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341 Cards in this Set

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What is the airplane “maximum” ambient temperature limit?
Normal:
+50 degrees C “or” ISA + 35 degrees C (whichever is lower)

With the Bypass Doors “Open”:
ISA + 25 degrees C (“MTOP” and “MCP” power settings)
What is the airplane “minimum” ambient temperature limit?
-54 degree C
What is the maximum operating altitude?
25,000 feet
What is the maximum operating altitude for takeoff?
10,000 feet
What is Horizon’s Vfe speed for flaps 5 degrees?
195 kts
What is Horizon’s Vfe speed for flaps 10 degrees?
175 kts
What is Horizon’s Vfe speed for flaps 15 degrees?
165 kts
What is Horizon’s Vfe speed for flaps 35 degrees?
155 kts
What is Horizon’s Vlo speed?
195 kts
What is the “structural” Vlo speed?
200 kts
What is the Landing Gear Extended Speed (VLE)?
215 kts

185 kts following alternate gear extension
What is the maximum airspeed for flight in “severe turbulence”?
210 kts
What is Va (Maneuvering Speed)?
204 kts
What is the engine starter cranking limits?
1st Attempt:
70 Seconds “ON” / 2 Minutes “OFF”

2nd Attempt:
70 Seconds “ON” / 2 Minutes “OFF”

3rd Attempt:
70 Seconds “ON” / 30 Minutes “OFF”
When are the engine intake bypass doors required to be open?
- For engine operation in icing conditions.

- Anytime that ice accumulation remains on the propeller spinners.
Regarding the use of ice protection equipment, what is the definition of icing conditions?
Icing conditions exist when:

GROUND

The SAT is 10 degrees C or less with visible precipitation in any form present or fog reducing the visibility below 1 mile.

When operating on ramp/taxiways where the surface contamination may be ingested by the engines or freeze on the engines, nacelles or engine sensor probes.

FLIGHT

The SAT is +5 degrees C to -40 degrees C and visible moisture in any form is present.
What is the maximum crosswind component for takeoff or landing?
32 kts
What is the maximum “inflight” fuel imbalance between contents of the main fuel tanks?
600 lbs
When are the tank “aux pumps” required to be “ON”?
For all takeoffs and landings.
What is the maximum Main, Aux and Standby battery load meter reading for takeoff?
.10 (10%)
What is the minimum battery temperature for takeoff?
-20 degrees C
Under normal operations, what is the maximum altitude with the landing gear and/or flaps extended?
15,000 feet

With the gear extended:
20,000 feet when operating under the appropriate MEL.
What is the maximum wind speed with the nose of the airplane more than 45 degrees out of the wind when setting takeoff power prior to brake release?
8 kts
Is flight operation with the power levers aft of the flight idle gate allowed?
No

Flight operations with the power levers “aft” of the flight idle gate is prohibited!
What is the “maximum” cabin differential limit?
5.95 psi
What is the “maximum” cabin pressure differential during takeoff and landing?
.5 psi
When must the engine bleed air be selected to “OFF” for takeoff?
Whenever:

1. Tailwind exceeds 10 kts
2. Takeoff is conducted with MTOP Power selected
3. Windshear is suspected.
When must the engine bleed air be selected to “OFF” for landing?
Whenever:

1. Tailwind exceeds 10 kts
2. Reported OAT exceeds 39 degrees C (100 degrees F)
3. Windshear is suspected.
Is takeoff with the AHARS in “Basic Mode” allowed?
No
Is takeoff with the AHRS in “DG Mode” allowed?
No
If the forward and aft baggage compartments are not empty, how far can the airplane be operated from a suitable airport for landing?
Not further than 60 minutes from a suitable airport based on single engine, most direct route in still air.
When using the flight deck speakers, how shall the “Hot Mic” switches be set on both ARCDU’s?
Hot mic switches must be selected to “OFF” on both the captain’s and first officers ARCDUs.
How does the Observers INT/RAD switch need to be set when using the flight deck speakers?
Centered
Can the APU be operated in flight?
No
The APU is only allowed for ground operations.
If the APU is not shut down prior to takeoff the APU Fuel Solenoid valve will automatically close with weight off wheels.
May the APU be operated “unattended” with passengers on board?
No
May the APU be operated during “gravity refueling”?
No
May the APU be started during refueling operations?
No

The electrical system must remain in a steady state.
What is the APU “maximum” ambient temperature limitation?
50 degrees C or ISA + 35 degrees whichever is “lower”.
What is the APU “minimum” ambient temperature limit?
Starting: -35 degrees C
- Below -35 degrees C the APU must be pre-heated by an acceptable maintenance procedure prior to starting.

Operating: -54 degrees C
What are the APU starter cranking limits?
1st Attempt:
60 seconds “ON” / 5 minutes “OFF”

2nd Attempt:
60 seconds “ON” / Maintenance Action Required

Wait a minimum of 30 minutes “including” maintenance action prior to a 3rd start attempt.
What is the “minimum” height for autopilot engagement after takeoff or go-around?
1000 feet AFE
Regarding adverse weather, when shall the autopilot be disengaged?
1. Flight through Severe Icing
2. Flight through Severe to Extreme Turbulence
Autopilot coupled approaches are approved to what limits/minimums only?
Precision approach: 200 feet
Non-Precision approach: 200 feet
AIII approach: 1,000’ AFE
The autopilot shall be disengaged at or above what altitude for autopilot coupled approaches?
200 feet AFE
When is the autopilot required to be disengaged at or above 1,000 feet AFE?
1. Single engine approaches
2. HGS approaches flown in AIII mode
3. Zero flap landings
What is the demonstrated crosswind component for autopilot coupled approaches?
18 kts (not limiting)
The use of MTOP for takeoff is limited to how many minutes?
10 minutes
When are reduced NP landings prohibited?
1. Landings are accomplished at the “Solid Bug”.
2. Bleeds off performance is required.
3. Tailwind exceeds 10 kts
4. Suspected windshear
5. Contaminated runways
6. Braking action is “Less than Good”
What are the “Takeoff Abort” memory items?
Call: “Abort - My Airplane”
Power levers: Flt Idle / Disc
Apply maximum brakes

- Maintain directional control with the rudders and nosewheel steering.
- Stop the aircraft (clear of the runway if practical) and evaluate the problem.
- Direct the first officer to request emergency equipment, if required.

Call for the “Takeoff Abort Checklist”
Call for the “appropriate checklist” which caused the abort!

- Evaluate the situation
- Tell the passengers to remain seated or order an evacuation
- Wait at least 10 minutes brake cooling prior to another takeoff attempt.
What events require a takeoff to be aborted prior to V1?
- A rejected takeoff is required for:

1. Takeoff torque not obtained on either engine.

PRIOR TO 80 KTS:
2. Failure of the “A/F ARM” message to appear on the ED.
3. HGS FAILURE or “TO WARN” or loss of symbology when below 500 RVR when the runway centerline is “not in sight”.

PRIOR TO V1
4. Engine Failure
5. Engine Fire
6. Any Master Warning
7. Takeoff Warning Horn
8. Windshear Warning
9. Exceeding an engine limitation.
What are the “Engine Start Abort” memory items?
#1/#2 Condition Lever - Fuel “OFF”

Start Select Switch - “Center”

The Captain calls for the “Engine Start Abort” checklist!
When shall an engine start be aborted by the pilot?
A engine start shall be aborted if:

1. Engine ITT approaches or exceeds 920 degrees C.
2. Nh is not in the green arc within 70 seconds of selecting the Condition Lever to the “Start/Feather” position.
3. Engine oil pressure fails to reach 44 psi by start select switch reset.
What are the “Pitch Control Jam” memory items?
Autopilot - “Disengage”

- Retain flap setting and approximate airspeed at time of jam.

- If controls still jammed:
Both pilots attempt to control by applying force against the jam.

