Aqws Met

Front 1

In the atmosphere, the sphere nearest the earth's surface is the ______.

Back 1

Troposphere

Front 2

The two predominant gases in the atmosphere are ______ and ______.

Back 2

Nitrogen and Oxygen

Front 3

Why is ozone, found in the stratosphere, an important gas?

Back 3

Because it filters out harmful ultraviolet radiation from the sun

Front 4

The predominant factor which determines the ability of air to hold water as a vapour is ______?

Back 4

Temperature of air

Front 5

Carbon dioxide and waste gases have the ability to trap ______ and excessive amount of these gases add to the ______ effect.

Back 5

Heat; Greenhouse

Front 6

The tropopause is ______ and ______ over the equator than over the poles.

Back 6

Higher; colder

Front 7

The main reason for the surface air temperature in polar regions to be colder than in tropical regions is ______.

Back 7

Solar energy recieved is spread over a wider area

Front 8

The amount of air and moisture in the stratosphere is _______ than in the troposphere.

Back 8

Less

Front 9

The two predominant types of barometer used to measure barometric pressure are ______ and ______.

Back 9

Mercury & Aneroid Capsule

Front 10

The meaning of the term 'pressure lapse rate' is ______.

Back 10

Reduction of pressure with height

Front 11

What happens to the pressure lapse rate in a column of air if the column is cooled?

Back 11

Pressure lapse rate increases

Front 12

The average pressure lapse rate in the lower atmosphere is ______.

Back 12

One hPa per 30 feet

Front 13

An 'isobar' is a ______ joining places of ______.

Back 13

Line; equal pressure

Front 14

In the southern hemisphere, an anticyclone has highest pressure in the ______ and the circulation of air is ______ around the system.

Back 14

Centre; anticlockwise

Front 15

In the southern hemisphere, a depression has lowest pressure in the ______ and the circulation of air is ______ around the system.

Back 15

Centre; clockwise

Front 16

A trough is an extension from a ______ and a ridge is an extension from a ______.

Back 16

Low; High

Front 17

When the pressure gradient between two pressure systems is strong, the isobars between them are ______ and the wind is ______.

Back 17

Closely spaced; strong

Front 18

Pressure gradient means the change in pressure per ______ distance, it acts at ______ to the isobars.

Back 18

Horizontal; right angles

Front 19

State the main elements of the International Standard Atmosphere (ISA).

Back 19

Sea level pressure 1013.2 hPa;

sea level air temperature 15°C;

temperature lapse rate 1.98°C/1000 ft;

constant -56.5°C above 36,090 ft.

Front 20

By QNH is meant the atmospheric pressure obtained from stations and reduced to ______ using ______ values.

Back 20

Sea level: ISA

Front 21

When QNH is set on the subscale of an altimeter, the instrument will read ______ after landing at an airfield of 1,500 ft elevation.

Back 21

1,500 ft

Front 22

In the absence of an Air Traffic service, how can you establish the approximate QNH after you have landed at an aerodrome of known elevation?

Back 22

Using the subscale knob, turn the altimeter hands to read airfield elevation, then read approximate QNH in the subscale window

Front 23

By QFE is meant the atmospheric pressure at a given ______.

Back 23

Datum, or elevation position

Front 24

When QFE of an aerodrome (at 1000 ft elevation) is set on the altimeter subscale, the instrument will read ______ after landing at the aerodrome.

Back 24

Zero

Front 25

An aerodrome has an elevation of 1,500 ft. You have established from ATC that the area QNH is 1010 hPa. How can you determine an approximate QFE for the aerodrome?

Back 25

While at the aerodrome, turn the altimeter hands to read zero, then read approximate QFE in the subscale window. Alternatively, divide 1500 by 30 = 50 hPa and deduct that from QNH = QFE 960 hPa

Front 26

After you have used the QFE for circuit practise at an elevated aerodrome, what important action must you take when departing from that aerodrome on a cross country flight?

Back 26

Select the appropriate area QNH in the subscale window

Front 27

Temperature is the measure of ______ contained within a body.

Back 27

Heat

Front 28

By radiation is meant ______ energy passing from one body to another.

Back 28

Heat

Front 29

When a body radiates heat its temperature ______ and when is absorbs radiation its temperature ______.

Back 29

Decreases; increases

Front 30

Solar radiation is ______ wave energy whereas terrestrial radiation is ______ wave energy.

Back 30

Short wave; long wave

Front 31

One of the functions of the ozone layer is to prevent most ______ energy from reaching the earth's surface.

Back 31

Ultraviolet

Front 32

Incoming solar radiation is ______ by cloud (tops), ______ by dust particles and ______ by water vapour.

Back 32

Reflected; scattered; absorbed

Front 33

If a surface has a high albedo it means that solar radiation is readily ______.

Back 33

Rejected

Front 34

Terrestrial radiation is partly ______ by a number of elements in the atmosphere so that the atmosphere ______.

Back 34

Absorbed; warms

Front 35

The air above the earth's surface is warmed when the layer of air particles touching the surface are warmed through ______ and as these particles ______ they ______ and through ______ give their heat to layers of air aloft.

Back 35

Conduction; expand; rise; convection

Front 36

Continued loss of terrestrial radiation will ______ the earth but a balance in temperature is reached through the more or less equal arrival of ______ radiation.

