Aqws Tech

Front 1

The SI unit for force is the ______, abbreviated to ______. Somestimes the term kilogram/force (kg/f) is used. One kg/f = ______N.

Back 1

newton, N, 9.81

Front 2

The SI unit for power is the ______, abbreviated to ______. Most light aircraft engines are however, still rated in ______.

Back 2

watt, W, horsepower

Front 3

The units used in aviation are;

for altitude - ______;

for navigational distance - ______ ______; and

for speed - ______.

Back 3

feet, nautical mile, knot

Front 4

A scalar quantity has only ______. A vector quantity has both ______ and ______.

Back 4

magnitude, magnitude and direction

Front 5

Velocity is speed in a given ______.

Back 5

direction

Front 6

Acceleration occurs whenever there is a change in speed and/or direction; i.e. whenever there is a change in ______.

Back 6

velocity

Front 7

Mass is measured in ______. A common definition of mass is that it is the ______ of ______ in an object.

Back 7

kilograms, amount, matter

Front 8

The tendency of an object to continue moving at a certain velocity, or remain at rest, is called ______.

Back 8

inertia

Front 9

Large masses have high ______, smaller masses have less _____.

Back 9

inertia, inertia

Front 10

A force is something which has the potential to cause an ______.

Back 10

acceleration

Front 11

Weight is the ______ produced when an object (or mass) is acted upon by ______ attraction.

Back 11

force, gravitational

Front 12

g is the normal acceleration of gravity. It causes an acceleration of ______ m/s2 on all masses on or near to the surface of the earth.

Back 12

9.81

Front 13

'g' is another term given to any acceleration. A person subject to 3'g' will feel ______ times heavier than his or her normal weight.

Back 13

three

Front 14

The resistance of a moving object to being turned, slowed down or stopped is called its ______, measured by the product of its ______ x ______.

Back 14

momentum, mass x velocity

Front 15

Newton's Third Law states that for every ______ there is an equal and opposite ______.

Back 15

action, reaction

Front 16

For an object to follow a curved path, a force must be applied ______ the centre of the curve. This force is called ______ force.

Back 16

toward, centipetal

Front 17

The formula for measuring the strength of this force toward the centre of the curve is given by CFP = ______.

Back 17

Wv2/gr

Front 18

If the forces acting on an object are in equilibrium, this means that it is:

a. at rest
b. either at rest or moving with a constant velocity;
c. not accerlerating;
d. accelerating.

Back 18

c. not accelerating

Front 19

Work is done when a force moves an object through a ______.

Back 19

distance

Front 20

Power is the ______ at which work is done; i.e. Power = ______ = ______.

Back 20

rate, work done/time taken, force x distance/time

Front 21

Kinetic energy (KE) is the energy due to ______. It is measured by the formula KE = ______.

Back 21

motion, KE = 1/2mv2

Front 22

An aircraft at altitude has gravitational ______ energy, which can be converted to ______ energy and used to maintain flying ______ in a descent.

Back 22

potential, kinetic, speed

Front 23

The most common form of airframe construction is a light metal framework covered by an ______-______ skin. This is called a ______ - skin or semi - ______ construction. Other forms of construction used are ______ and, (usually for fabric covered aircraft) ______.

Back 23

aluminium-alloy, stressed, semi-monocoque, monocoque, truss

Front 24

Composite materials are typically made of ______ or ______ fibres woven as a cloth and embedded in a matrix of ______.

Back 24

glass, carbon, resin

Front 25

The main advantages of using composites is that they offer high ______ for reduced ______, and better resistance to ______, ______, and impact ______.

Back 25

strength, weight, fatigue, corrosion, impact damage

Front 26

The major loads are carried by the ______ within the wing.

Back 26

spars

Front 27

When the pilot operates the aileron control, the ailerons on the wing move simultaneously in ______.

Back 27

opposite direction

Front 28

Fuel tanks are normally located in the ______.

Back 28

wings

Front 29

When in flight, the wings are subjected to an ______ bending force.

Back 29

upward

Front 30

Flaps are normally installed on the ______ trailing edge of the wing.

Back 30

inner

Front 31

During pre-flight of a stressed - skin airframe, any unusual buckling of the skin, or distortion or twisting of components of the airframe ______ be assessed by a qualified person before proceeding.

Back 31

must

Front 32

With composite structures, then most common form of failure is ______. This is ______ to detect.

Back 32

delamination, difficult

Front 33

When picketing an aeroplane, manila tie down ropes must be ______. Nylon ropes can be tied more firmly since they are ______ elastic and will not ______ when wet.

Back 33

loose, more, shrink

Front 34

The horizontally-opposed piston engine has its cylinders arranged ______ the crankshaft.

Back 34

on each side of

Front 35

The reciprocating piston engine burns a mixture of ______ and ______ in the combustion chambers.

Back 35

fuel and air

Front 36

The power generated in the engine is transmitted to the propeller by the rotating engine crankshaft, and the propeller produces a ______ force.

Back 36

thrust

Front 37

Each combustion chamber is formed by the walls of a ______ and the top of a ______ which moves up and down inside it.

Back 37

cylinder, piston

Front 38

The chemical energy in the fuel is converted to ______ energy burning then to ______ energy by the action of the piston, connecting rod and crankshaft.

Back 38

heat, mechanical

Front 39

Name the four strokes of the four-stroke cycle.

Back 39

induction (or intake)
compression
power
exhaust

Front 40

In a fixed pitch propeller aeroplane, the power output of the engine is generally indicated to the pilot by the ______ ______.

Back 40

RPM gauge or tachometer

Front 41

One complete four-stroke cycle requires ______ revolutions of the crankshaft.

Back 41

two

Front 42

During the induction stroke, the inlet valve is ______.

Back 42

open

Front 43

During the exhaust stroke, the exhaust valve is ______.

Back 43

open

Front 44

High-energy electrical sparks provided by the ______ ______ in the cylinders ignite the fuel/air mixture at the correct time.

Back 44

spark plugs

Front 45

Most aeroplanes have an engine with a ______ ignition system, with ______ magnetos attached to the engine and ______ spark plugs per cylinder.

Back 45

dual, two, two

Front 46

A dual ignition system ______ safer is the event of the failure of one system.

Back 46

is safer

Front 47

The high-voltage current provided for the spark plugs comes from two engine-driven ______.

Back 47

magnetos

Front 48

Most modern engines are started by:

(a) turning the propeller by hand
(b) using an electric strarter motor to turn the engine over.
(c) using an electric starter to provide a spark.

Back 48

using an electric starter motor

Front 49

During the starting process using an electric starter motor which turns the engine over only slowly, an impulse coupling will be used automatically to generate a sufficiently high voltage to provide high-energy ______ from the spark plugs in the cylinders.

Back 49

sparks

Front 50

An aircraft engine ______ run on just one magneto system.

Back 50

will

Front 51

Name the five positions of a typical starter/ignition switch in a modern cockpit.

Back 51

OFF
RIGHT
LEFT
BOTH
START

Front 52

On turning the ignition key to the START position, the ______ supplies the electrical power to the starter motor to turn the engine over.

Back 52

battery

Front 53

Once the engines starts, the ignition key is returned to the BOTH position, and the high-voltage energy for the sparks is produced by ______ magneto(s).

Back 53

both

Front 54

With BOTH selected on the ignition switch once the engine is started, there will be ______ active spark plug(s) per cylinder.

Back 54

two

Front 55

The combustion process is more efficient and produces more power with ______ active spark plugs per cylinder.

Back 55

two

Front 56

If you move the ignition switch from BOTH to either L or R, you can expect a slight ______ in engine RPM due to ______ efficient burning in the cylinders. This effect is attributed to the fact that there is ______ spark plug(s) per cylinder.

Back 56

fall, less one

Front 57

If you move the ignition switch from BOTH to L and there is no slight drop in engine RPM, name two possible causes.