- If unable to overcome the jam:
Control column force - Relax
Pitch disconnect handle - “Pull and Turn 90 degrees”
Control Column - “Both pilots attempt pitch control”
Aircraft Control - “Pilot with free control column”

Call for the “Pitch Control Jam” checklist
What are the “Roll Control Jam” memory items?
Autopilot - “Disengage”

If control is still jammed:
ROLL DISC handle - “Pull and Turn 90 degrees”
Control Wheels - “Both pilots attempt roll control”
Aircraft Control - “Pilot with free controls”

Call for the “Roll Control Jam” checklist
What is the “Oxygen Mask Donning Procedure”?
Announce “Smoke - Don Mask” or “Oxygen - Don Mask”

1. Headset Remove
2. Oxygen Mask - Don
- Regulator “Emergency” (if required)
3. Communications - Establish
- Headset - “ON”
- Hot Mic - “OFF”
- Mask/Mic switch - “MASK”
4. Call for the appropriate checklist which caused the condition.
What is the “Missed Approach Procedure”?
2-Engine Missed Approach Procedure:

- Call: “MISSED APPROACH” and press the GA button
- Rotate to command bars (10 degrees nose up)
- Call: “SET POWER”
- Call: “FLAPS ONE NOTCH UP”
- At positive rate call: “GEAR UP” (seen or heard)
- Climb at “solid bug”
- Call: “PUSH HDG / VERIFY LNAV / NAV SOURCE FMS - PUSH NAV / TUNE ___ SET COURSE ___ PUSH NAV”
- Call: “SET PITCH HOLD, PUSH ALT SELECT”

At Acceleration Height:
Call: “FLAPS UP, CLIMB POWER, AFTER TAKEOFF CHECKLIST”

Note: If an engine fails during the go-around procedure “immediately” call for the “ENGINE FAILURE CHECKLIST” to feather the propeller.

Single Engine Missed Approach Procedure:

- Call: “MISSED APPROACH” and press the GA button
- Rotate to command bars (10 degrees nose up)
- Call: “SET POWER”
- Call: “FLAPS ONE NOTCH UP”
- At positive rate call: “GEAR UP” (seen or heard)
- Climb at “open bug” with REF SPEEDS “OFF” / “solid bug” with REF SPEEDS “INCR”
- Call: “PUSH HDG / VERIFY LNAV / NAV SOURCE FMS - PUSH NAV / TUNE ___ SET COURSE ___ PUSH NAV”
- Call: “SET PITCH HOLD, PUSH ALT SELECT”

At Acceleration Height:
- Call: “PUSH ALT”
- At bug + 10 kts call: “FLAPS UP”
- At Vse call: “PUSH IAS, SET VSE”
- Call: “SINGLE ENGINE MISSED APPROACH CHECKLIST”
What is the appropriate pilot response to a “Too-Low Gear” EGPWS alert?
Accomplish the “Missed Approach” procedure.

Occurs when:
- Within 500 feet AGL with gear “UP” and below 190 kts.
What is the appropriate pilot response to a “Too-Low Flaps” EGPWS alert?
Accomplish the “Missed Approach” procedure.

Occurs when:
- Within 250 feet AGL with gear “DOWN” and the flaps not in the EGPWS landing configuration.
If windshear is encountered during takeoff after V1, when should rotation occur?
Rotate normally at Vr(W)

If less than 2,000 feet of runway remains rotate normally, even if below Vr(W).
What is the aircraft wing span?
93’ 3”
As defined by FAR, what approach category is the Q-400?
CAT “C”

<91 kts = CAT “A”
91 - 120 kts = CAT “B”
121 - 140 kts = CAT “C”
141 - 165 kts = CAT “D”
Above 165 kts = CAT “E”
Would you ever need to use CAT D minimums when flying an approach?
Use the appropriate category for the highest airspeed used during the approach inside the FAF.

When conducting a 0 degree flap landing or a circling approach you may be above 140 kts during the approach.
A 180 degree turn should not be attempted with less than what width of runway pavement?
84 feet 5 Inches
What is the minimal operational runway width?
100 feet

If the runway is less than 150 feet the braking action must be reported as “FAIR or Better” if the crosswind exceeds 10 kts.
What is the minimum landing gear strut extension?
Nose Strut:
- If less than 1” of chrome is visible then contact maintenance control and advise.
- If “no chrome” is visible than a maintenance log entry is required.
- If strut bottoms out during taxi a maintenance log entry is required.

Main Gear Strut:
- Normal extension is 1.5” to 4.5”
What is the name of the aft door on the right side of the airplane?
“Service Door”

(Type I Door)
What is the name of the aft door on the left side of the airplane used for boarding and deplaning?
“Aft Passenger Door”

(Type I Door)
What is the name of the forward door on the right side of the airplane which can be used for emergency egress?
“Type II/III Emergency Exit

(Type II/III Door)
- Incorporates a ditching dam.
Do the engine bleed air switches have any effect on the APU bleed air?
Yes

Selecting either engine bleed air switch to the “ON” position will close the APU bleed air valve.
How do you determine the “minimum” crew O2 pressure required at various temperatures.
Indicator is accurate at 70 degrees F / 21 degrees C.

Outside of this temperature range consult the FSM.
(Crew Oxygen Bottle Temperature Compensation Table - FSM Section 7 - Supplementary Procedures)
How do you verify “Bleeds - ON/MIN” on the Before Takeoff Checklist?
Verify that the “Bleed Annunciations” are “White” on the Engine Display.

Note:
If the flow control is set to “NORM” or “MAX”, up-trim following an engine failure will only be MCP rather than MTOP when the bleeds are displayed as an “Amber” color on the Engine Display.
After conducting a “Bleeds Off” takeoff, when is the earliest that you may select the bleeds back “ON”?
Climbing through 400 feet AFE.
After lift-off, approximately how long will the Cabin Pressure Controller (CPC) stay in “Take-Off Mode” to allow for a return to the departure airport without resetting the landing altitude in the CPC?
10 Minutes
If the Cabin Pressure Warning light illuminates at FL230, what should be stated by the pilot who detects the problem?
“Master Warning - Cabin Pressure Warning - Oxygen Don Mask”
Where would you find the “Cabin Press Warn” checklist?
Immediate action card - “Front” page

Immediate Action Card “Front Page” items include:
- Engine Failure / Fire
- APU Fire
- Aircraft Fire or Smoke
- Smoke Evacuation
- Engine FADEC Warning
- Oil Pressure Warning
- Cabin Press Warning
- Emergency Descent
When is the forward safety outflow valve used/opened?
Only a checklist driven item.

It is used for emergency smoke evacuation as well as ventilation with both packs failed.
When conducting a bleeds off landing, what is the highest altitude that the bleeds may be selected to “OFF”?
1,000 feet AFE
After starting the APU, how long should you wait before selecting the APU bleeds to “ON”?
2 minutes
During taxi for takeoff, what position shall the bleeds “Flow Control Selector” switch be in?
“MIN”

Note:
Running the Flow Control in the “MAX” position could cause a “Bleed Hot” condition!
What is the difference between the “ON”, the “BOTH”, and the “FMS” positions on the ARCDU ON-OFF rotary switch?
ON: Selects the ARCDU “ON” for on-side tuning only.

BOTH: Allows for both on-side and cross-tune capability to the opposite side ARCDU.

FMS: Enables the FMS auto tune capability to the ARCDU.
Is it acceptable to try and clear a “BAD CONF” message displayed on the ARCDU by cycling to Off and then back to FMS?
Yes

This is considered the normal procedure to try and clear the message!
In ARCDU “EMER” mode, can the First officer transmit on Com #1?
No

The first officer will have monitoring capabilities only!
Are the audio levels adjustable in ARCDU “EMER” mode?
No ... volume levels are set at a fixed level.
Show the checklist you would run for a red “FAIL” message in the INT section of the ARCDU.
“FAIL (ARCDU)”

- Located in the “Emergency /Abnormal Checklist” (Red Binder), Page 4.4

- Indicates failure of the “RCAU”.

- The checklist will have you select the respective ARCDU “OFF” for 5 seconds and then back to “ON”.

- If the ARCDU “does not” reset then:
1. Audio will be fixed at a set volume on the failed ARCDU.
2. Respective pilot will lose the capability to transmit on either comm.
- Affected pilot may still transmit on “INT” but looses crew interphone.
What does a flashing “EMER” key switchlight on the ARCDU mean/indicate?
- One of the flight attendants has pressed the “EMER” button on either the FWD or AFT flight attendant panels indicating that an emergency exists in the cabin.

- A chime is heard in the cockpit and cabin.

- Select the “PA” position on the microphone control. The mics will automatically go to the “HOT” position (no need to push the PTT switch).
When answering in response to an ARCDU “EMER” call from the cabin and there is no response from the cabin, what should you do?
1. Try to contact the flight attendants via the interphone / FA call.
- If unable to contact the flight attendants then:
2. Lock-down the cockpit.
3. View and access the situation through the peep window in the flight deck door.
4. Declare an emergency with ATC if required and land the aircraft.
Can the VHF Comm Standby Control Panel be used in the event of a #2 ARCDU failure for the First Officer to be able to communicate with ATC?
No

If the #2 ARCDU fails the First Officer will have no communication. The Standby Comm will only supplement the #1 ARCDU.
Do you have to actively monitor company frequency with SELCAL installed and in range of a Horizon station?
No

Monitoring the radio is not required, however the #2 com must have the appropriate company frequency tuned for SELCAL operation.
When do you have to monitor ARINC frequency?
Anytime that:

- Selcal is inoperative or the aircraft “is not” in range of a Horizon Station.

