Ate2612 - Animal Medicine - Krall - Midterm And Final

Front 1

All of the following are cardinal signs of inflammation EXCEPT:

A) pain
B) heat
C) cyanosis
D) swelling

Back 1

cyanosis

Front 2

Interferon is a protein produced by the body and will have the effect of:

A) reducing the ability of a pathogen to produce a disease in the host
B) reducing the production of lymphocytes
C) increasing the level of inflammation
D) increasing phagocytosis in the host

Back 2

A) - reducing the ability of a pathogen to produce a disease in the host

Front 3

The purpose of adding an adjuvant to a vaccine is to:

A) reduce the pain on injection
B) to allow the vaccine to be administered subcutaneously
C) to increase the immune response of the vaccine
D) to reduce the possibility of inflammation following administration

Back 3

C) to increase the immune response of the vaccine

Front 4

The modified live viruses that are used in some vaccines are wakened by:

A) immersing them in a weak disinfectant solution
B) inbreeding programs for propagation
C) cooling the viral particles to sub-optimal temperatures
D) growing the viral particles in a non-host species

Back 4

D) growing the viral particles in a non-host species

Front 5

Recombinant technology used in the production of vaccines will involve:

A) the combination of several viral species
B) splicing an antigenic gene into a non-pathogenic virus
C) administering several vaccines in the same injection site
D) mixing bacterial and viral antigens in the same vaccine

Back 5

B) splicing an antigenic gene into a non-pathogenic virus

Front 6

TermThe use of adjuvants in vaccines have been linked to:

A) suppression of the immune system
B) a high level of eosinophils
C) tumor formation at the vaccination site
D) central nervous system disturbances

Back 6

C) tumor formation at the vaccination site

Front 7

TermA killed bacterin would be used in the vaccine to protect against canine:

A) Leptospirosis
B) Distemper
C) Parvo
D) Parainfluenza

Back 7

A) Leptospirosis

Front 8

TermLyophilization in vaccine production refers to the process of:

A) modification of viral particles
B) adding an adjuvant

C) combination of antigens

D) freeze drying

Back 8

D) freeze drying

Front 9

The type of immunity acquired through the administration of vaccines is most accurately called:

A) natural
B) passive

C) Acquired

D) Inherited

Back 9

C) Acquired

Front 10

An important medication in the treatment of anaphalactic shock related to severe vaccine reactions is:

A)enrofloxacin

B)glycopyrolate

C)bupenorphine

D) epinephrine

Back 10

D) epinephrine

Front 11

The limb most often chosen for rabies vaccination is the:

Back 11

right rear

Front 12

The most common cause of failure to produce a protective level of antibodies following vaccination is:

Back 12

presence of colostrum

Front 13

A breed of dog that is considered high risk for Canine Parvo Virus is

Back 13

Rottweiler

Front 14

Measles vaccine for puppies may be used to protect puppies at high risk of contracting:

Back 14

distemper

Front 15

Bordetella bronchiseptica is an organism that is classified as a:

Back 15

bacteria

Front 16

The many types of Leptospira organisms are called:

Back 16

serovars

Front 17

Canine adenovirus type 2 vaccines are useful in protection against:

Back 17

hepatitis and tracheobronchitis

Front 18

Panleukopenia or feline distemper is caused by a virus that is classified as a:

Back 18

parvovirus

Front 19

A feline disease that is caused by a retrovirus is:

Back 19

leukemia

Front 20

A vaccine that is considered to be part of the core vaccines for the feline is:

Back 20

feline distemper

Front 21

The vaccine that contains a live attenuated bacteria will protect against:

Back 21

Bordetella bronchiseptica

Front 22

Canine distemper is a disease that is best described as:

Back 22

a severe disease that is multisystemic

Front 23

"Hard Pad Disease" is another name for canine:

Back 23

Distemper

Front 24

An antitussive is a medication that will reduce the symptoms of:

Back 24

cough

Front 25

A canine disease that may be detected by performing a lab test for antigen in the stool is:

Back 25

Parvo

Front 26

The route of vaccination that is recommended for canine kennel cough vaccines is:

Back 26

intranasal

Front 27

The Parvo virus will have a tendency to target cells in the following areas EXCEPT:

