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87 Cards in this Set
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610. Taxi clearances are instructions provided by ATC for the route aircraft/vehicles are to follow while on the ________ of an airport.
A. apron areas B. movement and non-movement areas C. movement areas D. non-movement areas |
C. movement areas
(7110.65; LP 31, p. 17) |
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611. The ________ position in the ATC terminal option is normally responsible for issuing control instructions to aircraft and vehicles operating in the airport movement area.
A. Local Control B. Ground Control C. Clearance Delivery D. Flight Data |
B. Ground Control
(7110.65; LP 1, p. 34) |
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612. Which is not a function of the Radar position in the ARTCC?
A. Maintain direct communication with aircraft B. Scan radar display C. Make weather observations D. Ensure separation |
C. Make weather observations
(7110.65; LP 1, p. 44) |
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613. An Automated Flight Service Station has the primary function of providing ________.
A. pilot briefings and receiving and processing flight plans B. air traffic control services to aircraft operating in the vicinity of an airport or on the movement area C. advisory service to VFR aircraft and control service to IFR aircraft D. control service to aircraft on an IFR flight plan operating outside of controlled airspace |
A. pilot briefings and receiving and processing flight plans (7110.10; LP 1, p.24)
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614. The correct designation for a runway with a magnetic heading of 009 degrees is runway ________.
A. 36 B. 1 C. 01 D. 10 |
B. 1
(AIM; LP 3, p. 5) |
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615. Minimum radar separation between two aircraft at FL 200 in ARTCC airspace is ________ miles.
A. 3 B. 5 C. 10 D. 20 |
B. 5
(7110.65; LP 4, p. 29) |
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616. When applying vertical separation, RVSM status of an aircraft is a consideration between which altitudes?
A. FL 180, up to and including FL 450 B. FL 450, up to and including FL 600 C. FL 290, up to and including FL 410 D. FL 180, up to and including FL 290 |
C. FL 290, up to and including FL 410
(7110.65; LP 4, p. 11) |
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617. A/An _______ is a predetermined maneuver which keeps an aircraft within a specified airspace while awaiting further clearance from air traffic control.
A. holding procedure B. approach procedure C. procedure turn D. auto-rotation |
A. holding procedure (7110.65; LP 4, p. 42)
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618. The two subsystems for disseminating aeronautical information are ________.
A. AIS and NOTAMs B. NFDC and NOTAMs C. NAS and NFDC D. AIS and AFSS |
A. AIS and NOTAMs
(7930.2; LP 5, p. 3) |
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619. The primary radar display depicts the ________ and ________ of objects that reflect radio energy.
A. position; altitude B. position; movement C. altitude; speed D. movement; speed |
B. position; movement
(ETM 12-0-1; LP 6, p. 8) |
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620. Which of the following is an example of a temporary directive, e.g., a notice that needs to be distributed immediately?
A. Supplements B. LOA C. GENOT D. GETS |
C. GENOT
(1320.1; LP 7, p. 16) |
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621. Letters of Agreement (LOA) are for ________ use and Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) are for ________ use.
A. intrafacility; extrafacility B. interfacility; intrafacility C. extrafacility; jurisdictional D. intrafacility; interfacility |
B. interfacility; intrafacility (7210.3; LP 8, p. 2 and 9)
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622. To be eligible for an _________, an individual must be at least 18 years of age, of good moral character, able to read, write, and understand the English language, speak English without an accent or impediment, and hold a valid second class medical certificate.
A. ATC airspace operator license B. ATC airspace specialist certificate C. ATC tower operator certificate D. ATC tower specialist license |
C. ATC tower operator certificate
(FAR, 65; LP 10, p. 38) |
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623. Which of the following Right-of-Way rules is not correct?
A. Converging aircraft, aircraft on the left has right-of-way B. Overtaking, aircraft being overtaken has right-of-way C. Head-on, both aircraft give way to the right D. Landing, aircraft on final approach has right-of-way |
A. Converging aircraft, aircraft on the left has right-of-way (FAR 91; LP 10, p. 16)
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624. Filing a VFR flight plan is ________.
