Atb 1-86

Front 1

1. The Air Traffic Organization (ATO) is managed by a(n) ________.

A. Associate Administrator
B. Vice President
C. Chief Operating Officer
D. Administrator

Back 1

C. Chief Operating Officer

(LP 1, p. 6)

Front 2

2. According to their location, ATO air traffic control facilities are assigned to one of ________.
A. nine regions
B. three service areas
C. eleven FAA primary offices
D. four FAA Headquarters divisions

Back 2

B. three service areas

(LP 1, p. 10)

Front 3

3. The primary Navigational Aids (NAVAIDs) for the nation’s airways in the National Airspace System (NAS) are ________.
A. marker beacons
B. VORs/VORTACs
C. Non Directional Beacons (NDBs)
D. Instrument Landing Systems (ILSs)

Back 3

B. VORs/VORTACs

(LP 1, p. 58)

Front 4

4. The primary mission of the Traffic Management System (TMS) is to ________.
A. regulate air traffic procedures
B. balance system demand with system capacity
C. implement the use of state-of-the-art equipment
D. ascertain controller stress and workload

Back 4

B. balance system demand with system capacity

(LP 1, p. 50)

Front 5

5. The mission of the _______ is to balance air traffic demand with the system’s capacity to ensure that the maximum and most efficient utilization of the NAS is maintained.

A. Traffic Management System (TMS)
B. Air Route Traffic Control Center (ARTCC)
C. Automated Flight Service Station (AFSS)
D. FAA Headquarters

Back 5

A. Traffic Management System (TMS)

(LP 1, p. 50)

Front 6

6. The primary function of the Traffic Management Unit (TMU) is to ______.
A. monitor and balance traffic flows within their area of responsibility in accordance with traffic management directives
B. ensure maximum efficiency in the utilization of the total National Airspace System, thereby producing a safe, orderly, and expeditious flow of traffic
C. manage the flow of air traffic throughout the National Airspace System to achieve optimum use of the navigable airspace and minimize the effect of air traffic delays
D. manage the flow of tower traffic by ensuring that traffic demand does not exceed operationally minimal levels of traffic

Back 6

A. monitor and balance traffic flows within their area of responsibility in accordance with traffic management directives

(LP 1, p. 51)

Front 7

7. The primary purpose of the Air Traffic Control System is to ________.
A. prevent collision and organize and expedite the flow of traffic
B. provide traffic advisories
C. monitor holding patterns
D. advise pilots of altitude deviations of 300 feet or more

Back 7

A. prevent collision and organize and expedite the flow of traffic

(LP 1, p. 15)

Front 8

8. The air traffic facility that has no direct authority over Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) or Visual Flight Rules (VFR) traffic is the ________.

A. Airport Traffic Control Tower (ATCT)
B. Terminal Radar Approach Control (TRACON)
C. Automated Flight Service Station (AFSS)
D. Air Route Traffic Control Center (ARTCC)

Back 8

C. Automated Flight Service Station (AFSS)

(LP 1, p. 24)

Front 9

9. The facility primarily responsible for conducting pilot briefings is the ________.
A. ATCT
B. ARTCC
C. ATCSCC
D. AFSS

Back 9

D. AFSS

(LP 1, p. 24)

Front 10

10. Which position in the Automated Flight Service Station (AFSS) records and disseminates Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) summaries?
A. In Flight
B. Broadcast
C. Flight Data/NOTAM Coordinator
D. Preflight

Back 10

B. Broadcast

(LP 1, p. 26)

Front 11

11. Which of the following duties is not the function of the Clearance Delivery position in the tower?
A. Operating communication equipment
B. Processing and forwarding flight plan information
C. Compiling statistical data
D. Issuing clearances and ensuring accuracy of readback

Back 11

C. Compiling statistical data

(LP 1, p. 33)

