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150 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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The congenital cardiac anaomaly seen most frequently in adults is: A. Ebstein's anomaly B. Bicuspid aortic valve C. Ventricular septal defect D. Endocardial cushion defect |
B. Bicuspid aortic valve |
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Which endocardiographic window is used in the detection and assessment of the inferior vena cava? A. apical B. subcostal C. parasternal D. suprsternal |
B. Subcostal |
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What is the number and location of the papillary muscles of a normal mitral valve? A. one; the posteromedial B. two; the posterolmedial and anterolateral C. two; the inferolateral and posteromedial D. three; the anterolateral, posteromedial, and inferolater |
B. two; the posterolateral and anterolateral |
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Clinically, prolapse of the mitral valve is associated with: A. Opening snap and systolic murmur B. Diastolic murmur and third heart sound C. Fixed splitting of the second heart sound D. Midsystolic click and/or late systolic murmur |
D. Midsystolic click and/or late systolic murmur |
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Papillary muscle dysfunction usually results from: A. Dressler's syndrome B. Ischemic heart disease C. Bacterial endocarditis D. Rheumatic heart disease |
B. Ischemic heart disease |
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In order to record the vegetation's of endocarditis by echo, the vegetation's must have a diameter of at least: A. One centimeter B. Three millimeters C. Three centimeters D. Five millimeters |
B. Three millimeters |
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How many veins connect the pulmonary vascular bed with the left atrium in the normal heart? A. one B. two C. three D. four |
D. four |
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Which M-mode finding is considered to be a specific indicator of a fenestrated aortic valve? a. diastolic flutter of the mitral valve b. premature opening of the aortic valve c. diastolic flutter of the aortic valve d. eary systolic closure of the aortic valve |
C. diastolic flutter of the aortic valve |
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Which cardiac abnormalities are frequently noted on the echocardiogram of patients with Marfan's syndrome? A. mitral stenosis and pericardial effusion B. mitral valve prolapse and aortic dilatation C. left ventricular aneurysm and thrombus formation D. dilatation of the pulmonary artery and pulmonic stenosis |
B. MITRAL VALVE PROLAPSE AND AORTIC DILATATION |
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Which term is used to describe a segment of ventrcular wall that exhibits no motion? A. akinesis B. dyskinesis C. hypokinesis D. hyperkinesis |
A. akinesis |
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A true aneurysm of the left ventricle can usually be distinguished from a pseudoaneurysm because a pseudoaneurysm: A. has a smaller, more narrow neck than a true aneurysm B. never contain thrombi whereas a true aneurysm always contain a layered thrombus C. is always larger in overall size than a true aneurysm |
A. has a smaller, more narrow neck than a true aneurysm |
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Which type of cardiomyopathy is associated with amyloidosis? a. congestive b. restrictive c. hypertrophic d. infiltrative |
d. infiltrative |
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In a patient with carcinoid heart disease, the cardiac sonographer must devote special attention to identifying abnormalilties of the: a. aortic arch b. aortic valve c. mitral valve d. tricuspid valve |
d. tricuspid |
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Which two-dimensional echocardiographic view is best for identifying the malformed tricuspid valve apparatus that characterizes Ebstein's anomaly: a. apical two chamber b. apical four chamber c. parasternal long axis d. parasternal short axis |
b. apical four chamber |
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Infundibular pulmonary stenosis is uncommon as an isolated lesion and is usually associated with: a. tricuspid atresia b. atrial septal defect c. coarctation of the aorta d. ventricular septal defect |
d. Ventricular septal defect |
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Which two-dimensional echocardiographic view is best for the assessment of the interatrial septum? a. apical long axis b. apical four chamber c. parasternal short axis d. subcostal four chamber |
d. subcostal |
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The most common type of atrial septal defect is the: a. ostium primum b. sinus venosus c. coronary sinus d. ostium secundum |
d. ostium secundum |
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M-mode echo demenstration of mid-systolic closure of the pulmonary valve along with a decreased "a" wave is most consistent with: a. pulmonary hypertension b. pulmonary insufficiency c. valvular pulmonary stenosis d. infundibular pulmonary stenosis |
a. pulmonary hypertension |