Note:
SAT COM should be used for communication with dispatch and maintenance control when outside the range of Selcal.
Where can you find the ARINC frequency for your area of flight?
1. Jeppesen manual
2. QRH (Quick Reference Handbook) / Section 8
What Comm radio must be used for ATIS/Clearance while at the gate?
Comm #1

Comm #2 must be used to monitor company frequency (Selcal).
When making normal PA’s which microphone shall be used?
The hand mic.

Note:
The hand mic improves clarity and reduces bleed-over on ATC.
When ready for cabin door closure for departure, what announcement is used to cue the Flight Attendants?
“Flight Attendants - ready for door closure”
Should pilots make a PA when turning ON/OFF the seatbelt sign?
It is required for the pilots to make a PA the first time after takeoff that the seat belt sign is turned OFF. After that it is encouraged if time and conditions permit when making a change to the condition of the seat belt sign.
Which PA system has priority over the other, flight deck or cabin?
1. Flight Deck
2. FWD Flight Attendant Station
3. AFT Flight Attendant Station
4. Passenger Entertainment System
Under what conditions is the use of interphone communication “NOT” mandatory between the captain and pushback agent?
1. Interphone system is on MEL
2. Thunderstorms reported within 5 NM

Note:
An additional ground agent must be available to relay hand signals to the tug operator.
Adequate visibility must exist!
Anytime that ATIS indicates “Low Visibility Conditions” are in effect the ground interphone system “is required” to be functional.
Under what conditions must the interphone system between the flight deck and ground be operative for pushback?
1. Anytime that ATIS indicates that “Low Visibility Conditions” exist.

2. Anytime that the ground interphone system is not on MEL.
Headsets and boom mikes shall be used for all communications below what altitude?
Below 18,000 feet MSL
Does the captain have to contact dispatch if there was a rejected takeoff (after the takeoff clearance is received)?
Yes

- It requires notification to the FAA.
- Submit an HA 148 form.
- The flight may require a re-release.
Where would you find a list of the events that require filing an HA148?
- Flight Operations Manual (Emergency / Abnormal / Hazmat Section 15)

- QRH (Quick Reference Handbook)
How is an irregularity reported?
HA148 form.

May be submitted on-line through the FDDS site or faxed directly to SOC.
Can the captain authorize the use of cell phones after the aircraft has left the gate?
Yes

During prolonged ground delays.
The aircraft must be stopped with the parking brake set. Re-secure the aircraft prior to further movement.
Is it permissible, workload permitting, following a go-around and below 10,000’ to make a short PA informing the passengers of the reason for the go-around and the flight’s intentions?
Yes

It is recommended to make an announcement to keep the passengers informed of operational delays.
When contacting Dispatch or Maintenance Control in flight and before proceeding with the reason for the call, what information shall be provided?
1. Flight Number
2. Aircraft Number
3. Aircraft’s position
For an aircraft with operable Selcal and EFB’s, which should be used as the preferred means of contacting Dispatch or Maintenance Control?
Selcal is primary.
SAT COM is secondary
ARINC is the last resort

Note:
If neither Selcal or Sat Com is operational then use ARINC to communicate with dispatch or maintenance control.

Maintenance Control does not monitor the EFBs “Text Messaging” function.
What microphone is recommended to be used when communicating via EFB Satcom?
Hand Microphone

Note:
Using the hand microphone will improve clarity!
When calling SOC, who shall be contacted first for events that may effect the flight?
Dispatch
What two airports require the use of Radio Remote procedures?
1. Pullman, Washington
2. Redmond, Oregon (when the tower is closed)
If a flight is not anticipated to be airborne within 15 minutes of the “OUT” time, what communication shall occur?
Notify stations of the ground delay.

Update the station at 15 minute intervals.
What is the normal method for announcing the brace signal?
“BRACE, BRACE, BRACE” over the PA system.
If the PA is inoperative what is the alternate method for announcing the brace signal?
Press the “EMER” switchlight on the ARCDU control panel.
What is the “maximum difference” between an altimeter and a published elevation?
75 feet
What is the AHARS limitation for takeoff?
Takeoff is not permitted in the “Basic” or “DG” modes.
What effect does the illumination of the “BASIC” light on the AHRU have on the affected attitude indicator?
Basic mode will automatically “activate” with a loss of True Airspeed data.

It will cause a “decreased” attitude accuracy and the ADI will behave like a conventional mechanical gimbaled gyro.
If the Captain’s PFD fails, what would be the appropriate course of action?
Call for the “PFD Failure” checklist.
- Located in the “Red Binder”.

Note:
The checklist will have you select the PFD on the MFD display!
What does a “CHECK NAV SOURCE” in amber on a PFD mean?
“CHECK NAV SOURCE” (PFD)

- Indicates that the selected Flight Director mode is inhibited or the current “active” mode has dropped.

- Call for the “Check Nav Source” checklist located in the red binder.
What does the “WxA RADAR” pushbutton do?
Selects the “Weather Alert” mode of operation.

- Any “magenta” colored returns will flash on and off to alert the pilot of the intensity of the return.
The proper course of action for an amber message, such as “A/P Pitch Trim Fail”, at the top of a PFD in the flight mode annunciation area can be found where?
Call for the “AP Pitch Trim Fail” checklist.

Located in the Emergency/Abnormal checklist (“Red Binder”).
The annunciation of “HSI” with an arrow pointing to the left or right above your ADI indicates the flight director is coupled to which PFD, yours or the other pilot’s?
The other pilots.
On an approach in IMC conditions, what is the maximum allowable difference between the two primary altimeters before a missed approach is required?
100 feet at the FAF!
Does a green “DC EXT PWR” message displayed on the MFD electrical page indicate that the aircraft is receiving 28 VDC power from the GPU?
Yes

The “DC EXT PWR” message will illuminate when:

1. The “DC Power” switch is selected to “ON”
“and”
2. The aircraft is receiving external DC Power

Note:

- EPCU will provide protection from ground power malfunctions such as over voltage or under voltage.
- The “DC EXT PWR” message does not necessarily indicate that “28 volts” is available, just that EPCU finds it satisfactory power (between 22 and 31 volts).
How can you verify that 28 VDC power is being received from the GPU?
- By illumination of the “DC EXT PWR” (green) message in the electrical synoptic page.

- Reference the MFD “Electrical Page” to verify that the GPU is providing adequate voltage to all six buses.
Is there protection from DC ground power (GPU) malfunctions such as excessive or inadequate voltage conditions?
EPCU will provide protection from DC ground power malfunctions such as excessive or inadequate voltage conditions.

EPCU will accept power when between approximately 22 to 31 volts.
What should be done if, after selecting the APU GEN “ON”, one or more of the batteries has a load of “.40 or more”?
1. Select the RECIRC Fan Off
2. Select all batteries “OFF” except for the Battery Master and the “Main Battery”.

- Allow the MAIN Battery to charge until the battery load is below 40%.

3. Select the “AUX Battery” to “ON”

- Allow the AUX Battery to charge until the battery load is below 40%.

4. Select the “STBY Battery” to “ON”

- Allow the STBY Battery to charge until the battery load is below 40%.

Note:
Monitor the APU generator load to ensure that it doesn’t exceed 1.00 during battery charging.
How does the First Officer verify “Batteries - All On” on the Before Start checklist?
The First Officer Verifies:

- Main Battery, Aux Battery, and Stby Battery caution lights are extinguished on the annunciation panel.

The Captain Verifies:

- All batteries, DC Generators and Main Bus Tie is “ON”

Note:
If external power is to be used for start:
- Verify: The external power switch is “ON” and the APU Gen amber “WARN” light is illuminated.

If the APU Generator is to be used for start:
- Verify: The external power switch is “OFF” and the APU Gen green light is illuminated.
If electrical power is lost during or after the initiation of the “Before Start Checklist”, what checklist(s) must be accomplished after electrical power is restored?
1. Originating Checklist
2. Before Start Checklist
Can we reset/pull circuit breakers without direction from an emergency/abnormal checklist or Maintenance Control?
No
Must a tripped circuit breaker be recorded in the maintenance log?
Yes
After starter reset, when can you commence the start procedure for the other engine?
Only after:

1. The “Start Select” light extinguishes (approx. 15 seconds).
“and”
2. The “MAIN” battery load falls below .40 (40%).
Under what conditions may the APU be used for engine starts even though a GPU is available?
When boarding of a flight next to you will delay your push or starting your engine will delay the boarding of another plane.
When starting using a “GPU”, when do the DC generators come on line?
When the “EXT PWR” switch is physically selected to the “OFF” position.