Back 57

either;

(1) the right side is still supplying a spark through some fault in the system, even though it is switched off

(2) it was not supplying a spark in the first place through some fault, so that switching it off will not cause any change.

Front 58

The carburettor is designed to mix ______ with ______ in the correct ratio prior to delivery to the engine cylinders for combustion.

Back 58

Fuel, air

Front 59

The ratio of fuel and air can be varied by adjusting the ______ control in the cockpit.

Back 59

mixture

Front 60

The amount of fuel-air mixture entering the cylinders is controlled by moving the ______.

Back 60

throttle

Front 61

The mixture control is usually set to the ______ ______ position for take-off.

Back 61

full rich

Front 62

An excessively rich mixture has too much ______.

Back 62

fuel

Front 63

As altitude is gained, air density ______, and so the fuel/air mixture will gradually become too ______.

Back 63

decreases, rich

Front 64

As you move the mixture control slightly toward LEAN to improve the fuel/air mixture at altitude, you should notice an ______ in rpm.

Back 64

increase

Front 65

If you lean the mixture too far, the RPM will ______.

Back 65

decrease

Front 66

An exhaust gas temperature (EGT) gauge ______ assist you in leaning the mixture correctly.

Back 66

can

Front 67

An excessively lean mixture ______ cause detonation and possibly damage the engine.

Back 67

can

Front 68

An excessively rich mixture ______ lead to a loss of power.

Back 68

can

Front 69

An excessively rich mixture ______ lead to rough running.

Back 69

can

Front 70

An excessively rich mixture ______ lead to spark plug fouling.

Back 70

can

Front 71

A rich mixture ______ lead to greater cooling in the cylinders.

Back 71

does

Front 72

A lean mixture will lead to ______ engine temperatures than a rich mixture.

Back 72

higher

Front 73

Explosive combustion instead of steady burning in the cylinders is potentially destructive and is known as ______.

Back 73

detonation

Front 74

Detonation may be caused by an ______ mixture at high power settings.

Back 74

over-lean

Front 75

Detonation may be caused by an excessively ______ temperature of the air passing through the carburettor.

Back 75

high

Front 76

If you are operating the engine in lean mixture and you notice a very high cylinder head temperature indicated on the CHT gauge in your aircraft. You should ______ the mixture.

Back 76

enrich

Front 77

The expansion of air passing through the carburettor causes it to ______.

Back 77

cool

Front 78

On warm days, with humid air, there ______ a danger of carburettor ice forming.

Back 78

is

Front 79

The ice which can form on the throttle valve in the carburettor due to the expansion and cooling of the air is known as ______ ice.

Back 79

throttle

Front 80

As the fuel is introduced into the airstream in the carburettor, it vaporizes, causing ______.

Back 80

cooling

Front 81

Ice that forms downstream of the fuel metering jet in the throat of the carburettor due to the cooling effect of fuel vapourization is known as ______ icing.

Back 81

refrigeration

Front 82

Refrigeration ice can form in the carburettor on warm days, say up to 25°C, if the relative humidity is high. (True/False)?

Back 82

true

Front 83

Supercooled water droplets (below freezing point) in the air entering the engine intake may form ______ ice on the metal surfaces of the engine intake and ducts.

Back 83

impact

Front 84

Impact ice will only form on cold days when the aircraft is flying in visible moisture. (True/False)?

Back 84

True

Front 85

Indications of carburettor ice in an aircraft fitted with a fixed-pitch propeller could be a ______ in RPM and ______ running.

Back 85

drop, rough

Front 86

To combat carburettor ice or remove it, you should initially apply ______ carburettor heat.

Back 86

full

Front 87

When carburettor heat is applied, the warmer inlet air may cause an initial ______ in RPM.

Back 87

fall

Front 88

If there is no initial fall in RPM, when carburettor heat is initially applied, it ______ working.

Back 88

is not

Front 89

As the carburettor heat melts the ice, and the mixture ratio provided by the carburettor improves, you would expect to see a ______ in RPM.

Back 89

rise

Front 90

You notice an RPM reading lower than desired, and so apply more power with the throttle. Ten seconds later you need to do the same again. Eventually the throttle is fully open, and still the rpm is lower than desired. What would you suspect as the cause, and what remedial action would you take?

Back 90

carburettor ice, apply full carburettor heat (be ready to throttle back as ice clears)

Front 91

What do you think could be the end result in the above case if the correct action is not taken?

Back 91

complete engine stoppage

Front 92

Some more-sophisticated piston engines used in aircraft have a ______ ______ temperature gauge so that you can monitor the air temperature in the carburettor and keep it in a range where ice will not form.

Back 92

carburettor air

Front 93

A fuel-injected engine ______ a carburettor.

Back 93

does not have

Front 94

Fuel-injected engines ______ subject to fuel vaporization ice problems.

Back 94

are not

Front 95

Which of the following statements are correct. Compared to engines with a carburettor, a fuel-injected engine

(a) is less subject to icing problems.

(b) provides a more uniform delivery of the fuel/air mixture to each cylinder.

(c) is more efficient.

(d) is more responsive to throttle movements.

(e) is always easier to start.

Back 95

a, b, c, d are true. e is false, as fuel-injected engines may be more difficult to start when hot

Front 96

If impact ice forms on the air inlet of a fuel-injected engine, the pilot may select ______.

Back 96

alternate air

Front 97

It is possible for ______ ______ (CO) to enter the cabin of an aircraft either if the exhaust system is not perfectly sealed, or if exhaust fumes are otherwise drawn in from outside. The danger is that CO is a very ______ gas and if breathed even in ______ concentrations, can affect judgement and lead to ______ or even ______.

Back 97

carbon monoxide, noxious, low, unconciousness, death

Front 98

CO is a ______ less and ______ less gas, and is therefore difficult to see or to smell. It is now mandatory to fit CO indicators in aircraft cabins fitted with an ______ ______ heater, or a cabin heater which relies on ______ for heating.

Back 98

odourless, colourless, exhaust manifold, combustion

Front 99

The pilot should check the CO indicator (or detector) during pre-flight for two things. What are they? That it is ______ ______ and has not ______ ______.

Back 99

in date, changed colour

Front 100

There ______ be some fuel in the bottom of the tanks that is unusable.

Back 100

will

Front 101

The fuel tanks of most aircraft are situated in the ______.

Back 101

wings

Front 102

Many high-wing aircraft ______ have a gravity-feed fuel system.

Back 102

do

Front 103

A low wing aircraft ______ have a gravity-feed fuel system.

Back 103

will not

Front 104

Correct functioning of a fuel pump can be monitored in the cockpit on a ______ ______ gauge.

Back 104

fuel pressure

Front 105

An adequate supply of fuel is provided to the engine of a low-wing aircraft by its ______ ______.

Back 105

fuel pump

Front 106

Some aircraft are fitted with an auxiliary electric fuel pump, also known as a ______ pump.

Back 106

boost

Front 107

To prevent excessive high or low pressures forming in the space above the fuel in the fuel tanks, each tank will be connected to the outside atmosphere by at least one fuel tank ______.

Back 107

vent

Front 108

Fuel management ______ a top-priority item for a pilot.

Back 108

is

Front 109

You are flying an aircraft that has an engine-driven fuel pump and an auxiliary electrically powered fuel boost pump. You notice an abnormally low fuel pressure reading on the fuel pressure gauge during the cruise. What two actions should you take?

Back 109

(1) check that you have selected a tank with fuel in it, and (2) switch the auxiliary boost pump on

Front 110

You ______ run a fuel tank dry in flight before switching tanks.

Back 110

should not

Front 111

100LL fuel is colour- coded ______, 100/130 is coloured ______.

Back 111

blue, green

Front 112

List three possible sources of fuel contamination.

Back 112

water, rust, dust, sand, micro-organisms

Front 113

Water is ______ dense than AVGAS, and so will gather at the ______ of the fuel tanks.