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False overriding of the aorta may be produced on the M-mode echo by: a. using a transducer with too low a frequency b. failure to turn the patient into a left decubitus position c. positioning the transducer in too high an intercostal space d. positioning the transducer in too low an intercostal space |
c. positioning the transducer in too high an intercostal space |
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Atrial fibrillation is most commonly associated with which valvular disease? a. bicuspid aortic valve b. mitral valve prolapse c. calcific aortic stenosis d. rheumatic mitral stenosis |
d. rheumatic mitral stenosis |
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Which is an example of a bioprosthetic cardiac valve? a. Starr-Edwards ball b. Bjork-Shiley tilting disc c. St.Jude Medical bileaflet d. Ionescu-Shiley bovine pericardial |
D. Ionescu-Shiley bovine pericardial |
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Doppler measures a pressure drop (gradient) by the Bernoulli equation. This equation actually measures the ___gradient across the valve. a. mean b. peak to peak c. peak instantaneous d. pressure half-time |
c. peak instantaneous |
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When a patient has a clinical diagnosis of pericarditis: a. a pericardal effusion is always present on echo b. a pericardial effusion may not be present on echo c. pericardial thickening is always present on echo d. pericardial thickening must not be present on echo |
B. a pericardial effusion may not be present on echo |
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In normal patients, most ventricular filling occurs: a. with atrial contraction b. in the first third of diastole c. in the middle third of diastole d. during the PR interval of the ECG |
b. in the first third of diastole |
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The patient you are examining has clear cut auscultatory and angiographic evidence for mital prolapse, yet the resting echocardiogram is normal. You should then: a. raise the patient's leg b. perform a cold pressor test c. echo the patient in the standing position d. have the patient hold his breathe in deep inspiration |
c. echo the patient in the standing position |
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Tricuspid valve closure normally occurs: a. before mitral closure b. simultaneous with mitral closure c. less than 0.06 seconds after mitral closure d. more than 0.06 seconds after mitral closure |
c. less than 0.06 seconds after mitral closure |
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Kawasaki's disease may lead to: a. aortic valve prolapse b. tricuspid regurgitation c. coronary artery aneurysm d. ruptured chordae tendineae |
c. coronary artery aneurysm |
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Which echocardiographic techinique is best for the detection of mitral regurg? a. M-mode b. pulsed Doppler c. two-dimensional d. apexcardiogram |
b. pulsed Doppler |
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A two-dimensional echocardiogram shows increased thickness of the ventricular walls but normal LV size. The myocardium has a speckled appearance. Which type of cardiomyopathy might this represent? a. ischemic b. congestive c. infiltrative d. hypertrophic obstructive |
c. infiltrative |
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Atrial myxomas are usually attached to the: a. left atrial appendage b. mitral valve leaflets c. posterior left atrial free wall d. fossa ovalis region of the atrial septum |
d. fossa ovalis region of the atrial septum |
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Which 2-D views are best for direct imaging of the discrete subaortic membrane? a. parasternal long and short axis views b. apical five chamber and apical long axis views c. subcostal long axis and apical four chamber views d. parasternal long axis and apical two chamber views |
b. apical five chamber and apical long axis views |
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The 2-D echocardiogram of a teenage boy shows that the mid-portion of the atrial septum cannot be seen. Which type of congenital heart disease might this patient have? a. supra-mitral ring b. cor triatrium c. ostium primum ASD d. ostium secundum ASD |
d. ostium secundum ASD |
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Which is the best placement of the Doppler transducer for recording maximum velocities of flow across a bioprosethtic valve in the mitral position? a. apical four chamber b. parasternal long axis c. subcostal four chamber d. parasternal cross sectional |
a. apical four chamber |
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Premature opening of the pulmonary valve may be seen in: a. cardiac tamponade b. pulmonary insufficiency c. constritive pericarditis d. acute severe pulmonary hypertension |
c. constrictive pericarditis |
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When the velocity of blood flow exceeds the Doppler nyquist limit, the following occurs: a. dampening b. aliasing c. mirroring d. contouring |
b. aliasing |
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An underestimation of the severity of aortic stenosis by continuous wave Doppler may occur with: a. high gain settings b. low cardiac c. aortic regurgitation d. increased cardiac output |
b. low cardiac output |
