Reading...
Play button
Play button
Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
88 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
87. A nautical mile equals ________ statute miles (SM).
A. .87 B. 1.15 C. 1.5 D. 1.87 |
87. B. 1.15 (LP, p. 14)
|
|
|
88. Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) is also referred to as ________ time.
A. Alfa B. Charlie C. X-ray D. Zulu |
88. D. Zulu (LP, p. 17)
|
|
|
89. Time zones are established for every ________.
A. 15’ of longitude B. 15°of latitude C. 15°of longitude |
89. C. 15°of longitude (LP, p. 19)
|
|
|
90. How do you convert local Daylight Savings Time to UTC?
A. Subtract the conversion factor. B. Add the conversion factor, then subtract 1 hour. C. Subtract the conversion factor, then add 1 hour. D. Add the conversion factor, then add 1 hour. |
90. B. Add the conversion factor, then subtract 1 hour. (LP, p. 22)
|
|
|
91. The angular difference between true and magnetic north at a given location is called ________.
A. correction B. variation C. compensation D. deviation |
91. B. variation (LP, p. 41)
|
|
|
92. King Air 2425K departed “A” at 2228 UTC. With a consistent 180-knot ground speed, N2425K arrived at destination “E” at 0258 UTC. How long did it take the aircraft to cover the distance from “B” to “C?”
A B C D E 160NM ? 105NM 185NM A. 1.5 HR B. 2HR C. 1.75 HR D. 2.25 HR |
92. B. 2HR (LP 15, p. 25,26)
|
|
|
93. Parallels and meridians are divided into ________, minutes and seconds.
A. circles B. days C. degrees D. hours |
93. C. degrees (LP 15, p. 8)
|
|
|
94. 100 nautical miles equals ____________ statute miles.
A. 130 B. 95 C. 87 D. 115 |
94. D. 115 (LP 15, p. 14)
|
|
|
95. The basic form of navigation which uses visual reference to landmarks is ________.
A. pilotage B. dead reckoning C. rate, time, and distance D. radio navigation |
95. A. pilotage (LP, p. 47)
|
|
|
96. 2 PM on a 24-hour clock equals _________.
A. 1200 B. 0200 C. 2200 D. 1400 |
96. D. 1400 (LP 15, p. 19)
|
|
|
97. An aircraft departs Denver at 9 P.M. (MST) and travels 3 hours, landing in Boston (EST). What was the aircrafts arrival time UTC? (conversion factor EST to UTC is +5)
A. 0700 B. 1700 C. 0200 D. 0600 |
97. A. 0700 (LP 15, p. 22)
|
|
|
98. A line connecting points of zero variation is called a(n) ________.
A. isogonic line B. agonic line C. magnetic line D. meridian |
98. B. agonic line (LP 15, p. 41)
|
|
|
99. How long would it take an aircraft with a ground speed of 130 knots to fly 650 NM?
A. 4 hours, 30 minutes B. 5 hours C. 5 hours, 30 minutes D. 6 hours |
99. B. 5 hours (LP, pp. 25 thru 27)
|
|
|
100. The purpose of parallels of latitude is for measuring degrees of latitude ________.
A. east and west of the equator B. north and south of the equator C. north and south of the Prime Meridian D. east and west of the Prime Meridian |
100. B. north and south of the equator (LP, p. 5)
|
|
|
101. A pilot has determined the true heading from Oklahoma City to Kansas City is 020°. The magnetic variation is 7°E. What magnetic heading should be flown?
A. 013° B. 020° C. 027° D. 031° |
101. A. 013° (LP 15, p. 42)
|
|
|
102. The only line of latitude that is a great circle is the______________.
A. Prime Meridian B. Equator C. International Dateline D. Rhumb Line |
102. B. Equator (LP, p. 4)
|
|
|
103. An aircraft encounters a 20 KT crosswind and makes no heading correction. After 1 hour of flight, how far off course would the aircraft be?