Back 113

more, bottom

Front 114

There ______ be regular checks for water contamination in the fuel tanks.

Back 114

should

Front 115

You can minimize water condensation in the fuel tanks on cool nights by having the tanks ______.

Back 115

full

Front 116

If a fuel tank cap is left off, the fuel ______ siphon out very rapidly in flight due to the ______ pressure over the wings.

Back 116

may, low

Front 117

State the three main functions of the engine oil system.

Back 117

lubrication,

cooling,

cleaning

Front 118

An engine running without oil is likely to ______ up or suffer a complex _____ failure after a very short time.

Back 118

seize, mechanical

Front 119

Oil absorbs heat from hot parts of the engine, and this heat is dissipated when the oil passes through an ______ ______ which is exposed to the airflow.

Back 119

oil cooler

Front 120

Much of the foreign matter picked up by the oil is removed by the ______ ______.

Back 120

oil filter

Front 121

Oil flows more easily when it is ______. However oil must not be allowed to overheat because it will have ______ effectiveness as a lubricant.

Back 121

hot, reduced

Front 122

Over time and use in an engine, the ______ composition of oil is altered, necessitating periodic oil changes.

Back 122

chemical

Front 123

It ______ important that the correct type and grade of oil is used for replenishment.

Back 123

is

Front 124

Low or fluctuating oil pressure associated with high oil temperature ______ indicate a loss of oil and impending engine failure.

Back 124

could

Front 125

If the engine is gradually losing oil, you would expect to see a gradually ______ oil temperature.

Back 125

rising

Front 126

If you suspect a problem concerning engine oil, ______.

Back 126

plan to land as soon as practical

Front 127

Most light piston aero-engines are ______ cooled.

Back 127

air

Front 128

The main conditions which lead to the engine overheating are ______ power and ______ airspeed.

Back 128

high, low

Front 129

Some air-cooled aircraft are fitted with a ______ gauge which gives a direct indication of how well the cooling system is functioning.

Back 129

cylinder head temperature (CHT)

Front 130

The main advantages of liquid cooling are: more ______ and ______ cooling of the cylinders and cylinder heads; ______ cylinder head temperatures allowing ______ compression ratios to be used; and less ______ drag.

Back 130

even, steady lower, higher cooling

Front 131

The main disadvantages of liquid cooling are ______ and ______ of the system.

Back 131

weight, complexity

Front 132

Ethylene glycol is often mixed with water and used in an aircraft coolant system because it provides better heat ______ characteristics and a ______ boiling point than water alone.

Back 132

transfer, higher

Front 133

Prior to starting the engine on the ground, the parking brake should be ______.

Back 133

on

Front 134

Once the engine has been started, the ______ ______ becomes a serious hazard.

Back 134

rotating propeller

Front 135

A cold engine on a cold day will require the ______ amount of priming in the recommended range.

Back 135

maximum

Front 136

A hot engine on a hot day will require ______ or ______ priming.

Back 136

little, no

Front 137

Following an engine start in a moderate ambient air temperature, the oil pressure gauge should be checked for an oil pressure rise within about ______, to ensure adequate lubrication and cooling.

Back 137

30

Front 138

Engine power changes should be made by moving the throttle ______.

Back 138

smoothly

Front 139

State the three basic requirements of a piston engine if it is to continue running reliably when flying.

Back 139

fuel, ignition, good mechanical condition

Front 140

If your engine develops a moderate vibration which is clearly not due to incorrect mixture, carburettor ice, or plug fouling, what should you do?

Back 140

land as soon as possible

Front 141

A radial engine crankshaft has ______ crank(s) for each row of cylinders.

Back 141

one

Front 142

Like the four-stroke in-line engine, a radial crankshaft mus make ______ revolutions for each cylinder to complete a full cycle.

Back 142

two

Front 143

The pushrods for the valves are actuated by a cam ______ which rotates at ______ engine speed.

Back 143

ring, half

Front 144

The power/weight ratio of a radial engine is likely to be ______ than for a comparable in-line engine.

Back 144

higher

Front 145

The drag from an in-line engine installation is likely to be ______ than for a radial engine of comparable size.

Back 145

lower

Front 146

In a two-stroke engine, the fuel-air mixture entering the cylinder(s) must first be inducted into the ______.

Back 146

crankcase

Front 147

The crankshaft makes ______ revolution(s) for each complete cycle.

Back 147

one

Front 148

The pressurised fuel-air mixture in the crankcase enter the cylinder(s) via an inlet ______.

Back 148

port

Front 149

The lubricating oil must be mixed with the ______.

Back 149

fuel

Front 150

Two-stroke engines are likely to have a ______ power/weight ratio than a four stroke engine of the same size.

Back 150

higher

Front 151

Two-stroke engines produce ______ power per litre of fuel used than a four-stroke engine.

Back 151

less

Front 152

The main differences between gasoline engines an diesel engines, are that the latter:
(a) burns a light fuel ______ similar to kerosene, rather than gasoline;
(b) uses ______ ignition, where the fuel ignites when it is ______ directly into the ______ toward the end of the compression stroke.

Back 152

(a) oil
(b) compression, injected, combustion chamber

Front 153

As there is no carburettor, a diesel engine does not have a ______ valve. RPM and power output are controlled by varying the amount of ______ being injected into the engine. This is done through a ______ control lever, similar to the ______ control lever of the gasoline engine.

Back 153

throttle, fuel, power, throttle

Front 154

Diesel engines generally must have a ______ cooling system which makes them ______ than an equivalent air-cooled gasoline engine counterpart.

Back 154

liquid, heavier

Front 155

For engines of the same power output, a diesel will have ______ specific fuel consumption than a gasoline engine.

Back 155

better

Front 156

The two types of compressor commonly used in a turbojet are the axial and the ______.

Back 156

centrifugal

Front 157

Aviation turbine fuel (AVTUR) is a type of ______.

Back 157

kerosene

Front 158

The compressor in a turbojet is driven by a ______ which is in turn powered by the stream of hot gases passing from the combustion chamber(s) to atmosphere via the jet pipe.

Back 158

turbine

Front 159

The thrust produced by a turbojet (pure jet) is proportional to the mass of the ______ in the jet efflux and the square of its velocity.

Back 159

gas

Front 160

The greatest proportion of the forward thrust produced by a turboprop is produced by the ______.

Back 160

propeller

Front 161

Turboprop engines produce thrust more efficiently at speeds ______ about 300 knots.

Back 161

below

Front 162

Turbojet engines produce thrust more efficiently at speeds ______ about 300 knots.

Back 162

above

Front 163

When the engine is running, the main source of electrical power is the ______.

Back 163

alternator

Front 164

If the alternator fails in flight, the emergency source of electrical power is the ______.

Back 164

battery

Front 165

Electrical power to turn the engine over when starting is provided by an electrical starter motor powered by the ______.

Back 165

battery

Front 166

When the engine is running, the battery should be recharged by current supplied by the ______.

Back 166

alternator (or generator)

Front 167

The amount of electrical current flowing (or amperage) is indicated on the ______.

Back 167

ammeter

Front 168

A left-zero ammeter indicates output of the alternator. If it indicates zero, then it probably means:

(a) alternator failure;

(b) fully charged battery;

(c) completely flat battery.

Back 168

alternator failure

Front 169

A centre-zero ammeter measures current flow into and out of the battery. During start, you would it to indicate that the battery is ______ and immediately after start to indicate that the battery is ______.

Back 169

discharging, charging

Front 170

If the battery is flat, the engine ______ turn over during the start-up.

Back 170

may not

Front 171

The alternator can usually by switched off using:

(a) the battery switch
(b) one half of the master switch
(c) the ignition switch

Back 171

one half of the master switch

Front 172

The main conductor of the electrical system, which distributes electrical power to the various electrical services, is known as the ______ ______.

Back 172

bus bar

Front 173

Electrical circuits are usually protected by either a ______ breaker or a ______.