Back 27

kidney

Front 28

The best description for the length of time that the Parvo virus will remain infectious in the environment is:

Back 28

months

Front 29

The finding on a complete blood count that may be seen with a severe Parvo infection is:

Back 29

a marked leukopenia

Front 30

The bacteria that is described as a spirochete is:

Back 30

Leptospira

Front 31

The canine infectious disease that has the most chance of being directly spread to humans is:

Back 31

Leptospirosis

Front 32

Geriatric patients acting aggressively should be evaluated for:

Back 32

chronic pain

decreased hearing

decreased vision

**all of the above**

Front 33

A metabolic condition of the dog that often results in a skin infection is:

Back 33

hypothyroidism

Front 34

The type of ointment that is recommended for protecting the eye during bathing is:

Back 34

boric acid

Front 35

The abnormal skin condition that coal tar shampoos would be recommended to treat is:

Back 35

severe seborrhea

Front 36

The type of shampoo that is recommended for use in cases Demodectic Mange is:

Back 36

one that contains benzoyle peroxide

Front 37

The abnormality seen on a complete blood cell count with cases of pyometra in the dog is:

Back 37

a leukocytosis with a left shift

Front 38

A yeast organism that may cause otitis externa in the dog or cat is:

Back 38

malassezia

Front 39

The type of bladder stone that may be dissolved through the use of dietary therapy is:

Back 39

struvite

Front 40

If the tympanic membrane cannot be visualized, clean and flush the ears only with:

Back 40

warm sterile saline

Front 41

Ear canals infected with Otodectes Cyanotis will often show signs of:

Back 41

severe inflammation associated with black exudate

Front 42

A non-productive cough relating to an increase in fluid in the lungs will usually be realted to a leaking of the:

Back 42

mitral valve

Front 43

As a medical term, ascites refers to:

Back 43

an increase of fluid in the abdominal cavity

Front 44

Hypothyroidism in the dog will very comonly produce signs related to the:

Back 44

integumentary system

Front 45

The best description for the location of the thyroid gland is the:

Back 45

ventrocervical area of the neck

Front 46

The elements of the diet that will have the most influence on urea levels in the blood stream include:

Back 46

proteins

Front 47

Azotemia is a term relating to the veterinary patient experiencing an increase in:

Back 47

urea

Front 48

Ketoacidosis is most likely to be seen in severe cases of:

Back 48

diabetes mellitus

Front 49

As a clinical term, a nadir is used to describe the:

Back 49

lowest blood glucose level detected during a blood glucose curve

Front 50

A clinical symptom of diabetes mellitus of the dog that may be noticed by the owner is a:

Back 50

rapid cataract development

Front 51

Erythropoietin is produced by the:

Back 51

kidney

Front 52

The urinalysis of a patient with renal failure will often show:

Back 52

an increase in protein and a decrease in specific gravity

Front 53

The molecule found in the blood that is used as a measurement of renal function and is produced from muscle metabolism is:

Back 53

creatinine

Front 54

A biomarker that can be measured in the blood to indicate cases of congestive heart failure is:

Back 54

BNP - B-type natriuretic peptide

Front 55

The organism causing feline distemper is classified as a(n):

Back 55

parvo virus

Front 56

The organism causing Feline Pneumonitis is:

Back 56

Chlamydia psittici

Front 57

In the treatment of periodontal disease, a currette is used to remove calculus and dead cementum from the diseased tooth roots, using multiple overlapping strokes, until the root surface is smooth as glass. This procedure is is known as:

Back 57

root planing

Front 58

Proper technician attire when performing a dental cleaning includes:

Back 58

mask over the nose and mouth

gloves

eye protection

*all of the above*

Front 59

A mechanical tooth scaler should never be used continuously on one tooth for more than:

Back 59

15 seconds

Front 60

A beneficial result of a fluoride application following a dental scaling is:

Back 60

an antibacterial effect

Front 61

The vibrations of the tip of an ultrasonic power scaling instrument used in cleaning teeth is measured in:

Back 61

cycles per second (cps)

Front 62

The process of disrupting bacterial cell walls with the mist formed from the vibrating tip of the ultrasonic scaler acting on water released from the instrument is called:

Back 62

cavitation

Front 63

When the ultrasonic scaler is used in cleaning teeth, the water coming form the tip will have the effect of:

Back 63

cooling the tooth and lavaging the area of the gum line

Front 64

When considering a multi-rooted tooth, the term for the area where the root divides is called the:

Back 64

furcation

Front 65

When performing ultrasonic scaling, the areas of the tip to use for the majority of scaling are the:

Back 65

back and sides

Front 66

The minimum pressure of the water supply line to the ultrasonic dental unit is:

Back 66

25 PSI

Front 67

Relating to Veterinary Dentistry, the modified Bass technique is a:

Back 67

method of brushing teeth that concentrates on the gingival margin

Front 68

The inherited condition in which the maxilla is longer than the mandible is called:

Back 68

brachygnathism

Front 69

A substance that is related to the production of dental caries is:

Back 69

organic acids

Front 70

An infectious disease that will predispose to enamel hypoplasia is:

Back 70

Canine distemper

Front 71

A tooth of the dog that is prone a slab type fracture from the shearing action of chewing on hard objects is the:

Back 71

4th upper premolar

Front 72

The most common intraoral disease of small animals is:

Back 72

periodontitis

Front 73

Periodontitis is a relatively common oral disease caused by the presence of:

Back 73

plaque

Front 74

The ultimate result of untreated periodontal disease is:

Back 74

loose teeth that eventually fall out

Front 75

The areas of the body that are likely to be infected relating to bacterimias caused by periodontitis include all of the following EXCEPT

Back 75

periosteum

Front 76

As plaque on a tooth accumulates and becomes mineralized it is called:

Back 76

calculus

Front 77

Clinical detection of the advancement of periodontal disease is best achieved through:

Back 77

measuring the depth of the periodontal pocket

Front 78

The crown of the tooth is covered by:

Back 78

enamel

Front 79

The typical age that all of the permanent teeth should be erupted in a puppy is:

Back 79

6 months

Front 80

In the dog, the number of roots that the fourth upper pre-molar will have is:

Back 80

3

Front 81

The term that describes the tooth surface that is closest to the rostral midline of the dental arch is:

Back 81

mesial

Front 82

In the Modified Triadan System of teeth numbering, adult teeth in the maxillary right quadrant are assigned the:

Back 82

100 series

Front 83

The term for the normal bite of the dog is:

Back 83

scissors bite

Front 84

The area of the tooth that will allow nerves and vessels to enter is the:

Back 84

apicl delta

Front 85

The condition that is considered normal in the brachycephalic dog is:

Back 85

prognathism

Front 86

The normal depth of the periodontal pocket in the cat is:

Back 86

0.5 mm

Front 87

In the dog, the number of teeth that are present at birth is:

Back 87

0

Front 88

The hardest substance in the body is:

Back 88

enamel

Front 89

The area of a multi-rooted tooth where the root divides is called the:

Back 89

furcation

Front 90

The Triadan number for the left maxillary carnassial tooth is:

Back 90

208

Front 91

When taking dental radiographs, the use of the bisecting angle is critical to:

Back 91

prevent radiographic image distortion such as foreshortening

Front 92

The number of deciduous teeth present in the normal 8 week old puppy is:

Back 92

28

Front 93

A cold compress would likely be indicated for what duration of injury:

Back 93

acute

Front 94

When the treatment direction sheet states to "hot pack" an area twice daily, you would expect the length of duration of each therapy session to be:

Back 94

15 to 20 minutes

Front 95

Message therapy techniques should generally be directed:

Back 95

the same direction of venous flow

Front 96

A contraindication for the use of heat therapy is for muscle tissue is:

Back 96

acute inflammation

Front 97

Prolonged and sustained contraction of muscle tissue that can be seen following disuse of the muscle is referred to as:

Back 97

contracture

Front 98

The effects expected when introducing heat in the tissues as a physical therapy tool include all of the following EXCEPT:

Back 98

muscle contraction

Front 99

In massage therapy for animals, a gliding stroke that follows the contour of the body is:

Back 99

effuerage

Front 100

Cryotherapy or cold compress applications should be used on injured or post surgical tissues for:

Back 100

up to 72 hours

Front 101

The main use for Neuromuscular Electrical Stimulation (NMES) as a physical therapy tool is to:

Back 101

produce strengthening of the muscle tissue

Front 102

Low-level laser is a physical therapy that, when applies to tissues, will result in:

Back 102

dilation of vessels

Front 103

The parameter that is the best aid in assessing the hydration status (degree of hydration or dehydration) of a patient is:

Back 103

body weight

Front 104

The changes in the PCV (packed cell volume) that would be expected in the dehydrated patient is a/an:

Back 104

increase

Front 105

A constituent of a therapeutic fluid that would have the effect of raising the pH of the plasma of a patient is:

Back 105

lactate

Front 106

Signs of fluid volume over load will include all of the following EXCEPT:

Back 106

sunken eyes

Front 107

The osmotic pressure of 50% dextrose solution related to serum is:

Back 107

hypertonic

Front 108

An indication for the use of Hetastarch as a fluid therapy agent is:

Back 108

hypovolemic shock

Front 109

The units of heparin that would you add to a 1 Liter bag of saline to prepare a standard solution of "heparinized saline" is:

Back 109

5000

Front 110

The agent that should never be given subcutaneously is:

Back 110

dextrose solutions with a concentration of greater than 2%

Front 111

The recommended rate of fluid administration for the IV route when providing fluid therapy for maintenance in ml/lb/hr is:

Back 111

1-2

Front 112

The weight of fluid that 30 pound patient that is 8% dehydrated would be missing is:

Back 112

2.4 lbs

Front 113

If 500 ml of a solution is to be infused over 6 hours, what is the correct infusion rate ( drops/min ) if the infusion set delivers 10 drops/ml?

Back 113

13.9 drops/min

Front 114

The % of O2 in room air is:

Back 114

20%

Front 115

The signs that may be seen in a patient that is hypoxic is/are:

Back 115

drowsiness

ataxia

excitability

cyanosis

**all are correct**

Front 116

When delivering oxygen while using an oxygen cage, the inspired oxygen concentration should be set at:

Back 116

30% to 40%

Front 117

The proper level of humidity that is recommended for the interior of an oxygen cage during therapy is:

Back 117

50% to 60%

Front 118

When administering oxygen therapy with an oxygen mask, the recommended flow rate for most cases is:

Back 118

4 L/min

Front 119

When administering oxygen therapy using a nasal catheter, a soft 5 - 8 Fr. plastic or rubber catheter is placed in the nasal cavity to level of the:

Back 119

caudal nasal pharynx

Front 120

A technique that involves striking the animal's chest to loosen bronchial secretions and thus facilitate drainage:

Back 120

coupage

Front 121

Whenever possible, animals with lung problems should should be maintained in:

Back 121

sternal recumbency

Front 122

The condition that may ocur if high levels of oxygen are used for long periods of time is:

Back 122

pulmonary edema

Front 123

The size of water droplet that must be achieved to medicate the terminal bronchi (as measured in microns) is:

Back 123

2-5 microns

Front 124

An "H" tank of oxygen that has a capacity of 6900 Liters and is 40% full. The pressure reading for the tank is 800 PSI. You are to flow 4 Liters of oxygen per minute to a patient as part of your oxygen therapy technique. How long will your oxygen supply last?

Back 124

11/1/2 hours

Front 125

You are to administer oxygen therapy to a patient using an E tank. The tank is half full at 1000 PSI pressure and so contains 330 liters. The flow rate you wil luse is 2 liters per minute. How long will the oxygen in the tank last at your flow rate?