Front 12

The ________ position in the ATC terminal option is normally responsible for issuing control instructions to aircraft and vehicles operating on the airport movement area (other than active runways).
A. Local Control
B. Ground Control
C. Clearance Delivery
D. Flight Data

Back 12

B. Ground Control

(LP 1, p. 34)

Front 13

13. In a Terminal Radar Approach Control (TRACON) facility, who has the responsibility for the safe and efficient operation of a sector?
A. Facility Manager
B. Radar Position
C. Radar Associate Position
D. Radar Team

Back 13

D. Radar Team

(LP 1, p. 39)

Front 14

14. The ATC facility that provides air traffic control services to aircraft on IFR flight plans during the en route phase of flight is ________.
A. ATCT
B. AFSS
C. TRACON
D. ARTCC

Back 14

D. ARTCC

(LP 1, p. 41)

Front 15

15. The only en route sector team member whose duties do not include accepting handoffs is the ________ position.
A. Radar Coordinator
B. Radar Associate
C. Radar
D. Radar Flight Data

Back 15

D. Radar Flight Data

(LP 1, p. 43)

Front 16

16. When considering the duty priority of an air traffic controller, first priority is given to ________.
A. coordinating
B. issuing traffic
C. separating aircraft
D. vectoring

Back 16

C. separating aircraft

(LP 1, p. 16)

Front 17

17. Nonradar separation is used in preference to radar separation when ________.
A. an operational advantage will be gained
B. the aircraft is not transponder equipped
C. secondary radar is out of service
D. controller is not radar qualified

Back 17

A. an operational advantage will be gained

(LP 1, p. 16)

Front 18

18. “Presidential aircraft have priority over Flight Check aircraft” is an example of ________.
A. Operational Priority
B. Procedural Preference
C. Duty Priority
D. Additional Services

Back 18

A. Operational Priority

(LP 1, p. 16)

Front 19

19. All of the following represent uses of a non-movement area EXCEPT:
A. Loading Passengers
B. Landing
C. Maintenance D Parking

Back 19

B. Landing

(LP 3, p. 2)

Front 20

20. A runway with a magnetic heading of 003 degrees should be designated Runway _______.
A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 36

Back 20

D. 36

(LP 3, pp. 5, 6)

Front 21

21. An airport with three parallel runways with a magnetic heading of 216 degrees would have runway designations of ________.
A. 22R, 22C, 22L
B. 21R, 21C, 21L
C. 21R, 21L, 22C
D. 22R, 22L, 21

Back 21

A. 22R, 22C, 22L

(LP 3, p. 6)

Front 22

22. What runway marking extends the full-length runway pavement area?
A. Runway side stripes
B. Dashed side stripes
C. Runway centerlines
D. Dashed centerlines

Back 22

A. Runway side stripes

(LP 3, p. 12)

Front 23

23. A(n) _______ consists of white arrows which point in the direction of landing, replacing the runway centerline, and beginning at the non-landing portion to the threshold bar.
A. stabilized area
B. abandoned runway
C. relocated threshold
D. displaced threshold

Back 23

D. displaced threshold

(LP 3, p. 13)

Front 24

24. A _______ is identified by large chevrons pointing in the direction of the threshold.
A. blast pad
B. closed runway
C. relocated threshold
D. dislocated threshold

Back 24

A. blast pad

(LP 3, p. 17)

Front 25

25. Runway ________ provide alignment guidance during takeoffs and landings, and consist of a line of uniformly spaced stripes and gaps.
A. aiming points
B. centerlines
C. thresholds
D. touchdown zones

Back 25

B. centerlines

(LP 3, p. 7)

Front 26

26. What color are taxiway edge lights?
A. White
B. Amber
C. Blue
D. Red

Back 26

C. Blue

(LP 3, p. 33)

Front 27

27. Civil land airports have rotating beacons that _______.

A. flash white and green
B. flash two white and one green
C. flash white
D. flash green

Back 27

A. flash white and green

(LP 3, p. 29)