Back 173

circuit, fuse

Front 174

A popped circuit breaker should not normally be reset more than ______ time(s).

Back 174

one

Front 175

A fuse wire should not be replaced more than ______ time(s), and then ______ with fuse wire of a higher rating.

Back 175

one, never

Front 176

Which of the following instruments are pressure-operated instruments? Airspeed indicator, altitude indicator, altimeter, turn coordinator,coordination ball, heading indicator, vertical speed indicator.

Back 176

airspeed indicator,

altimeter,

vertical speed indicator

Front 177

Static pressure ______ with altitude.

Back 177

decreases

Front 178

Dynamic pressure ______ with airspeed.

Back 178

increases

Front 179

The total pressure, which consists of static pressure plus dynamic pressure, is measured by the ______.

Back 179

pitot tube

Front 180

The airspeed indicator uses readings from:

(a) the pitot tube only.

(b) the static vent only.

(c) both the pitot tube and the static vent.

Back 180

(c) both the pitot tube and the static vent

Front 181

All markings on the basic airspeed indicator relate to ______ airspeed.

Back 181

indicated

Front 182

The greater the difference between the total pressure from the pitot tube and the static pressure from the static vent, the ______ the indicated airspeed.

Back 182

greater

Front 183

If an aircraft is descending and the static vent ices over, the trapped static pressure will be too ______ as the aircraft continues to descend. The difference between the pitot pressure and the trapped static pressure will be ______ than it should be, and so the airspeed indicator will show an airspeed ______ than it should.

Back 183

low, higher, greater

Front 184

If you commence a take-off with a completely blocked pitot tube, the airspeed indicator will show a ______ reading.

Back 184

steady

Front 185

The altimeter uses pressure information from:

(a) the static vent only.

(b) the pitot tube only.

(c) the pitot tube and the static vent.

Back 185

(a) the static vent only

Front 186

The unit of pressure is the ______, abbreviated by the letters ______.

Back 186

hectopascal, hPa

Front 187

For the altimeter to indicate the correct altitude, you ______ ensure that the current sea level air pressure is set on the subscale.

Back 187

must

Front 188

The current sea level air pressure is known as ______.

Back 188

the QNH

Front 189

If by mistake, the setting on the subscale of the altimeter is less than the actual MSL pressure, then the altimeter will indicate that the aircraft is ______ than in fact it is.

Back 189

lower

Front 190

If by mistake, the setting on the subscale of the altimeter is higher than the actual MSL pressure, then the altimeter will indicate that the aircraft is ______ than it in fact is.

Back 190

higher

Front 191

If the static vent becomes blocked during a descent, the altimeter will:

(a) read correctlty;
(b) not change its reading;
(c) read too low.

Back 191

(b) not charge its reading

Front 192

The vertical speed indicator is a ______ instrument.

Back 192

pressure

Front 193

The VSI measures the rate of change of ______ pressure as an aircraft climbs or descends.

Back 193

static

Front 194

If the static vent ices over or becomes blocked, then the VSI will indicate _____.

Back 194

zero

Front 195

The alternate static source, if used, takes static pressure from inside the cockpit and this is usually ______ than the outside static pressure.

Back 195

slightly lower

Front 196

After switching to the alternate static source, both the altimeter and the airspeed indicator will read ______.

Back 196

slightly higher

Front 197

A gyroscope that is spinning at high speed ______ to maintain a stable alignment in space.

Back 197

tries

Front 198

Which of the following are gyroscopic instruments: airspeed indicator, altitude indicator, altimeter, turn coordinator, coordination ball, heading indicator, vertical speed indicator.

Back 198

attitude indicator, turn coordinator, heading indicator

Front 199

The markings on a turn coordinator show a standard-rate of turn of ______° per second, therefore one 360° turn will take ______ minutes.

Back 199

3°, two minutes

Front 200

The coordination ball, often combined with the turn coordinator, _____ a gyroscopic instrument.

Back 200

is not

Front 201

The altitude indicator ______ a gyroscopic instrument. Which of the following does it indicate: pitch attitude, bank angle, rate of turn, rate of descent?

Back 201

is, pitch attitude, bank angle

Front 202

If you exceed stated pitch and bank limits for an attitude indicator, it ______ topple and give erroneous readings.

Back 202

may

Front 203

The heading indicator ______ a gyroscopic instrument. It ______ align itself automatically with magnetic north.

Back 203

is, does not

Front 204

The heading indicator (HI) ______ be manually aligned with the magnetic compass periodically. The HI ______ easier to use to keep on accurate headings than the magnetic compass.

Back 204

must, is

Front 205

Some gyroscopic instruments are driven ______, and some are driven by a ______ or ______ source.

Back 205

electrically, suction or vacuum

Front 206

The heading indicator (HI) ______ be aligned with the magnetic compass only when the aircraft is in steady straight and level flight.

Back 206

must

Front 207

The meridians of longitude on charts run between the ______ poles.

Back 207

true

Front 208

A magnetic compass will try to align itself with ______ north.

Back 208

magnetic

Front 209

The angular difference between a meridian of longitude, which runs towards true north, and the direction in which a compass tries to align itself, i.e. magnetic north, is called ______ ______.

Back 209

magnetic variation

Front 210

If a magnetic compass aligns itself in a direction 10° east of true north, then the magnetic variation is ______° ______.

Back 210

10°E

Front 211

If a magnetic compass aligns itself in a direction 5° west of true north, then the magnetic variation is ______° ______.

Back 211

5°W

Front 212

A line on a chart that joins places of equal variation is known as an ______.

Back 212

isogonal

Front 213

The line joining all places having 7° east variation is known as the ______° ______ ______.

Back 213

7°E isogonal

Front 214

The compass installed in an aircraft is affected by other magnetic fields as well as the magnetic field of the earth. It may therefore be deflected from pointing directly at magnetic north, the amount of this deflection being called ______.

Back 214

deviation

Front 215

Because of the effect of other magnetic fields, the compass card in an aircraft ______ always align itself exactly with magnetic north.

Back 215

will not

Front 216

The purpose of a magnetic compass is to indicate the ______ of an aircraft, i.e. the direction in which it is pointing.

Back 216

heading

Front 217

If a compass magnet is suspended from its CG, dip ______ cause the south-seeking pole to be tilted downward at moderate southerly latitudes.

Back 217

will

Front 218

If an aircraft accelerates on______ headings, the CG of the magnetic compass system will lag behind and cause an error in indication.

Back 218

easterly/westerly

Front 219

Remembering the acronym ONUS, when using the magnetic compass:

(a) to turn to a northerly heading, you should turn ______ the desired heading before rolling the wings level.
(b) to turn on to a southerly heading, you should turn ______ the desired heading before rolling the wings level.

Back 219

(a) past
(b) short of

Front 220

EFIS stands for ______ ______ ______ ______ commonly known as ______ cockpits.

Back 220

Electronic Flight Information Systems, glass

Front 221

A light aircraft EFIS is likely to have two main graphics display units. These are called the ______ ______ ______ and the ______ ______ ______ or 'NAV' display.

Back 221

primary flight display multi-function display

Front 222

Control of these displays and input of data is through the use of ______ ______ and ______ located in the periphery of the display.

Back 222

rotating knobs, keys

Front 223

Between each display there will sometimes be an ______ control unit.

Back 223

avionics

Front 224

Central on the PFD is a heading indicator with a ______ situation indicator below. On either side there are strip displays of ______, ______, and ______ speed.

Back 224

horizontal, airspeed, altitude, vertical speed

Front 225

The MFD may have engine indications on its left/right hand side. It will normally be used in the ______ mode.

Back 225

left, navigation

Front 226

An EFIS uses _____ inputs. Where these are unavailable, the signals from sensors must be ______ by special units.

Back 226

digital, converted

Front 227

An air data computer processes ______ and _____ pressures, and TAT (or OAT) and calculates altitude, ______ airspeed, ______ airspeed, vertical airspeed, total and static ______ and if required _____ number.