The ships generators are inhibited from coming on-line by the physical position of the external power switch.
Approximately how long should the batteries last when on Essential Power?
45 to 50 minutes

For certification the FAA requires at least a minimum 30 minute reserve.
What aircraft systems are powered by the 115 volt AC Buses?
1. TRU’s
2. Anti-Ice Systems
3. #1/#2 Aux Boost Pumps
4. Standby Hyd Pump
Of the annunciated doors, how is an unsecured door annunciated on the flight deck?
1. Master Warning
2. “FUSELAGE DOOR” Warning
3. Three (3) warning tones sound (chimes)
4. Door system synoptic page indicates any open door as a “red filled rectangle”.
Which doors have a ditching dam?
1. Main Cabin Door (Type I Door)

2. Type II/III Emergency exit at row 2.
- (Type II/III Door - Depending on whether the ditching dam is open or closed).
What does the “NORMAL” setting on the crew O2 mask provide?
Mixed ambient air on demand.

Note:
Varies with a change in cabin altitude.
What does the “100%” setting on the crew O2 mask provide?
100% oxygen “on demand”.
What does the “EMERGENCY” setting on the crew O2 mask provide?
100% oxygen under slight positive pressure.
How many portable “fire extinguishers” are onboard the aircraft?
4 Total

3 in cabin
1 on flight deck
Where are the portable fire extinguishers located?
Cockpit:
Behind the Captain’s seat.

Cabin:
- (1) in the forward Emergency Stowage Compartment (behind the MCD)
- (2) in the Aft Doghouse (left/rear)
How many portable “oxygen bottles” are in the cabin of the aircraft?
6 bottles

- 2 are used by the flight attendants during a rapid depressurization.

- 3 are used by the passengers during a rapid depressurization

- 1 is used for emergency first aid oxygen. (Therapeutic)
Where are the two flight attendant “mobility” oxygen bottles located in the cabin?
- Forward / Left side overhead bin.
- Aft / Left side overhead bin.

Note:
The “Therapeutic Bottle” is stored in the aft / right side overhead bin.
How are the emergency floor track strips charged?
Photo luminescent lighting.

- Charged by ambient light.

- Cabin lights must be selected to “ON” for a minimum of 15 minutes prior to the First Flight of the day and boarding passengers.
How long must the emergency floor track strips be charged on the first flight of the day before boarding passengers?
15 minutes
When will the emergency lights “automatically” activate?
When:

Emergency lights are selected to the “ARM” position and the “Left Main DC Bus” fails.
When are the emergency systems and equipment on the flight deck “Preflight” checklist required to be checked?
1. Initial Flight of the day.
2. Anytime that the Captain receives a new aircraft.
3. Following unobserved maintenance.
4. Anytime the aircraft has been left unattended by the flight crew the “emergency equipment” must be checked.
For FMS initialization, what should be verified?
Verify that all fields are “green”.

Initial Position: “GNSS” or WAAS”
Date
UTC
Database Date

Note:
- Initialization is complete when all fields are “green”.
- Select the IRS to “NAV” and wait at least 10 seconds prior to accepting the position in the FMS.
- Once the position is accepted the FMS will provide the “position” to the IRS for alignment.
During a “full alignment”, how long after selecting the IRS to “NAV” should you wait before initializing the FMS?
Wait until “GNSS” is displayed on the FMS (approx. 20 seconds).

The FMS will fully align within 7 minutes.
What is the maximum time you should wait after selecting the IRS to NAV before you initialize the FMS during a “full alignment”?
7 minutes

Note:
- If the IRS fails to align or sticks at 1 minute to go, Press the “Update Sensors” button on FMS #1. If it still does not align then Press the “Update Sensors” button on FMS #2.
Can the FMS be used if both databases are out of date?
Yes ... with exceptions.

Departure:
An RNAV departure requires the use of an “up-to-date” database.

En-route:
- May be used provided that the applicable waypoints are verified against current charted data.

Approach:
- May be used provided that the expiration date of the database is “after” the date listed on the approach plate “TERPS” section.

Note:
- Databases are valid for 56 days.
- A RNP approach may still be conducted provided that the expiration date of the database is “after” the date listed on the approach plate “TERPS” section.
Are procedures different if only one FMS database is out of date?
RNAV “departures” must be flown using the side with the up-to-date database.
RNAV departures require a current database!
Regarding FMS verification by both pilots, the initial flight plan and all FMS approaches shall be verified on what page of the FMS?
“Clearance Page”

Note:
- For the Flight Plan briefing the clearance page is read by the Flying Pilot while the NFP verifies it against the ATC Clearance or Dispatch Release if cleared-as-filed.

- For approaches the Approach Procedure “Name” is verified to be listed on the “Clearance Page” when the flying pilot briefs the “Heading Block”.

- Way-points for VNav arrivals as well as the waypoint review for approaches are verified on the “Flight Plan” page.
When cleared direct to a fix, the verification of the change in the FMS is accomplished on what page of the FMS?
“NAV Page”

- The Direct-To fix will be displayed in a “Magenta” color as the “TO” fix.
What must be displayed on the FMS during the flight plan briefing/review?
“Clearance Page”
What is the primary means of descent planning and for descending to cross a waypoint at a specified altitude?
FMS VNav

Note:
The alternate means is the 3:1 descent profile. Use a descent rate of 5 times the ground speed.
VNav vertical flight path angles are limited to what?
Enroute & Terminal Mode: 6 degrees

Approach Mode: 4 degrees
To what approaches do FMS temperature compensation need to be applied?
All FMS based approaches when the temperature is 0 degrees C or below.
FMS temperature compensation procedures must be applied to approaches at what reported airfield temperature?
Anytime the airfield temperature is reported at 0 degrees C or below.
Do manually entered altitudes in the FMS flight plan have a correction applied to them when Temperature Compensation is activated?
No

- Manually entered altitudes must be adjusted (if necessary) with the appropriate Temperature Compensation before they are entered into the FMS.

Only listed approach altitudes are compensated.
Are we allowed to fly approaches containing notes similar to “Uncompensated Baro-Vnav is not authorized below -20 degrees C” if the airfield temperature is less than -20 degrees C?
Yes

Using FMS “Temp Comp” procedures we are not limited by the charted restriction.
What must be displayed on the FMS during the approach briefing/FSM approach review?
The “Clearance Page” must be displayed on “both” FMS’s.
What types of FMS approaches require two operational FMS’s?
1. RNP Approaches.
2. RNAV approaches to “LPV” minimums.
Do RNav approaches flown to LPV minimums require LPV to be annunciated on both pilot’s LOS lights?
No

Only on the pilot’s flying side!

However, both FMS’s must be operational when using LPV minimums!
May an approach be flown to LNAV/VNAV minimums if the LNAV/VNAV LOS lights are not illuminated?
The LOS lights are “advisory only” for LNav/VNav and are not required.

The LOS lights are only required when using LPV minimums!
Can an FMS based approach be continued beyond the FAF with a “POS” annunciation on the PF FMS?
NO

Requires a “Missed Approach”!
Does an FMS approach and the associated approach transition (if required) have to be retrieved from the FMS database?
Yes

You cannot manually input waypoint data on a FMS approach!
Can you manually build a missed approach procedure in the FMS and fly it if in IMC conditions?
No

All FMS missed approach procedures must be derived from the database.

Manually inputted data is not allowed while in IMC conditions!
Which type of FMS approach requires tuning of a ground based navaid?
1. Localizer Approach
2. Back-course Approach
In keeping with the Horizon Air automation currency policy, how often should pilots conduct at least one CAT III and one FMS approach?
- Pilots should conduct at least one (1) CAT III and one (1) FMS approach every 30 days if possible.

- It is required to be completed at lease every 90 days!

- A CAT III approach may be conducted to any runway equipped with an operational ILS using CAT III procedures.

- CAT III procedures should be practiced all the way through runway roll-out and turn off.
At a minimum, one CAT III and one FMS approach shall be conducted how often?
Every 90 days.

It is recommeded to complete one (1) CAT III and one (1) FMS approach every 30 days!
Can the final segment of an ILS approach be flown utilizing the FMS as the primary navigation?
No

- An ILS may “only” be flown to the FAF using the FMS. Beyond the FAF it must be flown in “Blue Needles” using ground based ILS guidance.

