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57 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Which of the following is not a feature of Sphenisciformes?

a. have heavy, non-pneumatic bones
b. newly hatched chicks are poikilothermic
c. most are emmetropic
d. require supplement of thiamine, vitamins A and E and salt if in fresh water
e. PCR is the best diagnsotic to determine if treatment for Plasmodium is required
Sphenisciformes - penguins
e. PCR is the best diagnostic to determine if treatment for Plasmodium is required
-PCR is too sensitive and leads to detection of low level parasitemia which results in unnecessary or too eraly of tretament; use blood smears instead to determine when to treat
Which of the following are the featherless areas in penguins?

a. neck, ears, and eyes
b. feet, beak, and eyes
c. neck, feet, and eyes
d. eyes, beak and tail
e. ventral wings, beak, and eyes
b. feet, beak, and eyes
Fish eating penguins should be supplemented with what? And how much?
A) thiamin 15 mg and Vitamin E 50 IU/kg of fish
B) thiamin 100 mg and Vitamin E 15 IU/kg of fish
C) Thiamin 50 mg and Vitamin E 150 IU/kg of fish
D) thiamin 25 mg and Vitamin E 100 IU/kg of fish
E) Thiamin 100 mg and V itamin E 10 IU/kg of fish
D) thiamin 25 mg and Vitamin E 100 IU/kg of fish
Which of the following diseases is the most important disease of indoor penguins?
A) Malaria
B) Aspergillosis
C) Pasturellosis
D) Mycobacteriosis
E) E. Coli
B) Aspergillosis
Which of the following diseases is the most important disease of outdoor exhibited penguins?
A) Malaria
B) Aspergillosis
C) Pasturellosis
D) Mycobacteriosis
E) E. Coli
A) Malaria
Plasmodium relictum mostly
Which of the following is false regarding penguin molting?
A) High metabolic demand
B) Thyroxin controls feather growth
C) At the end of molt all hormones return to normal except T4
D) Corticosterone modulates fasting
E) King penguins loose up to 58% of body mass during molting
C) At the end of molt all hormones return to normal except T4

*At the end of molt these hormones return to normal and there is a 4fold rise in corticosterone
Which of the following belong in the same group/Order?

a. herons, storks, pelicans
b. trogons, quetzals, and toucans
c. pelicans, frigate birds and gannets
d. parrots, finches, and hummingbirds
e. curassow, storks, and herons
c. pelicans, frigate birds and gannets
Ciconiiformes - Herons, Storks, New World Vultures and relatives
Trogoniformes- Trogons, Quetzals
Piciformes- Woodpeckers, Toucans and relatives
Trochiliformes - Hummingbirds
Which of the following is most likely to be affected by lead poisoning secondary to ingestion of lead shot?

a. Tundra swans
b. Mute swan
c. Whopper swan
d. common loon
e. brown pelican
a. Tundra swans
-also puddle ducks and bay diving ducks; Canada, Snow, and Ross’ geese

-the other spp. mentioned are more commonly exposed by sinkers and jigs
Which of the following is not part of the signs observed with lead toxicosis in waterfowl?

a. pale flabby heart
b. cephalic edema
c. esophagus and preoventirculus impaction
d. good body condition with extensive fat reserves
e. distended gall bladders
d. good body condition with adequate fat reserves

-they are usually emaciated w/ loss of body fat under the skin
Which of the following is the etiologic agent of what is observed as "gaping" geese?

a. Cyathostoma bronchialis
b. Aelurostrongylus abstrussus
c. Syngamus trachea
d. Dyctiocaulsu viviparus
e. Theromyzon spp.
a. Cyathostoma bronchialis - gape worm of waterfowl

Aelurostrongylus abstrussus - lungworm of cats
Syngamus trachea - gape worm but usu assoc. w/ land species not waterfowl
Dyctiocaulus viviparus - lung worm of cattle and deer
Theromyzon spp. - nasal leech of water fowl
Which of the following has not been associated with angel wing in waterfowl?