Back 227

static, pitot, calibrated, true, air temperature, Mach

Front 228

An AHRS is a ______-state, ______-axis system which provides the following information ______, ______ and ______. The unit and sensors within it are rigidly fixed to the aircraft and it is therefore called a _____ system.

Back 228

solid, three, heading, attitude, yaw, strapdown

Front 229

A magnetometer is any device which senses the ______ ______ ______. It includes the direct reading ______.

Back 229

earth's magnetic field, compass

Front 230

Each satellite repeatedly sends a unique ______ - ______ coded signal every millisecond. The range of each satellite is determined by measuring the ______ between transmission and ______ of this signal, and multiplying this with the ______ of ______ in free space.

Back 230

pseudo-random, time, reception, speed of light

Front 231

The position of each satellite in view is known from the ______ database, which is updated by the ______ message from each satellite.

Back 231

almanac, navigation

Front 232

To obtain a fix on the earth's surface, the range from ______ satellites must be known. To obtain a fix in space (i.e. at altitude) the range from ______ satellites is required.

Back 232

three, four

Front 233

In normal operation, the ELT must be left in the ______ mode. ON must only be selected in an ______, and OFF should only be selected when the unit is ______ ______ ______.

Back 233

ARM or ARMED, emergency, removed for servicing

Front 234

Air density is a measure of the total _____ of molecules in a given volume.

Back 234

mass

Front 235

Air density, which is vital to aerodynamic and engine performance, is difficult to measure directly. Fortunately, there are two other properties of the air which give a good indication of air density and are easy to measure. They are _____ and _____.

Back 235

pressure, temperature

Front 236

In aviation, atmospheric pressure is normally measured in ______ and abbreviated to ______.

Back 236

hectopascals, hPa

Front 237

If atmospheric temperature is normal, but the pressure is high, you would expect the air density to be ______ than normal.

Back 237

higher

Front 238

If atmospheric pressure was about normal, but temperatures were high, you would expect the air density to be ______than normal.

Back 238

lower

Front 239

The international Standard Atmosphere (ISA) sea level:

(a) pressure is ______ hPa.;

(b) temperature is ______ C

Back 239

(a) 1013.2 hPa
(b) +15°C

Front 240

ISA conditions assume:

(a) a pressure lapse rate of ______ hPa for every ______ ft gain in altitude form sea-level up to about 5,000 ft.
(b) a uniform temperature lapse rate of ______°C (or approximately ______°C) per 1,000 ft up to the tropopause which is assumed to be at about ______ feet.

Back 240

(a) one, 30
(b) 1.98 (or 2), 36,000

Front 241

Atmospheric air density reduces at:

(a) a steady rate up the tropopause;
(b) a rapid rate initially, and then at a reducing rate as altitude is gained;
(c) a rate which is solely dependant on pressure.

Back 241

(b)

Front 242

By comparison with ISA conditions, which are used to rate aerodynamic and engine performance:

(a) a high temperature will indicate ______ density, and therefore _______ performance.
(b) a low temperature will indicate ______ density, and therefore ______ performance.
(c) a high pressure will indicate ______ density, and therefore ______ performance.
(d) a low pressure will indicate ______ density, and therefore ______ performance.

Back 242

(a) low, poorer
(b) high, better
(c) high, better
(d) low, poorer

Front 243

The best density (and therefore performance) conditions are those with a ______ pressure and ______ temperature.

Back 243

high, low

Front 244

The worst density and therefore performance conditions are those with a ______ pressure and ______ temperature.

Back 244

low, high

Front 245

Density Altitude is the altitude in the ______ which has the same density as the actual altitude.

Back 245

ISA

Front 246

Two locations have the same atmospheric temperature and pressure. At one, however, the air is very dry, while at the other, humidity is high. Aircraft performance will be better at the ______ location.

Back 246

dry

Front 247

Airflow past an aerofoil such as the wing of an aeroplane can produce an ______ force.

Back 247

aerodynamic

Front 248

A steady flow of air molecules around the aerofoil, with succeeding molecules following the same path, is called ______ flow.

Back 248

streamline

Front 249

A disturbed flow with eddying is called ______ flow.

Back 249

turbulent

Front 250

If the velocity of the airflow over the upper surface of the wing increases, then the static pressure will ______.

Back 250

decrease

Front 251

In normal flight, the static pressure over the top surface of a well-cambered wing is ______ the static pressure beneath the wing.

Back 251

less than

Front 252

The angle between the chord line of an aerofoil and the direction of the relative airflow well ahead of the aerofoil is called the ______ of ______.

Back 252

angle of attack

Front 253

If the angle of attack is increased gradually, the lifting ability of the wing ______.

Back 253

increases

Front 254

At a critical angle of attack, known as the stalling angle, the streamline airflow breaks down and becomes turbulent and the lifting ability of the wing ______.

Back 254

decreases

Front 255

If the pilot increases the angle of attack so that the lifting ability of the wing is increased, the same lift force can be generated by the wing at a ______ velocity.

Back 255

lower

Front 256

An increased airflow over an aerofoil at the same angle of attack will cause ______ lift.

Back 256

more

Front 257

Increasing angle of attack at a constant airspeed will cause ______ lift.

Back 257

more

Front 258

Lowering flaps has the effect of increasing the camber of a wing. This will ______ its lifting ability (CL).

Back 258

increase

Front 259

Lowering the flaps and not lowering the nose of the aeroplane will cause ______ lift.

Back 259

more

Front 260

With the flaps lowered, the wing ______ produce the same lift at a lower airspeed.

Back 260

can

Front 261

A wing ______ its maximum lifting ability (CL) when the angle of attack is just at the critical angle, which is typically ______°.

Back 261

has, 16°

Front 262

When a wing is taken beyond its critical angle of attack, typically ______°, the airflow becomes ______, the lift force ______, and the wing is said to have ______.

Back 262

16°, turbulent, decreases, stalled

Front 263

Ice or other contamination on a wing surface ______ disturb the streamline airflow and cause a drastic reduction in lift.

Back 263

may

Front 264

The most important area of the wing for lift production is the;

(a) bottom surface.
(b) upper surface behind the leading edge.
(c) upper surface near the trailing edge.

Back 264

(b) upper surface behind the leading edge

Front 265

Drag ______ motion through the air.

Back 265

opposes

Front 266

The force used to overcome the drag in straight and level cruising flight is the ______ produced by the engine/propeller combination.

Back 266

thrust

Front 267

If drag can be kept low, then ______ can be kept low.

Back 267

thrust

Front 268

Total drag is the sum total of the various forces acting on the aeroplane which act ______ and ______ the direction of flight.

Back 268

parallel to, opposite to

Front 269

Total drag can be considered in two basic groups:

(1) that drag which comes about in the generation of lift, known as ______ drag , and

(2) that drag which is NOT associated with the production of lift, known as ______ drag.

Back 269

(1) induced
(2) parasite

Front 270

Parasite drag consists of ______ ______, ______ ______ and ______ drag.

Back 270

skin friction, form drag and interference drag

Front 271

Streamlining of shape reduces ______ ______.

Back 271

form drag

Front 272

The additional turbulence caused by interference between various airflows around the aeroplane is called ______ ______.

Back 272

interference drag

Front 273

As the aeroplane flies faster, parasite drag ______.

Back 273

increases

Front 274

The drag produced as a by-product in the generation of lift is called ______.

Back 274

induced drag

Front 275

For a wing to produce an upwards lift, the static pressure on the upper surface must be ______ than the lower surface.

Back 275

lower

Front 276

Air flows around the wingtips from the higher pressure area on the ______ surface of the wing into the area of lower pressure. This forms wingtip ______.

Back 276

lower, vortices

Front 277

The formation of wingtip vortices and induced drag is greatest at ______ angles of attack.

Back 277

high

Front 278

High angles of attack are associated with ______ airspeeds in straight-and-level flight.