A. 10NM B. 10SM C. 20NM D. 20SM |
103. C. 20NM (LP 15, p. 35)
|
|
|
104. At high altitudes, _______.
A. an aircraft’s IAS is significantly higher than it’s TAS B. an aircraft’s TAS is significantly higher than it’s IAS C. an aircraft’s groundspeed is always equal to it’s TAS D. an aircraft’s IAS is always equal to it’s TAS |
104. B. an aircraft’s TAS is significantly higher than it’s IAS (LP 15, p. 37)
|
|
|
105. In the airport data “18 L 100 122.8” on a Sectional Aeronautical Chart, the number “18” indicates the ________.
A. airport elevation B. length of the longest runway C. runway number of the primary runway D. height of the tallest obstruction within 5 nautical miles |
105. A. airport elevation (LP 17, p. 12)
|
|
|
106. VFR flyway planning charts are found on _________.
A. IFR/VFR planning charts B. VFR Terminal Area Charts C. Sectional Charts D. WAC Charts |
106. B. VFR Terminal Area Charts (LP 17, p. 34)
|
|
|
107. Frequencies placed just above a communication box on a Sectional Aeronautical Chart are used to contact which type of facility?
A. En Route Air Traffic Control Center B. Approach Control C. Tower D. Automated Flight Service Station |
107. D. Automated Flight Service Station (LP, p. 15)
|
|
|
108. The boundary of Class C airspace is depicted on a Sectional Aeronautical Chart by a solid ________ line.
A. blue B. magenta C. brown D. black |
108. B. magenta (LP 17, p. 16)
|
|
|
109. Which document would be most useful to a controller when recommending a suitable airport to a pilot in the event of an emergency?
A. JO 7110.65 B. Aeronautical Information Manual C. Airport/Facility Directory D. Letter of Agreement |
109. C. Airport/Facility Directory (LP 17, p. 45)
|
|
|
110. Information NOT found on sectional aeronautical charts are ________.
A. MEAs and MOCAs B. VOR, VORTAC’s, NDB’s, as well as their position, identification, and frequencies C. MOAs, Restricted, Prohibited, Alert and Warning Areas D. airports |
110. A. MEAs and MOCAs (LP 17, p. 3-20)
|
|
|
111. The Airport/Facility Directory is published every ________ days.
A. 28 B. 56 C. 112 D. 180 |
111. B. 56 (LP, p. 41)
|
|
|
112. What chart(s) or publication would you use to find out if an airport has a control tower, and the tower frequency?
A. Sectional Aeronautical Chart B. Terminal Area Chart C. Airport/Facility Directory D. All of the above |
112. D. All of the above (LP, pp. 9, 32, 42)
|
|
|
113. The graphic depiction of a SID or STAR is found in the _______ section of the chart.
A. margin B. planview C. textual description D. legend |
113. B. planview (LP 19, p. 21)
|
|
|
114. SIDs are listed alphabetically in the U.S. Terminal Procedures Publication -first under ________ then under ________.
A. SIDs, STARs B. airport name, city C. Index, Legend D. city, airport name |
114. D. city, airport name (LP, p. 14)
|
|
|
115. Which statement is true regarding a SID?
A. A pilot may accept a SID when possessing only the textual description B. SIDs are normally assigned by En Route controllers.. C. If a SID exists for the departure airport, the pilot must be prepared to accept it as part of the clearance. D. Pilots are encouraged to include the phrase “No SID” in their flight plans if they do not want a SID. |
115. D. Pilots are encouraged to include the phrase “No SID” in their flight plans if they do not want a SID. (LP, p. 24)
|
|
|
116. Standard Instrument Departures (SIDs) are air traffic control procedures used at busier airports to do all of the following except ________.
A. simplify clearance delivery B. expedite traffic flow C. facilitate noise abatement procedures D. reduce pilot/controller workload |
116. C. facilitate noise abatement procedures (LP 19, p. 3)
|
|
|
117. A STAR is designed to simplify clearance delivery and facilitate transition between ________.
A. procedure turns and final approaches B. takeoffs and en route operations C. the airport departure and the destination airport D. en route and instrument approach operations |
117. D. en route and instrument approach operations (LP 19, p. 3)
|
|
|
118. To accept a clearance for the DANDD 5 arrival to Denver, the pilot must be in possession of the ________ for that STAR.