Front 28

28. Touchdown Zone Lighting (TDZL) and Runway Centerline Lights System (RCLS) are two types of _______.
A. Runway End Identifier Lights
B. Taxiway lights
C. In-runway lights
D. Runway edge lights

Back 28

C. In-runway lights

(LP 3, p. 32)

Front 29

29. Threshold lights are ________.
A. white/yellow
B. green/yellow
C. white/red
D. green/red

Back 29

D. green/red

(LP 3, p. 31)

Front 30

30. The two subsystems for disseminating aeronautical information are _______.
A. AIS and NOTAMs
B. NFDC and NOTAMs
C. NAS and NFDC
D. AIS and AFSS

Back 30

A. AIS and NOTAMs

(LP 5, p. 3)

Front 31

31. Who is responsible for originating a NOTAM concerning a navigational aid?
A. Facility responsible for monitoring or controlling the navigational aid
B. Center in whose area the outage occurs
C. Terminal in whose area the outage occurs
D. Automated Flight Service Station

Back 31

A. Facility responsible for monitoring or controlling the navigational aid

(LP, p. 11)

Front 32

32. A NOTAM that is widely disseminated and applies to civil components of the NAS is classified as a _______.
A. NOTAM D
B. Military NOTAM
C. Pointer NOTAM
D. FDC NOTAM

Back 32

A. NOTAM D

(LP 5, p. 6)

Front 33

33. A NOTAM that consists of information that is regulatory in nature pertaining to flight, such as changes to IFR charts, is classified as a/an:
A. NOTAM D
B. Military NOTAM
C. Pointer NOTAM
D. FDC NOTAM

Back 33

D. FDC NOTAM

(LP, p. 8)

Front 34

34. Responsibility for validating NOTAM data and operating the National NOTAM System belongs to _______.
A. National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA)
B. NFDC
C. ARTCCs
D. AFSSs

Back 34

B. NFDC

(LP, p. 13)

Front 35

35. Who is responsible for observing and reporting the conditions of the landing area of an airport?
A. Airport manager/operator
B. Tower controller
C. Pilot
D. Flight service specialist

Back 35

A. Airport manager/operator

(LP, p. 15)

Front 36

36. Types of Notices to Airmen (NOTAMs) are:
A. GENOT, RENOT and SERNOT
B. PIREP, ALNOT and INREQ
C. AIRMET, SIGMET and MIS
D. FDC, POINTER and MILITARY

Back 36

D. FDC, POINTER and MILITARY

(LP 5, p. 5)

Front 37

37. What information is contained in the FAA Order JO 7110.65?
A. Prescribes air traffic procedures used by Flight Service specialists
B. Prescribes air traffic procedures and phraseology used by air traffic controllers
C. Provides direction and guidance for operating and managing Air Traffic facilities
D. Contains approved words and phrase contractions used by the FAA

Back 37

B. Prescribes air traffic procedures and phraseology used by air traffic controllers

(LP 7, p. 8)

Front 38

38. What information is contained in the FAA Order JO 7210.3?
A. Prescribes air traffic procedures and phraseology used by Flight Service specialists
B. Prescribes air traffic procedures and phraseology used by air traffic controllers
C. Provides direction and guidance for operating and managing Air Traffic facilities
D. Contains approved words and phrase contractions used by the FAA

Back 38

C. Provides direction and guidance for operating and managing Air Traffic facilities

(LP 7, p. 11)

Front 39

39. Revised, reprinted, or new pages in FAA Orders JO 7110.10, JO 7110.65, and JO 7210.3 are indicated by bold ________.
A. asterisks
B. horizontal lines
C. vertical lines
D. stars

Back 39

C. vertical lines

(LP, p. 16)

Front 40

40. What information is contained in the FAA Order JO 7340.2?
A. Prescribes air traffic procedures and phraseology used by Flight Service specialists
B. Prescribes air traffic procedures and phraseology used by air traffic controllers
C. Provides direction and guidance for operating and managing Air Traffic facilities
D. Contains approved words and phrase contractions used by the FAA

