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816 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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The most critical security process is
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PERSONNEL
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Polygraphs are not permissible in
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Alcohol manufacturing
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A resume is NOT an acceptable form of information for a
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professional position
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Completed background investigations, if apparently completely favorable or containing unfavorable information, are reviewed by a
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responsible supervisory security employee
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Job descriptions should NEVER be
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vague
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The frequency of a reinvestigation of the “financial lifestyle” inquiry should generally be every
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18 months
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Three Major Security Processes are
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a. Personnel Security: The most critical because employees are responsible for majority of theft events.
b. Information Security: Technology & Records c. Physical Security: Property |
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Looking at ALL information in background when “red flags” are determined is called the
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Whole man rule
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6 things private companies CANNOT ask
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a. Marital status
b. Children, ages, day care questions c. Own or rent a home d. Maiden name: you can ask for ALL previous names of ALL applicants (male & female) e. Religion f. Citizenship of applicant’s spouse birthplace if born outside the USA GOVERNMENT is not restricted as to what questions may be asked of an applicant. |
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3 Protective Barriers
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a. Structural: Man made
b. Natural: Natural surrounding c. Human: Systematic use of people to limit access and control movement |
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Three purposes of barriers
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a. Deter/Delay
b. Psychological c. Complement security i. The element of delay in the outer protective barrier is minimal. To scale a chain link fence it is estimated to be 1.5 to 12 seconds. |
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4 Types of fences
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a. Chain Link
b. Barbed Wire c. Concertina d. Barbed Tape |
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Chain Link specifications (6)
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a. 7 foot high excluding top guard
b. 9 gauge wire or heavier c. Openings not be larger than 2 inches per side d. Should be twisted and barbed on top and bottom e. Securely fastened to rigid metal or reinforced concrete f. Must reach within 2 inches of hard ground or paving |
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Barbed Wire specifications (5)
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a. Twisted double strand, 12 gauge
b. 4 point barbs spaced equal distance c. Not less than 7 feet high excluding top guard d. Firmly affixed to posts not more than 6 feet apart e. Distance between strands will not exceed 6 inches apart. |
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___________ is not an effective countermeasure against intrusion or unauthorized access. It will seldom cause injury to an adversary properly prepared to deal with it.
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Conventional barbed wire
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Concertina specifications (2)
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a. Comes on a wire coil that is 50 feet long (when extended) and 165 feet overall and 3 feet in diameter when opened.
b. Attached to posts or barb arms with wire ties or clamps. |
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What is GPBTO?
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general purpose barbed tape obstacle
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Barbed Tape specifications (6). Composed of what 3 things?
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a. Composed of 3 things
i. Barbed Wire ii. Barbed Tape Dispenser iii. Concertina Tape b. made of fabricated steel with breakage point of 500 pounds c. width is ¾ inch d. tape has 7/16 inch barbs spaced at ½ inch intervals e. each roll of single coils weighs only 8 pounds f. can be installed horizontally or vertically |
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Top Guard specifications (3)
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a. Overhang of barbed wire or tape facing outward at 45 degree angle.
b. Supporting arms are permanently affixed extending height one foot c. 3 strands of barbed wire spaced 6 inches apart. |
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Utility Opening specifications (2)
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a. Manhole covers 10 inches or more must be secured
b. Ditches and other openings with sectional area greater than 96 square inches should be welded. |
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Gates should be constructed of ...
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tubular members either round or square and welded at all corners. They should have the same fencing attached by clamps every 15 inches
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Turnstiles come in generally two sizes:
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36 inches high and 7 foot high
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Regardless of height, any fence installed without a top rail should have...
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braces on ALL terminals
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Terminal Posts used at corners of fencing, should be braced...
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diagonally no more than 50 degree angle
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When a fence has no top rail, it should...
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be fastened to fencing within the top one foot with tension wire
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The major benefit of chain link fence
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clearly marks the perimeter of the property to be protected. It can be scaled quickly and provides no real deterrent.
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Clear Zone specifications (2)
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a. 20 feet or more between perimeter barrier and exterior structure, parking areas and natural features.
b. Clear zone of 50 feet or more should extend between perimeter barrier and structures within a protected area except when a building wall constitutes part of the perimeter barrier. |
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Three Main Lines of Defense for physical security
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a. Perimeter
b. Exterior Walls c. Interior areas |
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Signs are posted at ___ foot intervals along the perimeter
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100 foot intervals
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All doors except ___ should be locked from the inside and the remaining door should be...
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All doors except one should be locked from the inside and the remaining door should be well lit.
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Warehouse doors should be...
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padlocked from the inside
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Windows with a ledge less than ___ feet or more above ground are seldom targeted.
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18 feet
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Windows less than 18 feet or 14 feet from trees should be protected if they are larger than...
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96 square inches.
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Protective Coverings for windows (4)
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a. Burglary resistant glass
b. Protected iron or steel bars c. Good grade heavy steel mesh d. Chain link fencing |
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Over __% of all break-ins are though windows.
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50%
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What is the property of two or more objects which enables them to store electronic energy in an electrostatic field between them
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Capacitance
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What is the activation of a visual or audible alarm in the immediate vicinity of the protected object.
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Local alarm system
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When alarms are transmitted to a station (communications or security office) where the police are then notified.
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Central Station Monitoring
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__ to __% of all alarms are false.
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90 to 98% of all alarms are false.
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CCTV consists of the following (4)
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a. Television camera
b. Monitor c. Connecting circuit d. Power source |
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color cameras require ___________________ of monochrome cameras to achieve the same picture quality.
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twice the light level
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Importance of Lighting (3)
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a. Serves as a deterrent
b. Aids the security force c. Serves as essential element of physical security |
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Characteristics of protective lighting (4)
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a. Inexpensive to maintain
b. Helps reduce number of security force c. Personal protection for security d. Less intensity than working light |
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4 general types of protective lighting
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a. Continuous
b. Standby c. Moveable d. Emergency |
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Quantity of flow of light
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Lumens
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Number of lumens per square foot or meter
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Lux
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When we see an object our eyes are sensing the light reflected from that object
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Reflectance
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Measure of the warmth or coolness of light.
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Corrected Color Temperature (CCT)
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The ability of a lamp to faithfully reproduce the colors seen in an object.
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Color Rendition Index (CRI)
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Light fixture
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Luminaries
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Lighting Costs (%s)
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a. 8 percent capital
b. 4 percent maintenance: output reduced 3 to 4 % per year w/o cleaning. Cleaning intervals of three years are recommended. c. 88 percent energy i. To achieve uniform light distribution, particularly outdoors, is expensive. ii. Higher uniformity gives better depth perception and greater perception of safety. |
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Decks on open piers should be illuminated to at least...
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1.0 foot candles.
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Water approaches extending 100 feet from the pier should be illuminated to at least...
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0.5 foot candles.
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Outer Perimeter lighting requirements
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.50 to 2.0 foot candles
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Perimeter fence lighting requirements
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.50 foot candles
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Covered parking lot lighting requirements
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5.0 foot candles
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Building Façade lighting requirements
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.50 to 2.0 foot candles
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Perimeter of restricted area lighting requirements
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.40 foot candles
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Open yards lighting requirements
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.20 foot candles
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Sensitive inner structure lighting requirements
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1.0 foot candles
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Pedestrian entrances lighting requirements
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2.0 to 5.0 foot candles
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Pedestrian Walkway lighting requirements
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.20 foot candles
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Loading Dock Exterior lighting requirements
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.20 to 5.0 foot candles
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Loading Bays lighting requirements
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15.0 foot candles
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Gate Houses lighting requirements
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30.0 foot candles
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Vehicle Entrance lighting requirements
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10.0 foot candles
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Gaseous discharge lighting (4)
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a. Mercury vapor: soft blue light
b. Sodium vapor: soft yellow light c. More efficient than incandescent d. Takes 2-5 minutes to light fully |
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Quartz lamps (3)
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a. Emit very bright white light
b. Excellent for perimeter lighting c. Used at high wattage |
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4 types of security applications for lighting:
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a. Floodlights
b. Searchlights c. Fresnels: wide beams d. Street lights |
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Safes & Vaults: 2 types
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a. Fire resistant
b. Burglary and Robbery resistive |
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A successful attack on a safe consists of opening the door or...
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making a 2 inch square hole through the door or font face.
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A Security Plan provides...
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justification for budget allocations
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A Security Plan starts with ______ and ends with ______.
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a. Starts with analysis
b. Ends with implementation |
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A physical security program is used to control access and...
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prevent the interruption of operations.
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A vulnerability Assessment: Identification of...
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assets, threats, risk and vulnerabilities and constraints. Each enterprise must identify potential disasters for itself.
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Analysis of public crime statistics and prior loss incidents aid in determining...
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“Foreseeability”
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Security Survey is also referred to as a (2)
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a “needs” assessment
a. Risk assessment |
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A Security Survey begins with...
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a “needs” assessment
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Steps in a risk assessment (3)
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a. Determine value, impact and cost of any asset should it be lost
b. Determine the degree of vulnerability of the facility to damage or attack c. To determine the degree of probability that natural forces will strike. |
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Employees must be provided with a list of all hazardous materials at the work site as well as...
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measures for storage, use and transportation.
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The role of security in detecting, preventing and suppressing fire involves...
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control of personnel and vehicle movement on the premises.
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Definition of Security Criteria
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The statements of security objectives and requirements which should be prepared by the security organization, approved by management and given to the architect.
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The most valuable resource of any organization
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its employees
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Protection against extraordinary risks is achieved through...
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key employee security measures
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Security surveys are primarily concerned with ____________ while crime prevention surveys are focused on ___________.
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Security surveys are primarily concerned with security of property and premises and crime prevention surveys are focused on deterrence of criminal activity (persons).
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Security Audits list ___________ and identify _______.
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Security Audits list existing security conditions and identify deficiencies.
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Countermeasures that may be developed after a security audit (5)
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i. Policies and procedures
ii. Personnel iii. Barriers iv. Equipment v. Records |
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Physical Security Concepts (5)
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a. Deter
b. Detect & Annunciate c. Delay d. Deny Access e. Apprehend |
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Goals of Physical Security Program (3)
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a. Reduce loss through control of access
b. Limit interruptions to operations c. Overcome negative perceptions regarding safety. A security program will fail regardless of the high technology if is not supported. |
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Reducing actual crime may not...
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reduce the fear of crime
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Illusions of security (fake CCTV) may be...
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a disservice and illegal.
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Creating the impression that there is more security than there actually is can be...
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useful.
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There is an inverse relationship between victimization and...
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fear of crime. Those who are the least fearful are the most likely to be victims.
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Elements of physical security should be reviewed not only for their ability to reduce loss, but also for their ability to...
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reduce the fear of crime.
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Relying on the assumption that lighting reduces crime as a basis for the decision to install same can be...
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dangerous.
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CPTED
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Crime prevention through environmental design
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The biggest complaint about CPTED is...
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the lack of conclusive data to prove that these techniques actually reduce crime.
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There is no empirical evidence that CCTV...
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prevents crime. Deterrence is impossible to measure without controlled studies conducted prior to installation of CCTV.
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A major requirement in developing a security program is...
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fitting of security procedures and equipment to potential loss.
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Until someone responds, most bystanders will remain immobilized and not aid a victim. This is called...
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Pluralistic Ignorance
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ALL countermeasures have limitations and none should be adopted with...
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unreasonable expectations.
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A Cost Benefit Analysis is the direct comparison of the operation and all security measures with the amount of corporate property saved or recovered as well as reduction of losses caused by injuries and lost production time.
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A Cost Benefit Analysis is the direct comparison of the operation and all security measures with the amount of corporate property saved or recovered as well as reduction of losses caused by injuries and lost production time.
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NO Security Measure should be recommended which is...
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not cost effective.
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The intrusion detection system in which a pattern of radio waves is transmitted and partially reflected back to the antenna is known as...
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Microwave
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The intrusion detection system which is used on a safe, wall and openings therein in an effort to establish an electrostatic field around the object to be protected is known as...
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Capacitance
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A relock on a vault automatically stops the bolt from operating when...
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there is an attack on the door or combination lock.
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Money safes DO NOT have...
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accredited fire resistance.
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The UL classification labels ARE removed from all safes...
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exposed to fires.
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A burning bar produces...
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a large volume of smoke.
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Paper is destroyed at ___ degrees F, wood ignites at __ F, glass softens at ___ F, aluminum melts at ___ F, lead melts at ___ D, gold melts at ___ F.
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Paper is destroyed at 350 degrees F, wood ignites at 600 F, glass softens at 1400 F, aluminum melts at 1215 F, lead melts at 650 D, gold melts at 1945 F.
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UL standards dictate that safes weighing less than ___ lbs. be anchored.
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750 lbs.
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Electronic process media can begin to deteriorate at ___ F
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150 F
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Record safes incorporate moisture into the insulation. A fire rated safe keeps its rated value for...
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20-30 years.
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Burglary resistant safes are fabricated of...
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laminated or solid steel.
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Since ___ there have been single containers able to pass UL tests for both fire and burglary protection.