Back 36

Cool; solar

Front 37

The diurnal variation of surface air temperature is increased when there ______ wind and when there ______ cloud cover.

Back 37

Is no; is no

Front 38

Density of air is determined by

(i) pressure in that increased pressure ______ density; and

(ii) temperature in that increased temperature ______ density.

Back 38

(i) increases
(ii) decreases

Front 39

Because the pressure factor is ______ than the temperature factor, density ______ with increase in height.

Back 39

Greater; reduces

Front 40

Moisture can be present in air as a ______, as a ______ or as a ______.

Back 40

Gas; liquid; solid

Front 41

What process takes place when water vapour changes its state to liquid?

Back 41

Condensation

Front 42

What process takes place when water liquid changes its state to vapour?

Back 42

Evaporation

Front 43

What process takes place when ice changes directly to water vapour?

Back 43

Sublimation

Front 44

Which heat energy is involved when moisture changes its state?

Back 44

Latent heat

Front 45

Relative humidity (RH) will ______ when moisture is added to air and when RH becomes 100% it is said to be ______.

Back 45

Increase; saturated

Front 46

When a parcel of air is warmed, its RH will ______ and its Dew Point (D Pt) will ______.

Back 46

Decrease; remain constant

Front 47

When moisture content in a parcel of air decreased, its RH will ______ and its D Pt will ______.

Back 47

Decrease; decrease

Front 48

Dew point is defined as a ______ at which air becomes ______.

Back 48

Temperature, saturated

Front 49

______ will occur in a parcel of air when its temperature becomes less than its dew point.

Back 49

Condensation

Front 50

Name three methods through which relative humidity of air can be measured.

Back 50

Wet bulb/dry bulb;

bundle of human hair;

use of a special chemical

Front 51

When moisture content is added to air, its density will ______.

Back 51

Decrease

Front 52

Consider saturated air. When the temperature of this air is warm, its water content is ______ than when this air is colder.

Back 52

More

Front 53

When the ambient temperature of air is high and its dew point is high, the air will be very ______.

Back 53

Moist

Front 54

Air wishes to move from ______ pressure to ______ pressure under the influence of the ______.

Back 54

High; low; pressure gradient

Front 55

Which force (or effect) prevents air from travelling at right angles across the isobars?

Back 55

Coriolis force (effect)

Front 56

Pressure gradient is a force acting towards the centre of a ______ and coriolis force acts towards the centre of a ______.

Back 56

Low; high

Front 57

When coriolis force is stronger than the pressure gradient, the wind will blow ______ around a ______.

Back 57

Anticlockwise; high

Front 58

The friction layer near the earth's surface is caused by ______ between the surface and the wind flow.

Back 58

Friction

Front 59

Within the friction layer, the pressure gradient is ______ the coriolis force and the wind blows across the isobars ______ the centre of the low.

Back 59

Greater than; towards

Front 60

The more dense the friction layer, the ______ the change in wind direction and the ______ surface wind will be.

Back 60

Greater; weaker

Front 61

When the wind veers, it is changing its direction in a ______ fashion.

Back 61

Clockwise

Front 62

Diurnal variation of the surface wind involves ______ of the wind speed and ______ of the wind direction in the evening.

Back 62

Decrease; veering

Front 63

Diurnal variation of the surface wind is ______ over the sea than over the land.

Back 63

Less

Front 64

In the New Zealand environment, the wind ______ and ______ in strength when climbing out of the friction layer into the 'free' air above.

Back 64

Backs; increases

Front 65

What is the approximate surface wind strength when the windsock at your aerodrome trails at an angle of about 75° to the vertical?

Back 65

About 22 knots

Front 66

A low pressure system is subject to surface ______ where as a high pressure system is subject to surface ______.

Back 66

Convergence; divergence

Front 67

Due to surface ______ in a High, the air within the system will ______ which encourages cloud to ______.

Back 67

Divergence; subside; disperse

Front 68

When in flight you experience starboard (right) drift which indicates that the wind is coming from your ______. Consistent with Buys Ballot's law, the centre of low pressure is to your _____.

Back 68

Left; rear

Front 69

The degree of turbulence due to wind shear is ______ when the shear zone is narrow and when the difference in wind velocity is large.

Back 69

Greater

Front 70

Wind shear due to friction layer density is at its ______ around daybreak.

Back 70

Maximum

Front 71

Air is said to be ______ when after a disturbance, without outside influences, it returns to its original position.

Back 71

Stable

Front 72

Air is said to be ______ when after a disturbance it does not return to its original position.

Back 72

Unstable

Front 73

The two main factors that determine stability of air are ______ and ______.

Back 73

Temperature Lapse Rate; Adiabatic Lapse Rate

Front 74

The environment lapse rate (ELR) is based on the principal that air is ______ at low levels and ______ with a gain of height.

Back 74

Warmer; cools

Front 75

The adiabatic lapse rate (ALR) is the result of changes in ______ when a parcel of air either ______ or ______.

Back 75

Pressure; rises or sinks

Front 76

When air is subjected to greater pressure, its volume ______ and its temperature ______.

Back 76

Decreases; increases

Front 77

An adiabatic process is one where a change in ______ takes place without _____ being given off, or taken from, the surroundings.