a. excess protein
b. excess manganese
c. hypovitaminosis D
d. hypovitaminosis E
e. too rapid growth
b. excess manganese
-it is actually manganese deficiency
What hormone stimulates the production of crop milk in pigeons?

a. progesterone
b. estrogen
c. prolactin
d. testosterone
e. prostaglandin
c. prolactin
What hormone is involved in the formation of medullary bone and shelling of the egg in birds?

a. progesterone
b. estrogen
c. prolactin
d. testosterone
e. prostaglandin
b. estrogen
Choose the FALSE statement regarding the Chlamydia life cycle.
A. There are 2 major forms; elementary bodies and reticulate bodies.
B. Elementary bodies are small particles that exist outside of the host and are considered infectious.
C. Reticulate bodies are metabolically inert and are not susceptible to antibiotics
D. The Chlamydia particles are shed from infected bird in their feces, urine, ocular exudates and respiratory exudates.
E. Reticulate bodies form large intracytoplasmic inclusions that are filled with many daughter reticulate bodies.
C. Reticulate bodies are metabolically inert and are not susceptible to antibiotics

-the elementary bodies are inert.
Choose the CORRECT statement regarding Chlamydia and immunity.
A. Chlamydia can evade the host system as a result of the following mechanisms; suppression of cytokine production, antigenic variation and infective cells can reproduce and pass Chlamydia straight to the daughter cells without release of immunogenic bodies.
B. Chlamydia is only susceptible to antibiotics when it is in its inert form.
C. Host immunity is thought to be primarily B-lymphocyte based.
D. Increased levels of IgG and IgA are not thought to be protective.
E. Immunity to infection is short lived and birds that have been treated are susceptible to infection shortly finishing their course of treatment.
E. Immunity to infection is short lived and birds that have been treated are susceptible to infection shortly finishing their course of treatment.
Choose the CORRECT combination of species of bird and most common clinical presentation of a Chlamydial infection.
A. adult lovebirds and high mortality, Australian parakeets and conjunctivitis, amazons and biliverdinuria, macaws and lower respiratory signs, cockatoos and chronic wasting, geese and conjunctivitis, general resistance in adult pheasants & chickens and high mortality in young (chick) ratites.
B. ratites and high mortality, adult lovebirds and conjunctivitis, Australian parakeets and biliverdinuria, amazons and lower respiratory signs, macaws and chronic wasting, cockatoos and conjunctivitis, general resistance in geese and high mortality in young (chick) adult pheasants & chickens.
C. Australian parakeets and high mortality, amazons and conjunctivitis, macaws and biliverdinuria, cockatoos and lower respiratory signs, geese and chronic wasting, pheasants & chickens and conjunctivitis, general resistance in adult ratites and high mortality in young (chick) lovebirds.
D. macaws and conjunctivitis, general resistance in cockatoos, high mortality in young (chick) geese, and high mortality in adult pheasants & chickens, Australian parakeets and conjunctivitis, adult lovebirds and biliverdinuria, ratites and lower respiratory signs and amazons and chronic wasting.
E. Cockatoos and high mortality, pheasants & chickens and lower respiratory signs, macaws and chronic wasting, general resistance in geese, amazons and conjunctivitis, high mortality in young (chick) ratites, adult lovebirds and conjunctivitis and Australian parakeets and biliverdinuria.
A. adult lovebirds and high mortality, Australian parakeets and conjunctivitis, amazons and biliverdinuria, macaws and lower respiratory signs, cockatoos and chronic wasting, geese and conjunctivitis, general resistance in adult pheasants & chickens and high mortality in young (chick) ratites.
Choose the CORRECT combination of compounds that Chlamydia is susceptible to.
A. 50% ethanol, bleach, benzalkonium chloride
B. bleach, 70% ethanol, 3% hydrogen peroxide
C. 90% ethanol, quaternary ammonium, benzalkonium chloride
D. 50% ethanol, quaternary ammonium, bleach, benzalkonium chloride
E. 3% hydrogen peroxide, 70% ethanol, benzalkonium chloride, quaternary ammonium
E. 3% hydrogen peroxide, 70% ethanol, benzalkonium chloride, quaternary ammonium
Choose the INCORRECT statement.
A. Some of the common results from the chemistry and hematology from a symptomatic Chlamydia bird include; anaemia, leukocytosis with a heterophilia, elevations in AST, LDH and plasma bile acid, hepatomegaly and air sacculitis.
B. Intracytoplasmic chlamydial inclusion bodies can be identified in smears or tissue impressions stained with H & E
C. Chlamydia can cause a non-suppurative meningitis which will result in central nervous system signs including; convulsion, tremors, head tilt and posterior paresis.
D. It is recommended to perform the direct complement fixation test (DCF) and the latex agglutination (LA) in combination in order to obtain the most information regarding chlamydial titers.
E. Although exceptionally challenging, culture is considered a gold standard because it is very rare to have a false positive.
B. Intracytoplasmic chlamydial inclusion bodies can be identified in smears or tissue impressions stained with H & E