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Doppler ultrasound may show retrograde flow velocites within the ascending aorta during diastole in the presence of: a. aortic regurg b. patient ductus arterosis c. aorticpulmonary window d. aorticsubclavian shunts |
a. aortic regurg |
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A patient with a recent myocardial infarction is dianosised with Dressler's syndrome. Special care in performing a 2-D study should be followed to rule out: a. RV infarction b. left atrial thrombi c. pericardial effusion d. aortic root dissection |
c. pericardial effusion |
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In a patient with mitral stenosis, a continuous wave Doppler study shows a peak diastole velocity of 2m/s. What is the peak pressure gradient across the mitral valve? a. 8 mm Hg b. 16 mm Hg c. 32 mm Hg d. 90 mm Hg |
b. 16 mm Hg |
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In patients with tricuspid atresia, blood flow will shunt from the right atrium to the left atrium through a: a. ostium primum defect b. patent foramen ovale c. coronary sinus defect d. patent ductus arteriosus |
b. patent foramen ovale |
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A 22 year old patient with Down Syndrome is referred to the echo lab. The most common lesion associated with these patients is: a. tetralogy of Fallot b. bicuspid aortic valve c. AV septal defect d. transposition of the great arteries |
c. AV septal defect |
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What is the standard echo view for contrast study for an ASD? a. RVIT view b. RVOT view c. subcostal four chamber view d. apical four chamber view |
d. apical four chamber view |
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When obtaining a continuous wave Doppler aortic profile from the apex through a heavily calcified aortic valve you may: a. overestimate the velocity b. underestimate the velocity c. confuse the jet with mitral inflow d. confuse the jet with pulmonic stenosis |
b. underestimate the velocity |
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The Doppler jet of mitral stenosis obtained at the apex is sometimes confused with: a. aortic insufficiency b. mitral insufficiency c. pulmonic insuff d. tricuspid insuff |
a. aortic insuff |
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When Starr-Edwards prosthetic valves are located in both the mitrak ad aortic positions, mitral regurgitation is best detected from which window? a. apical b. subcostal c. suprasternal d. left parasternal |
b. subcostal |
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For patients with aortic stenosis and atrial fib, peak systolic aortic velocity will be: a. unaffected by R-R intervals b. lower following long R-R intervals c. higher following long R-R intervals d. higher following short R-R intervals |
c. higher following long R-R intervals |
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Aliasing on color flow Doppler is shown by a: a. mosaic of colors b. display of green c. reversal in color d. reversal in intensity |
c. reversal in color |
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Premature mitral valve closure on M-mode is a sign of high left ventricular diastolic pressure in: a. aortic stenosis b. aortic insuff c. mitral insuff d. 1st degree heart block |
b. aortic insuff |
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Midsystolic clicks and/or late systolic murmurs are most characteristic of: a. mitral stenosis b. pulmonary stenosis c. aortic valve prolapse d. mitral valve prolapse |
d. MVP |
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The two most frequently encountered congenital heart lesions diagnosted in adults are: a. ASD and VSD b. ASD and PDA c. ASD and bicuspid AoV d. VSD and bicuspid AoV |
c. ASD and bicuspid AoV |
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Endothelialized___can have the same tissue characteristics as myocardium by 2-D echo: a. thrombi b. vegetation's c. anomalous chordae d. ring calcification |
a. thrombi |
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Estein's anomaly is characterized by a ____ displacement of all or part of the tricupid valve into the RV cavity. a. medial b. lateral c. superior d. inferior |
d. inferior |
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On a two-dimensional echocardiogram the motion of a congenitally stenotic aortic valve can generally be described as: a. doming b. akinestic c. prolapsing d. fluttering |
a. doming |
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Echocardiographically, a dense band of echoes between the posterior left ventricular wall and the mitral valve may represent: a. mitral dissection b. cleft mitral valve c. left atrial myxoms d. mitral ring calcification |
d. mitral ring calcification |
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On M-mode, a flail mitral valve may have a similar appearance to: a. a cleft mitral valve b. a stenotic mitral valve c. an infected mitral valve d. a parachute mitral valve |
c. infected mitral valve |
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One of the most common complicatations of a myocardial infarction is: a. aneurysm formation b. aortic insuff c. LV outflow obstruction d. calcification of the mitral ring |