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1976
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Methods of Attack on Safe (7)
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a. Punch: dial broken off and spindle is hammered
b. Peel: [common on fire resistant safes] Chisel and hammer with pry bar to open door c. Rip: Drill and carbon disk, finished with hammer and chisel d. Drill: not common e. Burn: Acetylene torch: takes a lot of equipment f. Burning Bar: utilizes aluminum and magnesium welding rods. Lots of equipment and a ton of smoke. g. Explosives: nitroglycerin, drilled holes and nitro poured into the holes. |
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Explosive attacks on a safe (4)
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i. Jam shot - blow doors off
ii. Rag shot - iii. Compartment shot iv. Shaped charge or Jet: usually destroys contents |
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Other attacks on safes (4)
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i. Inside job
ii. Not properly locked iii. Combination written down in conspicuous location iv. Common combination used (birth date, etc.) |
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Vault specifications (6)
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a. Below grade vaults are not recommended because of “cooking”
b. Interior shall not exceed 5,000 cubic feet. Large vaults may be no more than 25,000 cubic feet. c. No more than 2 doors per vault d. Walls shall not be pierced for ventilation e. Records shall not be stored less than 3 inches from floor and shall be 18 inches below sprinkler deflectors. f. Fire resistance is determined by wall thickness |
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Expanded Metal
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diamond pattern 3 inches wide and 8 inches long (used in newer vaults)
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4 Classes of vaults
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i. M: ¼ hour (2,000 cubic ft.) 9” RIC two #5 grids
ii. I: ½ hour (2,000 cubic ft.) 12” RIC three #5 grids iii. II: 1 hour (4,000 cubic ft.) 18” RIC four #5 grids iv. III: 2 hours (8,000 cubic ft.) 27” RIC five #5 grids |
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Attack tests for vaults
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i. Knock off combination
ii. Penetrate through door iii. Cut a 96 square inch opening iv. Cut all or sufficient number of bolts to open door |
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A system using inaudible sound waves to detect the presence of an intruder or other disturbance of the inaudible sound system is known as...
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Ultrasonic
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_________ penetrate walls, ________ does not.
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Microwaves penetrate walls, ultrasonic does not.
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The glass usually used on street level glass that is 2 sheets of glass bonded with a plastic layer is known as...
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Laminated glass
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The glass that is used for both safety and security purposes because it is 3 to 5 times stronger that regular glass and 5 times as resistant to heat is...
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tempered glass
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The lock that is used most often for exterior doors and interior doors is the...
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pin tumbler lock
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What is considered to be the most important development in the history of mechanical locks?
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pin tumbler lock
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Pin Tumblers consist of THREE elements
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a. Pin
b. Driver or cylinder c. Spring |
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The __________ is inherently susceptible to picking.
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lever lock
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______________have a hollow center.
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Wafer Tumbler Locks
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Three Major Security Difficulties in Master Keying
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a. Accountability of keys
b. Additional possibilities are presented for surreptitious entry because of additional “shear lines”. c. Require additional maintenance |
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Two Types of Door Locks
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a. Cylindrical
b. Mortise |
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___________ locks have no moving parts
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Electromagnetic
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The main reason for not arming private security guards is that..
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THE TYPICAL BUSINESS OR GOVERNMENT FACILITY IS NOT CUSTOMARILY A PLACE WHERE VIOLENT CRIME OCCURS.
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The sensor which is used when air turbulence is present in the protected room and when there are no potential false alarm sources outside the room and in the field of the detector is the...
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Microwave
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________________ are the most widely used intrusion detectors today and are highly versatile. They come in ________ and _______ applications.
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Passive Infrared Sensors are the most widely used intrusion detectors today and are highly versatile. They come in wired and wireless applications.
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Photoelectric Sensors produce an electrical output when subjected to...
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change in infrared energy.
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Two Types of Mechanical Switches are
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a. Plunger
b. Lever |
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Magnetic Switches have 2 parts:
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a. Magnet
b. Switch Assembly |
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Ultrasonic Sensors travel at...
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1130 feet per second.
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The range of an Ultrasonic detector is limited. Ultrasonic Sensors are not influenced by ___________ and react only _____________________..
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Ultrasonic Sensors are not influenced by exterior noise and react only within a limited protected area.
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Microwave Sensors utilize a much higher frequency of __________. The waves reflect back to an ________.
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Microwave Sensors utilize a much higher frequency of electromagnetic energy. The waves reflect back to an antenna.
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Microwave beams can be blocked by _________, the waves penetrate __________ surfaces.
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Microwave beams can be blocked by metal objects, the waves penetrate non-metallic surfaces.
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Extremes of weather involving snow or heavy fog can affect or even disable exterior...
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photoelectric devices.
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Balanced Pressure Sensors are useful ______ and involve the application of liquid filled hoses, about ___ feet apart that detect movement in the ground. To be detected the intruder must walk ______________.
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Balanced Pressure Sensors are useful outdoors and involve the application of liquid filled hoses, about 4 feet apart that detect movement in the ground. To be detected the intruder must walk almost over top of the sensor.
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Leaky Coax
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Cable who’s shielding has been stripped. This allows for radiation of an electronic signal to a height of several feet. This is affected by leaves and animals.
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Used primarily to for explosive and inflammables detection.
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Vapor Trace Analyzers
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Modern sensors for fire protection allow for _________ and __________.
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Modern sensors for fire protection allow for two way communication and graphic interfaces.
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Four Stages of FIRE
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a. Incipient: Invisible products of combustion are given off
b. Smoldering Stage: Smoke c. Flame Stage: d. Heat Stage: |
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Smoke Detectors come in two types:
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a. Photoelectric
b. Ionization: Particularly valuable in concealed spaces |
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The sensor which is used when light air turbulence, vibration and motion outside the room are present is...
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Acoustic Detector
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The type of sensor designed to place a current-carrying conductor between an intruder and an area to be protected is known as...
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Electro-mechanical Sensor
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The type of sensor which is not influenced by exterior noise; which reacts to only movement within a protected area; and which can be adjusted so the movement of air caused by fire will activate an alarm is known as
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Ultrasonic (aka: Sound Wave Sensor)
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The Most important factors affecting life safety in a high rise: (4)
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a. Early detection
b. Communications throughout the structure c. Safe escape routes d. Application of countermeasures |
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Alarm, signal and communications systems should be distributed so that...
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local nodes can operate independently.
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A high rise is defined as a building that extends higher than the maximum reach of available fire fighting equipment, usually between __ to ___ feet. NFPA standard is a building MORE than ___ feet in height.
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A high rise is defined as a building that extends higher than the maximum reach of available fire fighting equipment, usually between 75 to 100 feet. NFPA standard is a building MORE than 75 feet in height.
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Many countermeasures to aid life safety affect...
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asset safety
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The FIRST step in assuring life safety is to...
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comply with local building and fire codes.
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FIRE DETECTION: What iis PRIMARY RESPONSE?
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The detection of products of combustion and/or the combustion process.
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Manual fire alarm devices MUST be located...
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on each floor.
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If a sprinkler system is complete, it protects
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ALL levels
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With sprinklers, the major cost is ____________, addition of adequate water flow is a marginal cost.
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With sprinklers, the major cost is the installation of the system, addition of adequate water flow is a marginal cost.
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NFPA does NOT mandate the installation of water flow CONTROL devices on each floor. It mandates ONLY the installation of water flow ____________ devices WHEN a water flow control device is present on each floor.
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NFPA does NOT mandate the installation of water flow CONTROL devices on each floor. It mandates ONLY the installation of water flow ALARM ENUNCIATION devices WHEN a water flow control device is present on each floor.
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Recognized fire authorities agree that the best tool for putting out a fire is...
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the automatic sprinkler system.
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Fire: Three prime life safety tasks:
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a. Fire Detection
b. Fire Warning c. Fire Suppression |
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Objectives of early detection devices: (3)
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a. Thorough building coverage
b. Ability to localize the detection event c. Adequate response capability |
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Most modern codes dealing with high rise fire safety mandate...
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CENTRAL STATION or FIRE DEPT. MONITORING
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Standpipes & Hoses: _____hoses or ____ lines for fire department lines.
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Standpipes & Hoses: Small hoses or 2 ½ lines for fire department lines.
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For buildings that are unoccupied during nights and weekends, planning for fire emergencies requires consideration of...
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personnel for standpipe duty.
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COMPUTER EQUIPMENT: Utilizes ______ or ______ for protection.
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COMPUTER EQUIPMENT: Utilizes HALON or CARBON DIOXIDE for protection.
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These effectively shut down the water flow after the temperature, as sensed by a companion detection system, returns to non-combustion.
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Recycling Sprinklers
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It is the ________ and ________ in sprinkler water that causes most of the damage to electrical equipment by providing electrical paths between components. (pure water is ________________)
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It is the RUST and METAL PARTICLES in sprinkler water that causes most of the damage to electrical equipment by providing electrical paths between components. (pure water is NON-CONDUCTIVE)
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What are POKE THROUGHS?
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Improperly sealed openings, which are small holes to allow for wiring, are not sealed and allow smoke to rise to next floor.
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________ and ________furniture produce toxic smoke. The assets protection professional must consider techniques to reduce use of highly toxic plastics.
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Polymers and polyurethane furniture produce toxic smoke. The assets protection professional must consider techniques to reduce use of highly toxic plastics.
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___________ of a modern high rise is impractical in all cases and impossible in many.
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TOTAL EVACUATION of a modern high rise is impractical in all cases and impossible in many.
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Elevators are recalled to the ground floor in emergencies thus preventing disabled from leaving. Each floor requires one (2 if more than 200 people on that floor) to have a ___ x ___ space with ______________.
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Elevators are recalled to the ground floor in emergencies thus preventing disabled from leaving. Each floor requires one (2 if more than 200 people on that floor) to have a 30” x 48” space with two way communications.
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For some Bomb Threats, evacuation of the building is not practical, only ___________ to be relocated.
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For some Bomb Threats, evacuation of the building is not practical, only the floors directly below and above to be relocated.
|
|
|
Well planned _________________ are essential in dealing with very large building populations.
|
Well planned voice communication resources are essential in dealing with very large building populations.
|
|
|
Building Operating Modes (6)
|
a. Open or Closed:
i. OPEN: unrestricted entry ii. CLOSED: High security iii. HYBRID: one or more areas designated as closed. b. Operated in different modes: i. Business Hours: Normal hours ii. Intermediate Hours: evenings and maybe Saturdays iii. Of Hours: Nights and weekends |
|
|
Most elevators are _________ and ____________ to meet forecasted density/direction demands over specific clock hours.
|
Most elevators are self service and pre-programmed to meet forecasted density/direction demands over specific clock hours.
|
|
|
High rise elevators are designed to return automatically to ______________ in the event of an emergency.
|
High rise elevators are designed to return automatically to a designate home floor in the event of an emergency.
|
|
|
High rise elevators travel at a speed of _____ feet per minute.
|
High rise elevators travel at a speed of 1,500 feet per minute.
|
|
|
Fire Stairs can be locked against return to the floor on upper levels of __________.
|
Fire Stairs can be locked against return to the floor on upper levels of below grade.
|
|
|
Delayed Egress locking device: delayed ______ seconds
|
Delayed Egress locking device: delayed 15-30 seconds
|
|
|
Vital utility service entrances such as _________ outside the building should be protected with _______ or ________ devices or both.
|
Vital utility service entrances such as transformer vaults outside the building should be protected with perimeter or volumetric devices or both.
|
|
|
____________ buildings require that two physically separated paths for telecommunications cable to two separate telephone centers are indicated.
|
High Rises security buildings require that two physically separated paths for telecommunications cable to two separate telephone centers are indicated.
|
|
|
Any space between a dropped ceiling and the structural floor above the elevator lobby and the fire stair should be protected using..
|
heavy gauge wire mesh (2 inch steel).
|
|
|
Emergency Audio messages should be...
|
recorded.
|
|
|
________ and ________furniture produce toxic smoke. The assets protection professional must consider techniques to reduce use of highly toxic plastics.
|
Polymers and polyurethane furniture produce toxic smoke. The assets protection professional must consider techniques to reduce use of highly toxic plastics.
|
|
|
___________ of a modern high rise is impractical in all cases and impossible in many.
|
TOTAL EVACUATION of a modern high rise is impractical in all cases and impossible in many.
|
|
|
Elevators are recalled to the ground floor in emergencies thus preventing disabled from leaving. Each floor requires one (2 if more than 200 people on that floor) to have a ___ x ___ space with ______________.
|
Elevators are recalled to the ground floor in emergencies thus preventing disabled from leaving. Each floor requires one (2 if more than 200 people on that floor) to have a 30” x 48” space with two way communications.
|
|
|
For some Bomb Threats, evacuation of the building is not practical, only ___________ to be relocated.
|
For some Bomb Threats, evacuation of the building is not practical, only the floors directly below and above to be relocated.
|
|
|
Well planned _________________ are essential in dealing with very large building populations.
|
Well planned voice communication resources are essential in dealing with very large building populations.
|
|
|
The central control console should NOT be located in the _______ where it is easily compromised.
|
Main lobby.