A. optional, but strongly encouraged B. mandatory when penetrating a Military Operations Area C. only necessary when weather conditions are below VFR minimums D. only necessary for search and rescue missions |
A. optional, but strongly encouraged
(AIM; LP 11, p. 6) |
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625. At an airport where takeoff minimums are not prescribed (revenue flights only), an aircraft with two engines or less may depart when there is at least ___________ statute mile(s) visibility.
A. 3 B. 2 C. 1 D. ½ |
C. 1
(FAR 91; LP 11, p. 31, 28) |
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626. If a pilot adjusts the pitch and yaw, the aircraft is moving along the ________ and __________ axes.
A. longitudinal; vertical B. lateral; vertical C. longitudinal; lateral D. lateral; horizontal |
B. lateral; vertical
(8083-25; LP 12, p. 24) |
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627. According to Bernoulli’s principle, lift is a result of ___________ differential.
A. airspeed B. pressure C. temperature D. reaction |
B. pressure
(8083-25; LP 12, p. 4) |
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628. The blades of a helicopter are shaped like ________ and act as ________.
A. airfoils; ailerons B. ailerons; elevators C. airfoils; wings D. ailerons; wings |
C. airfoils; wings
(8083-21; LP 12, p. 39) |
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629. The _______ of the aircraft is the greatest factor that affects the intensity of wake turbulence.
A. speed B. shape of the wing C. vortex strength D. weight |
D. weight
(AIM; LP 13, p. 5) |
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630. Vortices are generated at the moment an aircraft begins to ________.
A. taxi B. leave the ground C. slow on approach D. touchdown on the runway |
B. leave the ground
(8083-25; LP 13, p. 11) |
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631. Another name for thrust stream turbulence is ________.
A. turbine wash B. burner blast C. jet fuel burn D. jet blast |
D. jet blast
(AIM; LP 13, p. 24) |
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632. For a military aircraft, the first letter(s) of the designator identifies the aircraft’s ________.
A. manufacturer B. model C. service branch D. mission |
D. mission
(7110.65; LP 14, p. 12) |
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633. Category III aircraft generally climb at what rate?
A. 500’ – 1000’ per minute B. 1000’ – 2000’ per minute C. 2000’ – 4000’ per minute D. Greater than 4000’ per minute. |
C. 2000’ – 4000’ per minute (7110.65; LP 14, p. 6)
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634. 100 nautical miles equals ____________ statute miles.
A. 130 B. 95 C. 87 D. 115 |
D. 115
(FAA-H-8083-25; LP 15, p. 15) |
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635. An aircraft travels 300 nautical miles over the ground in three hours while experiencing a tailwind of 25 knots. The aircraft’s ground speed is ________ knots.
A. 150 B. 125 C. 100 D. 75 |
C. 100
(FAA-H-8083-25; LP 15, p. 29) |
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636. The navigational method based solely on computing air speed, course, wind, ground speed, and elapsed time is ________.
A. radio navigation B. RNAV navigation C. FMS D. dead reckoning |
D. dead reckoning
(FAA-H-8083-25; LP 15; p. 46) |
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637. Generally, ATS routes defined from 1,200 feet AGL to 18,000 feet MSL describe ________.
A. victor routes B. jet routes C. Q routes D. MTRs |
A. victor routes
(7110.65 & AIM; LP 16, p. 33) |
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638. How often is the World Aeronautical Chart published?
A. every 56 days B. every 6 months C. every 12 months D. every 24 months |
C. every 12 months
(7110.65 & AIM; LP 17, p. 38) |
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639. En Route Low Altitude Charts are published every ________.
A. 56 days B. 112 days C. 3 months D. 6 months |
A. 56 days
(AIM; LP 18, p. 3) |
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640. STAR is not designed to ________.