A. altitude restrictions B. approved chart C. pertinent frequencies D. Planview |
118. B. approved chart (LP, p. 29)
|
|
|
119. Which statement is true regarding a STAR?
A. A STAR is designed to provide a transition for departures from the airport into the en route environment. B. One STAR may serve several airports. C. Several STARs may be included on a single chart. D. STARs are located with the Instrument Approach Procedures in the U.S. Terminal Procedures Publication, while SIDs have their own section in the front of the book. |
119. B. One STAR may serve several airports. (LP, p. 29)
|
|
|
120. To locate a SID or STAR, select the correct U.S. Terminal Procedures Volume, then before using it, ________.
A. look in the index under airport name. B. look in the index under city name. C. find the appropriate section. D. check for currency. |
120. D. check for currency. (LP, p. 5)
|
|
|
121. Match Symbol Open Triangle
|
121. E Non-Compulsory Reporting Point
|
|
|
122. Match Symbol Dashed Line with Arrow
|
122. B Lost Communication Track
|
|
|
123. Match Symbol Triangle With Blocked Corners
|
123. D. Vortac
|
|
|
124. Match Symbol 5500(underlined)
|
124. B Minimum Altitude
|
|
|
125. Match Symbol Solid Line with Arrow
|
125. C. Transition Route
|
|
|
126. Match Symbol Thick Line with Radial inside
|
126. B Departure-Arrival Route
|
|
|
127. 2 Jagged Lines
|
127. D. Distance Not to Scale
|
|
|
128. Open Retangle
|
128. E. Runway
|
|
|
129. Elongated Oval
|
129. C. Holding Pattern
|
|
|
130. Number inside circle with direction arrow
|
130. A. DME Mileage
|
|
|
131. Which of the following is assigned by ATC to a single aircraft and used for radar identification and flight tracking?
A. non-discrete code B. discrete code C. mode C D. aircraft identification |
131. B. discrete code (LP 21, p 33)
|
|
|
132. Which instrument is NOT connected to the pitot-static system?
A. Airspeed indicator B. Vertical speed indicator C. Attitude indicator D. Altimeter |
132. C. Attitude indicator (LP, p. 2)
|
|
|
133. What may be obtained from the attitude indicator?
A. Rate of turn B. Degrees of bank C. Height above sea level D. Rate of climb |
133. B. Degrees of bank (LP, p. 20)
|
|
|
134. The major components of the pitot-static system are the ________.
A. absolute and indicated altitude indicators B. vacuum pump and regulator C. attitude and heading indicators D. impact and static pressure chambers, and lines |
134. D. impact and static pressure chambers, and lines (LP 21, p. 2)
|
|
|
135. As a controller, when an aircraft under your control jurisdiction informs you that it is responding to a TCAS RA, you ________.
A. are responsible for maintaining separation from the intruder aircraft. B. shall not issue instructions contrary to the RA. C. may discontinue traffic advisories and safety alerts. D. shall immediately issue an amended clearance. |
135. B. shall not issue instructions contrary to the RA. (LP 21, p. 41)
|
|
|
136. Because of precession, the heading indicator is periodically set by the pilot to agree with the ________.
A. attitude indicator B. altimeter C. magnetic compass D. Directional Gyro (DG) |
136. C. magnetic compass (LP, p. 19)
|
|
|
137. In order to fly a desired course toward a VOR station, the pilot must ensure that the aircraft’s heading agrees with the course set on the VOR course selector, the instrument displays a “TO” indication, and the ________.
A. VOR needle is centered B. aircraft is not climbing or descending C. magnetic compass is not precessed D. airspeed is constant |
137. A. VOR needle is centered (LP, p. 25)
|
|
|
138. The altimeter depends on which of the following for its operation?
A. Pitot tube. B. Gyro. C. Static port. D. Rudder. |
138. C. Static port. (LP 21, p. 4)
|
|
|
139. A transponder code consists of four numbers from zero to seven with _________ possible codes.
A 4,006 B. 4,066 C. 4,086 D. 4,096 |
139. D. 4,096 (LP, p. 33)
|
|
|
140. The FMS is __________.
A. a computer data base used for navigation B. a radio NAVAID receiver C. a gyroscopic instrument D. Inoperable with a clogged pitot |
140. A. a computer data base used for navigation (LP, p. 34)
|
|
|
141. In most small aircraft, if the vacuum pump fails, which instruments become inoperative?
A. Airspeed indicator and turn and bank B. Altimeter and directional gyro C. Heading indicator and attitude indicator D. Vertical speed indicator and attitude indicator |
141. C. Heading indicator and attitude indicator (LP 21, p. 13)
|
|
|
142. Hypoxia is a condition of the body that exists when there is ________.
A. a lack of oxygen in the body tissue B. a lack of oxygen in the air C. excessively fast breathing D. a lack of carbon dioxide in the body |
142. A. a lack of oxygen in the body tissue (LP, p. 44)
|
|
|
143. An interagency agreement that provides for the effective utilization of all available facilities during search and rescue missions is called a(an) ________.