The console is the single most sensitive location in the structure. Having it in the lobby also distracts the attention of those responsible to monitor cameras. |
|
|
Deterrence of crime is accomplished by:(4)
|
a. Target hardening
b. Access control measures c. Removing or deflecting offenders d. Controlling the facilitators or crime |
|
|
Features of the physical environment can influence..
|
the opportunity for crime to occur.
|
|
|
Three Challenges for Architects in Security Design:
|
a. Determining requirements
b. Knowing the technology c. Understanding architectural implications |
|
|
One of the major purposes of security signage is to put the __________ on notice trying to shift responsibility back to the owner.
|
user of that space
|
|
|
For a sign to be read by a person with 20/20 vision at a distance of 50 feet, the letters need to be ___ inches in height. Graphics should be _____ inches in height. Lighting levels should be at least _____ foot candles.
|
For a sign to be read by a person with 20/20 vision at a distance of 50 feet, the letters need to be six inches in height. Graphics should be 15 inches in height. Lighting levels should be at least 20 foot candles.
|
|
|
Two methods of protection against telephone line eavesdropping are:
|
a. Don’t discuss sensitive information over the phone
b. Encryption equipment |
|
|
The ___________ is the primary tool of pre-employment screening.
|
The application form is the primary tool of pre-employment screening.
|
|
|
Proprietary information is:
|
Anything that the enterprise considers relevant to its status or operations and does not want to disclose publicly.
|
|
|
Eavesdropping refers to both...
|
bugging and wiretapping.
|
|
|
The control software of a PBX system is the :
|
Remote Maintenance Access Terminal
|
|
|
Proprietary Information: Secret information must be..
|
specifically identifiable
|
|
|
The classes of persons who have a duty to safeguard a proprietary secret are:
|
FIDUCIARIES.
|
|
|
With regards to proprietary information: It is not necessary that all agreements to be bound must always be in writing and may be implied from ____
|
acts
|
|
|
The chief reason for the loss of information about sensitive operations is:
|
LOST THROUGH INADVERTENT DISCLOSURE
|
|
|
Dynamic microphones are small microphones requiring...
|
NO power source.
|
|
|
The area of greatest vulnerability in a proprietary protection program is:
|
EMPLOYEES.
|
|
|
Vital records constitute ___% of the company’s total records.
|
2%
|
|
|
__________ is used to protect from interception of electromagnetic radiation and energy.
|
TEMPEST SHIELDING
|
|
|
Patents are good for ____ years.
|
20 years
|
|
|
Training session for security awareness should be conducted by
|
SECURITY PERSONNEL
|
|
|
The process of determining the probability and cost of potential loss is known as:
|
RISK ASSESSMENT
|
|
|
The ultimate responsibility for the internal security in a department should rest with
|
THE LINE SUPERVISOR
|
|
|
Spotting the individual loss events that might take place is the primary step in security vulnerability. This process is called
|
LOSS EVENT PROFILE
|
|
|
The likelihood or probability of risks affecting the assets becoming actual loss events is known as the
|
LOSS EVENT PROBABILITY.
|
|
|
The impact or effect on the enterprise if the loss occurs is known as
|
LOSS EVENT CRITICALITY.
|
|
|
__________ is one of the three basic functions of risk management.
|
LOSS CONTROL
|
|
|
Oscar Newman published the book ___________based on project in New York public housing.
|
DEFENSIBLE SPACE
|
|
|
The first factor to be considered in facility construction is the ...
|
BUILDING SITE ITSELF
|
|
|
The two types of risks are
|
PURE RISK & DYNAMIC RISK
|
|
|
Crime Analysis is based on data collection & analysis and...
|
DISSEMINATION & FEEDBACK.
|
|
|
A key element in focusing the use of police and security resources to address crime problems is commonly called ..
|
CRIME ANALYSIS
|
|
|
The use of narcotics DOES NOT tend to ...
|
intensify vision and increase alertness.
|
|
|
Methaqualone DOES lead to _______ and __________.
|
tolerance and dependencies
|
|
|
Defining a security problem involves an accurate assessment of 3 factors:
|
a. Kinds of threats or risks (Loss Event Profile)
b. Probability of threat becoming a loss event (Loss Event Probability) c. Effect on the assets if loss occurs (Loss Event Criticality) |
|
|
Events that may produce either a loss or a profit is called business or conventional risk: This depends on factors including: (4)
|
a. Manufacturing costs
b. Securing share of market c. Competitive pricing d. Maintaining quality |
|
|
Examples of pure risk (6)
|
a. War
b. Catastrophe c. Disaster d. Workplace Violence e. Terrorism f. Civil Disturbance & Crime |
|
|
The more ways an event can occur, the..
|
greater the probability that it will occur.
|
|
|
Probability Factors that can worsen the risk of loss:(5)
|
a. Physical Environment
b. Social Environment c. Political Environment d. Historical Environment: Information can be most useful e. Criminal state of art |
|
|
The practical value of vulnerability analysis depends upon the ________and ________ with which the basic risks to an enterprise are identified.
|
The practical value of vulnerability analysis depends upon the skill and thoroughness with which the basic risks to an enterprise are identified.
|
|
|
Suggested method to describe individually the details that make occurrence of each event more or less probable.
|
Grid Matrix
|
|
|
A primary purpose of probability ratings is to allow for later ___________ in the selection of countermeasures. It is impossible to arrive at simple probability by the classic equation route.
|
priority scheduling
|
|
|
5 Categories of Probability:
|
a. A-Virtually Certain: Given no change, this condition WILL occur
b. B-Highly Probable: much greater than nonoccurrence c. C-Moderately Probable: more likely to occur than not d. D-Improbable: less likely to occur e. E-Probability Unknown: insufficient date for evaluation |
|
|
if in doubt, rate the probability _______ between 2 possibilities. There is NO Universal standard recording system and organizations must develop these independently for their organization.
|
higher
|
|
|
Loss Event Criticality Measurements:(3)
|
a. Effect on employee morale
b. Effect on community relations c. Overall effect on DOLLARS: Most Important |
|
|
The only useful way to evaluate security countermeasures is to...
|
compare the cost of estimated losses with cost of protection.
|
|
|
One chief reason for lack of acceptance of countermeasures is the...
|
absence of quantitative evaluations of the security effort.
|
|
|
Cost Justification: Means not ...
|
spending more than the benefits derived are worth.
|
|
|
CRITICALITY RATINGS: [Loss would require] (5)
|
a. Fatal: Total recapitalization or discontinuance of enterprise
b. Very Serious: Major change in investment policy and have major impact on balance sheet. c. Moderately Serious: Noticeable impact on earnings and require attention of senior management d. Relatively Unimportant: Covered by normal contingency reserves e. Seriousness Unknown: Not rated |
|
|
When risks have all been ranked, the formal task of _______________ is complete.
|
vulnerability assessment
|
|
|
Countermeasure Criteria: (4)
|
a. Validity:
b. Degree of Reliability: c. Approximate Cost: d. Delay or Elapsed Time |
|
|
Three Main Reason for Security Losses:
|
a. Loss Prevention
b. Loss Control c. Loss Indemnification |
|
|
The avoided costs of losses that were expected but did not occur would have been greater that the costs of the program instituted to prevent them. (e.g.: insurance)
|
Cost Avoidance
|
|
|
Total Loss is calculated before...
|
considering any proposed security countermeasures.
|
|
|
When countermeasures are proposed or implemented, a second estimate is needed of...
|
the losses which may occur notwithstanding the countermeasures.
|
|
|
The first step in launching a vulnerability assessment team is a presentation to appropriate ____________ to outline purpose.
|
SENIOR MANAGEMENT
|
|
|
Utilizing the team approach is impossible without the...
|
FULL SUPPORT of SENIOR MANAGEMENT.
|
|
|
The Presentation should outlined as follows:(7)
|
a. Purpose
b. Problem c. Scope d. Expected Results e. Budget & Schedule f. Requested Actions g. Concluding Summary |
|
|
A Security Manager MUST serve the as...
|
team leader.
|
|
|
In management risk analysis there are two types of analyses:
|
a. Reiterate a problem to determine how one factor can impact risk
b. Delphi Technique: experts make intuitive assessments of a situation, listen to evaluations of others and then reconsider their own. |
|
|
Personal oriented countermeasures are NOT developed through...
|
a team approach.
|
|
|
The team approach strives for________ and ___________.
|
specific and positive countermeasures
|
|
|
The Two techniques by which security investigations and vulnerability assessments can be integrated throughout the organization:
|
a. Multilinear event sequencing: The investigative method based upon the assumption that someone does something which results in a loss of property. This provides opportunity for feedback.
b. Critical Incident Review: Interviews to determine unsafe conditions, errors, causal factors and to measure accident performance. |
|
|
Interview techniques:(2)
|
a. Formal: Provides best result s but is more time consuming
b. Informal: More relaxed |
|
|
A condition in which participants give answers that conform to the perceived thoughts of the other participants rather than expressing their own thoughts. (stereotyping & self censorship)
|
GROUPTHINK
|
|
|
The HEART of personnel selection is:
|
INTERVIEW
|
|
|
The most important TOOL of a background investigation is the
|
APPLICATION
|
|
|
Behaviorally anchored rating scale is a performance appraisal method that combines major elements from the approach of:
|
CRITICAL INCIDENTS & GRAPH RATING SCALES.
|
|
|
Three common methods of budgeting are the
|
LINE ITEM, CAPITAL AND PROGRAM BUDGETS.
|
|
|
The X & Y theories were developed by
|
DOUGLAS MCGREGOR.
|
|
|
Motivational theory that argues that the strength of a tendency to act in a certain way depends on the strength of an expectation that the act will be followed by a given outcome and on the attractiveness of that outcome to the individual is known as:
|
EXPECTANCY THEORY
|
|
|
A structure characterized in part by very formalized rules and regulations, tasks that are grouped into functional departments with centralized authority, and narrow spans of control is called a:
|
BUREAUCRACY
|
|
|
EFFICIENCY: Doing ...
|
things right
|
|
|
EFFECTIVENESS: Doing...
|
the right thing
|
|
|
Goals of entire department cascade through entire unit
|
Cascading Goals
|
|
|
____% of workforce are managers (___ million people)
|
12.6% of workforce are managers (15 million people)
|
|
|
EFFECTIVENESS CRITERIA: (8)
|
a. Financial measures
b. Productivity c. Growth d. Customer satisfaction e. Quality f. Flexibility g. Employee growth and satisfaction h. Social acceptance |
|
|
Federal Criminal Law: Title __ Civil law: Title __
|
Federal Criminal Law: Title 18 Civil law: Title 49
|
|
|
Corpus Delecti: The body of the ________ of the crime (not the scene)
|
ELEMENTS
|
|
|
Mala Prohibita
|
Offenses by the passage of a statute (fraud)
|
|
|
Mala in Se
|
Crimes that are bad in themselves (murder and
rape). All common law crimes were mala in se. |
|
|
Felony
|
Term EXCEEDING ONE YEAR. [Prison]
|
|
|
Misdemeanors:
|
Maximum term of of one year [Local jail]
|
|
|
Crime: Needed to prove for Conviction (3)
|
a. Forbidden act
b. Committed by a person c. The accused was responsible |
|
|
Stare Decisis
|
The court should hold the principle of a decision and apply it to similar cases.
|
|
|
____% of workforce are managers (___ million people)
|
12.6% of workforce are managers (15 million people)
|
|
|
EFFECTIVENESS CRITERIA: (8)
|
a. Financial measures
b. Productivity c. Growth d. Customer satisfaction e. Quality f. Flexibility g. Employee growth and satisfaction h. Social acceptance |
|
|
Federal Criminal Law: Title __ Civil law: Title __
|
Federal Criminal Law: Title 18 Civil law: Title 49
|
|
|
Corpus Delecti: The body of the ________ of the crime (not the scene)
|
ELEMENTS
|
|
|
Mala Prohibita
|
Offenses by the passage of a statute (fraud)
|
|
|
Mala in Se
|
Crimes that are bad in themselves (murder and
rape). All common law crimes were mala in se. |
|
|
Felony
|
Term EXCEEDING ONE YEAR. [Prison]
|
|
|
Misdemeanors:
|
Maximum term of of one year [Local jail]
|
|
|
Crime: Needed to prove for Conviction (3)
|
a. Forbidden act
b. Committed by a person c. The accused was responsible |
|
|
Stare Decisis
|
The court should hold the principle of a decision and apply it to similar cases.
|
|
|
The defendant’s act must have been the ____________ of the resulting injury.
|
PROXIMATE CAUSE
|
|
|
________ is NOT an essential part of a crime; it is not part of the Corpus Delecti
|
MOTIVE
|
|
|
Intending to commit one offense and thus committing another instead.
|
Transferred Intent
|
|
|
“Mens Rea” means
|
CRIMINAL INTENT
|
|
|
The defendant’s act must have been the ____________ of the resulting injury.
|
PROXIMATE CAUSE
|
|
|
Negligence consists of four elements:
|
a. A standard of care
b. A breach of this standard c. Proximate Cause d. Harm or Injury produced |
|
|
________ is NOT an essential part of a crime; it is not part of the Corpus Delecti
|
MOTIVE
|
|
|
Negligence differs from Recklessness in that in
RECKLESSNESS, conduct is governed by ... |
the actual state of mind of the accused.
|
|
|
Intending to commit one offense and thus committing another instead.
|
Transferred Intent
|
|
|
The private person may generally make an arrest without a warrant for:
|
A CRIME COMMITTED IN HIS PRESENCE
|
|
|
“Mens Rea” means
|
CRIMINAL INTENT
|
|
|
Double Jeopardy is protected under the...
|
FOURTH AMENDMENT
|
|
|
Negligence consists of four elements:
|
a. A standard of care
b. A breach of this standard c. Proximate Cause d. Harm or Injury produced |
|
|
A Comprehensive Environmental Compliance Program does NOT include:
|
AUDIT & MONITORING ALL ACTIVITIES OUTSIDE THE COMPANY
|
|
|
Negligence differs from Recklessness in that in
RECKLESSNESS, conduct is governed by ... |
the actual state of mind of the accused.
|
|
|
When two parties agree that one will act as the representative of the other, this is known as:
|
AGENCY RELATIONSHIP
|
|
|
The private person may generally make an arrest without a warrant for:
|
A CRIME COMMITTED IN HIS PRESENCE
|
|
|
Double Jeopardy is protected under the...
|
FOURTH AMENDMENT
|
|
|
A Comprehensive Environmental Compliance Program does NOT include:
|
AUDIT & MONITORING ALL ACTIVITIES OUTSIDE THE COMPANY
|
|
|
When two parties agree that one will act as the representative of the other, this is known as:
|
AGENCY RELATIONSHIP
|
|
|
Optical Fiber (high-purity spun glass) is less expensive than copper wire and provides security, high speed transmission and versatility. It is the cable of choice for __________ncommunications carriers.