A. expedite ATC arrival procedures. B. funnel arrival traffic into one-way corridors and reduce coordination between ATC facilities. C. provide guidance to a fix in the terminal area. D. ensure appropriate separation minima between aircraft. |
D. ensure appropriate separation minima between aircraft.
(FAA-H-8261-1; LP 19, p. 30) |
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641. Of the types of instrument approaches listed, which one is a precision approach?
A. VOR B. NDB C. ILS D. TACAN |
C. ILS
(AIM; LP 20, p. 8) |
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642. Which instrument does not depend on 'rigidity in space' for its operation?
A. heading indicator B. attitude indicator C. magnetic compass D. turn coordinator |
C. magnetic compass
(FAA-H-8083-25; LP 21, p. 16) |
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643. Which of the following is assigned by ATC to a single aircraft and used for radar identification and flight tracking?
A. non-discrete codes B. discrete codes C. mode C D. aircraft identification |
B. discrete codes
(7110.65; LP 21, p 34) |
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644. Which of the following is not one of the minimum information requirements for handling an emergency?
A. Nature of the emergency B. Aircraft identification and type C. Aircraft color D. Pilot’s desires |
C. Aircraft color
(7110.65; LP 22, p. 9) |
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645. Which of the following is an interagency agreement which provides for the effective use of all available facilities in all types of search and rescue missions?
A. Letter of Understanding (LOU) B. National Search and Rescue Plan C. Letters of Agreement (LOA) D. Standard Operating Procedure (SOP) |
B. National Search and Rescue Plan
(7110.65; LP 23, p. 3) |
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646. The temperature to which air must be cooled at constant pressure and constant water vapor content in order for saturation to occur is ________.
A. Relative humidity B. dew point C. lapse rate D. inversion |
B. dew point
(AC 00-6; LP 24, p. 10) |
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647. What type of precipitation occurs when the temperature remains below freezing throughout the entire depth of the atmosphere?
A. Ice B. Snow C. Ice pellets D. Freezing rain |
B. Snow
(NWS Jetstream -Online School for Weather; LP 24, p. 32) |
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648. The dissipating stage of a thunderstorm begins when ___________ are predominant.
A. downdrafts B. updrafts C. hail stones D. icing |
A. downdrafts
(AC 00-6; LP 25, p. 47) |
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649. “Any wind more than 90 degrees to the longitudinal axis of the runway” defines a ________.
A. tailwind B. crosswind C. variable wind D. sudden wind shift |
A. tailwind
(AMS Glossary of Meteorology; LP 25, p. 8) |
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650. The following METAR observation was taken at _______. KOKC 181456Z 23015G28KT 10SM FEW025 01/M01 A2981 RMK AO2 SLP096
A. 1815 local time B. 1456 UTC C. 1815 UTC D. 1456 local time |
B. 1456 UTC
(AC 00-6; LP 26, p. 14) |
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651. Based on the following TAF, what is the earliest time thunderstorms and rain can be expected?
KOKC 051130Z 0512/0612 14008KT 5SM BR BKN030 TEMPO 0513/0516 1 1/2SM BR FM051600 16010KT P6SM SKC FM051900 20013G25KT 4SM SHRA OVC020 FM060500 20010G20KT 2SM SHRA BKN010 PROB30 0507 2SM TSRA OVC008CB FM060800 21015KT P6SM SCT040= A. 5th day at 1200Z B. 5th day at 1900Z C. 6th day at 1600Z D. 6th day at 0500Z |
D. 6th day at 0500Z
(AC 00-45; LP 27, p. 18) |
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652. Which type of bulletin uses the alphabetic designators Sierra, Tango, or Zulu to indicate the type of condition being reported?
A. AIRMET B. MIS C. SIGMET D. WST |
A. AIRMET
(AC 00-45; LP 27, p. 35) |
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653. Based on the following PIREP, the base of the second cloud layer is ________.