-Have to use a Gimenez or modified Machiavello’s stain
Choose the FALSE statement regarding Chlamydia.
A. Serovars are labeled from the host that they were first identified.
B. Chlamydia is an obligate intracellular organism that can synthesize most of its own needs.
C. Chlamydia is dependent on the host cell for energy, as it cannot generate high energy bonds.
D. The cell envelope of Chlamydia is similar to that of a gram positive organism.
E. The species of Chlamydia that have medical importance to the human field are trachomatis and pneumoniae.
D. The cell envelope of Chlamydia is similar to that of a gram positive organism.

-gram negative
For treatment of spiral bacteria in cockatiels, which of the following is true?

a. there is no appropriate therapy reported
b. doxycycline in the water was shown to eliminate infection
c. doxycycline reduced but not eliminated infection
d. doxycycline in food but not in water eliminated infection
e. it is non-pathogenic so treatment is not necessary
b. doxycycline in the water was shown to eliminate infection

JAVMA08 232(3):389
Which of the follwoing is the more prevalent sign of selenium posioning in birds?

a. neurologic signs
b. embryonic deaths and deformities
c. hepatomegaly and spelnomegaly
d. white muscles
e. joint swellling with hyperflexion
b. embryonic deaths and deformities
Which of the following is true about salt toxicosis in house sparrows?

a. findings include visceral gout and non-pyogranulomatous nephritis
b. plasma concentrations of sodium must reach 500 mmol/L before onset of clinical signs
c. birds that survived 6 hours post exposure were more likely to recover
d. there was no difference in the sodium concentration of birds that died and controls
e. a high dose of 1,500 mg/kg is needed to elevate plasma sodium above reference range
c. birds that survived 6 hours post exposure were more likely to recover

-no histo signs due to acute nature of expsoure
-plasma >200 mmol/L assoc. w/ signs
-brain Na was higher in treated birds
-<500 mg/kg or less than one road salt granule is needed to elevate plasma Na; 1,500 mg/kg needed to elevate brain Na

-no clinical signs in birds dosed at 500 mg/kg but 2/12 died at 1,500 mg/kg

JWD05 41(2):363
Which of the following gross lesions was observed in experimental salt toxicosis of house sparrows?

a. no gross lessions
b. edema beneath koilin
c. nephormegaly
d. pale organs
e. hepatomegaly
b. edema beneath koilin

JWD05 41(2):363
What is the best tisssue sample to collect for diagnosis of salt toxicosis in waterfowl?

a. formalin fixed kidney
b. frozen and formalin fixed brain
c. frozen liver
d. formalin fixed feather
e. frozen and formalin fixed lungs
b. frozen and formalin fixed brain

Man Wildl Dz Ch47
Which of the following is true about the avian GI tract?

a. the proventriculus has 3 muscle layers
b. digestion is controlled by the vagus nerve
c. the proventriculus is control by the pudendal nerve
d. the ventriculus moves in counter clock wise fashion
e. the proventriculus has ridges in psittacines only
b. digestion is controlled by the vagus nerve