Back 40

D. Contains approved words and phrase contractions used by the FAA

(LP 7, p.13)

Front 41

41. When used in FAA Orders JO 7110.10, JO 7110.65, and JO 7210.3, the word “may” means that the procedure is ________.
A. recommended
B. approved
C. optional
D. mandatory

Back 41

C. optional

(LP, p. 20)

Front 42

42. What information is contained in the FAA Order JO 7350.8?
A. Aeronautical Information Manual
B. Lists location identifiers authorized by the FAA
C. Provides direction and guidance for operating and managing Air Traffic facilities
D. Contains approved words and phrase contractions used by the FAA

Back 42

B. Lists location identifiers authorized by the FAA

(LP 7, p. 15)

Front 43

43. In FAA Order 7110.65, the word used to specify that a procedure is mandatory is ________.
A. shall
B. may
C. should
D. will

Back 43

A. shall

(LP 7, p. 20)

Front 44

44. Which contraction is used to identify General Notices issued by Washington Headquarters?
A. GANOT
B. GENOT
C. GENNOT
D. GNOT

Back 44

B. GENOT

(LP, p. 17)

Front 45

45. In FAA Order 7110.65, the word used to specify that a procedure is recommended is ________.
A. shall
B. may
C. should
D. will

Back 45

C. should

(LP 7, p. 21)

Front 46

46. What document is used to consolidate instructions from different levels into a single directive to avoid having instructions scattered among several directives?
A. FAA Order JO 7110.65
B. Notices
C. Supplements
D. Changes

Back 46

C. Supplements

(LP, p. 18)

Front 47

47. Which document prescribes air traffic procedures and phraseology used by Flight Service specialists?
A. FAA Order JO 7210.3
B. FAA Order JO 7110.10
C. Aeronautical Information Manual
D. Terminal Phraseology Guide

Back 47

B. FAA Order JO 7110.10

(LP, p. 6)

Front 48

48. Which document provides the aviation community with basic flight information and ATC procedures?
A. FAA Order JO 7340.2
B. FAA Order JO 7110.65
C. Aeronautical Information Manual
D. FAA Order JO 7350.8

Back 48

C. Aeronautical Information Manual

(LP, p. 19)

Front 49

49. When used in FAA Orders JO 7110.10, JO 7110.65, and JO 7210.3, the word “will” means ________.
A. recommended
B. not a requirement for application of a procedure
C. optional
D. mandatory

Back 49

B. not a requirement for application of a procedure

(LP, p. 21)

Front 50

50. Many FAA orders are divided into chapters, sections, and ________.
A. groups
B. subsections
C. stanzas
D. paragraphs

Back 50

D. paragraphs

(LP, p. 6)

Front 51

51. The lower limit of Class B airspace is ________.
A. 1,200 feet AGL
B. 1,200 feet MSL
C. 1,500 feet AGL
D. the surface

Back 51

D. the surface

(LP, p. 6)

Front 52

52. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a Military Operations Area (MOA)?
A. Identified by the letter “M” plus a number
B. Established outside Class A airspace
C. Activities include low altitude, high-speed flight
D. MOAs are depicted on Sectional Aeronautical and En Route Low altitude charts

Back 52

A. Identified by the letter “M” plus a number

(LP 9, p. 23)

Front 53

53. The upper vertical limit of Class A airspace is ________.
A. up to but not including FL450
B. FL450
C. up to but not including FL600
D. FL600

Back 53

D. FL600

(LP, p. 5)

Front 54

54. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a Prohibited Area?
A. Established around residential areas for noise abatement
B. Begins at the surface of the earth and extends upward to a defined altitude
C. Established for security or other reasons associated with the national welfare
D. Identified by the letter “P” plus a number

Back 54

A. Established around residential areas for noise abatement

(LP 9, p. 17)