a. aneurysm formation |
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In patients with large pericardial effusions the motion of the pericardium may be: a. damped b. increased c. unchanged d. paradoxical |
a. damped |
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Echocardiographically, patients with congestive cardiomyopathy have left ventricles which are: a. thick and hyperdynamic b. dilated and poorly contracting c. increased shortening fraction and hypertrophy d. hypertrophied with normal chamber size and motion |
b. dilated and poorly contracting |
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On a two-dimensional echocardiogram, a cleft mitralve valve may be confused with an anatomic: a. bicuspid valve b. tricuspid valve c. floppy mitral valve d. parachute mitral valve |
b. tricuspid valve |
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In which view is the ultrasound beam most perpendicular to the interatrial septum? a. apical 4 chamber b. apical long axis c. subcostal 4 chamber d. parasternal short axis |
c. subcostal 4 chamber |
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To determine peak aortic velocity in patients with aortic stenosis, the Doppler utilized should be: a. pulsed b. mechanical c. cross sectional d. continuous wave |
d. continuous wave |
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In patients with ventricular septal defects and left to right shunting the___maybe dilated. a. left atrium b. right atrium c. left ventricle d. pulmonary veins |
a. left atrium |
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Secondary findings in mitral stenosis can be: a. left ventricular hypertrophy and dilation b. left ventricular and atrial dilation c. right atrial enlargement and mitral regurg d. left atrial enlargement and signs of pulmonary hypertension |
d. left atrial enlargement and signs of pulmonary hypertension |
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Patients with long standing aortic stenosis will usually have: a. LVH b. LV dilation c. diastolic aortic flutter d. mitral ring calcification |
a. LVH |
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One advantage to using the parasternal long axis view to diagnose mitral valve prolapse is: a. there is less motion of the mitral annulus b. false prolapse caused by caused by the annulus shape is avodied c. the ultrasonic beam is perpendicular to the leaflets in systole d. the relative position of the mitral and tricuspid valves is better visulized |
b. false prolapse caused by the annulus shape is avoided |
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Patients with aortic insuff may have serial echoes to check for: a. amount of mitral valve flutter b. left ventricular wall thickness c. diastolic aortic cusp separation d. left ventricular dimension changes |
d. left ventricular dimension changes |
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Which of the following parameters is leaft likely to affect serial left ventricular dimension measurements on M-mode? a. respiration b. patient position c. transducer position d. transducer frequency |
d. transducer frequency |
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A left ventricular thrombus is usually in an area of: a. hyperkinesis b. abnormal wall motion c. ventricular enlargement d. ventricular hypertrophy |
a. abormal wall motion |
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In order to distinguish between pleural and pericardial effusions on a two-dimensional echocardiogram it is helpful to identify the: a. abdominal aorta b. ascending aorta c. transverse aorta d. descending aorta |
d. descending aorta |
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Rupture of the interventricular septum is most often a complication of: a. aortic insuff b. myocardial infarction c. perforation of pacing wires d. subacute bacterial endocarditis |
b. myocardial infarction |
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An M-mode of a mitral heterograph valve resembles an M-mode of which valve? a. mitral b. aortic c. pulmonic d. tricuspid |
b. aortic |
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Which technique would best allow you to assess the severity of aortic regurgitation? a. pulsed wave Doppler b. coninuous wave Doppler c. M-mode echocardiography d. two-dimensional echocardiography |
a. pulsed wave Doppler |
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Which of the following valves is most often affected in patients with rheumatic heart disease? a. aortic b. mitral c. pulmonic d. tricuspid |
b. mitral |
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"Electrical alternans" is seen on a patient's EKG. The echocardiogram will most likely show: a. aortic stenosis b. mitral valve prolapse c. ventricular septal defect d. large pericardial effusion |
d. large pericardial effusion |
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A common cause for right ventricular volume overload is: a. patent ductus b. pulmonic stenosis c. tetralogy of Fallot d. tricuspid regurgitation |
d. tricuspid regurgitation |
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Premature closure of the mitral valve can be seen in patients with: a. aortic insuff b. cleft mitral leaflet c. constrictive pericarditis d. left ventricular hypertrophy |