|
terrestrial
|
|
|
In EVERY Communication, Security Professionals are concerned with:(4)
|
a. Integrity of communications medium: message path
b. Integrity of message: transmitted completely c. Timeliness of Transmission: speed and time frame d. Message Security: authorized persons eyes only |
|
|
Alarm signals are transmitted on unshielded pair of:
|
DC conductors
|
|
|
Audio transmissions require:
|
shielded twisted pairs of AC wires.
|
|
|
Alarm and audio transmissions both may be transmitted on the same:
|
pair of twisted, shielded wires.
|
|
|
Optical Fibers differ from conventional metal wire in that:(6)
|
a. Not affected by electromagnetic interference
b. Do not carry electrical current c. Able to carry many more multiplexed messages d. Much smaller and lighter that wires e. Flexible and able to take irregular course f. Not vulnerable to interception by acoustical or inductive coupling |
|
|
Video signals CANNOT be:
|
transmitted directly on DC lines.
|
|
|
Video signals transmitted over telephone (T-1) lines must be:
|
converted to digital then to audio signals and then back again on receiving end.
|
|
|
Three Types of Transmission Installations:
|
a. Loop: wires looped throughout an area and connected to a control center.
b. Pont to Point: Hard wired (EXPENSIVE) c. Multiplex: used to transmit several messages simultaneously on the same medium. |
|
|
McCulloh Circuit: When an open occurs, the circuit is switched to send current from the __________ over __________ of the circuit wires out to the __________.
|
McCulloh Circuit: When an open occurs, the circuit is switched to send current from the control unit over both sides of the circuit wires out to the break point.
|
|
|
Optical Fiber (high-purity spun glass) is less expensive than copper wire and provides security, high speed transmission and versatility. It is the cable of choice for __________ncommunications carriers.
|
terrestrial
|
|
|
In EVERY Communication, Security Professionals are concerned with:(4)
|
a. Integrity of communications medium: message path
b. Integrity of message: transmitted completely c. Timeliness of Transmission: speed and time frame d. Message Security: authorized persons eyes only |
|
|
Alarm signals are transmitted on unshielded pair of:
|
DC conductors
|
|
|
Audio transmissions require:
|
shielded twisted pairs of AC wires.
|
|
|
Alarm and audio transmissions both may be transmitted on the same:
|
pair of twisted, shielded wires.
|
|
|
Optical Fibers differ from conventional metal wire in that:(6)
|
a. Not affected by electromagnetic interference
b. Do not carry electrical current c. Able to carry many more multiplexed messages d. Much smaller and lighter that wires e. Flexible and able to take irregular course f. Not vulnerable to interception by acoustical or inductive coupling |
|
|
Video signals CANNOT be:
|
transmitted directly on DC lines.
|
|
|
Video signals transmitted over telephone (T-1) lines must be:
|
converted to digital then to audio signals and then back again on receiving end.
|
|
|
Three Types of Transmission Installations:
|
a. Loop: wires looped throughout an area and connected to a control center.
b. Pont to Point: Hard wired (EXPENSIVE) c. Multiplex: used to transmit several messages simultaneously on the same medium. |
|
|
McCulloh Circuit: When an open occurs, the circuit is switched to send current from the __________ over __________ of the circuit wires out to the __________.
|
McCulloh Circuit: When an open occurs, the circuit is switched to send current from the control unit over both sides of the circuit wires out to the break point.
|
|
|
___________ is more cost effective than a loop or point
to point. |
Multiplexing
|
|
|
The interruption or destruction of a _________ communications link results in the interruption of ALL signals on that link (the drawback).
|
multiplexed
|
|
|
Two methods of Multiplexing:
|
a. Time Division Multiplexing
b. Frequency Division Multiplexing |
|
|
Wireless Communications Require:(4)
|
a. Transmitter
b. Antenna c. Receiver d. Power |
|
|
Types of Signal Compression:(2)
|
a. Time Division Multiple Access (TDMA) divides calls into pieces of data identified as time slots.
b. Code Division Multiple Access (CDMA) spreads calls across wide swath of frequencies |
|
|
LASER is an acronym for:
|
Light Amplification by Simulated Emission of Radiation
|
|
|
ALL _______ degrade the voice quality of a communications link.
|
scramblers
|
|
|
____________ is the essential function of the security officer.
|
Assets protection
|
|
|
There are ___ million security officers in the US in 2000 and ___% were contract security personnel.
|
There are 1.1 million security officers in the US in 2000 and 60% were contract security personnel.
|
|
|
Protection costs increase regularly in direct proportion of the ___________increase.
|
yearly labor rate
|
|
|
The number of officers required at a facility are dependent upon:(6)
|
a. Physical complexity of facility
b. Number of employees c. Character of the work d. Number of entrances and hours they are open e. Number of patrols required f. Number of escorts and special assignments |
|
|
A 24 operation requires ___ officers, ___ when considering vacations
|
A 24 operation requires 4.2 officers, 4.5 when considering vacations
|
|
|
The number of ___________ depends upon the size of the security force.
|
support personnel
|
|
|
Basic functions of security officer:(5)
|
a. Control of entrances and movement of pedestrian/vehicle traffic
b. Patrol of buildings and perimeter c. Escort of material and personnel d. Inspection of security and fire exposures e. Special assignments |
|
|
Access Control:(5)
|
a. Ensure that employees wear badges
b. Identify all visitors c. Identify and report unauthorized personnel d. Report incidents of alcohol, contraband and drugs discovered e. Identify persons who remove property |
|
|
Escorts are conducted for:
|
a) large sums of money
b) company classified property or c) safety escort of employees. |
|
|
VISITORS are escorted by:
|
the employee they are visiting.
|
|
|
____________ is responsible for setting the qualifications of a security officer.
|
Each organization
|
|
|
Applicants should have the previous ______ years employment verified and _______ references.
|
Applicants should have the previous SEVEN years employment verified and THREE references.
|
|
|
A security officer who lacks ________ is of little value.
|
courage
|
|
|
Attitude are affected by:
|
a. Courtesy
b. Restraint c. Interest |
|
|
The efficiency of the security force depends on the:
|
adequacy and skill of the supervisors.
|
|
|
There is a trend to abandon the para-military model and to organize along:
|
industrial supervisory lines.
|
|
|
When security officers are deputized it is prudent to:
|
limit their authority and scope of duties.
|
|
|
Most enterprises do not carry special liability insurance for officers because they...
|
are covered by the provisions of a commercial liability policy.
|
|
|
Deployment of security officer personnel must be guided by...
|
rational and objective business criteria.
|
|
|
A security officer post is defined as any location or combination of activities for which...
|
a trained human being is necessary.
|
|
|
Generally, security scheduling programs are _________.
|
modular
|
|
|
__________ are the most important written instructions for the security force.
|
POST ORDERS
|
|
|
POST ORDERS are the most important written instructions for the security force because the orders:(3)
|
a. Express the POLICIES of protected enterprise
b. Summarize REQUIRED DUTIES c. AVOID the inherent problems by “word of mouth” instruction that can be misunderstood. |
|
|
Post Orders Criteria:(4)
|
a. Each order deals with ONE subject
b. Is as brief as possible c. Is written in simple terms that are easily understood d. INDEXED to permit quick reference |
|
|
Post Orders should be available at __________, at a ___________ and in ___________.
|
Post Orders should be available at each guard post, at a designated location and in each vehicle.
|
|
|
Supervisors should perform some post...
|
relief duties.
|
|
|
Report forms that are _____________ are far more useful than those that expect the officer to formulate a narrative.
|
force positive statements
|
|
|
On a periodic basis, the assets protection manager should utilize the __________________ to assets and reinforce the _________________ of the security officer.
|
On a periodic basis, the assets protection manager should utilize the accumulated information to assets and reinforce the tangible performance of the security officer.
|
|
|
The _______________is the security log.
|
central report document
|
|
|
Guard force operations should be included in ____________________ if possible.
|
automated security database systems
|
|
|
Manual Log Format:(2)
|
a. Main of Control Log: consecutive history of significant events on every shift.
b. Post Log: This is a record of the events on a particular post. |
|
|
30) If a change or correction is needed in any entry, it MUST be made under ___________ and as a ______________.
|
If a change or correction is needed in any entry, it MUST be made under a new event number and as a separate item.
|
|
|
Security logs and reports are admissible in legal
proceedings as entries made in the regular course of business and, are exceptions to the evidentiary rule against hearsay. They must be able to show:(3) |
a. Regularly maintained
b. Maintained by a person as regular duties c. Record was entered by a person having personal knowledge of event. |
|
|
A singular source of low morale and security officer dissatisfaction is the...
|
apparent failure of management to reads reports and logs.
|
|
|
Contracts: The more specific and detailed the information
ands scope of work, the greater the likelihood of... |
getting quality service at a competitive price.
|
|
|
General orders & Special orders should be prepared...
|
in detail in advance.
|
|
|
A key to the success or failure of contract security
operating agreements is a set of detailed specifications defining... |
the respective responsibilities of each party.
|
|
|
Contract security service agencies generally prefer...
|
a standard contract.
|
|
|
In many organizations the human considerations rank __________ to the fiscal considerations.
|
second
|
|
|
The consequences of poor staff development will be quickly recognized...
|
when a major incident occurs.
|
|
|
FIVE ELEMENTS to consider when examining vigilant performance:
|
a. Work area design
b. Human engineering c. Human visual and auditory acuity d. Human detection e. Human attention |
|
|
A singular source of low morale and security officer dissatisfaction is the...
|
apparent failure of management to reads reports and logs.
|
|
|
A systematic approach in applying tested organizational and behavioral techniques to the security officer operations requires and understanding of...
|
organizational management and human relationships.
|
|
|
Contracts: The more specific and detailed the information
ands scope of work, the greater the likelihood of... |
getting quality service at a competitive price.
|
|
|
Herzberg [two dimensional] Model:
|
a. Hygiene and maintenance
b. Satisfiers and motivators |
|
|
General orders & Special orders should be prepared...
|
in detail in advance.
|
|
|
A key to the success or failure of contract security
operating agreements is a set of detailed specifications defining... |
the respective responsibilities of each party.
|
|
|
Contract security service agencies generally prefer...
|
a standard contract.
|
|
|
In many organizations the human considerations rank __________ to the fiscal considerations.
|
second
|
|
|
The consequences of poor staff development will be quickly recognized...
|
when a major incident occurs.
|
|
|
FIVE ELEMENTS to consider when examining vigilant performance:
|
a. Work area design
b. Human engineering c. Human visual and auditory acuity d. Human detection e. Human attention |
|
|
A singular source of low morale and security officer dissatisfaction is the...
|
apparent failure of management to reads reports and logs.
|
|
|
A systematic approach in applying tested organizational and behavioral techniques to the security officer operations requires and understanding of ___________ and ___________.
|
organizational management and human relationships.
|
|
|
Herzberg [two dimensional] Model:
|
a. Hygiene and maintenance
b. Satisfiers and motivators |
|
|
Contracts: The more specific and detailed the information
ands scope of work, the greater the likelihood of... |
getting quality service at a competitive price.
|
|
|
General orders & Special orders should be prepared...
|
in detail in advance.
|
|
|
A key to the success or failure of contract security
operating agreements is a set of detailed specifications defining... |
the respective responsibilities of each party.
|
|
|
Contract security service agencies generally prefer...
|
a standard contract.
|
|
|
In many organizations the human considerations rank __________ to the fiscal considerations.
|
second
|
|
|
The consequences of poor staff development will be quickly recognized...
|
when a major incident occurs.
|
|
|
FIVE ELEMENTS to consider when examining vigilant performance:
|
a. Work area design
b. Human engineering c. Human visual and auditory acuity d. Human detection e. Human attention |
|
|
A systematic approach in applying tested organizational and behavioral techniques to the security officer operations requires and understanding of...
|
organizational management and human relationships.
|
|
|
Herzberg [two dimensional] Model:
|
a. Hygiene and maintenance
b. Satisfiers and motivators |
|
|
A singular source of low morale and security officer dissatisfaction is the...
|
apparent failure of management to reads reports and logs.
|
|
|
Contracts: The more specific and detailed the information
ands scope of work, the greater the likelihood of... |
getting quality service at a competitive price.
|
|
|
General orders & Special orders should be prepared...
|
in detail in advance.
|
|
|
A key to the success or failure of contract security
operating agreements is a set of detailed specifications defining... |
the respective responsibilities of each party.
|
|
|
Contract security service agencies generally prefer...
|
a standard contract.
|
|
|
In many organizations the human considerations rank __________ to the fiscal considerations.
|
second
|
|
|
The consequences of poor staff development will be quickly recognized...
|
when a major incident occurs.
|
|
|
FIVE ELEMENTS to consider when examining vigilant performance:
|
a. Work area design
b. Human engineering c. Human visual and auditory acuity d. Human detection e. Human attention |
|
|
A systematic approach in applying tested organizational and behavioral techniques to the security officer operations requires and understanding of...
|
organizational management and human relationships.
|
|
|
Herzberg [two dimensional] Model:
|
a. Hygiene and maintenance
b. Satisfiers and motivators |
|
|
A singular source of low morale and security officer dissatisfaction is the...
|
apparent failure of management to reads reports and logs.
|
|
|
A singular source of low morale and security officer dissatisfaction is the...
|
apparent failure of management to reads reports and logs.
|
|
|
Contracts: The more specific and detailed the information
and scope of work, the greater the likelihood of getting ___________ at __________. |
getting quality service at a competitive price.