-2 muscle layers: 1. innermost circular
2. outermost longitudinal = poorly developed or absent in parrots, waterfowl, some passerines; in these species, the myenteric plexus is located under the serosa layer rather than b/n the 2 muscle layers

-proventriculus and ventriculus controlled by myenteric plexus

-clockwise movement

-ridges in carnivores and piscivores only
Dead ducks are found in an area with bloody discharge from the vent. Some live ducks have sores under the tongue. What should be your top differential?

a. Duck herpes virus
b. Pasteurella multocida
c. Botulism
d. Avian influenza
e. Avian paramyxovirus
a. Duck herpes virus
Which of the following is not a sign of duck herpes virus?

a. hypersensitivity to light
b. bloody discharge from the vent
c. prolapsed penis/phallus
d. cold sores under the tongue
e. emaciation
e. emaciation

-usu. peracute deaths so they are in good BCS
Which of the following is true about Pasteurella multocida in waterfowl?

a. white fronted geese are main carriers
b. wetlands have been proven to be the main reservoir
c. only waterfowl are susceptible
d. seroconversion represents recent infection
e. has not been reported in the southern United States
d. seroconversion represents recent infection

-Ross' and lesser snow geese are carriers
-wetlands unlikely reservoir; birds are reservoir
-waterfowl, raptors, etc......
-4 major foci of P. multocida:
1. Central valley of California
2. Tule lake & Klamath basin CA and OR
3. Texas panhandle
4. Rainwater basin Nebraska
Which of the follwoing is false about Francisella tularensis holarctica (palaearctica)?

a. type B tularemia
b. muskrat and beaver vectors
c. low virulence in humans
d. tick borne disease
e. found in nearctic and palearctic regions
d. tick borne disease

-it is waterborne

Type A tularemia:
tick-borne dz of rabbits
mod. to high virulence for humans
90% of human cases in USA

Type B tularemia:
waterborne dz vectored by rodents (beaver, muskrat, and mice)
prairie dog cases
lower virulence
5-10% of humancases in USA
Which of the following is not ideal for botulism growth?

a. warm water
b. anaerobic environment
c. invertebrate die offs
d. stable deep water levels
e. organic matter breakdown
d. stable deep water levels

-altering water levels during hot weather may lead to invert die offs
-invert die offs serve as protein source
Which of the following is true about an outbreak of type C botulism in herring gulls?

a. had severe heterophilic enteritis with cytoplasmic vacuolation
b. caused by ingestion of tilapia
c. type C botulinum toxin detected in the liver
d. animals had empty stomachs but where in good body condition
e. there was a lack on neurologic signs
d. animals had empty stomachs but where in good body condition

-no gross or histo lesions
-unknown origin (tilapia source was in pelicans)
-toxin in serum
-neuro, dehydration, BAR

Type C toxin (most common): waterfowl, shorebirds, colonial waterbirds, and others
Type E toxin: gulls, loons, and others
What is true about natural WNV in blue jays?

a. splenomegaly and poor body condition were the most consistent findings
b. retinitis was the most common histopathologic finding
c. the kidney was the tissue best suited for immunohistochemistry
d. the heart had the highest titers
e. PCR was the most sensitive test when using kidney
a. splenomegaly and poor body condition were the most consistent findings

-mononuclear leukocytosis and epicarditis/myocarditis
-IHC: heart > kidney > liver
-titers: brain > heart
-PCR most sensitive regardless of tissue

JWD 05 41(2):354
Which of the following was observed in red tailed and cooper's hawks naturally infected with WNV?

a. cloudiness of aqueous
b. retinal hypertrophy
c. pectinitis
d. hemorrhage of the anterior chamber
e. mild conjunctivitis
c. pectinitis was the most common finding

-also retinal atrophy, chorioretinal scarring w/ linear or geographical pattern, and exudative chorioretinitis

