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75 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
The results of mast on an officer are officially recorded in what manner?

1. Page 13 entry in the service record
2. Page 7 entry in the service record
3. By submission of a special fitness report on the officer
4. Letter report to PERS-82 via the first flag officer in the chain of command
4. Letter report to PERS-82 via the first flag officer in the chain of command (6-37)
The unit punishment book contains a record of all NJP hearings conducted by the command.

1. True
2. False
1. True (6-37)
When should the NAVPERS for 1626/7 be used for the entry in the unit punishment book?

1. When all service record entries have been made
2. When the accused has served all imposed punishment
3. When all administrative actions have been completed
4. When the punishment has been published in the POD
3. When all administrative actions have been completed (6-37)
When a CO refers a case from mast to a court-martial, what service record entry, if any, must be made?

1. Page 2 entry
2. Page 9 entry
3. Page 13 entry
4. None
4. None (6-41)
When a forfeiture is imposed at NJP, what enlisted service record pages must be prepared?

1. 7 and 9 only
2. 6, 9, and 13 only
3. 7, 9, and 13 only
4. 6, 7, 9, and 13
1. 7 and 9 only (6-41)
Drug abuse has a particularly important consequences for the Armed Forces for what reason?

1. Members of the Armed Forces have a special dependency on each other
2. The punishment for drug abuse in the military is more severe
3. The military services invest a great deal in training personnel
4. Drug abuse is under a different set of laws in the Armed Forces
1. Members of the Armed Forces have a special dependency on each other (7-1)
What year did they Navy change its drug policy to fully support a zero tolerance to drug abuse?

1. 1979
2. 1982
3. 1987
4. 1992
4. 1992 (7-1)
What is the maximum punishment for the possession of Schedule IV and V controlled substances?

1. Confinement for 5 years and a dishonorable discharge
2. Confinement for 5 years and a bad conduct discharge
3. Confinement for 10 years and a dishonorable discharge
4. Confinement for 10 years and a bad conduct discharge
3. Confinement for 10 years and a dishonorable discharge
4. Confinement for 10 years and a bad conduct discharge (7-2)

(Looking at the figure on 7-2, it lists both DD and BCD. It also lists both in the MCM. I was unable to find a straight answer for this one)
Which of the following approaches to the potential drug abuser is becoming recognized as a valuable tool in fighting the drug problem?

1. Administrative discharge
2. Punitive action
3. Peer pressure
4. Education
4. Education (7-2)
Of the following drugs, which one is an example of an abused non-narcotic drug?

1. Opium
2. Heroin
3. Morphine
4. Amphetamines
4. Amphetamines (7-2)
The Drug Abuse Control Amendments were added to the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act during what year?

1. 1938
2. 1962
3. 1965
4. 1966
1. 1938 (7-3)
The purpose of the Drug Abuse Control Amendments was to eliminate traffic in which of the following drugs?

1. Amphetamines and barbiturates only
2. Amphetamines, barbiturates, and marijuana only
3. Marijuana only
4. Narcotics and non-narcotics
1. Amphetamines and barbiturates only (7-3)

(It mentions thses drugs OTHER than nonnarcotics and Marijuana)
The Bureau of Narcotics and Dangerous Drugs (BNDD) is now known as what agency?

1. ATF
2. DEA
3. FDA
4. NCIS
2. DEA (7-3)
Since 1968, drug abuse has grown at an especially high rat in which of the following countries?

1. France
2. Japan
3. Mexico
4. United States
4. United States (7-3)
Opium and heroin

1. Hypnotic
2. Dangerous drugs
3. Narcotics
4. Sedative
3. Narcotics (7-3)
Non-narcotic substances having a potential for abuse because of their depressant or stimulant effect on the central nervous system

1. Hypnotic
2. Dangerous drugs
3. Narcotics
4. Sedative
2. Dangerous drugs (7-3)
A sleep-inducing agent

1. Hypnotic
2. Dangerous drugs
3. Narcotics
4. Sedative
1. Hypnotic (7-3)
An agent that quiets activity

1. Hypnotic
2. Dangerous drugs
3. Narcotics
4. Sedative
4. Sedative (7-3)
Methadone

1. Hypnotic
2. Dangerous drugs
3. Narcotics
4. Sedative
3. Narcotics (7-3)
Stimulants are used to treat which of the following medical problems?

1. Tension
2. Anxiety
3. Overweight
4. Malnutrition
3. Overweight (7-3)
Which of the following types of drugs calm and sedate?

1. Stimulants
2. Depressants
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Hallucinogens
2. Depressants (7-3)
Distortions of time, space, and sound are sometimes caused by which of the following types of drugs?

1. Hallucinogens
2. Depressants
3. Stimulants
4. Hypnotic
1. Hallucinogens (7-3)
Delirium is characterized by which of the following conditions?