a. aortic insuff |
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On EKG, ventricular repolarization is represented by the: a. P wave b. T wave c. R wave d. QRS complex |
b. T wave |
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The most common cause of mitral regurgitation in elderly patients is: a. atrial fib b. rheumatic heart disease c. calcified mitral annulus d. papillary muscle dysfunction |
c. calcified mitral annulus |
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A patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) has what type of murmur? a. systolic b. diastolic c. blowing d. continuous |
d. continuous |
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A patient is sent to the echo lab with the diagnosis of constrictive pericarditis. You perform a contrast study to look for: a. atrial level shunt b. persistant left superior vena cava c. systolic appearance of contrast in the IVC d. presystolic appearance of contrast in the IVC |
d. presystolic appearance of contrast in the IVC |
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Hemodynamically moderate aortic insuff will result in: a. pulmonic regurgitation b. increased cardiac output c. right ventricular hypertrophy d. left ventricular volume overload |
d. left ventricular overload |
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A patient with a systolic murmur and a fixed split S2 may have which of the following? a. tricuspid stenosis b. subaortic stenosis c. atrial septal defect d. transposition of the great arteries |
c. atrial septal defect |
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The pressure obtained by a pulmonary artery wedge measurement equals the pressure in the: a. aorta b. left atrium c. right ventricle d. pulmonary artery |
b. left atrium |
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Filling of the coronary arteries occurs during what part of the cardiac cycle? a. artial diastole b. ventricular systole c. ventricular diastole d. isovolumic contraction |
c. ventricular diastole |
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A A-dip in the M-mode pulmonary valve is caused by contraction of the : a. left atrium b. right atrium c. left ventricle d. right ventricle |
b. right atrium |
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Which is the first arterial branch of the ascending aorta? a. innominate b. left subclavian c. right subclavian d. left common carotid |
a. innominate |
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Which of the following is associated with severe, acute mitral regurgitation? a. Mitral stenosis b. pulmonary edema c. left atrial enlargement d. left ventricular hypertrophy |
b. pulmonary adema |
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A patient is referred to the echo lab because of positional and respiratory variation in chest pain. Which of the following diseases are they likely to have? a. angina b. pericarditis c. aortic stenosis d. coronary artery spasm |
b. pericarditis |
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What percent of left ventricular filling is normally contributed by atrial systole? a. 10 b. 30 c. 50 d. 70 |
b. 30 |
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Which valve lesion is most commonly associated with left bundle branch block? a. Ebstein's anomaly b. mitral valve prolapse c. calcified aortic stenosis d. calcified mitral stenosis |
c. calcified aortic stenosis |
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Where is the lowest blood oxygen saturation usually found? a. coronary sinus b. pulmonary artery c. inferior vena cava d. superior vena cava |
a. coronary sinus |
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An advantage of continuous wave Doppler over pulsed Doppler is: a. range resolution b. low nyquist limit c. peak velocity detection d. aliasing can be detected |
c. peak velocity detection |
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Which window is best for evaluating the ball excursion of a Starr-Edward's mitral valve using M-mode technique? a. apical b. subcostal c. parasternal d. suprasternal |
a. apical |
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A patient is sent to the echo lab with a diagnosis of Marfan's Syndrome. Which of the following are you most likey to find? a. aortic rupture b. cleft mitral valve c. dilated aortic root d. pericardial effusion |
c. dilated aortic root |
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A young patient is sent to the echo lab with a diagnosis of Kawasaki's disease. Which of the following would you look for? a. ASD b. right atrial myxoma c. MVP d. regional wall motion abnormalities |
d. regional wall motion abnormalities |
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Normally pericardial fluid drains into the: a. pleural space b. coronary sinus c. peritoneal space d. lymphatic system |
d. lympathic system |
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A patient who has a higher blood pressure in the right arm than the left may have: a. aortic stenosis b. hypoplastic left heart c. coarctation of the aorta d. patent ductus arteriosis |
c. coarctation of the aorta |
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Premature closure of the aortic valve on M-mode is most consistent with: a. mitral stenosis b. aortic stenosis c. aortic regurg d. mitral regurg |