UA/OV KMRB-KPIT/TM 1600/FL100/TP BE55/SK BKN024-TOP032/BKN-OVC043-TOPUNKN/TA M12/IC LGT-MOD RIME 055-080 A. 4,300 feet MSL B. 3,200 feel AGL C. 4,300 feet AGL D. 2,400 feet MSL |
A. 4,300 feet MSL
(AC 00-45; LP 28. p. 12) |
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654. How often are interphones and assigned frequencies to be monitored?
A. According to the level of traffic in the area B. At half-hour intervals C. Continuously D. Hourly |
C. Continuously
(7110.65; LP 29, p. 3) |
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655. The correct ICAO phonetic spelling of the word “UNIT” is ________.
A. UNIFORM-NINER-INDIA-TANGO B. UNO-NOVEMBER-INDIGO-TANGO C. UNIFORM-NINER-INDIGO-TANGO D. UNIFORM-NOVEMBER-INDIA-TANGO |
D. UNIFORM-NOVEMBER-INDIA-TANGO
(7110.65; LP 29, p. 6) |
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656. RNAV route 24 would be spoken as ________.
A. “QUEBEC TWO FOUR” B. “ROMEO TWENTY FOUR” C. “Q TWENTY FOUR” D. “RNAV TWO FOUR” |
C. “Q TWENTY FOUR” (7110.65; LP 29, p. 42)
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657. What does the clearance abbreviation “PD” represent?
A. Cleared to depart from the fix B. Cleared to the airport C. Cleared to hold and instructions issued D. Cleared to climb/descend at pilot’s discretion |
D. Cleared to climb/descend at pilot’s discretion
(7110.65; LP 30, p. 4) |
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658. Which of the following statements is not true of flight progress strips?
A. They are considered legal documents. B. They are either handwritten or printed on special printers. C. They are used to post clearances required for ATC control. D. They are formatted the same for each air traffic option. |
D. They are formatted the same for each air traffic option.
(7110.65; LP 30, p. 13) |
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659. An authorization by air traffic control for aircraft to proceed under specified traffic conditions within controlled airspace for the purpose of preventing collisions between known aircraft is called an ________.
A. ATC clearance B. ATC coordination C. ATC instruction D. ATC separation |
A. ATC clearance
(7110.65; LP 31, p. 3) |
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660. There can be as many as________ air traffic clearance items; the ________ is issued first, and is always included in a clearance.
A. 6; clearance limit B. 9; route of flight C. 6; altitude data in order flown D. 9; aircraft identification |
D. 9; aircraft identification (7110.65; LP 31, p. 6)
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661. There are ________ types of ATC prefixes used when relaying through a non-ATC facility.
A. two B. three C. four D. five |
B. three
(7110.65; LP 31, p. 10) |
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662. Traffic management programs are one of several processes administered by the Air Traffic Control System Command Center (ATCSCC) to achieve optimum use of the ________ and minimize ________ without increasing controller workload.
A. airspace, accidents B. NAS, delays C. ATC System, accidents D. airports, delays |
B. NAS, delays
(7210.3 and 7110.65; LP 1, p. 52) |
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663. The facility that provides radar approach and departure control services to aircraft operating in the vicinity of one of more airports in a terminal area is a ________.
A. TRACON B. ATCT C. ARTCC D. AFSS |
A. TRACON
(7110.65; LP 1, p. 37) |
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664. Which of the following is not one of the uses of a movement area?
A. Air taxiing B. Hover taxiing C. Loading passengers D. Takeoff and landing of aircraft |
C. Loading passengers (7110.65; LP 3, p. 2)
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665. Runway separation is applied by ________ controllers.
A. Air Route Traffic Control Center (ARTCC) B. Air Traffic Control Tower (ATCT) C. Terminal Radar Approach Control (TRACON) D. Automated Flight Service Station (AFSS) |
B. Air Traffic Control Tower (ATCT)
(7110.65; LP 4, p. 37) |
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666. Controllers may use visual separation ________.