|
|
|
Contracts: The more specific and detailed the information
ands scope of work, the greater the likelihood of... |
getting quality service at a competitive price.
|
|
|
General orders & Special orders should be prepared...
|
in detail in advance.
|
|
|
General orders & Special orders should be prepared...
|
in detail in advance.
|
|
|
A key to the success or failure of contract security
operating agreements is a set of detailed specifications defining... |
the respective responsibilities of each party.
|
|
|
A key to the success or failure of contract security
operating agreements is a set of detailed specifications defining... |
the respective responsibilities of each party.
|
|
|
Contract security service agencies generally prefer...
|
a standard contract.
|
|
|
Contract security service agencies generally prefer...
|
a standard contract.
|
|
|
In many organizations the human considerations rank __________ to the fiscal considerations.
|
second
|
|
|
In many organizations the human considerations rank __________ to the fiscal considerations.
|
second
|
|
|
The consequences of poor staff development will be quickly recognized...
|
when a major incident occurs.
|
|
|
The consequences of poor staff development will be quickly recognized...
|
when a major incident occurs.
|
|
|
FIVE ELEMENTS to consider when examining vigilant performance:
|
a. Work area design
b. Human engineering c. Human visual and auditory acuity d. Human detection e. Human attention |
|
|
FIVE ELEMENTS to consider when examining vigilant performance:
|
a. Work area design
b. Human engineering c. Human visual and auditory acuity d. Human detection e. Human attention |
|
|
A singular source of low morale and security officer dissatisfaction is the...
|
apparent failure of management to reads reports and logs.
|
|
|
A singular source of low morale and security officer dissatisfaction is the...
|
apparent failure of management to reads reports and logs.
|
|
|
A systematic approach in applying tested organizational and behavioral techniques to the security officer operations requires and understanding of...
|
organizational management and human relationships.
|
|
|
Contracts: The more specific and detailed the information
ands scope of work, the greater the likelihood of... |
getting quality service at a competitive price.
|
|
|
A systematic approach in applying tested organizational and behavioral techniques to the security officer operations requires and understanding of...
|
organizational management and human relationships.
|
|
|
Contracts: The more specific and detailed the information
ands scope of work, the greater the likelihood of... |
getting quality service at a competitive price.
|
|
|
Herzberg [two dimensional] Model:
|
a. Hygiene and maintenance
b. Satisfiers and motivators |
|
|
General orders & Special orders should be prepared...
|
in detail in advance.
|
|
|
Herzberg [two dimensional] Model:
|
a. Hygiene and maintenance
b. Satisfiers and motivators |
|
|
General orders & Special orders should be prepared...
|
in detail in advance.
|
|
|
A key to the success or failure of contract security
operating agreements is a set of detailed specifications defining... |
the respective responsibilities of each party.
|
|
|
A key to the success or failure of contract security
operating agreements is a set of detailed specifications defining... |
the respective responsibilities of each party.
|
|
|
Contract security service agencies generally prefer...
|
a standard contract.
|
|
|
Contract security service agencies generally prefer...
|
a standard contract.
|
|
|
In many organizations the human considerations rank __________ to the fiscal considerations.
|
second
|
|
|
In many organizations the human considerations rank __________ to the fiscal considerations.
|
second
|
|
|
The consequences of poor staff development will be quickly recognized...
|
when a major incident occurs.
|
|
|
The consequences of poor staff development will be quickly recognized...
|
when a major incident occurs.
|
|
|
FIVE ELEMENTS to consider when examining vigilant performance:
|
a. Work area design
b. Human engineering c. Human visual and auditory acuity d. Human detection e. Human attention |
|
|
FIVE ELEMENTS to consider when examining vigilant performance:
|
a. Work area design
b. Human engineering c. Human visual and auditory acuity d. Human detection e. Human attention |
|
|
A systematic approach in applying tested organizational and behavioral techniques to the security officer operations requires and understanding of...
|
organizational management and human relationships.
|
|
|
A systematic approach in applying tested organizational and behavioral techniques to the security officer operations requires and understanding of...
|
organizational management and human relationships.
|
|
|
Herzberg [two dimensional] Model:
|
a. Hygiene and maintenance
b. Satisfiers and motivators |
|
|
Herzberg [two dimensional] Model:
|
a. Hygiene and maintenance
b. Satisfiers and motivators |
|
|
ARGYRIS (Chris): traditional organizational principles, structures and procedures are incompatible with _________________. He claims that it is designed to make employees passive and submissive, thus becoming apathetic and defensive.
|
the mental health of employees
|
|
|
BENNIS (Warren): Bureaucracy and the organization man will have no place _____________. Instead, future organizations will have free and full communication regardless of position.
|
in future organizations
|
|
|
Bennis claims that future organizational challenges include:(5)
|
a. Integration
b. Social influence c. Collaboration d. Adaptation e. Revitalization |
|
|
Every effort should be made to position a security post in such a way that will...
|
maximize the security officer’s ability to observe the protected area.
|
|
|
ARGYRIS (Chris): traditional organizational principles, structures and procedures are incompatible with _________________. He claims that it is designed to make employees passive and submissive, thus becoming apathetic and defensive.
|
the mental health of employees
|
|
|
Addressing _________ and ___________ factors reduce the incidence of nonperformance by removing obstacles that can prevent a security officer from performing the job well.
|
Addressing hygiene and maintenance factors reduce the incidence of nonperformance by removing obstacles that can prevent a security officer from performing the job well.
|
|
|
BENNIS (Warren): Bureaucracy and the organization man will have no place _____________. Instead, future organizations will have free and full communication regardless of position.
|
in future organizations
|
|
|
_____________ performers are rarely beloved by coworkers, and soon must either move on or are pushed out of the group.
|
Outstanding
|
|
|
Bennis claims that future organizational challenges include:(5)
|
a. Integration
b. Social influence c. Collaboration d. Adaptation e. Revitalization |
|
|
When conducting on the job training it is important that the _____________ conducting the training be proficient in explaining the post requirements.
|
SENIOR SECURITY OFFICER
|
|
|
Every effort should be made to position a security post in such a way that will...
|
maximize the security officer’s ability to observe the protected area.
|
|
|
It is important that security officers not be ____________.
|
OVERQUALIFIED
|
|
|
Addressing _________ and ___________ factors reduce the incidence of nonperformance by removing obstacles that can prevent a security officer from performing the job well.
|
Addressing hygiene and maintenance factors reduce the incidence of nonperformance by removing obstacles that can prevent a security officer from performing the job well.
|
|
|
Learned Ignorance: when an individual alleges that...
|
he/she is unable to perform a task or perform it well, is no longer assigned to that task.
|
|
|
_____________ performers are rarely beloved by coworkers, and soon must either move on or are pushed out of the group.
|
Outstanding
|
|
|
It is essential that each performance deficiency be examined in terms of...
|
reward and punishment.
|
|
|
When conducting on the job training it is important that the _____________ conducting the training be proficient in explaining the post requirements.
|
SENIOR SECURITY OFFICER
|
|
|
It is important that security officers not be ____________.
|
OVERQUALIFIED
|
|
|
Learned Ignorance: when an individual alleges that...
|
he/she is unable to perform a task or perform it well, is no longer assigned to that task.
|
|
|
It is essential that each performance deficiency be examined in terms of...
|
reward and punishment.
|
|
|
An adequate job analysis makes it possible to begin implementing changes that...
|
eliminate or reduce obstacles to job performance.
|
|
|
JOB ENRICHMENT: The main effort should be directed at reducing the sense of ___________ experienced by many security officers and ensuring that there is....
|
JOB ENRICHMENT
...positive and timely feedback on performance. |
|
|
The most effective way to maintain acceptable levels of vigilance is to...
|
systematically rotate the security officer’s duties
|
|
|
Security officer’s duties should be systematically rotated in ___________ intervals, between _____________.
|
Security officer’s duties should be systematically rotated in two to four hour intervals, between fixed post and roving posts.
|
|
|
Positive interaction between the security officer and other employees must be facilitated...
|
on a continuing basis. These diminish latent hostilities.
|
|
|
___________ is the ultimate solution to almost any performance problem in the security officer operation.
|
TRAINING
|
|
|
Performance failures may be a direct result of _____________ that have been ________________.
|
Performance failures may be a direct result of undesirable behavior patterns that have been unconsciously reinforced.
|
|
|
The key to improving the effectiveness of the security officer operation is to remove or reduce ______________________. Effectiveness depends on ____________ and ______________ of reinforcement.
|
The key to improving the effectiveness of the security officer operation is to remove or reduce the obstacles that hinder optimum performance. Effectiveness depends on frequency and thoroughness of reinforcement.
|
|
|
The strategic value of issuing weapons is that...
|
assailants may be dissuaded.
|
|
|
A security officer should not be responsible for determining what constitutes the immediate reporting of...
|
a potentially sensitive incident.
|
|
|
There should be clear instructions to security personnel regarding...
|
media contacts and incidents of media interest.
|
|
|
The specific technique by which physical force is used by a security officer will depend on:(2)
|
specific facts and the general level of training.
|
|
|
The process whereby communications are intercepted or recorded is known as:
|
TECHNICAL SURVEILLANCE
|
|
|
Verify __ Years previous employment, keep negative information for __ years, applications must be resubmitted after __ days.
|
Verify 5 Years previous employment, keep negative information for 3 years, applications must be resubmitted after 90 days.
|
|
|
An act or omission prohibited by law for which a penalty can be imposed.
|
Crime
|
|
|
A legal wrong done to another person (a civil wrong).
|
Tort
|
|
|
The main body of federal criminal law is found in ______ of the U.S. Code.
|
Title 18
|
|
|
An act or omission will not be criminal unless the person engaging in it has an awareness of what he or she is doing and has intent to do the specific thing that the law forbids. The term “_________” (guilty mind) is used to describe that state of mind or wrongful purpose.
|
mens rea
|
|
|
the taking of security (usually money) to assure the later appearance of the defendant and to compel him of her to remain within the jurisdiction of the court.
|
Bail
|
|
|
The purpose of a preliminary hearing is to...
|
determine probable cause.
|
|
|
To find a defendant guilty in a CRIMINAL trial, guilt must be proven:
|
"beyond a reasonable doubt."
|
|
|
To find a defendant guilty in a CIVIL trial, proof need only be that of a:
|
"preponderance of the evidence".
|
|
|
The release of a convicted person, under certain conditions, for a specified period of time.
|
Probation
|
|
|
The release from confinement, under certain conditions, after a person has served a period of confinement
|
Parole
|
|
|
Unauthorized listening.
|
Eavesdropping
|
|
|
The unlawful entry into or remaining in a building with the intent to commit some crime.
|
Burglary
|
|
|
The wrongful taking, obtaining, or withholding of property belonging to another with the intent to deprive the owner of the use and benefit of such property
|
Larceny
|
|
|
The taking of property through the use of force or threat of force.
|
Robbery
|
|
|
The act of intentionally entering or remaining on property knowing or being presumed to know that person is not authorized to be there.
|
Trespassing
|
|
|
When a person is taken into custody to answer to a civil demand or on charges to having committed a criminal offense.
|
Arrest
|
|
|
The judicial process authorizing or commanding an act to be done.
|
Warrant
|
|
|
Authorizes the taking into custody of the named person.
|
Arrest Warrant
|
|
|
Authorizes the search of the named place under the conditions imposed.
|
Search Warrant
|
|
|
The inducement by a law enforcement officer of another person, not otherwise disposed to do so, to commit a criminal offense for the purpose of prosecuting that person.
|
Entrapment
|
|
|
An agreement between 2 or more persons, which creates an obligation to do or not to do a particular thing
|
Contract
|
|
|
A statement by individuals that things done or said by them, or products or services rendered by them, are actually as they are described or said to be.
|
Warranty
|
|
|
Refers to the legal concept that one may be held responsible for some acts without the necessity to prove criminal intent.
|
Strict Liability
|
|
|
The legal concept that holds the employer, as well as the employee, liable if the “wrong” was committed while the employee was acting within the scope of employment.
|
Vicarious Liability
|
|
|
An employer is responsible for the acts of his or her employee committed within...
|
the employee’s scope of employment.
|
|
|
Relationship is one in which two parties agree that one will act as the representative of the other.
|
Agency Relationship
|
|
|
A willful or negligent wrong done to one person by another.
|
Tort
|
|
|
The use of force against another.
|
Battery
|
|
|
The deprivation of another’s liberty or freedom.
|
False Imprisonment
|
|
|
The wrongful appropriation of the personal property of another.
|
Conversion
|
|
|
The failure to use reasonable care and due diligence under the particular circumstances, as a result of which another is injured or suffers damage.
|
Negligence
|
|
|
___________ Act of 1964 prohibits discrimination, failure to hire, discharge, and segregate, on the basis of race, color, national origin, religion or sex.
|
The Civil Rights
|
|
|
The Civil Rights Act of 1964 prohibits questions on an application form inquiring about __________
|
prior arrests
|
|
|
The ______________ Act of 1990 prohibits discrimination in hiring, retention, promotion or treatment on the job of persons with a disability by any employer with more than 25 employees.Act of 1990 prohibits discrimination in hiring, retention, promotion or treatment on the job of persons with a disability by any employer with more than 25 employees.
|
The Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990
|
|
|
A writ issued by a court directing the recipient to appear and testify.
|
Subpoena
|
|
|
In federal courts, the usual prosecutor is the ______________.
|
U.S. Attorney
|
|
|
The main purpose of a grand jury is to determine whether: (2)
|
there is sufficient evidence that a crime has been committed and that the accused probably committed it.