Back 77

Temperature; heat energy

Front 78

The fundamental difference between and ELR and an ALR is that an ELR does not involve ______ movement of air whereas an ALR must involve ______ movement of air.

Back 78

Vertical; vertical

Front 79

On an imaginary scale of 1 to 5, an ELR of 1°C/1000 ft is said to be a ______ ELR and an ELR of 5°C/1000 ft would be ______ ELR.

Back 79

Shallow; steep

Front 80

There is said to be an ______ when temperature increases with height.

Back 80

Inversion

Front 81

When the temperature of air does not increase or decrease with a gain in height, there is said to be ______ layer.

Back 81

Isothermal

Front 82

A ______ ELR is normally experienced at low levels on a warm summer's day and a ______ ELR is usually encountered at low levels on a clear winter's day.

Back 82

Steep; shallow

Front 83

The dry adiabatic lapse rate (DALR) is approximately ______°C/1000 ft whereas the saturated adiabatic lapse rate (SALR) is approximately ______°C/1000 ft.

Back 83

3°; 1.5°

Front 84

When air is 'dry' and the ELR is less than _____°C/1000 ft, rising air is stable. When such air has an ELR of ______ ______°C/1000 ft, rising air is unstable.

Back 84

3°; more than 3°

Front 85

When air is saturated and the ELR is less than ______°C/1000 ft, rising air is stable. When such air has an ELR of ______ ______°C/1000 ft rising air is unstable.

Back 85

1.5°; more than 1.5°

Front 86

When the ELR is ______ ______°C/1000 ft and ______ ______°C/1000 ft, air is said to be conditionally stable (or conditionally unstable).

Back 86

More than 1.5°; less than 3°

Front 87

When atmospheric conditions show haze, drizzle and inversions, the air is likely ______ and flying conditions will be ______.

Back 87

Stable; smooth

Front 88

The main reason why the DALR of ______ °C/1000 ft changes into the SALR of ______°C/1000 ft is the release of ______ during ______.

Back 88

3°; 1.5°; latent heat; condensation

Front 89

When saturated air is stable, the cloud type is likely to be ______form cloud and when this air is unstable, the cloud type will likely be ______form.

Back 89

Stratiform; cumuliform

Front 90

When the surface becomes hot and thermal rising of air takes place, the ELR must be ______ ______°C/1000 ft. Thus this air is ______. If this rising air cools to below dew point, the cloud type will be ______ form.

Back 90

More than 3°; unstable; cumuliform

Front 91

A sea breeze will often result when the land ______ while the sea remains relative ______.

Back 91

Warms; cold

Front 92

When the ______ land causes air over it to rise, the higher pressure aloft forces air to move ______ so that the transfer of mass causes the air pressure over the land to ______.

Back 92

Warm; seaward; fall

Front 93

In New Zealand generally, a sea breeze sets in around ______ am, reaches maximum strength around ______ and dissipates ______.

Back 93

10 a.m.; 3 p.m.; before sunset

Front 94

A sea breeze usually extends in height to about ______ feet AGL and inland to approximately ______ kilometres.

Back 94

2000 ft; 25 - 40 km

Front 95

Cloud is normally ______ when a sea breeze has begun and is always ______. It is commonly known as ______ ______ ______.

Back 95

Present; cumuliform; fair-weather cumulus

Front 96

When flying along a coast with a sea breeze blowing, turbulence is ______ a short distance inland from the coast and conditions are ______ on the seaward side of the coast.

Back 96

Marked; smooth

Front 97

A land breeze blows from the ______ to the ______ and is more common during ______.

Back 97

Land; sea; autumn

Front 98

The cause of a katabatic wind is air ______ as it touches the ______ mountain surfaces toward evening so that a ______ airflow results.

Back 98

Cooling; cold; downhill

Front 99

A katabatic wind is normally a ______ phenomenon but it may occasionally persist in the ______.

Back 99

Night; morning

Front 100

The cause of an anabatic wind is air ______ as it touches ______ mountain and valley surfaces after ______ so that an ______ airflow results.

Back 100

Warming; warm; sunrise; uphill

Front 101

The strength of a katabatic wind is invariably ______ than an anabatic wind. This is accentuated by the fact that gravity ______ the anabatic wind.

Back 101

Stronger; opposes

Front 102

Gusts are ______ increases and lulls in the wind caused by ______.

Back 102

Short term; intervening terrain

Front 103

Squalls are ______ increases in wind strength lasting ______ caused by ______.

Back 103

Rapid; some minutes; weather systems

Front 104

The three pre-conditions for the formation of a fohn wind are ______, ______ and ______.

Back 104

Substantial mountain range;

wind more or less at right angles to the mountains;

high moisture content

Front 105

A fohn wind will often blow when the air on the windward side is ______ so that ______ forms at some height on the windward side. The retention of moisture on the windward side causes the dew point aloft to ______.

Back 105

Moist; cloud; decrease

Front 106

Fohn winds are ______ and ______ and often produce ______ turbulence at low levels.

Back 106

Warm; dry; severe

Front 107

The formation of a mountain wave requires that the wind ______ with height and remain more or less ______ to a substantial mountain range.