Back 125

2 hrs and 45 min

Front 126

All of the following are signs of hyperthyoidism in the cat EXCEPT:

Back 126

anorexia

Front 127

The medical treatment for hyperthyroidism in the cat is:

Back 127

methimazole

Front 128

The etiology of feline lower urinary tract disease is:

Back 128

unknown at this time

Front 129

When treating feline lower urinary tract disease, urinary catheters are placed and then removed:

Back 129

in less than 24 hours

Front 130

To aid in the prevention of feline lower urinary tract disease, diets are fed that will contain low levels of:

Back 130

magnesium

Front 131

A urinary acidifier that may be added to the diet of a feline patient as part of a prevention program for feline lower urinary tract disease is:

Back 131

ammonium chloride

Front 132

The definition of pollakiuria is:

Back 132

abnormally frequent passage of urine

Front 133

Severe cases of heaptic lipidosis in the cat may result in disease conditions of the:

Back 133

central nervous system

Front 134

Hepatic lipidosis in the cat is directly related to:

Back 134

a lack of intake of proper nutrition

Front 135

The course of treatment for feline hepatic lipidosis is generally:

Back 135

3 to 6 weeks

Front 136

Considering disease conditions in veterinary patients, the definition of etiology relates to:

Back 136

the actual cause of the disease

Front 137

In the feline, transient arthritis, interdigital ulcers, and ulcers of the lip, tongue, hard palate are signs of disease associated with an infection of:

Back 137

Calici Virus

Front 138

In the developing fetus, the part of the nervous system that is susceptible to infection by the distemper virus that will cause clinical signs is the:

Back 138

cerebellum

Front 139

Lymphoma in the feline is a cancer condition that is ofen associated with infection by:

Back 139

feline leukemia virus

Front 140

All of the following statements apply to the Feline Immunosupperssive Virus EXCEPT:

Back 140

has an effective vaccine

Front 141

All of the following apply to Feline Leukemia Virus infection EXCEPT:

Back 141

the virus is hardy and requires dilute Clorox for proper disinfection

Front 142

The two infecting agents that are associated with 80% of feline respiratory disease are:

Back 142

Calici Virus and Feline Rhinotracheitis Virus

Front 143

The feline respiratory disease that will cause up to 30% mortality when affecting kittens is:

Back 143

Calici Virus

Front 144

The organism that causes Feline Pneumonitis is classafied as a:

Back 144

rickettsia

Front 145

The group of felines that would the most likely to show a false poitive test for the feline immunosuppressive virus is:

Back 145

kittens, less than 6 months of age

Front 146

Causes of hypoxia

Back 146

1. lung diseases.

2. alveolar hypoventilation or lack of oxygen delivery to alveoli

3. pneumonia

4. metastatic tumors

5. heart disease causing pulmonary edema

6. smoke inhalation

7. Feline Asthma

8. decreased cardiac output

9. severe anemia - autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA)

Front 147

Recommended oxygen concentration is

Back 147

30 - 40% when delivered to the patient

Front 148

Humidification is needed to

Back 148

avoid drying the respiratory passageways

Front 149

the oxygen is mixed with ________ to reduce the concentration

Back 149

room air

Front 150

Measure Delivery of Oxygen via O2 tube, mask or hood (E. collar)

Back 150

flow rate=4 liters per min

Front 151

desired humidity in an oxygen cage is

Back 151

50-60%

Front 152

recommended temperature in an oxygen cage is

Back 152

65-70 F

Front 153

A patient maintained in the upright or sternal position

Back 153

will decrease hypostatic congestion of the down lungs

Front 154

Soft 5 - 8 Fr. plastic or rubber catheter is placed in the nasal cavity to the caudal nasal pharynx

Back 154

Nasal catheter

Front 155

Numbing agent used when placing a nasal catheter

Back 155

Opthaine (proparicaine HCl)

Front 156

the recommended Oxygen flow for nasal catheter is

Back 156

5 to 100 ml/kg

Front 157

Intermittent positive pressure ventilation (IPPV) technique

Back 157

8-15 cm H2O pressure or 6-10 breaths per minute

Front 158

oxygen is available in various size tanks

common sizes are

Back 158

E, M, G, and H

Front 159

H tanks used in clinics with built in O2 lines

Back 159

-full at 2200 PSIc

-capacity=6900 L

-calculated flow rate

- 4L/min = 28hr 45min (6900/4 = 1725 min = 28 hr 45 min )

Front 160

E tanks will fit on most anesthesia machines

Back 160

-full at 2000 PSI (pounds per square inch)

-capacity=660 L1. calculated flow rate

- 4 L/min = 2hr 45 min (660/4 = 165 min = 2 hr 45 min )

Front 161

Oxygen toxicity

Back 161

may occur when O2 above 50% is used for longer than 12 hrs.