JAVMA07 231(8):1240
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING WAS OBSERVED AFTER EXPERIMENTAL INFECTION OF RAPTORS WITH WNV?

a. red tailed hawks and great horned owls but not kestrels were competent amplifying hosts
b. arteritis reported for the first time
c. encephalitis and nephritis were the most common findings
d. no mosquito infectious levels of viremia were observed
e. identified cloacal but not per os shedding of the virus 20 days post infection
b. arteritis reported for the first time

JWD 06 42(1):1
Which of the folowing was observed after experimental infection of greater sea grouse (Centrocercus urophasianus) with WNV?

a. no viremia was detected despite high mortality
b. the fowl pox vaccine used lacked the NS 1 gene and adding this gene could lead to better survival rates
c. all grouse were challenged by oral administartion and died within 10 days of infection
d. 50% of the vaccinated birds survived until the end point of the study
e. birds shed the virus orally but not via the cloaca
b. the fowl pox vaccine used lacked the NS 1 gene and adding this gene could lead to better survival rates

JWD06 42(1):14
Which of the following was observed after vaccination of penguins with killed virus and DNA WNV vaccine?

a. humboldt penguins had the lowest seroconversion rates
b. the DNA vaccine was more protective than the killed vaccine
c. greatest seroconversion for the killed vaccine was observed 6 months after vaccination
d. a maximum of 80% seropositivity was achieved
e. the killed vaccine produced less consistent results than the DNA vaccine
a. humboldt penguins had the lowest seroconversion rates

-killed vaccine was best
-greatest seroconversion for both vacc 2 months after vacc (first sampling interval)
-100% for MG and GT
-killed was best

JZWM08 39(4):582
Which of the following is true about the avian kidney?

a. kidney mass is smaller in birds with salt glands
b. the kidneys are supplied by a single artery and vein
c. the caudal kidneys are connected across midline in herons, puffins, and penguins
d. when the renal valve in the common iliac vein is open, blood is shunted from the limbs to the kidneys
e. the avian kidney lacks loop of henle therefore it can not concentrate urine like mammals
c. the caudal kidneys are connected across midline in herons, puffins, and penguins

-middle and caudal divisions fused in passerines

-kidney mass is larger in birds w/ active salt glands

-supplied by dual afferent blood supply: arterial and venous
1st blood supply
-cranial kidney supplied by cranial arteries off the aorta
-middle and cd. kidney supplied by middle and cd. arteries off the isciatic or external iliac arteries
2nd blood supply = renal portal system = venous supply
-external iliac, isciadic, and caudal mesenteric veins
-ring on ventral kidney by cr. and cd. portal veins off the external iliac and common iliac veins
-direct blood to or shunt it past the kidney as directed by renal portal valve

-renal valve w/in common iliac open = venous blood from limbs shunted to vena cava
-renal valve w/in common iliac closed = venous flow from the limbs directed to afferent venous system

-only 10-30% of nephrons have loop of henle
Which of the following is true about the avian salt gland?

a. only present in penguins and waterfowl
b. hyperplasia of the gland is seen when birds are maintained in fresh water
c. works independent of the kidney
d. the secreted sodium chloride is always less than the plasma levels
e. the draining duct opens into the nasal cavity
e. the draining duct opens into the nasal cavity

-found in almost all bird spp
-hyperplasia d/t increased exposure to salt, atrophy in salt water

-intimate association between renal fxn and extrarenal NaCl excretion

-secrted salt is 10x the plasma concentration
Which of the following would be less susceptible to Salmonella spp.?

a. psittaciformes
b. passeriformes
c. columbiformes
d. galliformes
e. sphenisciformes
d. galliformes

-those with well developed ceca are less susceptible
Which of the following is more resistant to paramyxovirus?

a. Amazon parrots
b. canaries
c. cockatoos
d. conures
e. lories
paramyxo = New castle dz

b. canaries and finches

high susceptibility: cockatoos, cockatiels, Amazon's , conures

mod. susceptibility: macaws, parakeets, lories, African spp.
Which of the following is true about pox virus in birds/

a. cutaneous pox is the most common form in finches
b. canaries are resistant to pox
c. septicemic form is characterized by respiratory noise
d. the cutaneous form is the most lethal
e. the diphtheroid from affects the eyes and conjunctiva
a. cutaneous pox is the most common form in finches