Back 107

Increases; at right angles

Front 108

One of the main dangers of mountain wave conditions is the likelihood of downdraught and _______ action in close proximity to the lee of the mountain range.

Back 108

Rotor

Front 109

When flying a light aircraft in mountain wave conditions, it is potentially dangerous to fly close to the ______ of the mountains.

Back 109

Lee side

Front 110

When rotor streaming takes place, the wind ______ with height from mountain ridge height and higher. Under these conditions, low level turbulence on the lee-side can be ______.

Back 110

Decreases; severe

Front 111

When on approach to a runway in the lee of sand dunes while a sea breeze blows, be particularly aware of the likely presence of ______ at low levels.

Back 111

Wind shear

Front 112

An inversion is associated with a layer of air in which temperature ______ with a gain in height.

Back 112

Increases

Front 113

One of the main consequences of an inversion is that it ______ continued rising of air so that it enhances ______.

Back 113

Stops; stability

Front 114

Visibility beneath an inversion of often ______ because the inversion traps moisture and dust. For this reason, relative humidity and dew point will be ______ above the inversion.

Back 114

Poor; lower

Front 115

When descending through a low level inversion towards a runway, it is to be expected that visibility will ______ and that the approach profile may show an ______ in the rate of descent and ______ of the approach slope.

Back 115

Deteriorate; increase; steepening

Front 116

The formation of a radiation inversion requires the sky to be ______ so that ______ radiation can readily escape. The wind should be ______. The rquired conditions are generally associated with a ______.

Back 116

Clear; terrestrial; light; col or anticyclone

Front 117

Radiation inversions ______ form over the sea or lakes.

Back 117

Cannot

Front 118

When mixing of the friction layer occurs after ______, a ______ inversion can form. This inversion ______ form over the sea or lakes.

Back 118

Sunrise; turbulence; can

Front 119

A subsidence inversion is associated with a ______. It can produce extensive ______form cloud commonly known as ______ ______ .

Back 119

Anticyclone; stratiform; anticyclonic gloom

Front 120

A frontal inversion is more common, or marked, with a ______ front than with a ______ front.

Back 120

Warm; cold

Front 121

In an isothermal layer, the temperature is ______ with height.

Back 121

Constant, or steady

Front 122

Often, inversions are associated with ______ ______ and turbulence when different winds are experienced above and below the affected layer.

Back 122

Wind shear

Front 123

Cloud is ______ water in liquid or ice form.

Back 123

Suspended

Front 124

For water vapour to change into liquid water there is a requirement for the presence of ______ ______ around which the droplets can form. When there is a lack of these items, condensation can be delayed and the situation is then described as ______.

Back 124

Condensation nuclei; supersaturation

Front 125

Clouds with a similar base will contain ______ water in summer than in winter. In similar vein, clouds with a low base contain ______ water than clouds with a high base.

Back 125

More; more

Front 126

The most common method whereby water vapour changes to liquid, and therefore for clouds to form, is through ______ of air and this process is most commonly achieved through ______ of air.

Back 126

Cooling; rising

Front 127

Water droplets in cloud are kept aloft by ______. When this force is inadequate, water drops will ______. If the drops evaporate prior to reaching the surface, the descending water is referred to as ______.

Back 127

Buoyancy; fall; virga

Front 128

Cloud is classified as high, middle and low. In the high cloud bracket are ______, ______ and ______. In the middle cloud bracket are ______ and ______. In the low cloud bracket are ______, ______, ______, ______ and ______.

Back 128

Cirrocumulus, cirrostratus; cirrus.

Altocumulus; alto-stratus.

Stratus, stratocumulus; cumulus, nimbostratus; cumulonimbus

Front 129

While in flight you note cloud ahead which is bright white, has sharp edges and has a bubbling appearance. This cloud is ______ form, any precipitation from it will be ______.

Back 129

Cumuliform; showers

Front 130

The term 'scattered' means ______ oktas and 'broken' means ______ oktas.

Back 130

Between 3-4 oktas; between 5-7 oktas

Front 131

Cumulus clouds over the mountains have a base higher than mountain tops. This implies that the air below the cloud base is ______.

Back 131

Unstable

Front 132

If convective rising is to produce cloud, the lower level air must be ______ and ______.

Back 132

Unstable; moist

Front 133

Cloud formed by widespread ascent is often associated with surface ______ which normally takes place over a ______ area.

Back 133

Convergence; large

Front 134

The most common method whereby cloud disperses is by warming of air through ______.

Back 134

Subsidence

Front 135

The water content of cloud can be approximated by assessing the ______ of cloud, the ______ the cloud the greater the water content.

Back 135

Colour; darker

Front 136

For precipitation to occur, the force of buoyancy must be ______ than the force of gravity.

Back 136

Less

Front 137

Rain drops are many times ______ than cloud drops. The two main processes through which cloud drops can change their size are ______ and ______.

Back 137

Larger; deposition; coalescence

Front 138

The five main types of precipitation are ______, ______, ______, ______ and ______.

Back 138

Rain; drizzle; snow; sleet; hail

Front 139

The most common type of precipitation world wide is ______.

Back 139

Rain

Front 140

Drizzle is normally associated with ______ cloud, droplets are generally ______ and buoyancy must be ______.