Back 278

low

Front 279

Induced drag is greatest at high angles of attack and ______ airspeeds in straight-and-level flight.

Back 279

low

Front 280

Induced drag increases at ______ airspeeds.

Back 280

low

Front 281

Parasite drag increases at ______ speeds.

Back 281

high

Front 282

The total drag is at a minimum at ______.

Back 282

at a speed where the parasite drag and induced drag are equal

Front 283

At the minimum total drag speed, the propeller has only to provide minimum ______.

Back 283

thrust

Front 284

At low airspeeds and high angles of attack, because of the greater ______ drag, the thrust must be ______.

Back 284

induced, greater

Front 285

At high airspeeds and low angles of attack, because of the greater ______ drag, the thrust requirement is ______.

Back 285

parasite, greater

Front 286

In the normal flight range, an increased airflow over an aerofoil at he same angle of attack will cause ______ lift and ______ drag.

Back 286

more, more

Front 287

In the normal flight range, increasing angle of attack at a constant airspeed will cause ______ lift and ______ drag.

Back 287

more, more

Front 288

If you require 1,200 units of lift to support the aeroplane, and the drag is 100 units, then the L/D ratio is ______.

Back 288

12:1

Front 289

At high angles of attack, total drag is high due to ______ ______. For 1,200 units of lift, the cost might be 240 units of drag. The L/D ratio is ______.

Back 289

induced drag, 5:1

Front 290

At low angles of attack and high speeds, the total drag is high due to ______ drag. If the required 1,200 units of lift is generated at a cost of 200 units, the L/D ratio is ______.

Back 290

parasite, 6:1

Front 291

If say at 4° angle of attack where the total drag is a minimum for the particular aerofoil we are considering, the 1,200 units of lift is obtained for a cost of only 80 units drag, then the L/D ratio is ______.

Back 291

15:1

Front 292

The angle of attack that gives the best L/D ratio is the _____ efficient angle of attack.

Back 292

most

Front 293

If you fly at the airspeed obtained at the best L/D ratio , then the required lift is obtained for the ______ drag.

Back 293

minimum

Front 294

To achieve the maximum gliding range, you should fly the aeroplane at the speed for;

(a) maximum L/D ratio

(b) minimum L/D ratio

(c) maximum lift

Back 294

(a) maximum L/D ratio

Front 295

The most efficient angle of attack is usually about ______°.

Back 295

4°

Front 296

The primary control is pitch is provided by the ______.

Back 296

elevator

Front 297

Nose movement up and down is in the pitching plane. It involves angular movement of the aircraft around its centre of gravity (CG) and the ______ axis.

Back 297

lateral

Front 298

To raise the nose, the pilot exerts backward pressure on the control wheel/control column. The elevator moves so that the tail of the aircraft goes ______.

Back 298

down

Front 299

The primary control in roll is by the ______.

Back 299

ailerons

Front 300

Rolling is angular motion about the ______ axis running through the CG.

Back 300

longitudinal

Front 301

At normal flight speeds, when the control wheel is rotated to the left, the right aileron will go down, and the left aileron will ______.

Back 301

go up

Front 302

The primary effect of using aileron is to cause roll. The secondary effect is to cause ______.

Back 302

yaw

Front 303

The primary control in yaw is provided by the ______.

Back 303

rudder

Front 304

Yawing is about the ______ axis that passes through the CG.

Back 304

normal

Front 305

The primary effect of using rudder to cause yaw. The secondary effect is to cause ______.

Back 305

roll

Front 306

Increased airflow over control surfaces ______ their effectiveness.

Back 306

increases

Front 307

At high airspeeds, the control surfaces are ______ effective than at low airspeeds.

Back 307

more

Front 308

An effect of increasing power is to increase the slipstream over the rudder and elevators. This will ______ their effectiveness.

Back 308

increase

Front 309

The positioning of the trim ______ located on the trailing edge of a control surface is controlled from the cockpit by using the trim ______ or trim _____.

Back 309

tab, wheel, handle

Front 310

The correct method of using the elevator trim in an aircraft is to:

(a) change the attitude with elevator and/or the power with the throttle, allow the aircraft to settle down, and then use the trim to remove steady control pressure; or
(B) change the attitude with the trim; or
(c) change attitude, power and trim simultaneously.

Back 310

(a) change the attitude with elevator and/or the power with the throttle. Allow the aeroplane to settle down, and then use the trim to remove steady control pressure

Front 311

The designer may use an inset ______, A ______ balance, or a balance ______ to reduce the force required to move a control surface.

Back 311

hinge, horn, tab

Front 312

If a balance tab is fitted, it moves automatically when the control is moved and in the ______ direction as the trailing edge of the control surface.

Back 312

opposite

Front 313

An anti-balance tab is often fitted to all-moving (or slab) tailplanes. It moves in the ______ direction as the trailing edge of the tailplane.

Back 313

same

Front 314

Lowering the flaps ______ the effective camber of the wings, which ______ their lifting capability (CL) at all angles of attack.

Back 314

increases, increases

Front 315

When trailing edge flaps are lowered, the nose attitude will be ______ than at the same speed with flaps up.

Back 315

lower

Front 316

In a low-wing aircraft, you should generally expect the nose to ______ when the flaps are lowered.

Back 316

pitch down

Front 317

When raising the flaps, the aircraft has a tendency to ______.

Back 317

sink

Front 318

In a'go around' from an approach with full flap lowered, the flaps should not be raised until a height of about ______ ft above ground level is reached, and then they should be raised ______.

Back 318

200 ft, slowly

Front 319

The four main forces acting on an aircraft in flight are ______, ______, ______, and ______.

Back 319

lift, weight, thrust, drag

Front 320

In straight-and-level flight at a constant airspeed, the aircraft is in equilibrium, with the weight counteracted by the ______, and the drag counteracted by the ______.

Back 320

lift, thrust

Front 321

To accelerate an aircraft in level flight:

(a) thrust must exceed drag.

(b) thrust must equal drag.

(c) drag must equal thrust.

(d) thrust must equal weight.

Back 321

(a) thrust must exceed drag

Front 322

Complete the following phrase:" power plus attitude equals ______".

Back 322

performance

Front 323

To fly faster but remain in level flight the nose attitude must be progressively ______ at the same time as power is applied.

Back 323

lowered

Front 324

As airspeed increases in level flight, drag builds up until it is equal with the ______ and the forces will return to a new state of equilibrium.

Back 324

thrust

Front 325

After an increase of speed in level flight, the nose attitude will be ______ than previously.

Back 325

lower

Front 326

To decelerate an aircraft in level flight:

(a) thrust must exceed drag.

(b) thrust must equal drag.
(c) drag must exceed thrust.

(d) drag must equal weight.

Back 326

(c) drag must exceed thrust

Front 327

After a decrease in speed in level flight, the nose attitude will be ______ than previously.

Back 327

higher

Front 328

In steady-state flight, the sum of the opposing forces acting on the aircraft ______ zero.

Back 328

is

Front 329

What two factors determine the performance of the aircraft?

Back 329

power, attitude

Front 330

In flight, the lift/weight and the thrust/drag pitching couples rarely balance out and it is the function of the ______ to provide the necessary stabilizing force.

Back 330

tailplane (or horizontal stabilizer)

Front 331

The maximum speed possible in straight and level flight occurs when the power ______ is equal to the power ______.

Back 331

available, required

Front 332

The minimum speed straight and level is usually when the ______ angle of attack is reached.

Back 332

stalling

Front 333

Maximum range in level flight is achieved when the ______ distance is flown for the ______ amount of fuel used.

Back 333

maximum, minimum (or least)

Front 334

Maximum endurance will be achieved when the aircraft remains airborne for the greatest amount of ______ for the ______ amount of fuel used.

Back 334

time, least

Front 335

An aircraft can gain altitude in two ways; by making a ______ climb or by climbing at a steady ______.