A. up to, but not including, FL180 B. at FL180 and below C. up to and including 18,000 feet MSL D. up to but not including 18,000 feet AGL |
A. up to, but not including, FL180
(7110.65; LP 4, p. 35) |
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667. The office/person responsible for reporting the conditions of the landing area of an airport is the ______.
A. Air Traffic Manager B. airport manager/operator C. tie-in AFSS D. local controller |
B. airport manager/operator (7930.2; LP 5, p. 15)
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668. In FAA Order 7110.65, the word used to specify that a procedure is mandatory is ________.
A. shall B. may C. should D. will |
A. shall
(7110.65; LP 7, p. 21) |
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669. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a Prohibited Area?
A. Established around residential areas for noise abatement B. Begins at the surface of the earth and extends upward to a defined altitude C. Established for security or other reasons associated with the national welfare D. Identified by the letter “P” plus a number |
A. Established around residential areas for noise abatement
(FAR 73; LP 9, p.17) |
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670. A ________is specified information, relating to the intended flight of an aircraft.
A. ATC Clearance B. Flight Plan C. Supplement D. Notice |
B. Flight Plan
(FAR 1, LP 10, p. 7) |
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671. When air density decreases what occurs?
A. Rate of climb is faster and landing speed will be faster B. Landing speed is faster and engine power output will be decreased C. Takeoff run is longer and the engine produces more power D. Rate of climb is slower and takeoff run is shorter |
B. Landing speed is faster and engine power output will be decreased
(8083-25; LP 12, p. 21) |
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672. Which of the following is not a principal airfoil?
A. Wing B. Fuselage C. Propeller D. Horizontal tail surfaces |
B. Fuselage
(8083-25; LP 12, p. 7) |
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673. Regarding helicopters, the cyclic controls the _______ of the rotor blades and the collective controls the _________.
A. pitch; tilt B. speed; pitch C. tilt; pitch D. angle; speed |
C. tilt; pitch
(8083-21; LP 12, p. 40) |
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674. Counter control is most effective and roll is minimal when the wingspan and the ailerons extend beyond the ________ of the vortex.
A. vertical limits B. outer edges C. sink rate D. induced roll |
B. outer edges
(AIM; LP 13, p. 19) |
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675. What are the three basic types of landing gear?
A. straight; swept; delta B. tandem; fixed; conventional C. tricycle; conventional; tandem D. forward; mid; conventional |
C. tricycle; conventional; tandem
(ATG-2; LP 14, p. 29) |
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676. One minute of latitude is equal to ___________ any place on the Earth’s surface.
A. 5000 feet B. ½ nautical mile C. 1 nautical mile (NM) D. 1 statute mile (SM) |
C. 1 nautical mile (NM)
(FAA-H-8083-25; LP 15, p. 7) |
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677. A line of equal magnetic variation is called a/an __________ line.
A. isogonic B. agonic C. magnetic D. longitude |
A. isogonic
(FAA-H-8083-25; LP 15, p. 42) |
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678. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the Global Positioning System (GPS)?
A. The system is affected by weather.) B. The system provides satellite-based radio navigation. C. The system provides highly accurate position information. D. The system provides velocity information. |
A. The system is affected by weather.
(AIM; LP 16, p. 26) |
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679. Sectional Aeronautical Charts are designed to be used for ________ navigation of ________ speed aircraft.
A. instrument; slow/medium B. visual; slow/medium C. required prior to entering controlled airspace D. required prior to departure from within controlled airspace. |
B. visual; slow/medium
(AIM; LP 17, p. 3) |
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680. Which document would you use to determine type of fuel available at an airport?
A. US Terminal Procedures Charts B. Airport/Facility Directory C. Sectional Chart D. IFR Area Chart |
B. Airport/Facility Directory (7110.65 & AIM; LP 17, p. 42)
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681. On an En Route High Altitude Chart, all NAVAIDs shown are ________ class, unless otherwise identified.
A. L B. H C. T D. R |
B. H
(En Route Charts; LP 18, p. 40) |
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682. A localizer, a glide slope, and marker beacons are basic components of a/an ________ approach.