Front 55

55. A Warning Area is established beyond ________ NM from the coast of the United States.
A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 12

Back 55

B. 3

(LP, p. 19)

Front 56

56. The upper limit of Class G airspace is ________.
A. 1200 AGL
B. 1200 MSL
C. the base of the overlying airspace
D. the base of Class E airspace

Back 56

C. the base of the overlying airspace

(LP, p. 12)

Front 57

57. What airspace contains federal airways?
A. Class A
B. Class C
C. Class E
D. Class G

Back 57

C. Class E

(LP, p. 11)

Front 58

58. What airspace is generally established from the surface to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation and has an operational control tower?
A. Class B
B. Class C
C. Class D
D. Class E

Back 58

B. Class C

(LP, p. 8)

Front 59

59. Airspace of defined dimensions, confined activities, and limitations imposed on nonusers is identified as ________ airspace.
A. controlled
B. Class E
C. Special Use
D. Class G

Back 59

C. Special Use

(LP, p. 15)

Front 60

60. What airspace generally extends upward to 10,000 feet MSL A. Class A

Back 60

A. Class A

(LP, p. 6)

Front 61

61.VFR aircraft need to receive a clearance from ATC to enter this airspace?

Back 61

B. Class B enter this airspace

(LP, p. 6)

Front 62

62. Which class of airspace requires all aircraft to be IFR?

Back 62

A Requires all aircraft to be IFR

(LP, p. 5)

Front 63

63. No transponder is required in which class airspace?

Back 63

D No transponder is required

(LP, p. 10)

Front 64

64. VFR aircraft are separated only from IFR aircraft in which airspace class?

Back 64

C VFR aircraft are separated only from IFR aircraft

(LP, p. 8)

Front 65

65. A pilot operating above 12,500 feet MSL, up to and including 14,000 feet MSL, must use supplemental oxygen ____________.
A. constantly
B. after 1 hour of flight
C. after 15 minutes of flight
D. after 30 minutes of flight

Back 65

D. after 30 minutes of flight

(LP 11, p. 48)

Front 66

66. A pilot flying VFR must stay at least 2,000 feet laterally from the clouds in class ________ and ________ airspace.
A. B;C
B. C;D
C. B;E
D. A;E

Back 66

B. C;D

(LP 11, p. 15)

Front 67

67. If takeoff minimums are not prescribed for a particular airport, the minimum visibility required for an air taxi aircraft having two engines or less is ________ statute mile(s).
A. 1/2
B. 1
C. 11/2
D. 2

Back 67

B. 1

(LP, p. 31)

Front 68

68. Aircraft operating on an airway at the published MOCA are only guaranteed _________ within __________ of the VOR serving the airway.
A. terrain clearance; 22SM
B. terrain clearance; 22NM
C. NAVAID signal; 22SM
D. NAVAID signal; 22NM

Back 68

D. NAVAID signal; 22NM

(LP 11, p. 32)

Front 69

69. Which of the following statements regarding “VFR on top” (OTP) is true?
A. Pilots must request clearance to maintain OTP
B. Pilots maintaining OTP are required to obtain ATC approval prior to changing altitude
C. Pilots maintaining OTP may, after advising ATC, deviate from their cleared route
D. Traffic advisories will not be provided by ATC

Back 69

A. Pilots must request clearance to maintain OTP

(LP 11, p. 25)

Front 70

70. An aircraft on an IFR flight plan is in VFR conditions when a two-way radio failure occurs. The pilot shall ________.
A. proceed VFR and land as soon as practicable
B. return IFR to point of departure
C. squawk code 7500
D. proceed to nearest airport and execute an IFR approach

Back 70

A. proceed VFR and land as soon as practicable

(LP, p. 39)

Front 71

71. Which of the following would not be an assigned flight level?
A. FL360
B. FL320
C. FL240
D. FL160

Back 71

D. FL160

(LP 11, p. 34)