Back 335

zoom, airspeed

Front 336

In a zoom climb, ______ is converted into altitude.

Back 336

airspeed

Front 337

In a steady climb at constant airspeed, the thrust must not only counteract the drag, but also the component of ______ which acts parallel to the flightpath.

Back 337

weight

Front 338

The speed of a steady climb is determined by the ______ ______ selected by the pilot.

Back 338

nose attitude

Front 339

Rate of climb is determined by the amount of ______ applied.

Back 339

power

Front 340

The speed for maximum rate of climb is the speed at which there is the greatest excess of power ______ over power ______.

Back 340

available, required

Front 341

The speed for the best angle of climb is the speed at which there is the greatest excess of ______ available over the drag at the climbing speed.

Back 341

thrust

Front 342

If the aircraft is climbed with the flaps down, the rate of climb will be ______ than with the flaps up. The climb angle will also be ______ than with the flaps up.

Back 342

poorer, poorer

Front 343

Climbing into a headwind increases the climb ______ over the ground, but makes no difference to the ______ of climb.

Back 343

angle, rate

Front 344

In a steady-speed glide, the component of ______ parallel to the flightpath is equal to the drag.

Back 344

weight

Front 345

The airspeed in the glide is determined by the ______ ______ selected by the pilot.

Back 345

nose attitude

Front 346

For the shallowest glide angle and the best still-air gliding range, the aircraft must be flown at the airspeed which achieves the angle of attack for the best ______ ______.

Back 346

LD ratio

Front 347

If the flaps are lowered in the glide and speed is maintained, the nose attitude will be ______; the glide angle ______, and the rate of descent ______.

Back 347

lower, steeper, higher

Front 348

Aircraft weight ______ the glide angle. At a lower weight, the speed for the best glide angle should be ______.

Back 348

does not affect, lower

Front 349

A headwind or tailwind component ______ affect the glide angle through the airmass.

Back 349

does not

Front 350

Gliding with a tailwind component will make the flightpath over the ground ______. The range in the glide will be ______ but the time taken to reach the ground will be ______.

Back 350

shallower, increases, the same

Front 351

The horizontal component of lift which holds the aircraft in the turn is called ______ force.

Back 351

centripetal

Front 352

When the aircraft is turned in level flight, the lift must be increased so that its vertical component balances the ______.

Back 352

weight

Front 353

In a turn, bank angle is controlled by the ______ ; back ______ is required on the control column, and rudder is used to keep the turn ______.

Back 353

ailerons, pressure, coordinated

Front 354

When rolling into a turn, rudder pressure is used in the same direction as ailerons to prevent any adverse ______.

Back 354

yaw

Front 355

The increased angle of attack in a turn not only means that lift is increased, but also ______.

Back 355

drag

Front 356

The increase of drag means that in a level turn, there will be a loss in speed unless ______ is increased to counteract it.

Back 356

power, (or thrust)

Front 357

Load factor is the ______ being generated by the wings divided by aircraft ______.

Back 357

lift, weight

Front 358

In a 30° banked level turn, the load factor is ______ and the pilot will feel 15% heavier. In a 60° banked level turn the load factor is ______ and the pilot will feel ______g.

Back 358

1.15, 2, 2

Front 359

At any given airspeed, the radius of turn ______ as bank angle increases.

Back 359

decreases

Front 360

State the angle of bank needed to achieve a rate 1 turn if the aircraft is flying at 130 kt.

Back 360

20°

Front 361

If the aircraft is climbing and a turn is entered with power and airspeed remaining constant, the rate of climb will ______.

Back 361

decrease

Front 362

An aircraft tend to ______ a climbing turn.

Back 362

roll into

Front 363

If the aircraft is descending and a turn is entered with power and speed remaining constant, the rate of descent will ______.

Back 363

increase

Front 364

In a descending turn, the inner wing has a ______ angle of attack and the aircraft will therefore tend to ______ the turn.

Back 364

higher, roll out of

Front 365

Stalling occurs at high angles of attack when the airflow around the aerofoil is unable to remain streamlined, separates from most of the upper surface and becomes ______.

Back 365

turbulent

Front 366

You can induce a stall intentionally by applying ______ pressure on the control column to ______ the angle of attack.

Back 366

back, increase

Front 367

You can recover from a stall by ______ back pressure on the control column to ______ the angle of attack.

Back 367

relaxing, decrease

Front 368

Recovering from a stall requires you to:

(a) increase lift.

(b) increase power.

(c) increase drag.

(d) reduce angle of attack.

Back 368

(d) reduce angle of attack

Front 369

Beyond the stalling angle, the centre of pressure for the diminished lift force moves ______, allowing the nose to drop.

Back 369

rearward

Front 370

If the wings stall, the turbulent airflow over the horizontal stabilizer may cause control ______.

Back 370

buffeting

Front 371

A typical light training aircraft will stall when the wings are at about ______° angle of attack.

Back 371

16°

Front 372

Stalling is associated with a particular ______ of ______.

Back 372

angle of attack

Front 373

If the lift required from the wings increases due to the pilot banking the aircraft and applying back pressure on the control column to maintain attitude, then the stalling speed compared with that straight-and-level will ______.

Back 373

increase

Front 374

In a banked turn at a constant altitude, the load factor is ______.

Back 374

increased

Front 375

The steeper the turn, the ______ the load factor.

Back 375

greater

Front 376

The steeper the turn, the ______ the stalling speed.

Back 376

higher

Front 377

Stalling speed ______ with an increase in bank angle.

Back 377

increases

Front 378

Pulling out of a fast and steep dive, the load factor ______.

Back 378

is increased

Front 379

Pulling out of a fast and steep dive, the stalling speed ______.

Back 379

is increased

Front 380

Stalling occurs at the critical ______ ______ _______ for an aerofoil.

Back 380

angle of attack

Front 381

The stalling IAS ______ with altitude.

Back 381

does not vary

Front 382

Flaps ______ the stall speed.

Back 382

lower

Front 383

The wings of an aircraft can be stalled:

(a) only when the nose is high and the airspeed is low.
(b) at any airspeed and in any flight attitude, provided that the critical angle of attack is reached.

Back 383

(b) at any airspeed and in any flight attitude, provided that the critical angle of attack is reached

Front 384

Increasing the load factor ______ the stalling angle of attack.

Back 384

does not affect

Front 385

Increasing the load factor ______ the stalling speed.

Back 385

increases the stall speed

Front 386

As bank angle is increased, the stalling speed ______ and the stalling angle of attack ______.

Back 386

increases, stays the same

Front 387

Turbulent air can cause an increase in stall speed by causing:

(a) abrupt increases in the angle of attack and load factor.
(b) abrupt decreases in the angle of attack and load factor.
(c) abrupt increases in weight.
(d) abrupt increases in indicated airspeed.

Back 387

(a) abrupt increases in the angle of attack and load factor

Front 388

If one wing drops as the aircraft stalls, attempting to 'pick it up' with aileron can:

(a) take the angle of attack of the dropped wing further beyond the stalling angle.
(b) stall the up-going wing by increasing its angle of attack beyond the stalling angle.

Back 388

(a) take the angle of attack of the dropped wing further beyond the stalling angle

Front 389

If an aircraft approaches the stalling angle with power on, the thrust vector has a component which acts in the same direction as the lift from the wings. The stalling speed power on is therefore ______ the power off stalling speed.

Back 389

less than

Front 390

The spin ______ a condition of stalled flight.

Back 390

is

Front 391

A spiral dive ______ a condition of stalled flight.

Back 391

is not

Front 392

In a spin, the airspeed will be ______.

Back 392

low

Front 393

In a spiral dive, the airspeed will be ______.

Back 393

high and increasing

Front 394

A propeller converts engine torque into ______.

Back 394

thrust

Front 395

To ensure that it operates at an efficient angle of attack over its whole length, a propeller blade is ______.

Back 395

twisted

Front 396

The blade angle is that angle between the chord line and the ______.