|
|
|
If a grand jury finds that probable cause exists that the accused committed the crime alleged, the grand jury then issues:
|
an indictment.
|
|
|
Bail is used to assure:
|
the appearance of the accused in court.
|
|
|
The process in which a court abides by a previous court decision.
|
Stare Decisis
|
|
|
___________ generally may arrest without a warrant for a crime committed in his presence.
|
Private persons
|
|
|
The combination of facts and circumstances that would warrant a person of reasonable caution and prudence to believe that a crime has been committed and that the person to be arrested is the one who committed the crime.
|
Probable Cause
|
|
|
Holds that if police, in the course of lawful duty, recognize a plainly visible item as evidence of a crime, the item may be seized and admitted in a criminal trial.
|
Plain View Doctrine
|
|
|
The Supreme Court case of Terry vs. Ohio authorized “stop and frisk” technique without probable cause where an experienced officer had good reason to suspect:
|
criminal activity which was dangerous to the officer or others.
|
|
|
The Supreme Court decision that holds that no suspect may be asked any questions until he has first been warned that he need not make any statement and advised of other rights.
|
Miranda
|
|
|
The Bill of Rights is the first ___________ to the U.S. Constitution.
|
ten amendments
|
|
|
The ___ Amendment provides for freedom of speech, religion, and assembly.
|
1st Amendment
|
|
|
The ___ Amendment provides the right to bear arms.
|
2nd Amendment
|
|
|
The ___ Amendment to the U.S. Constitution prohibits unreasonable searches and seizures and that a warrant be supported by probable cause.
|
4th Amendment
|
|
|
The ___ Amendment prohibits against being tried twice for the same crime.
|
5th Amendment
|
|
|
The ___ Amendment provides that no person shall be denied life, liberty, or property without due process of law.
|
5th Amendment
|
|
|
The ___ Amendment provides the right to have the assistance of counsel for one’s defense, a speedy public trial, know the charges against him, confront witnesses against him.
|
6th Amendment
|
|
|
The ___ Amendment provides the right to a trial by a jury
|
7th Amendment
|
|
|
The ___ Amendment prohibits excessive bail, excessive fines and cruel and unusual punishment
|
8th Amendment
|
|
|
The legal rule that an employer is responsible for the action or lack of action of an employee taken within the course of employment.
|
Respondeat superior
|
|
|
The federal agency in charge of disaster planning.
|
Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA).
|
|
|
The _______________ Act prohibits questions on an application blank or field investigative inquiries dealing with union membership or affiliation.
|
National Labor Relations Act
|
|
|
The _______________ Act requires written notice to the applicant prior to an investigation by a third party (Consumer Reporting Agency).
|
Fair Credit Reporting Act
|
|
|
It is generally permissible to ask about possible convictions but not ___________on the employment questionnaire.
|
arrests
|
|
|
Insurance on a person covering that person’s dishonesty.
|
Fidelity Bond
|
|
|
An insurance contract designed to reimburse an individual or organization for possible losses of a particular type.
|
Indemnity Bond
|
|
|
Type of contract that is clear, definite, direct, and spelled out by specific words.
|
Express Contract
|
|
|
Type of contract that is not spelled out clearly by explicit words, but is interpreted by analyzing surrounding circumstances or the actions of the persons involved.
|
Implied Contract
|
|
|
Any formula, pattern, device, method, compilation, technique or process that derives independent value, actual or potential, from not being generally known to, and not being ascertainable by proper means, by other persons who can obtain economic value from it’s disclosure or use and is the subject of efforts that are reasonable under the circumstances to maintain it’s security.
|
Trade Secret
|
|
|
The basic elements of a trade secret are: (3)
|
a. it must be secret, not known to others
b. it must provide independent economic value or advantage b. there must be continuous or consistent effort to maintain the secret |
|
|
A government grant conveying and securing the exclusive right to make, use, and sell an invention for a term of 17 years.
|
Patent
|
|
|
Information over which the possessor asserts ownership and which is related to the activities or status of the possessor in some special way.
|
Proprietary Information
|
|
|
Provides the owner of exclusive rights to sell or reproduce copyrighted material or to produce other works derived from the original material. It can be sold but is generally in force for the life of the author plus 50 years.
|
Copyright
|
|
|
_____________ are afforded greater legal protection than other proprietary information.
|
Trade secrets
|
|
|
There are three broad threats to sensitive data or information:
|
a. inadvertent disclosure
b. deliberate theft by an outsider c. eliberate theft by an insider |
|
|
___________ is the main reason for loss of information about sensitive operations.
|
Inadvertent disclosure
|
|
|
The most important function of competitive intelligence is to _______________to marketplace changes to prevent surprise.
|
alert senior management
|
|
|
Never reveal information to anyone that you:
|
would not reveal to a competitor.
|
|
|
A listening device.
|
Bug
|
|
|
The process of monitoring conversations by electronic means.
|
Bugging
|
|
|
Commonly used in a telephone handset.
|
Carbon Microphone
|
|
|
Attached directly to the surface to be monitored.
|
Contact Microphone
|
|
|
Requires no power source to operate it, is quite small, relatively difficult to detect, and is offered by equipment suppliers in items such as cuff links and hearing aides.
|
Dynamic Microphone
|
|
|
Has a large disc-like attachment used for listening from great distances.
|
Parabolic Microphone
|
|
|
An instrument that records telephone dial pulses on paper tape.
|
Pen Register
|
|
|
The observation of another.
|
Surveillance
|
|
|
The bugging, wiretapping, TV or radio tracking techniques.
|
Technical Surveillance is
|
|
|
The interception of a telephone conversation away from the target.
|
Wiretap
|
|
|
Most RF eavesdropping devices have three things in common
|
a. low in cost
b. readily available c. easy to use. |
|
|
A secure room with RF shielding and accoustical leakage attenuation.
|
Sensitive Compartmented Information Facility (SCIF)
|
|
|
The unauthorized acquisition of sensitive information.
|
Industrial espionage
|
|
|
Sound waves too high in frequency to be heard by the human ear, generally above ___ KHZ, are known as ultrasonic.
|
20 KHZ
|
|
|
A ________ is defined as the concerted refusal by employees to continue working, in an attempt to force an employer to meet certain demands.
|
strike
|
|
|
The security organization must be seen as taking ______________ during labor disputes.
|
a more neutral position
|
|
|
The National Labor Relations Act (NLRA) requires the union to give ___ days notice that it wishes to modify the collective bargaining unit, but a strike does not become inevitable once the ___ days begin.
|
60 days
|
|
|
In an unfair labor strike, workers allege the employer...
|
violated the unfair labor laws, and strike to force cessation of the practice.
|
|
|
Prior to a strike, all non-striking personnel should be...
|
trained on how to handle threats and confrontations with strikers.
|
|
|
Lock cylinders on all exterior access doors must be changed __________ when the strike starts in facilities where strict key control is not practiced, where keys are issued to __________ or where the keys can be ____________.
|
Lock cylinders on all exterior access doors must be changed immediately when the strike starts in facilities where strict key control is not practiced, where keys are issued to union employees or where the keys can be duplicated easily.
|
|
|
Alarm systems should be tested ______________ of a strike and periodically during the course of the strike.
|
immediately prior to the outset
|
|
|
A key principle is to provide workers the ___________________ to the premises from a planned arrival point during a strike.
|
fastest and most direct ingress
|
|
|
Documentation coverage of __________ strike activities is important for criminal charges, injunctive relief, unfair practice complaints, and defending of civil suits. It is important to refrain from documentation of legal activities as it may be an unfair labor practice.
|
ILLEGAL
|
|
|
Sound waves too high in frequency to be heard by the human ear, generally above ___ KHZ, are known as ultrasonic.
|
20 KHZ
|
|
|
A ________ is defined as the concerted refusal by employees to continue working, in an attempt to force an employer to meet certain demands.
|
strike
|
|
|
The security organization must be seen as taking ______________ during labor disputes.
|
a more neutral position
|
|
|
The National Labor Relations Act (NLRA) requires the union to give ___ days notice that it wishes to modify the collective bargaining unit, but a strike does not become inevitable once the ___ days begin.
|
60 days
|
|
|
In an unfair labor strike, workers allege the employer...
|
violated the unfair labor laws, and strike to force cessation of the practice.
|
|
|
Prior to a strike, all non-striking personnel should be...
|
trained on how to handle threats and confrontations with strikers.
|
|
|
Lock cylinders on all exterior access doors must be changed __________ when the strike starts in facilities where strict key control is not practiced, where keys are issued to __________ or where the keys can be ____________.
|
Lock cylinders on all exterior access doors must be changed immediately when the strike starts in facilities where strict key control is not practiced, where keys are issued to union employees or where the keys can be duplicated easily.
|
|
|
Alarm systems should be tested ______________ of a strike and periodically during the course of the strike.
|
immediately prior to the outset
|
|
|
A key principle is to provide workers the ___________________ to the premises from a planned arrival point during a strike.
|
fastest and most direct ingress
|
|
|
Documentation coverage of __________ strike activities is important for criminal charges, injunctive relief, unfair practice complaints, and defending of civil suits. It is important to refrain from documentation of legal activities as it may be an unfair labor practice.
|
ILLEGAL
|
|
|
During a strike, entrances should be reduced to the fewest number consistent with...
|
operating requirements.
|
|
|
During a strike, if no guard force is available, supervisory personnel should be organized into a ...
|
patrol group
|
|
|
The professional police position during a strike is they will respond to: (3)
|
a. prevent violence
b. enforce the law fairly c. suppress criminal conduct. |
|
|
The _______________ is a comprehensive statement of all policies, procedures, and activities that will govern or be performed by the security organization during the strike period.
|
security strike plan
|
|
|
The hallmark of the _____________ is not the threat in advance but the attribution or claim of responsibility after its detonation.
|
terrorist bomb
|
|
|
A __________ is serious because there is the danger of direct human injury and death from an explosive or incendiary device, the problem of structural and physical damage, and the total cost of the bomb incident.
|
bomb threat
|
|
|
The single most important bomb countermeasure is ...
|
controlling the entry of personnel and material.
|
|
|
The first step in channeling access is to be certain that all inbound people pass one or more of the control points. This requires that all uncontrolled points be ...
|
locked and provided with alarm devices.
|
|
|
The fire stairs on all __________ must be locked against stair entry from the ______.
|
The fire stairs on all lobby levels must be locked against stair entry from the lobby.
|
|
|
Acceptable bomb protection depends on _______________, not upon ad hoc threat response.
|
Acceptable bomb protection depends on adequate access control, not upon ad hoc threat response.
|
|
|
Proper response to a bomb threat requires: (3)
|
a. an analysis of the threat and estimate the need for a response
b. a decision as to what kind of response to make c. the ability to implement the response decision within the allowed time frame. |
|
|
_____________ must be made aware of the basic policy that the facility has considered bomb threats and incidents, preventive planning has been done, and all workers will be promptly notified and given instructions in the event of a serious situation.
|
Each employee
|
|
|
Bombs are the most popular weapon of: (4)
|
a. the terrorist
b. the militant c. the criminal d. the deranged. |
|
|
Bombs fall into what two categories?
|
explosive and incendiary
|
|
|
There are three classes of explosions: mechanical, chemical, and nuclear.
|
a. mechanical
b. chemical c. nuclear |
|
|
A __________ explosion is the result of a gradual buildup of heat and pressure inside a vessel.
|
mechanical
|
|
|
A __________ explosion results from the rapid conversion of a solid or liquid into gases having a much greater volume.
|
chemical
|
|
|
A __________ explosion results from either the fission or fusion of atomic nuclei under extraordinary pressure.
|
nuclear
|
|
|
Explosives are classified a low or high according to the speeds, expressed in ____________, at which the change of state takes place.
|
feet per seconds
|
|
|
Low explosives, such as black and smokeless powders, change from a solid to a gaseous state relatively slowly. The reaction is called:
|
deflagration
|
|
|
High explosives, such as TNT, nitroglycerin, C-4, Flex-X, tetrytol, ammonium nitrate, HMX, and dynamite change from a solid to a gaseous state very rapidly. This reaction is called:
|
detonation
|
|
|
The shattering power of an explosive is termed its ...
|
brisance
|
|
|
Explosives may be triggered by (5)
|
a. a safety fuse, ignited by a flame
b. pressure c. tension d. time delay e. electronic detonators. |
|
|
___________ should be designed in advance of any bomb threat notice.
|
A plan to search for explosives
|
|
|
Search team members should know ...
|
the area they are required to search.
|
|
|
Dogs have proven to be among the most sensitive explosives detectors with olfactory senses ___ times more acute that a human.
|
100 times
|
|
|
_____________ is the portion of private flight activity other than scheduled airlines or military service.
|
General aviation
|
|
|
____________ are the single most important consideration in aviation security.
|
Passengers
|
|
|
Vehicle parking should not be allowed adjacent to hangars or other structures but removed ___ feet or more.
|
100 feet
|
|
|
Hangars are divided into Group I: more than 28 feet of clear door height and over ___________ square feet, Group II: 28 feet or less of clear door height and ________ to __________ square feet, and Group III: less than 28 feet of clear door height and an area between __________ and ________ square feet.
|
Hangars are divided into Group I: more than 28 feet of clear door height and over 40,000 square feet, Group II: 28 feet or less of clear door height and 20,000 to 40,000 square feet, and Group III: less than 28 feet of clear door height and an area between 15,000 and 40,000 square feet.
|
|
|
A Threat Management Program should include (5)
|
a. verbal and written threats
b. assaults c. acts of sabotage or vandalism d. homicide e. other threatening actions such as the displaying weapons at work. |
|
|
A principal source of concern about workplace violence is the ...