Back 140

Shallow; small; weak

Front 141

Snow ______ the same as hail and the surface temperature must be ______ freezing for the snow to remain on the surface.

Back 141

Is not; less than

Front 142

Sleet is a combination of ______ and ______.

Back 142

Rain and snow

Front 143

The character of precipitation is either ______, ______, or ______.

Back 143

Continuous, intermittent or showers

Front 144

Continuous precipitation implies ______ cloud without clearance in the short term. Intermittent precipitation suggests ______ improvements are likely.

Back 144

Thick; temporary

Front 145

When the rate of precipitation is heavy, it is likely to be associated with ______ cloud.

Back 145

Cumuliform

Front 146

Visibility is a matter of ______ of air.

Back 146

Transparency

Front 147

When there are no changes in atmospheric conditions during a 24 hour period, the visibility is ______ during the day compared to during the night.

Back 147

The same

Front 148

The main difference between visibility distance and visibility range is that the former ______ subject to illumination whereas the latter ______.

Back 148

Is not; is

Front 149

The ______ of precipitation determines its effect on visibility distance and in this regard, snow ______ a greater influence than rain.

Back 149

Intensity; has

Front 150

Fog reduces visibility to ______ ______ metres whereas mist involves visibility distance between ______ metres and ______ metres.

Back 150

Less than 1000 metres; 1000 and 5000 metres

Front 151

Haze involves ______ particles in air when visibility has reduced to not less than ______ metres.

Back 151

Dust; 1000 metres

Front 152

When flying over a layer of haze or mist the ______ one flies, the smaller the forward view over the ground for the same penetration distance.

Back 152

Lower

Front 153

When flying in greatly-reduced visibility, not only does one face navigational problems, it becomes more difficult to abide by the golden rule of ______.

Back 153

See and be seen

Front 154

The two predominant types of fog are ______ and ______.

Back 154

Radiation and advection

Front 155

When the surface cools towards the end of the day, air in contact with the surface cools through ______ and in the absence of any wind, ______ will form if the temperature lowers below ______point.

Back 155

Conduction; dew; dew

Front 156

For radiation fog to form, the following conditions must be met:
(i) a ______ relative humidity;
(ii) a ______ sky; and
(iii) a gentle ______.

Back 156

(i) high;
(ii) clear;
(iii) wind

Front 157

The formation of fog of any type requires ______ air. This requirement is often met in ______ conditions.

Back 157

Stable; anticyclonic

Front 158

The main purpose of the wind is to provide the required ______ so that he effect of surface _____ is felt through a ______ layer.

Back 158

Mixing; cooling; deep

Front 159

The most common time for radiation fog to form is around ______ while the most common seasons are ______.

Back 159

Sunset; autumn & winter

Front 160

If the surface temperature and dew point are far apart, the chances of radiation fog forming are ______.

Back 160

Not good

Front 161

Radiation fog normally disperses during the _____ when solar heating produces a degree of ______.

Back 161

Morning; instability

Front 162

Dispersal of fog may be delayed when there is an abundance of ______ in the vicinity or when a layer of high ______ moves over the area.

Back 162

Moisture; cloud

Front 163

It ______ possible for radiation fog to form over the sea.

Back 163

Is not

Front 164

Advection fog requires the transport of _____ air over a ______ surface. The associated wind must be _____.

Back 164

Moist; cold; light

Front 165

It ______ possible for advection fog to form over the sea.

Back 165

Is

Front 166

Valley fog forms readily, especially in winter, when the valley walls and floor are ______ and when the river or stream provides a high ______ content to the air.

Back 166

Cold; moisture

Front 167

______ winds assist in the formation of valley fog.

Back 167

Katabatic

Front 168

When fog covers an airfield and a few holes seem to indicate that the top of the fog bank is not high, it is ______ to take off.

Back 168

Bad practice

Front 169

An airmass is a large block of air in which ______ and ______ are more or less uniform over great ______ distances.

Back 169

Temperature; moisture content; horizontal

Front 170

The two airmasses, or airstreams, that influence New Zealand's climate are ______ ______ and ______ ______.

Back 170

Tropical maritime; polar maritime

Front 171

When New Zealand experiences 'cold advection', skies are generally clear but ______ of the airstream produces ______ cloud with associated ______ and visibility will be ______ away from precipitation.

Back 171

Instability; cumuliform; showers; good

Front 172

When New Zealand experiences 'warm advection', skies are generally ______ and _____ of the airstream produces ______ cloud with associated ______. Visibility is generally ______.

Back 172

Cloudy; stability; stratiform; rain; poor

Front 173

Whenever a rotating mass of air starts to flow faster, it will do so on a ______ radius, there will be ______ and vorticity ______.

Back 173

Decreasing; convergence; increases

Front 174

Vorticity due to curvature and wind shear are collectively called ______ ______.

Back 174

Relative vorticity

Front 175

When a high level airflow experiences divergence, pressure at sea level is likely to ______ and a ______ will be formed.

Back 175

Fall; depression

Front 176

When a high level airflow experiences convergence, pressure at sea level is likely to ______ and a ______ will be formed.

Back 176

Increase; anticyclone

Front 177

When an orographic depression forms, there will generally be ______ cloud, winds will be _____ and temperatures will be ______.