- The missed approach may be flown using the FMS. The missed approach must be briefed and verified in the FMS during the approach briefing!
Why do we deselect DME on RNP approaches?
To ensure that in the event of a “WAAS Sensor Failure”, the FMS will default to the IRS sensor for navigation guidance during a missed approach.
Is it ever necessary to reselect DME after deselecting it for an RNP approach?
No

The FMS will automatically re-select the DME upon landing.
Are FMS Terminal Navaid Substitution Procedures authorized in US/Canadian/Mexican airspace?
Terminal Navaid substitution is allowed only in the US and Canada!

- Requires at least one (1) operational FMS with “on-side” GPS sensor.

- You may substitute inoperative “navaids” (VOR’s, NDB’s or DME).

- Waypoints must be retrieved from the FMS database and cannot be manually entered! Pilot defined data may not be used!

- Substitution of the “Final Segment” of a localizer based approach is prohibited!

- Notes such as ADF or DME Required on published procedures “do not” prohibit navaid substitutions.

Canada Only:
- For NDB or VOR approaches without GNSS (or GPS) in the approach title or approaches based on a localizer for lateral guidance, pilots shall not use the FMS as the primary source of navigation during the “Missed Approach” when the missed approach requires flying a published “track” To or From an NDB or VOR.
Lateral Deviation for normal operations on an RNP approach should be limited to what tolerance?
Lateral deviations should be limited to one (1) dot deviation.
Vertical deviation for normal operations on a RNP approach should be limited to what tolerance?
+/- 1/2 Dot

Note:
Momentary deviations to 3/4 dots are allowable.
What is the maximum “vertical” deviation allowable on a RNP Approach in IMC during the final approach segment?
3/4 Dot

Note:
Over 3/4 Dot requires a “Missed Approach” to be conducted!
What is the maximum “lateral” deviation allowable on a RNP approach in IMC before a missed approach is required?
2 Dots Lateral Deviation

Note:
Over 2 Dots lateral deviation requires a “Missed Approach” to be conducted!
If the “Roll Control Jam” memory procedures are accomplished and the First Officer has control of roll, what control surfaces are rolling the airplane?
Ailerons
If the “Roll Control Jam” memory procedures are accomplished and the Captain has control of roll, what control surfaces are rolling the airplane?
Spoilers
What do the spoiler’s ground extension advisory lights, “ROLL OUTBD” & “ROLL INBD”, indicate when illuminated?
It indicates that the respective spoilers have “extended” while in the “Ground Mode” at touchdown.

Note:
- Advisory lights are located next to the “FLT/TAXI” switch.
- Selecting the “FLT/TAXI” switch to the “TAXI” position will retract the spoilers for ground operations.
What is the function of the “Powered Flight Control” shutoff switchlights?
“RUD 1 / RUD 2”
“SPLR 1 / SPLR 2”

- RUD 1: Shuts off hydraulic pressure to the “lower PCU” in the event that a mechanical jam occurs.
- RUD 2: Shuts off hydraulic pressure to the “upper PCU” in the event that a mechanical jam occurs.

Note:
- selecting the switchlight to the “OFF” position will also illuminate the respective “#1/#2 RUD HYD” caution light.

“RUD CTRL”: Indicates that:
1. Both RUD 1 and RUD 2 switchlights have been selected to “OFF”.
“or”
2. Both Hyd system 1 and Hyd system 2 have failed.
“or”
3. The FCECU has failed leaving it unable to control the rudders.

- SPLR 1: Shuts off hydraulic “extension” pressure to the “Inboard PCU’s” in the event that a mechanical jam occurs.
Note: Also illuminates the “ROLL SPOILER INBD HYD” caution light.
- SPLR 2: Shuts off hydraulic “extension” pressure to the “Outboard PCU’s” in the event that a mechanical jam occurs.
Note: Also illuminates the “ROLL SPOILER OUTBD HYD” caution light.

Note:
- The “SPLR OUTBD” caution light indicates that either:
1. The outboard roll spoilers failed to “deactivate” above 170 kts.
“or”
2. The outboard roll spoilers failed to “reactivate” below 170 kts.
“or”
3. Extension Pressure has been lost to the outboard roll spoiler panels.
If the electric trim is in motion for more than 3 seconds, what happens?
1. An aural clicking sound is hear through the cockpit speakers.
2. The “Elevator Trim Shutoff” switchlights will illuminate on both sides of the panel.

Note:
- Pressing either “Elevator Trim Shutoff” switchlight will disable the Elevator Trim system and silence the clicking sound.
What flight control surfaces does the control lock secure?
1. Locks the ailerons in the “Neutral” position.
2. Prevents forward movement of the power levers into the flight range.

Note:
- Do not attempt to adjust the aileron trim with the control lock engaged or damage may occur to the aileron system!
Are the ailerons mechanically operated or hydraulically powered?
The ailerons are mechanically controlled and operated.

Note:
- They are assisted by the spoilers which are mechanically controlled but hydraulically powered.
When are the outboard spoilers normally deactivated in flight?
Above 170 kts

Note:
- Failure to deactivate or re-activate above and below 170 kts will cause the “SPLR OUTBD” caution to illuminate.
During normal operations are the “Inboard Spoilers” deactivated at any time?
No

- The “Inboard Spoilers” will extend in proportion to the “UP” aileron (down wing).
Which spoilers deploy in “Ground Mode”?
Inboard and Outboard spoilers.

All four (4) spoiler panels will extend when in ground mode to eliminate the lift produced by the wings.

Note:
- Each spoiler panel has a “single” lift/dump valve.
- Both “INBD” Spoilers will operate together (common supply line).
- Both “OUTBD” Spoilers will operate together (common supply line).

Required for spoiler extension:
1. FLT/TAXI switch to “FLT” position.
2. Weight on both main gear.
3. Power levers “AFT” of the FLT Idle gate.
How could you disable a runaway “Pitch Trim” command?
Press the “Elevator Trim Shutoff” switchlight on “either” side of the glareshield to disable the elevator trim system.

This will also silence the clicking sound through the cockpit speakers.
Before conducting an “Elevator Trim” test, after aircraft power-up, what caution lights should be verified extinguished?
1. “PITCH TRIM”
2. “ELEVATOR FEEL”
Does the Q400 have fuel transfer capability or fuel crossfeed capability?
Transfer capability from tank to tank is provided by the fuel boost pumps.

There is no crossfeed available.
If you get a “Fuel Imbalance” message while being gravity fueled, has a limitation been exceeded?
No

600 lb imbalance limitation is only applicable to In-Flight operations.
While sitting at the gate during boarding you notice a “Fuel Imbalance” message. Can you transfer fuel at this time?
No

The fuel boost pumps require AC power to be available. You will have to wait until the engines are running with the props out of feather for AC power to be available.

It is possible to apply external AC power to the aircraft and power the pumps while at the gate.
What does the “Fueling On” caution light indicate?
The refueling access door has not been closed (micro switch).
Can the right wing be gravity fueled during the boarding process?
Yes

There are no restrictions!
Can the left wing be gravity fueled with passengers on board?
Yes

- Overwing fueling of the left wing is permissible with passengers “on-board” the aircraft, however it is not allowed during the boarding or deplaning process.

- The fuel truck and hose may not impede any access through the cabin doors!
Is there any resource on the flight deck to convert fuel from pounds to gallons?
1. QX Weight & Balance program on Jornada.

2. FMS “Fuel Synoptic Page”.

- Press “MENU” on any fuel page and it will bring up the options display. This display has a “fuel calculator” available.
Where is the fuel tank temperature displayed?
- Fuel synoptic page

Note
Fuel tank temperature is only shown for the left main fuel tank.
The “Fuel Temperature” abnormal checklist requires monitoring fuel pressure. Where can you monitor the fuel pressure for this checklist?
“Low Fuel Pressure” will only be indicated by illumination of the “#1/#2 ENG FUEL PRESS” caution light on the caution panel.

Note:
- This is an indication that the “Primary Ejector Pump” has failed and is not supplying sufficient fuel pressure to the engine.
- Turn “ON” the auxiliary boost pump for the failed side!
How is fuel quantity determined if the Flight Compartment Fuel Quantity Indicator(s) are MEL’d?
Fuel quantity may be referenced by:

1. The “Refuel Panel” at the aft right engine refuel panel.

“or”

2. By use of the magnetic dipsticks.
When does fuel recording over waypoints need to be accomplished?
Only for flights of at least 1 hour duration, beginning at the first waypoint after “Top-Of-Climb” and ending at the last waypoint prior to “Top-Of-Descent”.
When should “Min Fuel Advisory” be declared?
Arrival is anticipated to occur with less than 45 minutes of reserve fuel remaining.
Will declaring “Min Fuel” with ATC give you traffic priority?
No

- It is only an advisory that an emergency situation is possible if undo delays occur!
How do you “get priority” with ATC when a low fuel condition exists?
Declare an emergency due to “low fuel” when the estimated fuel following landing is less than 30 minutes remaining.
What is the maximum glideslope angle when using the HGS in AIII mode?
2.51 to 3 degrees
When conducting an approach in AIII mode, the gear and flaps must be in the landing configuration prior to what point?
Prior to the “Final Approach Fix” inbound.
What does the “HCP STBY” button do?
Repeatedly pressing the “STBY” button will cycle through all the “available” standby modes.