A. Search and Rescue Mission B. Rescue Coordination Center C. National Search and Rescue Plan D. Alert Notice |
143. C. National Search and Rescue Plan (LP, p. 2)
|
|
|
144. When a VFR aircraft becomes overdue, who initiates the INREQ message?
A. ARTCC B. AFSS C. RCC D. ATCT |
144. B. AFSS (LP, p. 10)
|
|
|
145. The ALNOT search area is generally described as ________.
A. 100 miles either side of the route of flight from departure point to destination B. 50 miles either side of the route of flight from departure point to destination C. 100 miles either side of the route of flight from the last reported position to destination D. 50 miles either side of the route of flight from the last reported position to destination |
145. D. 50 miles either side of the route of flight from the last reported position to destination (LP, p. 10)
|
|
|
146. The transfer of search responsibility to RCC is done ________.
A. when the ALNOT search has been completed with negative results B. if the aircraft has not been located within 30 minutes after issuance of the ALNOT C. 1 hour past ETA D. at fuel exhaustion time plus 1 hour |
146. A. when the ALNOT search has been completed with negative results (LP, p. 15)
|
|
|
147. An aircraft on a VFR flight plan is considered overdue when it fails to arrive ________ minutes after its ETA and communications or location cannot be established.
A. 15 B. 30 C. 45 D. 60 |
147. B. 30 (LP, p. 9)
|
|
|
148. A pilot requesting Lake Reporting Service will report every 10 minutes. Search and rescue must be initiated if no report is received in ________ minutes.
A. 10 B. 15 C. 30 D. 60 |
148. B. 15 (LP, p. 16)
|
|
|
149. Consider an IFR aircraft overdue and take appropriate action when ________.
A. 30 minutes has passed since an ETA over a compulsory reporting point B. 30 minutes has passed since clearance void time C. you have reason to believe the aircraft is overdue D. any of the above |
149. D. any of the above (LP, p. 11)
|
|
|
150. Which of the following is a characteristic of a temperature inversion?
A. They cannot form along frontal zones B. Decreased temperatures with increased altitude C. Increased temperatures with increased altitude D. They never occur at or near the surface of the earth |
150. C. Increased temperatures with increased altitude (LP 25, p. 27)
|
|
|
151. When de-icing or anti-icing equipment fails to reduce or control the icing hazard, the icing is categorized as ________.
A. extreme B. severe C. moderate D. heavy |
151. B. severe (LP 25, p. 39)
|
|
|
152. A sudden wind shift, even at low speeds, can be hazardous on takeoff and landing because it can ________.
A. cause engine failure B. cause wing failure C. cause the plane to bounce on the runway D. quickly become a crosswind or tailwind |
152. D. quickly become a crosswind or tailwind (LP, p. 9)
|
|
|
153. Which airplane would be most at risk from a 25-knot crosswind on landing?
A. General aviation, single propeller B. Corporate business jet C. Commercial jetliner D. Military cargo transport |
153. A. General aviation, single propeller (LP, p. 10)
|
|
|
154. Water vapor, lift, and unstable air are necessary for the formation of _________.
A. a thunderstorm cell B. wind shear C. icing D. hail |
154. A. a thunderstorm cell (LP 25, p. 46)
|
|
|
155. Low-level wind shear is a change in windspeed of _______ knots or more within _______ feet AGL.
A. 25; 1,000 B. 10; 2,000 C. 25; 2,000 D. 10; 1,000 |
155. B. 10; 2,000 (LP 25, p. 54)
|
|
|
156. Airplane performance gradually degrades as the wind ________.
A. turns perpendicular to the runway B. decreases suddenly C. passes over a mountain range D. is trapped in a valley |
156. A. turns perpendicular to the runway (LP, p. 5)
|
|
|
157. Severe damage can occur if ________ is ingested into an engine.
A. snow B. volcanic ash C. smoke D. mist |
157. B. volcanic ash (LP, p. 18)
|
|
|
158. An area as large as 10 miles or more of strong damaging winds reaching speeds as high as 120 knots, on or near the ground, is a ________.
A. wind shear B. microburst C. downburst D. funnel cloud |
158. C. downburst (LP 25, p. 48)
|
|
|
159. Which stage of a thunderstorm is characterized by updrafts exceeding 3,000 feet per minute?
A. Towering cumulus B. Mature C. Virga D. Dissipating |
159. A. Towering cumulus (LP 25, p. 47)
|
|
|
160. What type of turbulence is caused by any obstruction to the wind, such as buildings or mountains?
A. Physical B. Mechanical C. Convective D. Clear air |
160. B. Mechanical (LP 25, p. 23)
|
|
|
161. What type of turbulence causes occupants to be forced violently against seat belts or shoulder straps, unsecured objects to be tossed about, and makes food service and walking impossible?