|
cost of liability.
|
|
|
The most effective means for workplace violence resolution is:
|
a. early detection of a disturbed individual
b. assessment of that person's current mental and emotional state c. a plan to forestall violence |
|
|
A workplace violence plan should plan to forestall workplace violence through a specific combination of: (3)
|
a. communications
b. resources c. the legal system. |
|
|
The violent behavior scale starts with disgruntlement, progresses to non-specific ________, the non-specific verbal _______, the specific verbal _______, then written threats, then physical violence against ________, then physical violence against people without ________, and finally physical violence against people with ________.
|
The violent behavior scale starts with disgruntlement, progresses to non-specific verbal intimidations, the non-specific verbal threats, the specific verbal threats, then written threats, then physical violence against property, then physical violence against people without weapons, and finally physical violence against people with weapons.
|
|
|
The best predictor of future behavior is __________.
|
past behavior.
|
|
|
The Threat Incident Management Team (IMT) should consist of (4)
|
a. a senior management rep,
b. a senior HR rep c. a senior security manager d. legal representation. |
|
|
The Threat Incident Management Team (IMT) should be authorized to commit whatever company assets and personnel are necessary to...
|
resolve the incident.
|
|
|
Security in depth is a traditional designation of ...
|
a series of barriers.
|
|
|
The objective is to design each barrier so that it will cause ...
|
as much delay as possible.
|
|
|
____________ is a term that describes the use of barriers to segregate and physically protect valuable material or information.
|
Compartmentation
|
|
|
Prevention of __________ should be considered in planning barrier protection.
|
surreptitious entry
|
|
|
A barrier is a natural or constructed obstacle to the movement of (4)
|
a. persons
b. animals c. vehicles d. materials. |
|
|
Barriers are used to discourage three types of penetration:
|
a. accidental
b. force c. by stealth. |
|
|
Barriers can be divided into two general categories:
|
natural and structural.
|
|
|
Natural barriers are: (5)
|
a. water
b. mountains b. marshes c. deserts d. other terrain. |
|
|
Structural barriers are manmade and include: (3)
|
a. ditches
b. fences c. walls. |
|
|
Outdoor barriers should have a clear zone established on ...
|
both sides to provide unobstructed view.
|
|
|
A clear zone of at least __ feet should separate a perimeter barrier from exterior structures, at least __ feet or more should separate a perimeter barrier from a structure within a protected area, except when a building wall constitutes part of the perimeter barrier.
|
A clear zone of at least 20 feet should separate a perimeter barrier from exterior structures, at least 50 feet or more should separate a perimeter barrier from a structure within a protected area, except when a building wall constitutes part of the perimeter barrier.
|
|
|
8 inch thick, reinforced concrete walls are found in all types of structures. Walls thicker than 8 inches are usually found in ...
|
vault construction.
|
|
|
Steel bars or grills may be used to protect glass panel doors or windows. Such bars should be spaced not more than __ inches apart.
|
5 inches
|
|
|
If a door needs to be strengthened, it can be covered on the inside with ...
|
16-gauge sheet steel.
|
|
|
A bomb produces three kinds of damage:
|
a. incendiary
b. blast c. fragmentation. |
|
|
Standard highway metal guard rails may be used as vehicle barriers. Most barriers of this type are designed to be effective at impact angles of less than ___ degrees.
|
30 degrees
|
|
|
The standard concrete highway median is known as the...
|
"New Jersey Bounce".
|
|
|
Glass needs no upkeep other than _________. It will not rot, rust, or burn.
|
simple cleaning
|
|
|
There are three basic types of glass:
|
a. sheet
b. plate c. float |
|
|
______ glass is the least expensive, and most vulnerable to breakage.
|
Sheet glass
|
|
|
______ glass has a rough surface and must be ground and polished (mirrors, display cases, windshields, sliding doors).
|
Plate glass
|
|
|
______ glass is formed on a bed of molten tin.
|
Float glass
|
|
|
There are two types of glass coatings:
|
flow-on plastic and cement-on plastic.
|
|
|
Tempered glass is __ to __ times stronger than untempered glass and is __ times as resistant to heat.
|
Tempered glass is 3 to 5 times stronger than untempered glass and is 5 times as resistant to heat.
|
|
|
______ glass (two sheets of glass bonded to a middle layer of plastic) is highly shatter resistant.
|
Laminated
|
|
|
Plastic glazing material can be divided into two categories:
|
acrylic and polycarbonate.
|
|
|
The surface of ______ is not as hard or as abrasion resistant as glass and are combustible.
|
plastics
|
|
|
Polycarbonate and acrylic sheets weigh ___ - ___% less than glass.
|
50-60%
|
|
|
Polycarbonate glass has ___ times the impact resistance of glass and __ - __ times the impact strength of acrylic.
|
Polycarbonate glass has 300 times the impact resistance of glass and 20-30 times the impact strength of acrylic.
|
|
|
Plastic material is more costly than glass, however it is:
|
easier to handle and install.
|
|
|
________ glass is laminated and consists of multiple piles of glass, polycarbonate and other plastic films.
|
Bullet resistive
|
|
|
_______ is the most used material as a perimeter barrier. __________ is the most popular, durable, and cheapest.
|
Fencing is the most used material as a perimeter barrier. Chain link is the most popular, durable, and cheapest.
|
|
|
The type of selvage obtained by interlocking adjacent pairs of wire ends and bending the ends back.
|
Knuckling
|
|
|
The type of selvage obtained by cutting the ends at an angle to provide sharp points
|
Barbing and Twisting
|
|
|
Chain link to mark boundaries or discourage penetration by small animals can be __ feet in height.
|
4 feet
|
|
|
These are placed at the ends and corners and to support gates.
|
Terminal posts
|
|
|
These are terminal posts bracing a long stretch of fence or offering a change in elevation.
|
Pull posts
|
|
|
All other posts are called:
|
line posts.
|
|
|
Line posts should be spaced at equidistant intervals not to exceed ___ feet.
|
10 feet
|
|
|
Terminal posts must be braced on all fences over 6 feet. On fences over ___ feet in height, a _________ is also required.
|
Terminal posts must be braced on all fences over 6 feet. On fences over 12 feet in height, a center rail is also required.
|
|
|
Any fence without a top rail should have...
|
braces on all terminal posts.
|
|
|
Chain Link Fencing - The fabric should be __ gauge or heavier, with mesh openings not larger than __ inches, or __ square inches.
|
Chain Link Fencing - The fabric should be 9 gauge or heavier, with mesh openings not larger than 2 inches, or 4 square inches.
|
|
|
Chain Link Fencing - Where fencing crosses culverts, troughs, streams or other openings __ square inches or larger, these openings should be protected by additional fencing, grills, or other barriers.
|
96 square inches or larger
|
|
|
Chain Link Fencing - The fabric should be fastened to the line posts at __ inch intervals.
|
15 inch
|
|
|
Chain Link Fencing - The top rail is a horizontal member to which fabric is attached with ties or clips at intervals not exceeding __ feet.
|
2 feet
|
|
|
Chain Link Fencing - The top guard is an overhang of barbed wire along the top of the fence at a __ degree angle.
|
45 degree angle
|
|
|
Chain Link Fencing - Three strands of barb wire, spaced __ inches apart, constitutes a top guard.
|
6 inches
|
|
|
Chain Link Fencing - Turnstiles are manufactured in 2 heights, low (about __ inches), and high (about __ feet).
|
a. low (about 36 inches)
b. high (about 7 feet) |
|
|
__________ is not a very effective countermeasure against unauthorized access.
|
Conventional barb wire
|
|
|
Standard galvanized barbed wire is _____ or ____ coated, twisted, ______ steel wire.
|
Standard galvanized barbed wire is zinc or aluminum coated, twisted, double-strand steel wire.
|
|
|
Fences, including gates, constructed entirely of barbed wire intended to _________ should not be less than __ feet high, excluding the top guard.
|
Fences, including gates, constructed entirely of barbed wire intended to discourage human trespassing should not be less than 7 feet high, excluding the top guard.
|
|
|
Barbed Wire - The strands should be tightly stretched and attached to posts spaced not more than __ feet apart.
|
6 feet apart
|
|
|
Tests conducted by the US Army in 1967 demonstrated that the use of barbed wire as a top guard on a fence offers ...
|
little or no protection.
|
|
|
The most widely used method of controlling physical access is the _____.
|
lock
|
|
|
Locks can be divided into two classes:
|
mechanical and electrical
|
|
|
The ______ lock longest in use is the warded lock.
|
mechanical
|
|
|
The ______ lock is used in desk, cabinet and lockers, bank deposit boxes, and mail boxes.
|
lever
|
|
|
The _______ is the most widely used lock in interior and exterior building doors.
|
pin tumbler
|
|
|
When the proper key is fitted in a pin tumbler lock, a ________ is created between the plug and shell and the plug is free to turn.
|
shear line
|
|
|
The lock utilizes flat tumblers to bind the plug to the shell.
|
wafer tumbler
|
|
|
The theoretical maximum number of combinations is the base number of positions raised to the power of the number of tumblers. A 4 tumbler lock with 100 numbers = _______. A 3 tumbler lock with 100 numbers = _______.
|
The theoretical maximum number of combinations is the base number of positions raised to the power of the number of tumblers. A 4 tumbler lock with 100 numbers = 100,000,000. A 3 tumbler lock with 100 numbers = 1,000,000.
|
|
|
The use of a single grand master combination for any mechanical locking system is not...
|
a sound security practice.
|
|
|
A fail safe lock mechanism is one that will unlock under _____________.
|
any failure condition
|
|
|
A fail secure lock will remain locked when...
|
power is lost or other failure occurs.
|
|
|
Three general classes of sensors:
|
a. Perimiter (or point of entry)
b. General area c. Object |
|
|
__________ Sensors (PIR) are the most widely used intrusion detectors and are highly versatile.
|
Passive Infrared
There is no beam, color, or light, thus passive. |
|
|
_________ sensors detect objects that are either cooler or warmer against the background temperature.
|
Passive Infrared Sensors (PIR)
|
|
|
Passive Infrared Sensors (PIR) should be mounted in such a location that an intruder would...
|
pass across its field of view.
|
|
|
________ is a common source for false alarms and requires ________ filtering.
|
Radio Frequency Interference (RFI)
RFI Filtering |
|
|
Glass break sensors hear and feel glass breakage. Built-in ________enable the device to ignore other false alarms.
|
microprocessors
|
|
|
Marriot hotel security (guests must pass through lobby, well lit pathways, walls of garage painted white, etc.) is an example of what?
|
Crime Prevention Through Environmental Design (CPTED)
|
|
|
This theory suggests that deteriorated buildings that remain is disrepair attacts crime.
|
Broken Windows theory (James Q. Wilson and George Kelling 1982)
|
|
|
The theory individuals make calculated decisions about crime based on many inputs, including potential payoff, the risks, and needs.
|
Rational choice theory
|
|
|
The theory that day-to-day activities of people result in the convergence of motivated offenders with victims.
|
Routine activities theory
|
|
|
This approach focuses on the activity of the victim as a contributing factor in criminal acts and victimization (ex. bar hopping)
|
Lifestyle perspectives
|
|
|
5 types of barriers
|
a. Natural (rivers, hills, etc.)
b. Stuctural (fences, doors, etc.) c. Human (security officers) d. Animals (dog) e. Energy (lighting, IDS) |
|
|
2 types of vehicle barriers
|
a. Active (gates, arms, pop up, etc.)
b. Passive (bollards, large concrete planters, trees, ect.) |
|
|
A continuous wall of reinforced concrete with a buried foundation.
|
Plinth wall (an alternative to bollards)
|
|
|
A path of paving stones over a trench of low density concrete that will collapse under heavy weight)
|
Tiger trap
|
|
|
Large heavy bronze blocks
|
NOGOs
|
|
|
Electro-mechanical sensors include foil, wire and screen detectors, pressure mats, and mechanical or magnetic contacts. This type of sensor is designed to place a ____________________ between an intruder and an area to be protected.
|
current-carrying conductor
|
|
|
__________ sensors are microwaves or sound waves that are disturbed when movement changes signal frequency between transmission and receipt.
|
Ultrasonic
|
|
|
The __________ sensor utilizes super high frequency electromagnetic energy. They can be used in outdoor applications as well as indoors, because they are generally not affected by fog, rain, snow, sleet, noise, wind.
|
microwave
|
|
|
A ____________ sensor can be blocked or diverted by metal objects. The waves do penetrate non-metallic construction material, and detect movement outside the protected area.
|
microwave
|
|
|
A ____________ sensor is a large electrical condenser that radiates energy and detects change in the capacitive coupling between an antenna and a ground.
|
capacitance
|
|
|
A ____________ sensor wire is connected to an object to be protected, such as a safe or file cabinet. When the object is touched, some of the electrical energy is absorbed, disturbing the circuit and causing an alarm.
|
capacitance
|
|
|
___________ sensors operate based on modification of a light level, or interruption of a light beam protecting an area.
|
Photo-electric
|
|
|
______________ sensors permits a combination device to replace redundant or multiple systems.
|
Dual technology
|
|
|
In every communication, concern is placed on: (4)
|
a. integrity of the communications media (message path)
b. the integrity of the message (transmitted completely and without error) c. timeliness of the transmission d. message security (accessibility of the communication to authorized persons only) |
|
|
___________ is a strand of high-purity spun glass, the thickness of a human hair.
|
Optical fiber
|
|
|
___________ signals can be transmitted on coaxial and optical fiber cable, standard telephone line or on balanced twisted wire pairs. They cannot be transmitted directly on DC lines.
|
Video
|
|
|
Three types of line transmission installations are used in electronic protection systems:
|
loop, point to point, and multiplex.
|
|
|
A wireless communication requires: (4)
|
a transmitter, antenna, receiver, and power.
|
|
|
A basic rule is sensitive information should not be discussed on any call in which a _____________ is used.
|
cordless telephone
|
|
|
A ___________ alarm system should be designed with line supervision to check the circuits automatically and immediately signal faults.
|
wire alarm system
|
|
|
In its simplest form, ______________ imposes a physical restraint to be overcome or bypassed in order to gain entry.
|
access control
|
|
|
There are three basic types of identifying employees or visitors:
|
guards, card reader systems, biometric readers.
|
|
|
The most popular coded card in use is the:
|
credit card.
|
|
|
The two basic types of metal detectors are:
|
walk-through and hand-held.
|
|
|
The best locks for both bicycles and motorcycles is the:
|
large shackle U-bar lock.
|
|
|
A vulnerability assessment includes the ___________ of assets, threats, risk, and vulnerabilities as well as ____________ such as operational issues, culture, and cost.
|
identification
constraints |
|
|
The ____________ is the basic instrument for determining security vulnerability. It determines existing security, identifies deficiencies, establishes the protection needed, and recommends measures to enhance overall security.
|
security survey
|
|
|
_____________ is the a system of tangible countermeasures, designed to protect assets from identified threats.
|
Physical security
|
|
|
Physical security programs are comprised of: (5)
|
policies and procedures, personnel, barriers, equipment, and records.
|
|
|
Physical security concepts are to: (5)
|
deter, detect, delay, deny, and apprehend (or destroy)
|
|
|
The primary goal of a physical security program is to:
|
control access.
|
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_______________ is the process of concentric layers of barriers, each level growing progressively higher, with the accumulation of delay either discouraging or controlling attempted penetration.