Note:
- AIII will only appear when all the required parameters are set for its use.
- Pressing the “Mode” button will make what is listed in the “STBY” field move up to the “active” field.
For a non low vis takeoff what needs to be set in the HCP?
Verify that the HGS is set to the “Primary” mode only for takeoff!

Note:
For a “Low-Vis” takeoff the following are required to be set:
1. TO Mode in the “STBY” field.
2. Runway Length
3. TDZE
(Glideslope angle is not required)
For a Low Vis “TO Mode” takeoff, besides primary mode what needs to be set in the HCP?
1. “TO” mode in the “STBY” field.
2. Runway Length
3. Touchdown Zone Elevation
When conducting an approach which requires AIII mode, what is the proper response to an “APCH WARN” annunciation when below 500 feet?
Conduct the “Missed Approach” procedure.
Which pilot sets the HCP for landing?
- The Captain normally sets the HCP descending through 10,000 feet.

- The captain may designate the first officer to set the HCP.
For an approach that “does not” require AIII mode, what information needs to be set in the HCP?
1. Field Touchdown Zone Elevation
2. Glidepath angle

Note:
Runway length is only required to be set for an AIII approach.
This provides runway remaining information on the combiner lens.
For an approach that “does require” AIII Mode, what additional information needs to be set in the HCP?
1. Runway length
2. Field Touchdown Zone Elevation
3. Glidepath Angle
If the green LED light on the “RWY” button of the HCP is still illuminated, has the HCP been set (the data accepted by the HGS computer)?
No

- If the green light is illuminated and the carrot is displayed, the information has not been accepted by the HCP.
- Press the “ENTER” button to complete the entry!
During an AIII approach, what will the first officer verify is annunciated on the HAP prior to passing the FAF?
“AIII RO ARM” on the HAP prior to passing the Final Approach Fix inbound.
What are the wind limitations for approaches that require AIII?
Headwind: 25 kts
Crosswind: 15 kts
Tail wind: 10 kts
When may you use IMC mode on an approach?
IMC Mode may be used on any “Flight Director” based approach.

- IMC Mode will operate the same as AIII Mode, however the guidance cue is removed at 50 feet HAA and only visual flare cues (+ +) are displayed.
- The IMC Mode will only couple to the “Captain’s” flight director!
What does the illumination of the red “HGS FAIL” on the HAP indicate?
It indicates that the HAP has not received data from the HGS computer.

Note:
Select the “HGS FAIL” switchlight on the HAP to clear the warning.
What is the source of power for the Prop De-Ice?
115 VAC from the respective AC Bus.
What is the source of power for the Pitot/Static Probes 1 & 2?
115 VAC from the respective AC Bus.
What is the source of power for the “Standby” pitot static probe?
Right 28 VDC “Essential Bus”
What is the source of power for the engine “Intake Heat”?
Respective 115 VAC Bus

Note:
-Engine Intake heat will activate when:
1. Switchlight is selected to the “ON” position.
2. Respective engine is running (oil pressure switch)
3. 115 VAC power is available from its respective AC Bus (props out of feather).
4. SAT is below +15 degrees C.
What is the source of power for the “Windshield Heat”?
Warm-up Mode:
Both forward windshields receive 1/2 power from the “Left AC Bus” only!

NORM Mode:
Left Windshield: Left 115 VAC Bus
Right Windshield: Right 115 VAC Bus

Captain’s Side Window:
- Receives power from the “Right 115 VAC Bus”.
- In the event the “Left 115 VAC Bus were to fail the captain would still have some visibility out of his side window.
When will the engine intake “HTR” light illuminate?
Engine Intake heat will activate when:

1. Switchlight is selected to the “ON” position.
2. Respective engine is running (oil pressure switch)
3. 115 VAC power is available from its respective AC Bus (props out of feather).
4. SAT is below +15 degrees C.
Will the deice boots operate with the Bleed Air switches in the “OFF” position?
Yes

The deice boots are independent of the bleed air switches.
When are the “REF SPEEDS” required to be selected to “INCR” (in-flight above acceleration height)?
1. At the first sign of ice accumulation on the aircraft.
2. Illumination of the “Ice Detect” advisory.
3. Anytime that the wings & wing tips are not “Aerodynamically Clean”.
Taking off into icing conditions is defined as reaching icing conditions by what altitude?
Prior to 1,000 feet AFE.
When does ice protection equipment need to be turned “ON” in flight (above acceleration height)?
1. OAT +5 degrees C to -40 degrees C in visible precipitation.
2. Illumination of the “Ice Detect” advisory.
When are the deice boots required to be selected to “ON”?
1. First indication of ice accumulation anywhere on the aircraft.
2. Illumination of the “Ice Detect” advisory.
Does the airplane need to be “Aerodynamically Clean” before turning the ice protection equipment off while in-flight?
No

- The term “Aerodynamically Clean” only applies to the “REF SPEEDS” switch.

- The “REF SPEEDS” switch can only be selected to “OFF” when the wings are aerodynamically clean (free from visible ice).

Note:
- To be “aerodynamically clean”, all visible portions of the wings and wing tips must be clear of ice.
When do the deice boots need to be operated in “Fast Mode”?
1. During Approach.
2. During Landing.
3. During “holding”.
4. Anytime that the ice accumulation is “moderate or greater”.
When may the deice boots be turned to “Manual” (meaning system OFF)?
1. Clear of icing conditions.
2. Ice Detect “not illuminated”.
3. Only after at least two complete cycles of the boots.
When may the Prop Heat be turned “OFF” or Engine Intake Doors closed while in-flight (above acceleration height)?
“PROP HEAT”:
1. Clear of icing conditions.
2. Ice Detect “not illuminated”.

INTAKE DOORS”:
1. Clear of icing conditions.
2. Propeller spinners are “clear of ice accumulation”.

Note:
The Engine Intake Bypass doors are to remain “open” if there is ice accumulation on the propeller spinners for engine FOD protection.
Define “Aerodynamically Clean”.
All visible portions of the wings and wing tips are clear of “ice accumulation”.
When may the “REF SPEEDS INCR” switch be turned “OFF”?
1. Clear of icing conditions.
2. Ice Detect “not illuminated”.
3. The aircraft is “Aerodynamically Clean”. (Wings and wing tips clear of visible ice).
Once recognized, how are Caution or Warning lights announced?
“Master Caution / Master Warning - Call out the condition “exactly as depicted”.

Press the “Master Caution/Warning” switchlight to reset!
When shall the Master Caution/Warning be pressed to reset it?
The pilot that calls out the caution or warning will press the “RESET” as soon as the condition is “recognized” by both pilots.
Who resets the Master Caution/Warning?
The pilot that recognized the caution or warning only after the condition is recognized by both pilots.
What are the indications of an “Elevator Trim Runaway”?
1. Clicking sound through the cockpit speakers (after 3 seconds of movement).
2. Illumination of the “Elevator Trim Shutoff” switchlight on both sides of the glareshield.
3. Abnormal change in control column pressure required.

Note:
- Pressing either “Elevator Trim Shutoff” switchlight will deactivate the trim system and silence the clicking sound.
What are the “Primary Power Source” caution lights when there are multiple amber caution lights illuminated?
“#1 / #2 ENG HYD PUMP”

“#1 / #2 DC GEN”

“#1 / #2 AC GEN”
Why do we need to know what the “Primary Power Source” caution lights are?
Because some conditions will result in the illumination of several caution lights.

The light associated with the “primary” power source for that system should be called for.
When is an “IRS Rapid Alignment” conducted?
Only when receiving a new aircraft and the IRS is already powered up.

Procedure:
- Turn the IRS “OFF” for 1 second and then back to “ON” within 5 seconds.
- Select the #1 FMS to “NAV 3/3”.
- Press the “UPDATE SENSOR” button.

