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52 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Considering rabies in the horse, an accurate statement is: A) equine rabies is not a human health hazard
B) the diease is often contracted by the horse C) equine rabies does not mimic any other disease D) compared to other species, rabies is a rare disease of the horse |
D) compared to other species, rabies is a rare disease of the horse
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In routine situations, equine rabies boosters should be given:
A) every 3 months B) every 6 months C) annually D) every 3 years |
C) annually
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The bacteria that is associated with tetanus is a type of:
A) salmonella B) lepstospira C) corynbacterium D) clostridium |
D) clostridium
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The primary host for the organism causing equine protozoal myeloencephalitis is the:
A) opossum B) racoon C) fox D) squirrel |
A) opossum
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The duration of the treatment protocol for equine protozoal myeloencephalitis is:
A) 3 weeks B) 6 weeks C) 4 months D) 6 months |
C) 4 months
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There is a very effective vaccine for the prevention of equine protozoal myeloencephalitis.
A) True B) False |
B) False
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A main vector in the transmission of encephalitis in the equine is:
A) the fly B) the tick C) culicoides D) the mosquito |
D) the mosquito
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The type of equine encephalitis that is likely to be omitted from most vaccination programs is:
A) Eastern B) Western C) venezuelan D) West Nile |
venezuelan
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In a sound vaccination program for equine encephalitis, brood mares should:
A) not be vaccinated B) be vaccinated in the 1st month of gestation C) be vaccinated in the 4th month of gestation D) be vaccinated in the 10th month of gestation |
D) be vaccinated in the 10th month of gestation
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Considering clinical signs seen in equine disease, "head pressing" is a sign that may be seen in cases of:
A) Equine Influenza B) Tetanus C) Equine Protozoal Myeloencephalitis D) Viral Equine Encephalitis |
D) Viral Equine Encephalitis
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The most common substances found to cause choke in the equine is/are:
A) apples B) grain or hay C) sand D) stones |
B) grain or hay
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In the equine, fomatadine would be most appropriate in the treatment of:
A) intestinal parasites B) laminitis C) intestinal volvulus D) gastric ulcers |
D) gastric ulcers
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The use of phenylbutazone in the equine may predispose to the condition of:
A) laminitis B) colitis C) salmonellosis D) tympany |
B) colitis
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An equine patient would likely be hospitalized using quarantine protocols with a diagnosis of:
A) salmonellosis B) choke C) laminitis D) tympany |
A) salmonellosis
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The main clinical sign of equine colitis is:
A) severe abdominal pain B) bruxism C) pawing the ground D) diarrhea |
D) diarrhea
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Emergency surgery is indicated in cases of equine colic related to:
A) tympany B) volvulus C) intestinal spasm D) clostridium infection |
B) volvulus
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Relating to parasite infections of the equine, he mesenteric artery can be penetrated by migrating larvae of:
A) Anaplocephala perfoliata B) Parascaris equorum C) Monezia expansa D) Strongylus vulgaris |
D) Strongylus vulgaris
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Relating to the causes of intestinal obstructions of young horses that cause colic, the most common foreign body is:
A) unripened apples B) irrergular shaped stones C) nylon rope or string D) beding straw |
C) nylon rope or string
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A cathartic medication that may be used in the conservative treatment of equine colic is:
A) pyrantal pamoate B) magnesium sulfate C) mineral oil D) phenylbutazone |
B) magnesium sulfate
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The most common approach to the abdomen for colic surgery in the equine is:
A) right flank B) left flank C) paramedian D) ventral midline |
D) ventral midline
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Bronchodilators are useful in the treatment of:
A) West Nile Virus Infection B) Equine Infectious Anemia C) Equine Influenza D) Heaves |
D) Heaves
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The age of horses affected with Recurrent Airway Obstruction is usually:
A) less than 1 year B) 2 to 3 years C) 4 to 5 years D) over 6 years |
D) over 6 years
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Abscesses in the guttural pouch of the horse may be seen in cases of:
A) Equine Infectious Anemia B) Equine Influenza C) Equine Strangles D) Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease |
C) Equine Strangles
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A main part of the treatment protocol for Equine Strangles is:
A) glucocorticoids B) penicillin C) magnesium sulfate D) there is not treatment for this disease |
B) penicillin
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The Equine disease that is not spread through out the herd by direct contact or by insects is:
A) Equine Influenza B) Equine Infectious Anemia C) Equine Strangles D) Chronic Alveolar Emphysema |
D) Chronic Alveolar Emphysema
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Complications with the injection site has been noted when using the injection method for vaccinating against:
A) Equine Strangles B) Equine Infectious Anemia C) Equine Viral Encephalitis D) Equine Influenza |
A) Equine Strangles
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The Equine Viral Encephalitis that has a low incidence in the United States is:
A) Eastern B) Western C) West Nile D) Venezuelan |
D) Venezuelan
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Considering clinical signs seen in equine disease, "head pressing" is a sign that may be seen in cases of:
A) Equine Influenza B) Equine Viral Encephalitis C) Heaves D) Equine Strangles |
B) Equine Viral Encephalitis
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A main part of the treatment protocol for Equine Infectious Anemia is:
A) glucocorticoids B) penicillin C) magnesium sulfate D) there is no treatment for this disease |
D) there is no treatment for this disease
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The blood sample for the Coggin's Test for Equine Infectious Anemia must be drawn by:
A) a certified veterinary technician B) the owner of the horse C) a licensed veterinarian or veterinary technician D) a USDA accredited veterinarian |
D) a USDA accredited veterinarian
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Medications used to in the treatment of Trichophyton infections of the horse are often administered:
A) topically B) intravenously C) orall D) subcutaneously |
A) topically
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Common areas for Culicoides hypersensitivity in the horse include all EXCEPT the:
A) withers B) ears C) rump D) legs |
D) legs
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A diagnostic aid in the condition of Summer Eczema is the:
A) intradermal skin test B) fluorescent antibody test C) culture and sensitivity D) anitbody titer |
A) intradermal skin test
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The most common tumor of the horse is:
A) lymphosarcoma B) melanoma C) histiocytoma D) equine sarcoid |
D) equine sarcoid
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A sign of advanced periodic ophthalmia is:
A) blepharospasm B) low intra-ocular pressure C) hypopion D) corneal edema |
B) low intra-ocular pressure
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Considering corneal ulcers in the horse, a melting ulcer may be seen associated with infections of:
A) Microsporum B) Clostrisium C) Aspergillus D) Staphyloccocus |
C) Aspergillus
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The actual cause of equine laminitis is/a:
A) protozoa B) virus C) bacteria D) unknown |
D) unknown
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The classic stance of a horse with laminitis is with the front legs:
A) out in front of the head area B) splayed wide apart C) back underneath the chest area D) very near each other at the midline area |
A) out in front of the head area
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A common NSAID that is used in the treatment of laminitis in the horse is:
A) pyrimethamine B) dexamethasone C) phenylbutazone D) glucosaminoglycans |
C) phenylbutazone
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The bone of the equine foot that may rotate in chronic laminitis is the:
A) fetlock B) coffin C) pastern D) sesamoid |
B) coffin
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A vasodilator is useful in the treatment of:
A) cucicoides hypersensitivity B) uveitis C) bowed tendon D) founder |
D) founder
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Tendinitis of the superficial digital flexor tendon is usually related to:
A) a viral infection B) vigorous exercise C) high carbohydrate diet D) selenium deficiency |
vigorous exercise
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Monday Morning Disease is a synonym for:
A) salmonellosis B) founder C) colitis D) azoturia |
D) azoturia
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A muscle enzyme that is likely to be elevated in cases of azoturia is:
A) pyruvic transaminase B) alanine aminotransferase C) alkaline phosphatase D) creatine phsophokinase |
D) creatine phsophokinase
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An antiseptic that may be added to the hoof bandage of a horse with a subsolar abscess is:
A) sodium succinate B) magnesium sulfate C) potassiuk permanganate D) sodium hypochlorite |
B) magnesium sulfate
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In a horse affected with a subsolar abscess, a booster vaccination is indicated for:
A) rabies B) encephalitis C) infectious anemia D) tetanus |
D) tetanus
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In the horse, the navicular bone is located nearest to the:
A) pastern and coffin bones B) pastern and fetlock bones C) fetlock and carpal bones D) capral and cannon bones |
A) pastern and coffin bones
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In a horse with navicular disease, a joint of the horse that may also develop symptoms is the:
A) knee B) shoulder C) stifle D) hip |
B) shoulder
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An important diagnostic test for navicular disease in the horse is:
A) diagnostic ultrasound B) a complete blood cell count C) a digital nerve block D) culture and sensitivity |
C) a digital nerve block
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In the horse, navicular disease is a condition that is usually:
A) cured within 2 weeks B) cured within 6 months C) managed but not cured D) diagnosed but not effectively managed or cured |
C) managed but not cured
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Bog spavin is an arthritic condition that involves the:
A) pastern joint B) tarsal joint C) carpal joint D) stifle joint |
B) tarsal joint
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In equine practice, "joint ill" is a common name for:
A) Ringbone B) Bone Spavin C) Septic Arthritis D) Naviular Disease |
C) Septic Arthritis
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