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Security in depth
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________ layer protective controls may include fencing, lighting, signs, and alarms. The element of delay is minimal, it does little more than define a property.
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Outer layer
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________ layer controls will usually feature lighting, alarms, locks, bars on doors and windows, signs, and fencing and walls.
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Middle layer
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________ layer controls would cause an intruder who penetrated both outer and middle layers to fail to find anything of value easily accessible. Window and door bars, locks, barriers, signs, alarms, lighting, safes, vaults, and controlled areas and rooms.
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Inner layer
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__________ is a concept based on the belief that "the physical environment can be manipulated to produce behavioral effects that will reduce the incidents and fear of crime".
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CPTED
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OSHA defines a hazardous material as:
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a chemical that can cause health or environmental problems.
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The most valuable resource of any organization is its:
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employees.
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The security professional must insist on being part of the facility planning and design process to ensure that effective security is incorporated into the:
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architect's vision and construction.
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________ and ________ should be separated by physical controls from the rest of the facility.
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Shipping and receiving
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A security program without ___________ will fail regardless of the high technology, equipment and training it utilizes.
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popular support
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Elements of physical security should be reviewed not only to reduce loss, but also for their ability to:
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reduce the fear of crime.
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The UL standard requires that safes weighing less than _____ pounds be anchored.
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750 pounds
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The primary reason given for business failure after a fire was:
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destruction of records.
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A fire resistant safe keeps it rated value for about ___ to ___ years, depending on climate.
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20 to 30 years
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The designation 350 - 4 hours indicates the safe contents will endure a temperature of ___ for ___ hours.
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350 for four hours.
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Three types of record safes are:
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fire-resistive safes and insulated record containers, insulated filing devices, and magnetic media records containers.
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Fire resistant safes are labeled: A = 350 - 4; B = 350 - 2; C = 350 - 1. All three classes must pass three tests:
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fire endurance, explosion, and impact.
The temperature cannot exceed 350 at any time during the test. |
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________ filing devices, designated Class 350-1 (formerly Class “D”) and class 350-1/2 (formerly Class “E”) afford considerably less protection for records than the three levels of fire-resistive containers.
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Insulated
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Because magnetic media begins to deteriorate at ___° F or lower at humidity levels of more than ___ percent, record containers which had always been designed to protect paper — at 350° F. with no humidity control — could not be used for protection of this type of record.
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150° F
80 percent |
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If both valuables and fire protection are necessary, a _______ container can be installed in a larger safe or vault designed for protection against fire, or a safe rated for both fire and burglary can be used.
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valuables
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TL-15 or TL-30 indicates that the container is a combination-locked steel container offering 15 or 30 minute protection against an attack using common:
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electrical and mechanical tools.
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TRTL 15 x 6, TRTL-30, or TRTL-60 indicates that the combination-locked steel safe has been designed and tested to give protection against 15, 30 or 60 minutes of attack with common electrical and mechanical tools and:
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cutting torches.
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The “x 6” addition to the TRTL 15 x 6 rating means that:
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all six surfaces of the safe must give the rated protection.
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A successful safe attack consists of opening the door or making a __ inch square hole entirely through the door or front face.
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2 inch
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TXTL-60 indicates that the container is a combination-locked steel chest that offers 60 minutes of protection against an expert burglary attack using common hand tools, cutting torches, ____________ and any combination of these techniques.
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high explosives
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The use of a ___________ is one of the most popular methods of attacking a safe.
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punch
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In the ___________ type of attack, the combination dial is first broken off. Next, a drift or center punch is placed on the broken spindle and then struck with a hammer.
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punch
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The ____________ is also a popular method of attacking a fire-resistant container which is less resistive to the use of force than a burglary rated safe. The container is generally attacked with a chisel and sledgehammer, to make a penetration so that an edge of metal is exposed.
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peel
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___________ is another method is to cut through the metal plating with a chisel and hammer. The ___________ may be started with a drill or carborundum disk and then finished with a chisel and hammer.
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Rip
rip |
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A drill, either high torque or core, is usually employed by professionals. Most of the newer safes designed for fire protection and all burglary-resistant chests are constructed of __________ metal.
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drill-resistant
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An ______________ torch is usually used by a professional to burn an opening in a container. A considerable amount of equipment is necessary to make a successful penetration of a safe by torch.
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oxygen-acetylene
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The ______________ consumes a large amount of oxygen and several 10-foot lengths of the bar would be required to penetrate a modern safe designed for burglary protection. During an attack, a large amount of smoke and gas would be generated as well as a slag run-off which could cause a fire. Such an attack would also be difficult to conceal.
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burning bar
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A safe that has been successfully penetrated with ____________ has usually been attacked by an experienced professional.
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explosives
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The quantity, or flow of light emitted by a lamp is measured in ________.
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lumens
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____________ is the concentration of light over a particular area.
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Illuminance
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One ___________ is equal to 10.76 lux (often approximated to a ratio of 1:10).
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footcandle
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______________ is a measure of the warmth or coolness of a light.
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Corrected Color Temperature (CCT)
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The ability of a lamp to faithfully reproduce the colors seen in an object is known as:
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Color Rendition
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Color Rendition Index (CRI) on a scale of 0 to 100. A CRI of __ to __ is considered good, above __ is considered excellent, and 100 percent is considered ____________.
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Color Rendition Index (CRI) on a scale of 0 to 100. A CRI of 70 to 80 is considered good, above 80 is considered excellent, and 100 percent is considered daylight.
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A high ___________ also increases visual clarity and has been found to create higher morale and greater productivity.
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Color Rendition Index (CRI)
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A useful rule of thumb to use when considering lighting levels is: for pedestrians or normal cameras, the minimum level of reflected light for Detection is ___ fc, for Recognition ___ fc, and for Identification ___ fc.
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A useful rule of thumb to use when considering lighting levels is: for pedestrians or normal cameras, the minimum level of reflected light for Detection is 0.5 fc, for Recognition 1.0 fc, and for Identification 2.0 fc.
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Typical lighting levels for walkways: 1 – 4 fc for walkways, __ – __ fc for roadways, __ fc for entrances and __ fc for open yards.
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Typical lighting levels for walkways: 1 – 4 fc for walkways, 0.5 – 2 fc for roadways, 10 fc for entrances and 2 fc for open yards.
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A horizontal illuminance level of __ fc with a uniformity ratio of _:1 provides an adequate level of security.
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A horizontal illuminance level of 5 fc with a uniformity ratio of 4:1 provides an adequate level of security.
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________ are defined as specially constructed rooms or areas intended to limit access and provide protection to the assets to be secured in this space.
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Vaults
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The principal national U.S. standard for fire resistive vaults is National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) ___, 1995.
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232
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A vault shall not exceed _____ cubic feet in volume, or __ feet in interior height.
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A vault shall not exceed 5,000 cubic feet in volume, or 12 feet in interior height.
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Data processing tapes and disks containing vital information must be protected by placing them in specially insulated records containers which have UL Approval for temperatures up to ___ °F
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150 °F
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All six surfaces of a _________ should give equal protection against forced entry.
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vault
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The most critical risks in high-rise structures include: (3)
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fire, explosion and contamination of life-support systems such as air and potable water supply.
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A protection plan is most effective if a high-rise is viewed as:
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a single entity
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Generally, a high-rise structure is considered one that extends higher than:
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the maximum reach of available fire-fighting equipment. (75 and 100 feet)
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A high rise building is building higher than __ floors.
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5 floors
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The first priority in a high rise is:
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Fire detection.
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In a 30-story building with three basement levels and two sprinkler risers serving the entire structure, the minimum number of water-flow detection points would be one for each riser on:
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all 33 levels.
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The Fire Code requires that, at all times during “occupancy” (even if there is no detected emergency), occupants of a building must be allowed unimpeded travel in the path of _____________ to the exterior of the building, or other designated safe area.
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egress
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Recognized fire authorities agree that the best tool for putting out a fire is:
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automatic sprinkler system.
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A complete automatic sprinkler system, combined with reliable water-flow and supervisory alarms, is the most effective approach to the three prime life safety tasks of:
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fire detection, fire warning and fire suppression.
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Halon (or halon substitute) and carbon dioxide systems in data centers are intended to deal with a ________ fire, typically of an electrical nature, in or threatening the computer equipment.
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limited fire
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The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) addresses the reality that, with elevators recalled to the ground floor during a fire emergency, some disabled persons cannot negotiate fire stairs. ADA requires that an area of rescue assistance be allocated on each floor (two if the occupancy is greater than 200). Each consists of two __” x __” spaces with ________________.
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two 30” x 48” spaces with two-way communications.
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Jane Jacobs (1961) developed the “_________” theory. Using personal observation and anecdote, Jacobs suggested that residential crime could be reduced by orienting buildings toward the street, clearly distinguishing public and private domains and placing outdoor spaces in proximity to intensively used areas.
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defensible space
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_______ Risk is defined as any situation that carries the potential for both benefit and cost or loss.
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Dynamic
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_______ Risk is defined as any situation where there is no possibility for any benefit, only for cost or loss.
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Pure
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There are five available alternatives for handling risk:
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Risk Avoidance, Risk Reduction, Risk Spreading, Risk Transfer, Risk Acceptance.
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The rule of thumb is hedges lower that __ feet and tree bottoms higher than __ feet.
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The rule of thumb is hedges lower that 2 feet and tree bottoms higher than 8 feet.
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The three most common assets to businesses are:
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People, Information, Property
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For a sign to be clearly read by a person with 20/20 vision at a distance of 50 feet, the letters would need to be ___ inches in height.
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six inches
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The American Kennel Club recognizes 146 distinct breeds of dogs classified into eight groups or classes. The “_______ group” and "_______ group” are the two classes that are of interest to assets protection professionals.
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The “working group” and “herding group”
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Dogs in the ________ group are bred to perform such jobs as guarding property, pulling sleds and performing water rescues.
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working
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The _________ group, the newest of the eight groups, includes dogs that were formerly classified in the working group. These dogs share a great ability to control the movement of other animals.
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herding
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The following are common protection functions for which dogs may be trained in military, law enforcement and private security operations: (7)
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1. tracking
2. detection of drugs 3. detection of explosives and other substances 4. protection or patrol of an area alone, without a handler 5. protection of an area with a handler 6. “guarding” or holding a person in a location 7. aggressive attack. |
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Two basic instincts — __________________________ — are basic to the suitability of a dog for protection.
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the impulse to hunt and the pack instinct
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The primary value of the dog in an assets protection system is its ability to perform as:
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a sensor
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The senses of a dog are listed in order of importance when used for protection purposes: (4)
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smell; hearing; sight; and touch.
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A dog’s ability to detect scents and odors is more than __________ times greater than that of humans.
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one hundred times greater
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The majority of professional trainers agree that an animal should be trained as a specialist and used either as a _________ dog or as a _________ dog, not both.
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protection or detection
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The ___________ is the most popular dog in use for police and protection work in the U.S.
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German shepherd
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___________ are those who are delegated chain of command authority to accomplish specific objectives in the organization.
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Line Executives
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___________ are those functions that are advisory or service orientated to the line executive.
|
Staff Functions
|
|
|
The distance between an asset and a threat.
|
Stand-off distance
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___________ is the most effective and desirable strategy against a blast.
|
Distance
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Annealed glass is also called:
|
Plate glass
|
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___________ lighting adjusts and controls the width of the lighted strip to fit the particular need. A wide strip inside the fence and a narrow strip outside may be needed because of adjoining highways, air ports, etc. (See Figure 2-6.) The floodlighting of a storage tank or roof is another example. This method has the disadvantage of illuminating security posts and patrols.
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Controlled
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_____________ lighting directs the glare outward toward a perimeter approach. At the same time it restricts the downward beam of light. This method makes it hard for the intruder to see inside the area. It also allows the guard to watch intruders at great distances beyond the perimeter.
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Glare projection
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