A. ILS B. nonprecision C. no gyro D. TACAN |
A. ILS
(7110.65; LP 20, p. 9) |
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683. The purpose of TCAS is to _______.
A. provide standard separation B. prevent a collision C. replace ATC D. ensure terrain avoidance |
B. prevent a collision
(FAR Part 1, 91, 121 and 135; LP 21, p. 40) |
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684. The universal emergency frequencies are ________.
A. VHF 121.0; VHF 243.5 B. VHF 122.5, UHF 245.0 C. VHF 121.5, UHF 243.0 D. VHF 245.0, UHF 122.5 |
C. VHF 121.5, UHF 243.0 (7110.65; LP 22, p. 5)
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685. The Coast Guard and Air Force conduct ________ operations through the Rescue Coordination Center.
A. airborne search and rescue B. sheriffs department search and rescue C. telephonic search and rescue D. physical search and rescue |
D. physical search and rescue
(7110.65; LP 23, p. 7) |
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686. Precipitation formation requires water vapor, lift, and ________.
A. a growth process B. frontal pressure C. a stable temperature D. a steep slope |
A. a growth process
(NWS Jetstream -Online School for Weather; LP 24, p. 31) |
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689. Which of the following is a characteristic of a temperature inversion?
A. High winds B. Decreased temperatures with increased altitude C. Increased temperatures with increased altitude p. 27) D. Clear air turbulence |
C. Increased temperatures with increased altitude
(AC 00-6; LP 25, p. 27) |
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687. Turbulence that causes large, abrupt changes in altitude and/or attitude describes ________ turbulence.
A. moderate B. severe C. intense D. extreme |
B. severe
(AC 00-45; LP 25, p. 29) |
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688. What can produce almost every weather hazard?
A. Hurricane B. Thunderstorm C. Tornado D. Turbulence |
B. Thunderstorm
(AMS Glossary of Meteorology; LP 25, p. 45) |
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690. Gusty wind is coded as a ________ in the wind group of a METAR.
A. B B. W C. T D. G |
D. G
(AC 00-45; LP 26, p. 19) |
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691. What forecast product provides a plain language, non-technical description of weather expected to occur over an extended period ranging from several hours to two days?
A. AIRMET B. MIS C. SIGMET D. WST |
B. MIS
(AC 00-45; LP 27, p. 45) |
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692. Air Traffic Facilities are required to solicit PIREPs when ________ is reported or forecasted.
A. Ceiling at or below 7,000 feet B. Light icing C. Light turbulence D. Visibility at or below 10 miles |
B. Light icing
(7110.10; LP 28, p. 6) |
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693. According to the ICAO alphabet pronunciation table, in radiotelephony “C-H-A-P” should be pronounced ________.
A. CHARLIE HONEY ALFA PETER B. CHARLIE HOTEL ALFA PAPA C. CHARLIE HECTOR ALFA PAPA D. CHARLIE HOTEL ALFA PETER |
B. CHARLIE HOTEL ALFA PAPA
(7110.66; LP 29, p. 6) |
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694. Which of the following is the correct way to state an altitude of 16,000 feet?
A. SIXTEEN COMMA THOUSAND B. ONE SIX ZERO ZERO ZERO C. ONE SIX THOUSAND D. SIXTEEN ZERO HUNDRED |
C. ONE SIX THOUSAND (7110.65; LP 29, p. 10)
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695. What does the abbreviation “RA” mean when used on a flight progress strip?
A. Radar Advisories (flight following) B. Resolution Advisory (pilot reported TCAS event) C. Runway Approach D. Radar Approach |
B. Resolution Advisory (pilot reported TCAS event) (7110.65; LP 30, p. 5)
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696. Air traffic facilities, airports, NAVAIDS, FARs, and personnel are all components of the ________.
A. Traffic Management System B. National Airspace System C. Airway Facilities Service D. Federal Aviation Administration |
B. National Airspace System (7110.65; LP 1, p. 55)
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