: medial (pontine) and lateral (medullary). What are their functions?
Lateral and medial pathways have opposing effects.
Lateral: facilitates extensors, maintain posture.
Medial: liberates antigravity mm from reflex control
Describe the pathway of the tecto-spinal tract.
What are its function?
Deep layers of the superior colliculus -> cross midline in the midbrain -> descend in C/L central medulla close to medial meniscus -> terminate in the C/L inetermediate grey (lamina VI and VII) in the cervical levels.

Function: orientation reflexes of the head, especially towards auditory and somatosensory stimuli.
What is the origin of the vestibulospinal tract? What are the pathways to both lateral and medial vestibular nuclei? Innervation?
Nuclei of the CN VIII pons.
Descend bilaterally through medial longitudinal fasciculus to lower medulla (spinal accessory nucleus) and upper cervical spinal cord to innervate muscles controlling head position and orientation reflexes.
Fibres from the lateral nucleus projects to all level of the SC.

Innervate extensor groups and help maintain posture and balance.