Front 72

72. An inappropriate cruising altitude for an aircraft flying VFR on a magnetic course of 360 degrees is:
A. 2,000 MSL
B. 2,500 MSL
C. 3,500 MSL
D. 4,500 MSL

Back 72

D. 4,500 MSL

(LP 11, p. 24)

Front 73

73. Which one of the following items is not required on a VFR flight plan?
A. Pilot’s name and address
B. Fuel on board
C. Name of each occupant
D. Type of aircraft

Back 73

C. Name of each occupant

(LP, p. 10)

Front 74

74. A pilot shall file a DVFR flight plan if the flight will ________.
A. be in instrument flight conditions
B. enter positive control airspace
C. enter coastal ADIZ
D. enter Class D airspace

Back 74

C. enter coastal ADIZ

(LP, p. 7)

Front 75

75. VFR aircraft in class E airspace at or above ________, must maintain ________ visibility. because there is no speed limit at that altitude.
A. 1200 feet AGL; 3SM
B. 1200 feet AGL; 5SM
C. 10,000 MSL; 3SM
D. 10,000 MSL; 5SM

Back 75

D. 10,000 MSL; 5SM

(LP, p. 16)

Front 76

76. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding SVFR clearances to fixed wing aircraft?
A. The pilot must request SVFR clearance
B. A SVFR flight plan must be filed
C. Flight visibility must be at least 1SM
D. SVFR shall only be approved below 10,000 MSL

Back 76

B. A SVFR flight plan must be filed

(LP, p. 22)

Front 77

77. The definition of “wake turbulence” includes a number of phenomenon affecting flight safety. Which of the four choices are not included in the definition?
A. Mach buffet
B. Rotorwash
C. Propeller wash
D. Jet blast

Back 77

A. Mach buffet

(LP, p.3)

Front 78

78. Vortices are generated at the moment an aircraft begins to ________.
A. taxi
B. generate lift
C. slow on approach
D. touchdown on the runway

Back 78

B. generate lift

(LP, p. 11)

Front 79

79. _________ is jet engine exhaust.
A. Prop-wash
B. Wake turbulence
C. Jet blast
D. Counter control

Back 79

C. Jet blast

(LP 13, p. 24)

Front 80

80. A _______ wing allows for a stronger vortex to be generated, because without flaps the wing has a smaller area and wing loading is greater per square foot.
A. delta
B. clean configured
C. high
D. low

Back 80

B. clean configured

(LP 13, p. 6)

Front 81

With zero wind, vortices near the ground will travel laterally at a speed of ________ knots.
A. 10to20
B. 5to10
C. 2to3
D. 0

Back 81

C. 2to3

(LP, p. 13)

Front 82

82. Counter control is most effective and roll is minimal when the wingspan and the ailerons extend beyond the ________ of the vortex.
A. vertical limits
B. outer edges
C. sink rate
D. induced roll

Back 82

B. outer edges

(LP 13, p. 19)

Front 83

83. Downwash is created by ________.
A. Propeller driven aircraft
B. Jet aircraft
C. Helicopters
D. Turboprop airplane

Back 83

C. Helicopters

(LP 13, p. 21)

Front 84

84. Circles parallel to the equator are called ________.
A. great circles
B. parallels of longitude
C. meridians
D. parallels of latitude

Back 84

D. parallels of latitude

(LP, p. 5)

Front 85

85. The Prime Meridian is the ________.
A. great circle passing through the north and south poles
B. line located at 0°latitude
C. great circle running east and west around the earth
D. line located at zero degrees (0°) longitude

Back 85

D. line located at zero degrees (0°) longitude

(LP, p. 6)

Front 86

86. Positions on the earth’s surface are described in terms of ________.
A. latitude and longitude
B. latitude and parallels
C. degrees and arcs
D. longitude and meridians

Back 86

A. latitude and longitude

(LP, p. 7)