Front 162

Pulmonary edema

Back 162

-may occur with continuous exposure of 80-100% O2

- tissue damage from excessive free radicals

-avoid concentrations above 50%

Front 163

Nebulizer treatment

Back 163

-used when the respiratory passageways are blocked by edema fluid or exudate

-create spray by forcing gas through a liquid

- medication may be added to the liquid

-larger water particles settle in the nose and throat and smaller particles get to the bronchi-must be 2-5 microns in diameter to reach the terminal bronchid.

- recommended therapy sessions are from 15 to 30 minutes several times per day

-monitor patients for any signs of discomfort

Front 164

edema fluid in the lungs

Back 164

-nebulize alcohol

- will reduce frothing by reducing the surface tension of the bubble

Front 165

exudates

Back 165

-use medication with detergent properties to nebulize

-Mucomist (acetylcystine)

Front 166

Saline

Back 166

-will tend to thin secretions

-thin secretions are more easily moved upward in the respiratory tract

-a good fluid to nebulize for many conditions

Front 167

bronchodilation

Back 167

-will reduce air way resistance

-albuterol is the currently recommended bronchodilator

Front 168

Physical therapy Traditional Methods Of Treatment

Back 168

1. superficial heat

2. superficial cold

3. massage

4. active exercise

5. assistive devices (harnesses and slings)

Front 169

Physical therapy Alternative Methods of Treatment

Back 169

1. electrical stimulation

2. cold laser

3. therapeutic ultrasound

4. hyperbaric oxygen

5. acupuncture

6. nutraceuticals

7. herbal medicine

8. chiropractic

Front 170

Cold therapy

Back 170

a. decreased tissue temperature

b. decreased blood flow, reduces pain and spasticity

c. decreased tendency for edema

d. decreased delivery of nutrients

e. decreased phagocytic action

Front 171

cold packs

Back 171

1. apply to affected area with a folded towel

2. 15-20 min intervals, repeat several times daily

Front 172

Heat Therapy

Back 172

a. dilation of cutaneous vessels

b. increase blood flow and blood pressure

c. increase metabolism

d. muscle relaxation

e. sedative and analgesic effect

f. extendibility of connective tissue

Front 173

superficial heat

Back 173

apply for 15-20 minutes several times daily

temperature range should be 95-105 F

Front 174

Deep Heat- electrical stimulation

Back 174

uses an electrical current to cause a single muscle or a group of muscles to contract

Front 175

Laser Therapy

Back 175

a. laser - light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation

b. concept developed by Albert Einstein in 1917

Front 176

wheelbarrowing

Back 176

a. used to increase or decrease pressure on the front or rear limbs

b. promote limb function while sparing forces on healing joints

Front 177

passive exercise, Passive Range of Motion -

Back 177

PROM, (stretching with assistance)

Front 178

Body fluid compartments the total body water is generally estimated to be

Back 178

between 50-70% (or 60%)

Front 179

Major body fluid compartments are:

Back 179

Intracellular - 30-40%

Extracellular - 16-20%

interstitial - 16%

intravenous or plasma - 4%

Front 180

one pound of body weight will equal _____ of fluid

Back 180

500 ml

Front 181

4-6-8% dehydration rule

Back 181

a. 4%-history of fluid loss, no detectable signs

b. 6%-tacky skin, concentrated urine, increased PCV

c. 8%-depression, loss of skin pliability

d. 10-12%-shock, critical illness

Front 182

Daily fluid maintenance

Back 182

a. dogs1. 30 ml/lb/day in most references

b. cats1. 20 ml/lb/day in most refernces

Front 183

crystalloid solutions contain electrolytes such as sodium, chloride, potassium, calcium, etc

Back 183

lactated Ringers

Normosol-R or Plasmalyte

physiologic saline, 0.9% NaCl

10% Dextrose in saline

2 1/2% dextrose and lactated Ringers

Front 184

fluid pumps are very convenient and accurate

Back 184

1. maintenance 1 - 2 ml/lb/hr continuous drip

2. rehydrate 1 - 5 ml/lb/hr for 4 hours

3. anesthesia 10 ml/lb/hr

4. shock 30 - 40 ml/lb for 1 hour