Note:
- Updating the sensors takes approximately 30 seconds to complete.
When is a “Captain Monitored Approach” required?
Only when the HGS is inoperative
“and”
- The ceiling is within 300 feet of minimums
“or”
- The visibility is less than twice that required for the approach.
For approaches requiring the use of AIII mode, are PM altitude call-outs based upon barometric or radar altitudes?
“500 To Go”: Based on “Barometric Altitude”

“100 To Go”: Based on “Radar Altitude”
Is radar altitude or barometric altitude used to determine DH for AIII mode approaches?
Radar Altitude
During an approach in IMC that requires AIII mode, a missed approach is required when a standard call-out is not made below what altitude?
500 feet AFE
During an approach in IMC that requires AIII mode, a missed approach is required when an engine fails below what altitude?
1,000 feet AFE
If AIII is lost or does not activate and time permits prior to the FAF, what can be done in an effort to regain or activate AIII?
1. Correct any incorrectly set parameters.

2. Press the “APPR” button “twice” on the flight control panel to disengage and re-engage the flight guidance.
How does the captain ensure the aircraft is in a airworthy condition?
By:

1. Reviewing the aircraft maintenance log and ensuring there are no “open write-ups”. The last certified mechanic’s signature serves as an airworthiness release.

2. Ensure that a proper “Pre-Flight Inspection” has been accomplished.
What is the minimum number of previous pink pages required to be in the maintenance logbook?
5
What constitutes the Airworthiness Release in the maintenance logbook?
An authorized mechanics signature in the “corrective action” field constitutes an airworthiness release.
When a pilot signs in the signature block of the Corrective Action section of the Maintenance Logbook, under the direction of Maintenance Control, for an MEL deferral, is that signature an Airworthiness Release?
No

The pilot’s signature is not considered maintenance on the aircraft and is not considered an airworthiness release.
What is the definition of “Blocking Out” relative to maintenance discrepancies?
“Blocking Out” is defined as the aircraft moving under it’s own power for the purpose of flight.
If you have a maintenance discrepancy while taxiing under your own power but prior to adding power for takeoff, can you defer it without returning to the gate?
Only if the Crew MEL column in the MEL indicates “YES” and no maintenance action is required to be performed on the aircraft.

If maintenance action is required then the aircraft must return to the gate for repairs.
If a maintenance discrepancy occurs during taxi-out and the item has flight crew deferral authorization per the MEL (a “YES” crew MEL item), can you take care of the MEL in-flight after takeoff?
No

The discrepancy must be cleared prior to takeoff!
What course of action shall you take if frozen precipitation is detected in the engine intakes during a preflight inspection?
Notify Maintenance Control for removal.
You are operating with an MEL that has an expiration of July 4th of this year. When is the airplane not legal to depart until that component is repaired and the MEL removed?
You may still depart until “Midnight Pacific Time zone”.
With this same MEL, are you legal to fly past midnight on July 4th?
Yes ... So long as the aircraft “Departs” prior to midnight on July 4th.
If a MEL or CDL item is removed/cleared after a Dispatch Release has been obtained, is a new or amended release required?
Yes

The dispatch release must indicate the updated MEL/CDL status.

A new release is not required, however the current release must be amended.
Be able to show how pilot procedures for a particular MEL are indicated.
Pilot procedures are indicated under the “Operating Procedures” section of the MEL.
Be able to show how it is shown that an MEL can be deferred by a crew member after block-out.
The MEL will list “YES” under the Crew MEL column.

Any procedure that requires maintenance action to be accomplished will list “NO” under the Crew MEL column. The aircraft must then be taxied back to the gate for maintenance action to be performed.
Be able to show whether an MEL affects dispatch or stations.
There are both “DISP ALRT” and “STN ALRT” columns associated with each MEL.
- If the “STN ALRT” field has a check mark then it may effect station operations.
- If the “DISP ALRT” column indicates “YES” then the item may affect the dispatching conditions of the aircraft.
Be able to show whether a procedure is a one time or a repetitive procedure.
The MEL list also has a “REP CK” column to alert the mechanics and pilots that this item requires repetitive checking.
If both jumpseats are occupied, where will you normally get the BOW?
- Selecting both the cockpit and cabin jumpseat boxes will generate the appropriate BOW in JAWS.

- The BOW may also be adjusted by using the “FA ACM ADJ WT” located on the laminated Manual Load Manifest Loading Tables.

- With only the “flight deck jumpseat” occupied then the BOW may be obtained from the Dispatch Release.
How is the BOW corrected for ferry flights without Flight Attendants on-board?
On the JAWs screen:

- Select the BOW screen.
- Select the MEL tab.
- Select the “NO FA’s” MEL.
- Select “ENABLE”

Note:
- An (==>) symbol indicates the item has been selected.
When doing a manual Weight & Balance may you interpolate between values on the loading table?
No

Always use the printed value “closest” to the actual weight.

If the actual weight falls directly in the middle of the printed values then select the next higher value.
For weights that fall between table listed values, do you round up, down or to the nearest value on the fuel and cargo weight tables?
Always use the printed value “closest” to the actual weight.

If the actual weight falls directly in the middle of the printed values then select the next higher value.
If there is a discrepancy between the aircraft BOW in the QX Bal program and the dispatch release, which one shall be used?
The BOW as listed on the “Dispatch Release” has precedence.
How can you tell if the “QX BAL” program is using a manually entered BOW for the current flight?
The aircraft “IDENT” field will be preceded by an asterisk (*410QX)
Do lunch bags or other personal crew items stored in the forward cargo compartment need to be counted on the Load Worksheet for weight & balance?
Anything over 4 crew bags need to be counted as a carry-on or regular bag as appropriate.

Note:
The “Basic Operating Weight” of the aircraft includes four (4) bags for the crew and need not be added to the worksheet.
A passenger brings a fragile item too large for the overhead bin. Can the Flight Attendant stow the item in the forward closet?
Carry-On items which are too large or irregularly shaped to fit under the seat, in the overhead bin, or in a closet cannot be accepted for main cabin stowage.
All over sized items must be given to ground personnel and tagged with a carry on tag and placed in cargo.
Be careful not to exceed the forward cargo compartment maximum weight of 390 lbs. With 4 crew bags and 42 lbs of commissary items in the forward compartment, this only allows for an additional 260 lbs for additional carry-ons (11 carry-ons).
When is a crew required to accomplish the Preflight Procedures?
1. Aircraft’s initial flight of the day.
2. The captain receives a new aircraft.
3. Following un-observed maintenance.
When is an “Abbreviated Exterior Inspection” accomplished?
1. When the aircraft is received “directly” from another crew.
2. After returning to the aircraft following the completion of a “Terminating Checklist”.
3. Following each flight.
4. Anytime that the aircraft has been left un-attended.
When do the “Conditional Items” on the Preflight Checklist need to be accomplished?
The initial flight of the day only!

Note:
- “Conditional Items” are shown as “Indented Items” on the checklist.
- When re-positioning the aircraft to the hanger etc., the conditional items need not be accomplished unless the captain requests them. If the item is not required for the aircraft’s condition the state “Not Required”.
Is visible cord acceptable on the “nosewheel” tires?
No deep cuts or visible cord may be showing on the nosewheel tires.
Is visible cord acceptable on the “main wheel” tires?
Yes

- Visible cord is acceptable so long as it is on the “raised” portion of the tire tread between visible tire tread grooves.
- No cord may be showing below the tread grooves.
If prop grease leakage is noted, is a write-up required?
Prop grease leakage is on a 50 hour inspection cycle. If prop grease leakage is noticed, consult the maintenance log and determine if it is already on a DMI “Grease Leak Check” inspection. If not, consult Maintenance Control prior to making a write-up.
If gear pins are found installed during the preflight can you remove them and stow them on the flight deck?
Yes

Prior to removing the gear pins consult the Maintenance Logbook to ensure that they were not placed in the gear for maintenance action to be performed on the aircraft.
Where can the list of special airports be found?
- Flight Operations Manual
- QRH

List of Special Airports:
- San Francisco
- Ontario
- Palm Springs
- Burbank
- San Diego
- Mammoth Lakes
- Reno
- Sun Valley
- Missoula
- Kalamath Falls
- Loreto
How does a pilot meet the Special Airport Qualifications?
By:

1. Making at least one (1) takeoff and landing at the specified airport within the last 12 calender months.
“or”
2. Being accompanied by a first officer that has made at least one (1) takeoff and landing at the specified airport within the last 12 calendar months
“or”
3. By reviewing the “Pictorial Means” in the QRH prior to approach and landing.

Note:
- Special airport qualifications are not required if the reported ceiling is at least 1,000 feet above the lowest MEA, MOCA or IAF and the visibility is at least 3 miles.
Can we operate a flight without the QRH?
Yes, however RNP approaches are not authorized without the QRH.
Any restrictions to operations without a QRH?
RNP Approaches are not authorized!