A. Light B. Moderate C. Severe D. Trace |
161. C. Severe (LP, p. 29)
|
|
|
162. Which effect occurs to airplanes on departure during a high density altitude condition?
A. A slower rate of climb. B. A shorter takeoff roll is required. C. A higher rate of climb. D. An increase in thrust. |
162. A. A slower rate of climb. (LP, p. 33)
|
|
|
163. Which of the following is NOT true regarding fog?
A. Fog reduces horizontal visibility to less than 5/8 SM B. Fog forms slowly, allowing pilots to avoid this hazard C. Fog forms when the temperature and dewpoint spread is at or near zero D. Fog is a cloud with it’s base at the earth’s surface. |
163. B. Fog forms slowly, allowing pilots to avoid this hazard (LP 25, p. 15)
|
|
|
164. Light turboprop aircraft are more susceptible to icing than commercial jet aircraft because they typically fly ________.
A. during the daytime B. at higher speeds C. at higher altitudes D. at lower altitudes |
164. D. at lower altitudes (LP, p. 41)
|
|
|
165. The valid period of a routine TAF beginning at 0000Z on the 10th day of the month would be coded as ______.
A. 1000/1100 B. 1000/1104 C. 1000/1112 D. 1000/1024 |
165. D. 1000/1024 (LP 27, p. 7)
|
|
|
166. A forecast of non-convective LLWS would be found in what NWS product?
A. SIGMET B. TAF C. Convective SIGMET D. SPECI |
166. B. TAF (LP 27, p. 13)
|
|
|
167. Which of the following NWS products is scheduled?
A. AIRMET ZULU B. SIGMET C. MIS D. CWA |
167. A. AIRMET ZULU (LP 27, p. 35)
|
|
|
168. A forecast of visibility less than one mile would be found in what NWS product?
A. SIGMET B. AIRMET SIERRA C. CWA D. METAR |
168. B. AIRMET SIERRA (LP 27, p. 35)
|
|
|
169. Based on the following TAF, what is the earliest time thunderstorms can be expected? KOKC 051130Z 0512/0612 14008KT 5SM BR BKN030
TEMPO 0513/0516 1 1/2SM BR FM051600 16010KT P6SM SKC FM051900 20013G25KT 4SM SHRA OVC020 FM060500 20010G20KT 2SM SHRA BKN010 PROB30 0507 2SM TSRA OVC008CB FM060800 21015KT P6SM SCT040 |
169. D. 6th day at 0500Z (LP 27, p. 20)
|
|
|
170. What will temporarily restrict the visibility on the 22nd at 0730Z?
A. Light snow B. Light snow, freezing mist C. Light snow showers, freezing mist D. (Moderate) snow showers, freezing fog |
170. D. (Moderate) snow showers, freezing fog (LP, pp. 10, 18-19)
|
|
|
171. Which altitude is forecast to have occasional severe turbulence?
A. 8,500 feet B. Flight level 180 C. Flight level 320 D. Flight level 410 |
171. C. Flight level 320 (LP, p. 26)
|
|
|
172. What is the forecast movement of the area of severe embedded thunderstorms?
A. From 150 degrees at 21 knots B. From 150 degrees at 55 mph C. From 210 degrees at 15 knots D. From 210 degrees at 60 mph 9. Which hazards are forecast for Kentucky (KY) at 1700Z? |
172. C. From 210 degrees at 15 knots (LP, pp. 30, 31)
|
|
|
173. Which hazards are forecast for Kentucky (KY) at 1700Z?
A. IFR; strong surface winds greater than 30 knots B. IFR; moderate turbulence below 1,000 feet C. Moderate turbulence below 1,000 feet; low-level wind shear D. Moderate turbulence below 10,000 feet; low-level wind shear |
173. D. Moderate turbulence below 10,000 feet; low-level wind shear (LP, pp. 35, 36)
|
|
|
174. Which hazard is forecast in the Jacksonville ARTCC (ZJX) airspace?
A. Low-level wind shear below 500 feet B. Moderate turbulence below 500 feet C. IFR D. Low IFR (LOW IFR) |
174. D. Low IFR (LOW IFR) (LP, p. 42)
|