d. mitral regurgitation |
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An intra-aortic ballon pump assists the left venricle by increasing? a. pre-load b. after-load c. coronary blood flow d. systolic blood pressure |
c. coronary blood flow |
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The development of angina, dyspnea, and syncope are signs of advanced: a. aortic stenosis b. mitral stenosis c. aortic regurg d. mitral regurg |
a. aortic stenosis |
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Over stimulation of the parasympathetic nerbous system will: a. increase the heart rate b. decrease the heart rate c. increase the contractility d. decrease the contractility |
b. decrease the heart rate |
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At cardiac catheterization a patient has equal end-diastolic pressures between both atria and both ventricles suggesting: a. patent ductus ateriosus b. constrictive percarditis c. chronic mitral regurgitation d. cardiac tamponade |
b. constrictive pericarditis |
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In normal patients why does the peak velocity of flow in the pulmonary artery occurs later than the peak velocity in the oarta? a. flow volume is lower b. flow volume is higher c. vascular resistance is lower d. vascular resistance is higher |
c. vascular resistance is lower |
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The beginning of systole is accompained by which heart sound: a. S1 b. S2 c. S3 d. S4 |
a. S1 |
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Of the following conditions, which is NOT a cause of increased left ventricular mass? a. aortic stenosis b. systemic hypertension c. MVP d. aortic insuff |
c. MVP |
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Which of the following terms refers to increased LV wall motion: a. dyskinesis b. hyperkinesis c. hypokinesis d. akinesis |
b. hyperkinesis |
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The anterior and apical wall of the left ventricle is supplied by which coronary artery? a. LAD b. left circumflex c. right coronary artery d. acute marginal |
a. LAD |
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The QRS of the electrocardiogram reflects which of the following? a. atrial depolarization b. atrial repolarization c. ventricular depolarization d. ventricular repolarization |
c. ventricular depolarization |
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Which of the following auscultatory sounds is most suggestive of a bicuspid aortic valve? a. S4 b. opening snap c. mid-systolic click d. systolic ejection click |
d. systolic ejection click |
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High frequency systolic vibrations of the aortic valve on M-mode are most consistent with: a. mitral insuff b. low cardiac output c. aortic valve stenosis d. normal finding |
d. normal finding |
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IHSS may be suspected if the ratio of IVS thickness to LV posterior wall thickness is: a. 1.1 to 1 b. 5 to 1 c. 1.3 to 1 d d. 3 to 1 |
c. 1.3 to 1 |
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An M-mode sweep from LV to aorta is used in patients suspected with pericardial effusion to: a. rule out tamponade b. rule out Dressler's syndrome c. differentitate pericardial from pleural effusion d. differentiate restictive from constictive pericarditis |
C. differentiate pericardial from pleural effusion |
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In patients with larger pericardial effusions, which of the following can be a false postitive diagnosis on M-mode? a. aortic dissection b. MVP c. papillary muscle dysfunction d. Ebstein's anomaly |
b. MVP |
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When measuring mitral orifice size in a patient with mitral stenosis, care must be taken to: a. use high gain for maximum visualization of the leaflets b. measure the opening as close to the left atrium as possible. c. measure the opening at the leaflet tips d. measure the opening at end diastole. |
c. measure the opening at the leaflet tips |
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The sue of the continuity equation in patient with aortic stenosis is based on the premise that: a. the worse the stenosis, the higher the V1 b. the higher the cardiac output the lower the V1 c. the higher the cardiac output the lower the V2 d. flow below the valve is equal to flow above the valve |
d. flow below the valve is equal to flow above the valve |
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The false appearance of mitral valve prolapse on M-mode can be created by: a. placing the transducer too high on the chest b. placing the transducer too low on the chest c. failure to roll the patient in the left lateral decubitus position d. failure to demonstrate aortic-mitral continuity |
a. placing the transducer too high on the chest |
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A B-notch on the mitral valve M-mode is associated with: a. a-fib b. increased pulmonary pressures c. first degree AV block d. increased LV end-diastolic pressure |
d. increased LV end diastolic pressure |