Back 177

Little; strong; warm

Front 178

A cold front is indicated on a weather map by a line with ______ and a warm front is indicated by a line with ______. When colour coding is used, a cold front is coloured ______ and a warm front is coloured ______.

Back 178

Triangles; half rounds; blue; red

Front 179

Whether a front is a cold or warm front, the _____ sector will always be found above the _____ air.

Back 179

Warm; cold

Front 180

In general, cold fronts travel at a speed of approximately ______ knots and warm fronts at approximately ______ knots.

Back 180

20-30; 10-15

Front 181

When a cold front approaches, sea level pressure ______ and the wind tends to ______ and ______.

When the front is overhead there will be ______ cloud and ______, pressure ______, the temperature ______ and the wind ______.

After the front has passed, pressure ______, temperature remains ______, ______ cease and visibility will be ______ away from occasional ______.

Back 181

Falls; veer and increase; cumuliform; showers; reaches its lowest value; decreases; backs; increases; steady; showers; good; showers;

Front 182

When a warm front approaches, sea level pressure ______, ______ cloud moves overhead and the base progressively ______, the wind tends to ______ and ______, light ______ becomes more persistent and visibility becomes ______.

At the front , pressure ______ and the wind ______.

After the front, pressure is ______ or ______ and visibility will be ______ but poor in ______.

Back 182

Falls; high; lowers; veer and increase; rain; poor; stops falling; backs; steady or rises slightly; fair; occasional drizzle or rain

Front 183

An occluded front is normally associated with a ______-sector ______ and is indicated on a weather map by a ______ line.

Back 183

Warm-sector; depression; purple

Front 184

The predominant dangers of frontal activity to VFR flight are ______ cloud base and ______ visibility.

Back 184

Low; poor

Front 185

The formation of a thunderstorm requires the air to be very ______ through a ______ layer of the atmosphere. The relative humidity must be ______, and there must be a ______ action that causes air to ______.

Back 185

Unstable; deep; high; trigger; rise

Front 186

Lightening usually begins with the onset of ______.

Back 186

Showers

Front 187

When the thunderstorm is in the growing stage, all draughts are ______, there ______ precipitation.

In the mature stage, draughts are ______ and ______ and cause turbulence which can become ______. Precipitation involves ______ including ______.

In the decaying stage, all draughts are ______ and precipitation can be ______.

Back 187

Upward; is no; up and down; severe; showers; hail; downward; heavy

Front 188

During the mature and decaying stages, a ______ front is often found some distance ______ the Cb. The presence of this phenomenon is associated with wind ______ and loss of _____ if the _____ front catches up with an aircraft from the rear.

Back 188

Gust; ahead; shear; airspeed; gust

Front 189

Heat type thunderstorms are likely to be at the maximum intensity around ______.

Back 189

Early to mid afternoon

Front 190

The main dangers to light aircraft flying in thunderstorm conditions are ______ which can be ______, ______ which will be encountered above the freezing level and ______ draughts below the Cb during the mature and decaying stages.

Back 190

Turbulence; severe; icing; down

Front 191

Tornadoes are caused by very intense ______ associated with very active Cbs.

Back 191

Instability

Front 192

By super cooled water is meant ______ water at temperatures ______ _____.

Back 192

Liquid; below 0°C

Front 193

When a supercooled water droplet is disturbed, ______ of the droplet turns to ice instantly.

Back 193

Part

Front 194

The reason for slow freezing of supercooled droplets is ______ ______ ______.

Back 194

Release of latent heat

Front 195

In general the lower the temperature, the ______ the part of a supercooled drop that freezes instantly when disturbed.

Back 195

Greater

Front 196

The two main types of icing in aviation are ______ and ______.

Back 196

Airframe; engine

Front 197

Airframe icing is sub-divided as ______, ______, ______ and ______.

Back 197

Clear; rime; hoar frost; freezing rain

Front 198

Engine icing is sub-divided as ______ and _____.

Back 198

Carburettor icing; intake icing

Front 199

Clear ice can normally be expected when flying in ______ cloud with the ambient temperature between ______°C and ______°C.

Back 199

Cumuliform; 0 and -15°C

Front 200

Clear ice is ______ to dislodge and when it breaks off, it poses a risk of ______ to aircraft components.

Back 200

Difficult; damage

Front 201

Rime ice can normally be expected when flying in ______ cloud with the ambient temperature ______ than -15°C.

Back 201

Stratiform; colder

Front 202

Although rime ice is ______ to dislodge than clear ice, a bad feature is its ______ shape which upsets the ______ characteristics of wings and other important aircraft components.

Back 202

Easier; irregular; aerodynamic

Front 203

Hoar frost ______ a serious problem because it ______ lift, ______ drag and ______ runway length requirement.

Back 203

Is; decreases; increases; increases

Front 204

To remove hoar frost before sunrise, it ______ wise to throw a bucket of water over the aircraft.

Back 204

Is not

Front 205

When an aircraft encounters freezing rain, the best remedy is to ______ the area.

Back 205

Vacate

Front 206

Aircraft components that are subject to rapid ice accretion are ______ objects and accretion will be ______ with higher aircraft speeds (up to about 250 knots).