1. Sleep
2. Vomiting
3. Mental excitement
4. Violent muscle contraction
3. Mental excitement (7-3)
A person who illegally used drugs for kicks falls under what category of drug abuse?

1. Drug tolerant
2. Drug compulsive
3. Drug addict
4. Drug user spree
4. Drug user spree (7-4)
A drug addict’s activities revolve almost entirely around drug experiences and securing supplies.

1. True
2. False
1. True (7-4)
To be termed a drug addict, a person must have which of the following conditions present?

1. A tolerance for the drug
2. A psychological or compulsive dependence
3. Withdrawal symptoms in the absence of the drug
4. Each of the above
4. Each of the above (7-4)
Physiological adaptation of the body to the presence of the drug is described by what term?

1. Drug abuse
2. Drug dependence
3. Physical dependence
4. Psychological dependence
3. Physical dependence (7-4)
An attachment to drug use that arises from a drug’s ability to satisfy some emotional need of an individual is known by what term?

1. Drug abuse
2. Drug dependence
3. Physical dependence
4. Psychological dependence
4. Psychological dependence (7-4)
Which of the following terms describes a major mental disorder?

1. Psychosis
2. Delirium
3. Convulsions
4. Narcosis
1. Psychosis (7-4)
A state arising from repeated administrations of a drug

1. Potentiation
2. Habituation
3. Drug dependence
4. Tolerance
3. Drug dependence (7-4)
A need to increase the dosage of drugs to maintain the same effect

1. Potentiation
2. Habituation
3. Drug dependence
4. Tolerance
4. Tolerance (7-4)
When the combined action of 2 or more drugs is greater than the sum of the effects of each drug taken alone

1. Potentiation
2. Habituation
3. Drug dependence
4. Tolerance
1. Potentiation (7-4)
As a result of the repeated consumption of a drug, a condition that includes little or no tendency to increase the dose

1. Potentiation
2. Habituation
3. Drug dependence
4. Tolerance
2. Habituation (7-4)
Can be very useful in certain medical procedures, but may also be dangerous

1. Potentiation
2. Habituation
3. Drug dependence
4. Tolerance
1. Potentiation (7-4)
A person who wrongfully furnishes another person small quantities of illegal drugs, more for the convenience of the user than profit, is known by what term?

1. Supplier
2. Small dealer
3. Casual supplier
4. Experimental dealer
3. Casual supplier (7-5)
Which of the following is a way to place a controlled substance on the FSCA?

1. Administrative acts passed by Congress
2. Legislative acts passed by Congress
3. Both 1 and 2 (7-5)
4. Administrative procedures through DEA
3. Both 1 and 2 (7-5)
What act, passed by Congress in 1988, allows for the regulation of certain chemicals used in the making of controlled substances?

1. Federal Controlled Substance Act
2. Chemical Diversion and Trafficking Act
3. Comprehensive Drug Abuse Act
4. Chemical and Substance Abuse Prevention Act
2. Chemical Diversion and Trafficking Act (7-5)
Under 21 USC Section 811, the FCSA classified drugs into a total of how many schedules?

1. 5
2. 8
3. 10
4. 12
1. 5 (7-5)
Which of the following sources may petition to add, delete, or change the schedule of a drug?

1. A drug manufacturer
2. A government agency
3. A medical society
4. Each of the above
4. Each of the above (7-5)
Which of the following factors determines the schedule in which a drug or other substance should be placed?

1. The drug’s potential for abuse
2. The scientific evidence of the drug’s pharmacological effects
3. The scope, duration, and significance of abuse
4. All of the above
4. All of the above (7-6)
Has a currently accepted medical use with severe restrictions

1. Schedule I
2. Schedule II
3. Schedule III
4. Schedule IV
2. Schedule II (7-6)
Has no currently accepted medical use in treatment

1. Schedule I
2. Schedule II
3. Schedule III
4. Schedule IV
1. Schedule I (7-6)
Abuse of the drug may lead to limited psychological dependence

1. Schedule I
2. Schedule II
3. Schedule III
4. Schedule IV
4. Schedule IV (7-7)
Abuse of drug may lead to moderate physical dependence

1. Schedule I
2. Schedule II
3. Schedule III
4. Schedule IV
3. Schedule III (7-7)
Drugs that have the lowest potential for abuse are found under what schedule?

1. I
2. II
3. III
4. IV
4. IV (7-7)
When DEA determines that a drug or substance be controlled, a proposal is published in which of the following books?

1. Federal Register
2. Drug Abuse and Their signs
3. Physician’s Desk Reference
4. Federal Drug Control Manual
1. Federal Register (7-7)
Once the final order is published in the Federal Register, interested parties have a maximum of how many days to appeal the scheduling of a drug?