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An akinetic apical LV wall is most consistent with a blockage in the : a. right coronary artery b. LAD c. left circumflex coronary artery d. acute margin coronary artery |
b. LAD |
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Diastolic collapse of the RV anterior wall is consistent with: a. right ventricular volume overload b. right ventricular pressure overload c. pericardial constriction d. pericardial tamponade |
d. pericardial tamponade |
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Patients receiving Adriamycin therapy are often referred to the echo lab to: a. rule out atrial myxoma b. rule out constrictive pericarditis c. evaluate left ventricular function d. evaluate right ventricular function |
c. evaluate left ventricular function |
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A patient with a crescendo/decrescendo systolic murmur and a decreased A2 would probably be sent to the echo lab to evaluate: a. mitral insuff b. tricuspid insuff c. pulmonic insuff d. aortic stenosis |
d. aortic stenosis |
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After a patient has had a mitral commissurotomy, which of the following will be seen on echo? a. the mitral motion will be normal b. the mitral ring will appear as bright echo reflectors c. the valve will still appear rheumatic d. the E to F slope will decrease |
c. the valve will still appear rheumatic |
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In a patient will IHSS: a. the aortic valve will show mid-diastolic closure b. the LV posterior wall to septal ratio is usually greater than 1.3 c. mitral regurg is often present d. the systolic anterior motion of the MV will decrease with Valsalva maneuver |
c. mitral regurg is often present |
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Each of the following statements regarding echocardiography in patients with infective endocarditis are true EXCEPT: a. vegetation's as small as 3mm can be recognized b. it is easy to distinguish between new and healed vegetation's c. pre-existing valve disease may obscure the presence of a vegetation d. vegetation's usually appear on the flow side of valve leaflets |
b. it is easy to distinguish between new and healed vegetation's |
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A P-R interval longer than 0.2 sec's on ECG is called: a. left bundle branch block b. normal sinus rhythm c. 1st degree AV block d. complete heart block |
c. 1st degree AV block |
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Normal sinus rhythm means that: a. the SA node is the pacemaker b. the AV node is the pacemaker c. the heart is 40-60 beats per min d. P-R interval is a least .2 sec's |
a. the SA node is the pacemaker |
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During the Q-T interval on the ECG: a. the ventricle are filling b. the atria are filling c. the AV valves are open d. the semilunar valves are closed |
b. atria are filling |
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Which of the following does NOT usually happen with left heart failure? a. elevation of LV end-diastolic pressure b. elevation of pulmonary venous pressure c. fall in cardiac output d. fall in aortic pressure |
d. fall in aortic pressure |
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Which of the following is NOT a common symptom of congestive heart failure? a. dyspnea on exertion b. pedal edema c. orthopnea d. syncope |
d. syncope |
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Mitral regurgitation results in: a. increased in preload b. increase in after load c. decrease in preload d. decrease in afterload |
a. increase in preload |
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Long-standing severe mitral stenosis usually leads to: a. angina b. congestive heart failure c. syncope d. hypertension |
b. CHF |
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Stroke volume refers to: a. the liters per minute pumped by the heart b. cardiac output X heart rate c. ejection fraction of the left ventricle d. the volume of blood ejected with each heart beat |
d. the volume of blood ejected with each heart beat |
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In aortic stenosis the: a. LA diastolic pressure exceeds that of the LV b. LV systolic pressure exceeds that of the aorta c. LV diastolic pressure exceeds that of the aorta d. aortic systolic pressure exceeds that of the LV |
b. LV systolic pressure exceeds that of the aorta |
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The heart responds to increased preload by an increase in: a. systolic pressure b. diastolic pressure c. afterload d. contractility |
d. contractility |
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A patient with a left atrial myxoma may have symptoms similar to those patients having. a. mitral stenosis b. mitral ring calcification c. flail mitral leaflet d. papillary muscle dysfunction |
a. mitral stenosis |
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The best position for recording the left ventricular filling wave forms by two-dimensional/pulsed Doppler echocardiography is: a. parasternal short axis with Doppler sample volume positioned at the mitral valve leaflet tips b. parasternal long-axis with the sample volume positioned in the left atrium c. apical four chamber with the sample volume positioned at the mitral valve leaflet tips d. apical 4-ch with the sample volume positioned in the left atrium e. apical 5ch with the sample volume in the LVOT. |