Back 206

Sharp; quicker

Front 207

The amount of water content in cloud ______ significant with respect to ice accretion and for this reason ______ cloud will produce a greater icing risk than ______ cloud.

Back 207

Is; 'warm'; 'cold'

Front 208

Carburettor ice is caused by ______ in temperature in the venturi due to ______ of the flow of air and ______ of fuel.

Back 208

Decrease; speed-up; evaporation

Front 209

It is particularly important to apply carburettor heat in most engines fitted to light aircraft when using ______ power while ______.

Back 209

partial; descending

Front 210

When applying carburettor heat, the mixture becomes ______ because warm air is ______ dense than cold air.

Back 210

Richer; less

Front 211

The diurnal trend of thermal turbulence results in the least turbulence around ______ and maximum turbulence around ______.

Back 211

Sunrise; 2 p.m.

Front 212

Fair weather cumulus is cloud associated with ______ turbulence. Flight below these clouds will be ______ and above them, flight will be ______.

Back 212

Thermal; turbulent; smooth

Front 213

The worst mechanical turbulence will be encountered when the wind is ______, the size of the obstruction is ______, the shape of the obstruction is ______ and the air is ______.

Back 213

Strong; large; irregular; unstable

Front 214

Standing eddies will normally be found on the windward side of hills when the wind is less than approximately ______ knots.

Back 214

15 knots

Front 215

Turbulence due to wind shear associated with the friction layer is at it maximum around ______.

Back 215

Dawn

Front 216

Wake turbulence produced by an aircraft is worse when the aircraft is ______, ______ and when its speed is ______.

Back 216

Heavy; flap up; slow

Front 217

In calm conditions, wake turbulence can persist for about ______ minutes.

Back 217

Six

Front 218

The modern attitude towards turbulence is to ______ it whenever possible.

Back 218

Avoid

Front 219

When encountering wind shear on approach to land, the rate of descent will ______, the airspeed will ______ and the descent angle will ______.

Back 219

increase; decrease; steepen

Front 220

Common situations where low level wind shear can be expected are: descending into a ______ friction layer, descending into the ______ of sand dunes in a sea breeze, ascending or descending through ______ ______ boundary.

Back 220

Dense; lee; sea breeze

Front 221

When there is a Cb between aircraft approach position and the runway it is quite ______ to fly below the Cb because there is a strong likelihood of ______ ______ and ______ ______.

Back 221

Unsafe; down draught; wind shear

Front 222

When the base of a Cb is high, it is quite ______ to fly beneath its base because evaporating precipitation can produce strong ______ ______.

Back 222

Unsafe; down draught

Front 223

Light VFR aircraft can be exposed to dangers of airframe icing when in ______ above the freezing level.

Back 223

Precipitation

Front 224

If a VFR aircraft experiences icing conditions, the immediate action should be to ______ the area and ______.

Back 224

Vacate; descend

Front 225

When a helicopter is to be landed on a snow-covered surface, a dangerous combination for disorientation during the hover is ______ all-up weight and a ______ altitude.

Back 225

High; high

Front 226

Carburettor icing is potentially threatening when the environment temperature is between ______°C and ______°C, when there is ______ in the air and when the throttle is ______.

Back 226

+25 and -15°C; moisture; partially open or closed

Front 227

Regarding visibility, low cloud and precipitation can distort the ______ and ______ of objects.

Back 227

Appearance; colour

Front 228

A serious reduction in depth perception can be experienced when flying in unsaturated air in mountainous terrain close to ______ when the ______ ______ is dense and flight is on the ______ sides of ridges and cliffs.

Back 228

Sunset; friction layer; shadow

Front 229

It is not difficult to become disorientated when flying in conditions where cloud and precipitation merge. This merging is more common with ______ cloud because ______ cloud often has sharper outlines.

Back 229

Stratiform; cumuliform

Front 230

When attempting to cross a mountain range into a strong headwind, be aware of strong ______ and possible ______ action. Ensure that mountain top height is acheived ______ reaching the mountain range and cross at an ______ angle to the range.

Back 230

Down draught; rotor; before; oblique

Front 231

Having entered cloud or very poor visibility inadvertently, the best course of action is to do a ______ without delay.

Back 231

180° turn

Front 232

Techniques for avoiding turbulence are: fly at the ______ possible altitude, ______ turbulence cloud if possible, on the ______ side of mountains and at a ______ speed, when warranted.

Back 232

Highest; above; windward; reduced

Front 233

Runway length and aircraft performance permitting, when following a large aircraft on take-off, become airborne before the leading aircraft and climb ______ than its climb path. On approach to land, remain ______ the leading aircraft's descent path and land ______ its touch-down point.

Back 233

Higher; above; beyond

Front 234

To establish practical limits when gaining experience in less than perfect weather conditions. the following do's and don'ts may be helpful:
(i) make a contingency allowance of at least ______ hour(s) prior to published ______ twilight;
(ii) avoid flying on cross country flights when the ceiling is less than ______ feet and / or visibility is less than ______ km until more experience has been gained.
(iii) fly as _____ as possible and permissible;
(iv) never attempt to ______ mountain slope;
(v) do not fly through valleys when cloud covers the ridges unless there is a satisfactory ______ route.