1. 15
2. 30
3. 60
4. 90
2. 30 (7-7)
In 1984, what act amended the FCSA to allow the administrator of the DEA to temporarily place a substance into Schedule I?

1. Dangerous Drug Act
2. Drug Enforcement Act
3. Controlled Narcotics Act
4. Comprehensive Crime Control Act
4. Comprehensive Crime Control Act (7-7)
May a temporary scheduling order be extended? If so, for a maximum of how long?

1. Yes; 2 mos
2. Yes; 4 mos
3. Yes; 6 mos
4. No
3. Yes; 6 mos (7-7)
What 1986 act created a new class of substances known as controlled substance analogues?

1. Anti-Drug Abuse Act
2. Comprehensive Crime Control Act
3. Controlled Substance Act
4. Dangerous Drug Act
1. Anti-Drug Abuse Act (7-8)
In what year did Congress ratify the treaty, Convention Psychotropic Substances?

1. 1971
2. 1975
3. 1980
4. 1989
1. 1971 (7-8)
Any person who handles controlled substances must obtain a registration issued by the DEA.

1. True
2. False
1. True (7-8)
FCSA requires that all controlled substances be inventoried at least how often?

1. 30 days
2. 6 mos
3. 1 yr
4. 2 yr
4. 2 yr (7-8)
Which of the following schedules of drugs requires the supplier to have a special order from the customer?

1. I
2. II
3. Both I and II
4. V
3. Both I and II (7-10)
The determination to place drugs on a prescription is within whose jurisdiction?

1. AMA
2. DEA
3. FDA
4. HHS
3. FDA (7-10)
Of the following drug schedule combinations, which one must be stored in specially constructed vaults?

1. I and II
2. I and III
3. II and IV
4. III and V
1. I and II (7-10)
Of the following drug properties, which one basically determines the federal trafficking penalties?

1. The quality
2. The schedule
3. The weight
4. The purpose
2. The schedule (7-11)
An MA wishing to identify a tablet should consult what section of the Physician Desk Reference (PDR)?

1. Table
2. Product
3. Manufacturer
4. Reference
2. Product (7-12)
What type of book is the PDR?

1. Drug abuse guide
2. Pharmaceutical catalog
3. Medical reference book
4. Medical identification manual
3. Medical reference book (7-12)
When comparing a capsule to the photos in the PDR, one should always assume that the contents of the capsule are those supplied by the manufacturer.

1. True
2. False
2. False (7-12)
MAs mostly commonly obtain a PDR in which of the following ways?

1. By obtaining a preceding year’s copy from a physician
2. From a local NCIS office
3. By subscription
4. From a Navy hospital
1. By obtaining a preceding year’s copy from a physician (7-12)
The stimulant cocaine is a narcotic by legal definition.

1. True
2. False
1. True (7-12)
When used as an analgesic, narcotics provide what type of relief, if any?

1. Physical only
2. Psychic only
3. Physical and psychic
4. None
3. Physical and psychic (7-12)
To say someone is “skin-popping” means that an individual is injecting what way?

1. Intravenously
2. Intramuscularly
3. Intravascularly
4. Subcutaneously
4. Subcutaneously (7-12)
Narcotics tend to have which of the following physical effects on users?

1. Increased physical activity
2. Reduced vision
3. Enlarged pupils
4. Diarrhea
2. Reduced vision (7-14)
When a user of narcotics is deprived of the drug, when are the first withdrawal signs experienced?

1. Shortly before the next scheduled dose
2. Shortly after the next scheduled dose
3. Several hours after the next scheduled dose
4. At least 1 day after the next scheduled dose
1. Shortly before the next scheduled dose (7-14)
Without treatment, withdrawal symptoms disappear in how many days?

1. 3-5
2. 4-6
3. 7-10
4. 12-14
3. 7-10 (7-14)
Because drug addicts tend to neglect themselves, they often suffer from which of the following disorders?

1. Malnutrition
2. Infection
3. Injury
4. Each of the above
4. Each of the above (7-14)
The main source of non-synthetic narcotics is from what plant?

1. Mushroom
2. Fern
3. Coca
4. Poppy
4. Poppy (7-14)
What type of odor, if any, does raw opium have?

1. Musty
2. Sweet
3. Pungent
4. None
3. Pungent (7-15)
Morphine is derived from what source?

1. Heroin
2. Opium
3. Codeine
4. Paregoric
2. Opium (7-15)
On the illicit market, morphine usually appears in which of the following forms?

1. Powder
2. Tablet
3. Liquid
4. Capsule
1. Powder (7-16)
Morphine has what type of odor, if any?

1. Musty
2. Sweet
3. Pungent
4. None
4. None (7-16)
Codeine is found in the market in which of the following forms?

1. Tablet
2. Liquid
3. Capsule
4. All of the above
4. All of the above (7-16)
Thebaine produces a depressant effect.

1. True
2. False
2. False (7-16)