Back 396

plane of rotation

Front 397

The blade angle is greatest near the ______.

Back 397

hub

Front 398

The fastest moving part of a rotating propeller is at the ______.

Back 398

tip

Front 399

The total aerodynamic force produced by a propeller is normally resolved into two components; one in the direction of flight called ______, and the other in the plane of rotation called propeller ______.

Back 399

thrust, torque

Front 400

At constant RPM, engine torque is being balanced by ______ torque.

Back 400

propeller

Front 401

If you place a fixed-pitch propeller aircraft into a dive and leave the throttle set, engine RPM will ______.

Back 401

increase

Front 402

Most of the thrust produced by a propeller comes from the area of the blades at around ______ radius.

Back 402

70%

Front 403

With a fixed-pitch propeller at a given RPM, there will be ______ true airspeeds at which the propeller will operate at its most efficient angle of attack.

Back 403

one

Front 404

For operation at high rpm and relatively low airspeeds, the most efficient propeller would have a ______ pitch.

Back 404

fine

Front 405

For operation at relatively high airspeeds and low RPM, the mos efficient propeller would have a ______ pitch.

Back 405

coarse

Front 406

Aircraft fitted with constant-speed propellers are normally operated on the ground with the pitch control set to ______.

Back 406

FULL FINE

Front 407

In the take-off checks, ensure that the pitch control is set to ______ ______.

Back 407

FULL FINE

Front 408

When increasing power (when it is desired to operate at higher RPM), first increase the ______, then increase ______.

Back 408

RPM, manifold pressure

Front 409

When decreasing power (when it is desired to reduce RPM), first reduce the ______, then reduce ______.

Back 409

manifold pressure, RPM

Front 410

The reason for checking that the pitch control is in FULL FINE during the landing checks is to ensure that ______ ______ will be available in case of a ______ ______.

Back 410

full power, go around

Front 411

As air density ______ with altitude, both engine and aerodynamic performance also ______ with altitude.

Back 411

decreases, decrease

Front 412

A normally-aspirated engine ______ its performance as the aircraft climbs.

Back 412

loses

Front 413

As an aircraft climbs at constant IAS, its TAS increases. Therefore, the power required to maintain that IAS ______.

Back 413

increases

Front 414

Pressure altitude is the altitude in the ISA which has ______ the actual altitude.

Back 414

the same

Front 415

If the QNH is higher than 1013 hPa, the pressure altitude will be ______than the altitude indicated with QNH set on the subscale.

Back 415

lower

Front 416

If the QNH is 1010 hPa, the pressure altitude will be 90 ft ______ than the QNH altitude.

Back 416

higher

Front 417

Pressure altitude is the altitude indicated when 1013 hPa is set on the altimeter subscale.

(True/False).

Back 417

true

Front 418

Density altitude is pressure altitude corrected for any difference in temperature form ISA conditions.

(True/False).

Back 418

true

Front 419

The correction to pressure altitude for every 1°C deviation from ISA is ______.

Back 419

120 ft

Front 420

Aerodrome elevation is 2000 ft and the surface shade temperature is 11°C. Is the temperature (ISA -4 / ISA)?

Back 420

ISA

Front 421

The surface shade temperature at sea-level is 20°C, i.e. ISA +5. For practical purposes, ______ assume the temperature at 6000 ft will also be ISA +5.

Back 421

you may

Front 422

The aerodrome elevation is 1000 ft, with QNH 1006 hPa and surface temperature is 18°C. Calculate:

(a) Pressure Altitude and

(b) Density Altitude.

Back 422

find pressure altitude:

(1) difference between QNH and 1013 = 1013 - 1006 = 7 hPa
convert to feet 7 x 30 = 210
(3) add/subtract from aerodrome elevation 1000 + 210 = 1210 ft (added in this case as QNH lower than 1013)

find density altitude ISA temperature at aerodrome elevation

= 15°C - (1 x 2°)

= 13°C

therefore actual temperature varies from ISA by 18 - 13°C

= +5°C

Density altitude = pressure altitude 1210 + (5 x 120) ft

= 1810 ft

Front 423

Take-off distance required (TODR) is defined as the distance required to ______.

Back 423

become airborne and climb to 50 ft above runway level

Front 424

Increased weight ______ TODR.

Back 424

increases

Front 425

You fly to a high elevation aerodrome on a hot day and the area QNH is much lower than normal. You should expect both landing and take-off performance to be ______ by comparison with the performance on a standard day at a lower-level aerodrome.

Back 425

much worse

Front 426

Upslope ______ have an effect increasing TODR.

Back 426

does

Front 427

Long grass ____ reduce TODR.

Back 427

will not

Front 428

A tailwind component has ______ effect in increasing TODR.

Back 428

a very significant

Front 429

A downslope ______ landing distance required LDR.

Back 429

increases

Front 430

High elevation aerodromes; hot days; low pressure days ______ LDR in the same way as TODR.

Back 430

increase

Front 431

A tailwind component ______ increase LDR.

Back 431

will

Front 432

Taking off through a shear zone where the wind aloft is a tailwind will ______ climb angle and climb rate.

Back 432

decrease

Front 433

During the approach to land through a shear zone where the headwind component suddenly reduces, there is the potential for the rate of descent to suddenly ______.

Back 433

increase

Front 434

The total weight of the aeroplane and all of its contents at any particular time is known as its ______ weight.

Back 434

gross

Front 435

The weight of the empty aeroplane is known as its ______ ______ weight.

Back 435

basic empty

Front 436

The weight of the loaded aeroplane, but excluding the weight of usable fuel in the wings, is called its ______ ______ weight.

Back 436

zero fuel

Front 437

The gross weight of the aeroplane on the ramp, i.e. in its start up position before it taxis out to the take off position, is known as its ______ weight.

Back 437

ramp

Front 438

The maximum permissible gross weight for structural reasons at take-off is known as the ______ ______ ______ ______.

Back 438

maximum certificated take-off weight (MCTOW)

Front 439

The maximum permissible gross weight for structural reasons at landing is known as the ______ ______ ______ ______.

Back 439

maximum certificated landing weight (MLW)

Front 440

The point through which the weight of an aeroplane can be considered to act is called the ______ __ ______, abbreviated to ______.

Back 440

centre of gravity; (CG)

Front 441

The aeroplane will be nose heavy and more reluctant to move in the pitching plane if the CG is ______ limit.

Back 441

forward

Front 442

The aeroplane will be tail heavy and less stable in the pitching plane, making it more difficult to control, if the CG is at the ______ limit.

Back 442

aft

Front 443

Weight - and- balance calculations are made by calculating the gross weight, to ensure that no weight limits are exceeded, and by calculating ______ about a datum, to ensure that the CG is within limits.

Back 443

moments

Front 444

For balance calculations, the manufacturer will nominate a point from which all measurements will be taken, known as the ______, or station ______.

Back 444

datum, zero

Front 445

The distance from the datum to the point where a weight acts, for the purposes of calculating moments, is called the ______.

Back 445

arm

Front 446

The length of the moment arm for a passenger sitting at STA 1,200 is ______ mm behind the datum.

Back 446

1,200 mm

Front 447

Multiplying the weight by the length of the arm gives a quantity known as the ______.

Back 447

moment

Front 448

A weight of 30 kg, with an arm of 1,200 mm from the datum, will have a moment of ______kg-mm.

Back 448

36,000 kg-mm

Front 449

A weight of 120 kg, with an arm of 2,000 mm from the datum, will have a moment of ______ kg-mm.

Back 449

240,000 kg-mm

Front 450

To reduce the size of the numbers, they can be divided by 1,000 to be expressed as ______ units.

Back 450

index units

Front 451

The rest of the questions in this review are about weight and balance using a graph see pages 19-16 , 19-17 and 19-18 to revise these ones.

Back 451

The rest of the questions in this review are about weight and balance using a graph see pages 19-16 , 19-17 and 19-18 to revise these ones.