-septicemic and diphtheroid in canaries
-septicemic form leads to silent dyspnea and cyaonosis w/ 90-100% mort
-septicemic is most lethal, cutaneous heal w/in 3-4wks.
-diphtheroid affects mucosa of tongue, pharynx, and larynx; cutaneous does the toes, legs, eyes, beak, skin
Which of the following is not a cause of perosis?

a. choline deficiency
b. calcium deficiency
c. excess protein
d. manganese deficiency
e. folic acid deficiency
b. calcium deficiency

-calcium excess can cause manganese deficiency, one of the leading causes of perosis

other deficiencies:
biotin (vitamin H)
choline
folic acid
manganese
niacin
Pantothenic acid (Vitamin B3, Vitamin B5, Pantothenate)
Pyridoxine (Vitamin B6, Pyridoxine)

excess: calcium and protein
Which of the following would identify a male bird?

a. XZ
b. ZZ
c. ZW
d. ZY
e. XY
b. ZZ

ZZ males

ZW females
Which of the follwoing is true about columbid herpes virus 1?

a. causes high mortality in racing pigeons
b. causes bone marrow necrosis in falconiformes and strigiformes
c. diagnose basophilic intracytoplasmic inclusions
d. transmitted to falcons via sharing of brood areas
e. is a gammaherpes virus distinct from falcon herpes virus 1, and alpha herpes virus
b. causes bone marrow necrosis in falconiformes and strigiformes

columbid herpes 1 = inclusion body dz = inclusion body hepatitis of rock pigeons = FHV-1 and StrHV-1

-mostly subclinical carriers in adult pigeons, dz in squabs of uninfected parents or immune compromised
-eos. intranuclear
-trans by feeding on pigeons and doves
-alphaherpes

JWD08 44(2):427
Natural columbid herpes virus 1 infection was reported for the first time in what Accipiter?

a. Cooper's hawk
b. American kestrel
c. Prairie falcon
d. Red shoulder hawk
e. Mississippi kite
a. Cooper's hawk

JWD08 44(3):622
Which of the following is the only true natural green pigment in birds?

a. turacin
b. melanin
c. turacoverdin
d. porphyrin
e. carotenoids
c. turacoverdin

turacin = red
Which of the following is the etiology of black head disease in turkeys?

a. Heterakis gallinarum
b. turkey pox
c. Histomonas meleagridis
d. Plasmodium relictum
e. Theromyzon rude
c. Histomonas meleagridis is a protozoa transmitted by the nematode Heterakis gallinarum; erathworms may also be paratenic hosts

Plasmosium relictum - malaria
Theromyzon spp. - nasal leeches
Whihc of the folwloing is true about the tretament of coccidia in cranes?

a. amprolium was the most effective but had lower acceptance rates
b. calzuril had less side effects but was not very effective
c. monensin was the most effective and safe treatment
d. clazuril led to lower shedding but higher extraintestinal stages of the coccidia
e. amprolium led to the lowest extra intestinal stages of coccidia
c. monensin was the most effective and safe treatment
-low shedding and low extra intestinal stages after Tx
Which of the following anatomical feature is responsible for the low prevalence of lens luxations in birds?

a. scleral ossicles
b. high intraocular pressures
c. small size of the lens compared to mammals
d. ciliary body attachments
e. higher viscosity of the aqueous
d. ciliary body attachments
Which of the following is false about Theromyzon spp. infection in birds?

a. puddle ducks are more affected than diving ducks
b. peak in the spring and summer
c. infect the nasal passage, trachea and nictitating membrane
d. can only be diagnosed postmortem
e. not reported below the 30th parallel
d. can only be diagnosed postmortem