c. apical 4ch with the sample volume positioned at the mitral valve leaflet tips |
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Visualization of the lateral segment of the left ventricle is best when the sonographer uses which of the following views? a. subxiphoid four chamber view b. apical long-axis view c. parasternal long axis d. apical 4ch and parasternal short views e. apical long axis and parasternal short-axis |
d. apical 4ch and parasternal short axis views |
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When amyl nitrite is administrated to a patient who has hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) it is likely to: a. decrease septal thickening b. increase the systolic anterior motion of the mitral valve c. decrease systolic flow velocity in the left ventricular outflow tract d. increase pulmonary venous return e. produce a slower heart rate |
b. increase the systolic anterior motion of the MV |
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A patient presents with a grade IV/VI systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur. The MOST likely pathology is: a. mitral stenosis b. mitral regurgitation c. aortic stenosis d. aortic regurgitation e. tricuspid regurgitation |
c. aortic stenosis |
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When ultrasound waves travel through a medium which contains many small scatterers, the amount of sound that is scattered would. a. increase sharply with increasing frequency b. increase sharply with increasing wavelengths c. be independent of frequency d. decrease with increasing beam area e. decrease sharply with increasing frequency |
a. increase sharply with increasing frequency |
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In a normal individual, during isovolumic contraction, the: a. aortic valve opens allowing blood to be ejected from the left ventricle b. mitral valve is open allowing blood flow into the left ventricle c. pressure in the left ventricle increases, no valves are open d. pressure in the left ventricle decreases, no valves are open e. pressure in the left ventricle is the same as it is in end diastole, no valves are open |
c. pressure in the left ventricle increases, no valves are open |
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Myocardial blood flow is most predominate during which phase of the cardiac cycle? a. isovolumic relaxation phase b. systole c. isovolumic contraction d. diastole |
d. diastole |
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Myocardial blood flow in the normal heart returns to the right atrium via the: a. pulmonary veins b. azygos veins c. superior vena cava d. coronary sinus |
d. coronary sinus |
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A ventricular premature beat originates in: a. the atrioventricular node b. the ectopic focus c. the sinus node d. the left coronary artery e. coronary sinus |
b. the ectopic focus |
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A cracked transducer face can lead to a dangerous situation involving: a. thermal damage b. electrical shock c. depolarization d. mechanical shock e. ultraviolet bea |
b. electrical shock |
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To improve the axial resolution of a transducer, a manufacturer must: a. increase the diameter b. decrease the diameter c. decrease the damping d. curve the crystal e. shorten the pulse |
e. shorten the pulse |
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If the distance to a reflector doubles, the time between pulse transmission and echo detection at the transducer. a. decreases by one-quarter b. decreases by one-half c. remains the same d. doubles e. quadruples |
d. doubles |
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The right ventricular systolic pressure may be predicted. a. when the pulmonary artery pressure is low by precise correlation of pulmonary valve closure times b. by accurate measurement of end systolic and end-diastolic anterior right ventricular wall thickness c. with continuous wave Doppler detection of tricuspid insuff d. with pulsed Doppler interrogation of the main pulmonary artery |
c. with continuous wave Doppler detection of tricuspid insuff |
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The two-dimensional image of a phased array echograph is produced by: a. rotating a single crystal transducer through a 360 degree arc b. oscillating a single low frequency transducer through a 30 degree and 90 degree arc c. sequentially activating a series of adjacent crystals to angulate the ultrasound beam d. a microcomputer that keeps the M-mode signal in phase with the cardiac cycle e. simultaneous activation of a linear array of piezoelectric crystals |
c. sequentially activating a series of adjacent crystals to angulate the ultrasound beam |
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Which of the following conditions is NOT associated with overriding of the aorta? a. pulmonary atresia with a ventricular septal defect. b. tetralogy of Fallot c. pulmonary atresia with intact ventricular septum d. truncus arteriosus e. double outlet right ventricle |
c. pulmonary atresia with intact ventricular septal defect. |