Back 234

(i) 1; onset
(ii) 3000 ft; 30 km
(iii) high
(iv) outclimb
(v) escape

Front 235

The three major influences that govern the climate of New Zealand are ______, ______ and ______.

Back 235

Latitude, oceans, topography

Front 236

The prevailing wind in New Zealand is the ______. The area most affected by this wind is the ______ part of the ______ Island.

Back 236

Westerly; southern, South

Front 237

______ fronts are a regular feature of the _______ winds, the areas most affected are the ______ coasts of the ______ Island.

Back 237

Cold; westerly; west and south; South

Front 238

The influence of the surrounding oceans provide New Zealand with a relatively ______ climate.

Back 238

Moist

Front 239

The topography of New Zealand results in the west coasts of both islands experiencing ______ rainfall than the ______ but turbulence is generally more pronounced on the ______.

Back 239

More; east; east

Front 240

The northwest winds are usually associated with ______ frontal situations whereas the southwest winds are normally associated with ______ frontal situations.

Back 240

Pre; post

Front 241

The southeasterly wind ______ a frequently occurring wind but when it forms part of the western flank of a departing depression in winter, ______ can be expected to low levels on the ______ coasts of both Islands.

Back 241

Is not; snow; east

Front 242

Conditions for VFR flight over the Southern Alps are usually better in the ______.

Back 242

Early morning

Front 243

When flying in valleys, the natural ______ is lost and it becomes more difficult to fly a level attitude.

Back 243

Horizion

Front 244

All times stated in meteorological forecasts and reports by the MetService are in ______.

Back 244

UTC

Front 245

NZDT starts on the ______Sunday of ______ and finishes on the ______ Sunday of ______.

Back 245

Last; September; first; April

Front 246

ARFOR information (in UTC and NZST) is issued ______ times per day, between ______ to ______, and between ______ to ______.

Back 246

two, between 1730 to 1810 UTC (0530 to 0610 NZST) and between 2330 to 0010 UTC (1130 to 1210 NZST) Note: 1 hour earlier during NZDT

Front 247

When cloud is forecast in an ARFOR, the base of this cloud is in feet above ______.

Back 247

Sea level

Front 248

The forecast wind in an ARFOR is in ______ and degrees ______ and applies for the ______ of the forecast period.

Back 248

knots; true; average

Front 249

When cloud is forecast as BKN, it means there may be between ______ and ______ oktas of cloud.

Back 249

5 and 7

Front 250

When a CB is forecast, it automatically implies the likely presence of ______.

Back 250

Icing

Front 251

A METAR is a ______ rather than a forecast and therefore it will have an ______ time but not a ______ period.

Back 251

Report; issue; validity

Front 252

A SPECI will be issued ______ when certain weather criteria fall below pre-determined minima and is cancelled ______ after improvement above pre-determined minima is established.

Back 252

immediately; 10 minutes

Front 253

In a METAR, the surface wind is given is ______ and degrees ______. The base of reported cloud is given in feet above ______.

Back 253

knots; true; aerodrome level

Front 254

A report form an aerodrome has the prefix SPECI. The report is based on ______.

Back 254

Human observations

Front 255

In current weather conditions, the symbol + means ______, the symbol - means ______ and VC means ______.

Back 255

Heavy; light; in the vicinity of

Front 256

After the visibility details in a METAR AUTO you see //. What is meant by this symbol?

Back 256

Present weather (precipitation) not detected

Front 257

By NSC in the cloud cover section of a METAR is meant ______.

Back 257

No significant cloud

Front 258

When the temperature in a METAR is preceded by the letter M, it means ______.

Back 258

Minus

Front 259

When a landing forecast (TREND) is appended to a METAR, its validity period is ______ hours.

Back 259

Two

Front 260

The meaning of the abbreviation NOSIG is ______ ______ ______.

Back 260

No significant change

Front 261

The meaning of the abbreviation BECMG is ______ ______ and TEMPO means ______ ______.

Back 261

Gradual change; temporary fluctuation

Front 262

A TAF is a ______ prepared for a particular aerodrome encompassing the airspace within a radius of ______ km from the aerodrome ______.

Back 262

Forecast; 8; reference point

Front 263

A TAF starts with TAF NZGS 121605Z 1217/1309.
121605Z 1217/1309 means ______.

Back 263

Issued at 1605 UTC on the 12th, valid from 1700 UTC on the 12th - 0900 UTC on the 13th

Front 264

The wind velocity in a TAF is given in ______ and degrees ______. Cloud base is given in feet ______.

Back 264

knots; true; AGL

Front 265

Aerodrome QNH forecasts can be appended to a ______ and the QNH value contained in the forecasts ______ be used as altimeter settings.

Back 265

TAF; may not

Front 266

A SIGMET has a validity period of ______ hours (ignoring two exceptions) and serial number 1 starts at ______ UTC.

Back 266

Four; 0000 UTC

Front 267

In SIGMET, the meaning INST is ______ WKN is ______, HVY is ______, BLW is ______, SQL is ______, and WID is ______.

Back 267

Intensity; weakening; heavy; below; squall line, wide

Front 268

Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is prepared by ______ and ______.

Back 268

Air Traffic Control; transmitted by radio

Front 269

What is meant by the abbreviation VAAS?

Back 269

Volcanic Ash Advisory System