-grossly visible but on necropsy may see them more clearly within nasal passage
Man Wildl Dz CH 34
Which of the following is the primary vector of leukocytozoon?

a. Hippoboscidae
b. Tabanidae
c. Culicidae
d. Mycetophilidae
e. Simuliidae
e. Simuliidae

Culicidae - mosquitoes
Hippoboscidae- louse flies
Tabanidae - horse flies
Which of the following is true about the casque of hornbills?

a. it is directly connected to the paranasal and maxillary sinuses
b. the Crowned hornbill has a solid casque
c. the casque is larger and more elaborate in females
d. it is enclosed by a thick layer of cancellous bone
e. it allows access to the infraorbital sinus
a. it is directly connected to the paranasal and maxillary sinuses

-helmeted hornbill (Rhinoplax vigil) has solid casque

-casque larger and elaborate in males

-minimal cancellous bone

-infraorbital sinus can only be accessed from w/in the orbit of the eye
Which of the following is true about the imaging of casque sinuses within the paranasal sinus system of hornbills?

a. contrast radiography was the best method to determine connections between the sinuses
b. in small specimes, the calculated casque space using contrast was lower than the real space
c. it was easier to fill the maxillary sinus with contrast in larger specimens
d. reformatted sagittal CT images provided the most detailed view of the sinuses
e. transverse CT images provided the best detail of the casque spaces
e. transverse CT images provided the best detail of the casque spaces

-contrast radiographs were poor in assessing connection b/n casque spaces and the para-nasal sinuses

-overcalculaton in small b/c contrast overflowed into the paranasal sinuses

-sagittal views not useful because of large slice thickness of CT
Which of the following sutures is most appropriate for use in body wall closures of birds?

a. monofilament nylon
b. monofilament stainless steel
c. chromic gut
d. polydioxanone
e. polyglactin 910
d. polydioxanone = PDS

polyglactin 910 = vicryl

JAMS97 11(3):175
Which of the follwoing is true about the pharmacokinetics of tramadol in bald eagles?

a. plasma levels of M1 were higher with intravenous versus oraladministration
b. M1 levels but not tramadol levels adequate for analgesia where obtained
c. bioavailability of tramadol and M1 was poor
d. tramadol but not M1 levels obtained were similar to therapeutic levels in humans after oral administration
e. based on the results, an intravenous dose administered every 6 hours was recommended
d. tramadol but not M1 levels obtained were similar to therapeutic levels in humans after oral administration

JAMS09 23(4):247
Which of the following is true about the administration of luperolide acetate to Hispaniolan amazons?

a. it caused a decrease in gonadal size and secretion of androstenedione
b. the duration of effects of luperolide were determined to be approximately two weeks based on plasma levels of androstenedione and 17β-estradiol
c. fecal 17β-estradiol levels decreased for 20 days post administration of luperolide before returning to baseline levels
d. plasma levels of 17β-estradiol remained decreased for 2 weeks longer than levels of androstenedione
e. fecal levels of 17β-estradiol were only significantly decreased in females as compared to males in which no effects were observed
b. the duration of effects of luperolide were determined to be approximately two weeks based on plasma levels of androstenedione and 17β-estradiol

-no effect on gonad size, all were inactive
-fecal 17β-estradiol levelsincreased sig from day 7 post Lupron to day 21 post Lupron and was higher than the baseline values by day 21
-both followed similar trend and were only decreased for about 2 weeks
-fecal levels of 17β-estradiol were only measured in female birds

JAMS09 23(4):253
Which of the following configuration of an external fixator and tie in pin is the strongest?

a. 1 + 1 with 1.1mm pins and 6 mm acrylic bar
b. 2 + 2 with 1.1mm pins and 10mm acrylic bar
c. 1 + 2 with 1.6mm pins and 10mm acrylic bar
d. 1 + 1 with 1.6 mm pins and 10mm thermoplast bar
e. 2 + 2 with 1.6 m pins and 10mm acrylic bar
e. 2 + 2 with 1.6 m pins and 10mm acrylic bar

JAMS09 23(4):263