The QRH is not required to be onboard the aircraft, however without it, RNP approaches are not authorized!
What areas on the exterior of the airplane need to be inspected for security by the flight crew?
1. Nose compartment doors.
2. Wheel Wells

Note:
- Only compartments that can be easily accessed and opened from the ground requires a visual inspection.
- The ground crew is required to inspect the “cargo compartments” only!
When are you required to perform an Exterior Security Inspection?
1. Prior to the first flight or the day.
2. Anytime the aircraft has been left “unsecured / unattended / unmonitored”.
3. Evidence of tampering exists.
Define “Attending an Aircraft”.
Having a Horizon Air employee or authorized representative “on or near” the aircraft so as to challenge unauthorized access.
When powering up the EFBs, what is the maximum delay between turning on the Captain’s and First Officer’s units?
1 minute
What is the indication the EFB(s) are fully and successfully booted up?
When the “System Status” indicator (lower right corner) turns “green” (or amber for a single unit).

Note:
EFB’s take approximately 60 seconds to “power-up”.
Which pilot normally initializes the EFBs?
The Captain
How should the “Jumpseat Audio Panel” be (verified) set during the Preflight?
1. Set the “AUX 2” audio level to normal listening level.
2. Press the “AUX 2” mic selector button.
3. Set all remaining audio to “OFF” (no volume)
4. Set the “Push-to-Talk” switch to “center”.
With the nose gear doors open, should you connect to the tug?
No

Once hydraulics is applied to the aircraft the doors could close with great force and possibly injure ramp personnel.
If ATC does not specify a DP in the takeoff clearance, what route will be flown on departure?
The standard departure route as specified on the Jeppesen plate.
Where are “Obstacle Departure Procedures” found?
Jeppesen “Airport Diagram” plate (10-9).

Obstacle departure procedures are listed on the back of the plate with the takeoff requirements.
When reading bug speeds on a Before Start or Descent checklist, what needs to be stated along with the speeds?
The first officer calls:

1. The aircraft’s weight
2. Flap setting
3. Bug Speeds

Respond:
“SET”
When stating “Hyd #3 ISO Valve Checked” on the before start checklist what are you verifing has been checked?
1. That the “#3 Hydraulic Pressure” was pressurized between 2,600 and 3,200 psi.

2. The “HYD #3 ISOL” valve is selected “closed” (dark).
What does the “Pilot Monitoring” monitor during engine start?
The captain monitors the push back and communicates with ground personnel while the First Officer is starting the engines.

Pilot Monitoring verifies:
1. Oil pressure rises and “ENG OIL PRESS” warning light extinguishes.
2. “ENG FUEL PRESS” caution extinguishes.
3. “ENG HYD PUMP” caution extinguishes.
After starting the APU, how long should you wait before starting an engine?
- Only after the “RUN” portion of the “PWR” switchlight illuminates “green” and the generator is selected to “ON”. It takes approximately 20 seconds for the “RUN” segment to illuminate following APU start. This indicates the APU is at full operating speed.

Note:
- Ensure that the “Main” Battery load is below .40 (40%) and the APU Bleed Air is selected to “OFF” prior to engine start.
Can we operate the Q-400 without nosewheel steering?
For taxi-in only following a nosewheel steering failure on landing. Use differential power and braking to maneuver the aircraft to the gate if possible.

If the nosewheel steering fails on taxi-out, then the discrepancy must be entered into the maintenance log and cleared prior to further flight!
Define the “Critical Phase of Flight” as it pertains to sterile cockpit.
All ground operations involving taxi, takeoff and landing and all other flight operations conducted below 10,000 feet except for cruise flight.

Note:
For takeoff: Sterile below 10,000 feet “MSL”
For Landing: Sterile below 10,000 feet “AFE”
Is it OK to complete a rudder check with the nosewheel steering “OFF”, but with the tug still attached to the aircraft?
No

The tug must be removed and ground personnel clear!
What needs to be displayed on the chart holder of both pilots during taxi operations?
Appropriate airport taxi chart or Low Visibility chart.
By what speed on takeoff do the power levers need to be set in the “Rating Power” detent?
50 kts
Can you hold the brakes while adding power for takeoff?
All takeoffs are to be conducted with the “Brakes Off”.

Takeoff performance takes into account a 200 foot rolling takeoff penalty.

Note:
The only time that the brakes should be set while on the runway is when warming the engine oil to 0 degrees C / 55 degrees C prior to takeoff.
What is the “Maximum” pitch on takeoff until all wheels lift off?
8 degrees

Note:
Above 8 degrees pitch attitude a tail strike may occur!
How can you tell if you are approaching the tail strike pitch limit?
The HGS combiner will display the “Tail Strike Pitch Limit” bar during takeoff. (0-----0).

Do not exceed this symbol on rotation!
After takeoff, how does the flight crew notify the flight attendants that they may begin cabin service?
Turn off the “No Smoking” sign.
Who verifies the gear is up when conducting the After Takeoff Checklist?
Both pilots are required to verify that the gear is “up” following takeoff!
During takeoff, the Pilot Flying must confirm that the flaps are retracted before exceeding what airspeed?
180 kts
What vertical flight guidance modes are allowed for sustained climbs above acceleration height?
1. Pitch Hold Mode
2. IAS Mode
What is the Type I climb profile?
- 200 kts to 2,500’ AGL
- 240 kts to 10,000’ MSL (5 degrees pitch to accelerate)
- 5 to 6 degree pitch above 10,000’ to “Top of Climb”.
What is the Type II climb profile?
- 185 kts to FL250 (or until no longer required)
- 5 to 6 degree pitch above FL250 to “Top of Climb”.
Above acceleration height, what is the minimum climb speed?
Vse (Open Bug) “or” Vse(ice) (Solid Bug) as appropriate.
What airspeed is to be flown after an engine failure in flight up to acceleration height?
V2 or V2(ice) as appropriate.
When should the event marker be pushed?
When:

1. Any engine abnormality is observed.
2. Any limitation is exceeded.
3. Any caution/warning light illuminates.
4. Overspeed warning horn “sounds”.
5. Climbing through 10,000 feet MSL (oil pressure)
What is the normal holding speed and configuration?
200 kts

Gear and flaps “UP”
What is VMin for flaps 0 degrees?
180 kts

Severe Icing: 200 kts
Holding: 200 kts
Climb & Cruise: Vse (Open Bug) “or” Vse(ice) (Solid Bug)
Descent: 180 kts

VMin Speeds:
Flaps 0 degrees: 180 kts
Flaps 5 degrees: 160 kts
Flaps 10 degrees: 150 kts
Flaps 15 degrees: Vref flaps 15
Flaps 35 degrees: Vref flaps 35
What is VMin for flaps 5 degrees?
160 kts

VMin Speeds:
Flaps 0 degrees: 180 kts
Flaps 5 degrees: 160 kts
Flaps 10 degrees: 150 kts
Flaps 15 degrees: Vref flaps 15
Flaps 35 degrees: Vref flaps 35
What is VMin for flaps 10 degrees?
150 kts

VMin Speeds:
Flaps 0 degrees: 180 kts
Flaps 5 degrees: 160 kts
Flaps 10 degrees: 150 kts
Flaps 15 degrees: Vref flaps 15
Flaps 35 degrees: Vref flaps 35
What is VMin for flaps 15 degrees?
Vref flaps 15 degrees

VMin Speeds:
Flaps 0 degrees: 180 kts
Flaps 5 degrees: 160 kts
Flaps 10 degrees: 150 kts
Flaps 15 degrees: Vref flaps 15
Flaps 35 degrees: Vref flaps 35
What is VMin for flaps 35 degrees?
Vref Flaps 35 degrees

VMin Speeds:
Flaps 0 degrees: 180 kts
Flaps 5 degrees: 160 kts
Flaps 10 degrees: 150 kts
Flaps 15 degrees: Vref flaps 15
Flaps 35 degrees: Vref flaps 35
Regarding a “Stabilized Approach”, what is the maximum course deviation on an instrument approach?
1 Dot or less
Regarding a “Stabilized Approach”, what is the maximum glidepath deviation on an instrument approach?
With vertical guidance:
1 Dot Above
1/2 Dot Below

Without vertical guidance:
Altitude deviations of -0 to +50 feet at MDA
Regarding a “Stabilized Approach”, what is the maximum course and glidepath deviation on a visual approach “with” electronic backup?
1 Dot deviation from course or glidepath.
What is the maximum bank angle on a stabilized approach below 500’ AFE?
15 degrees bank angle or less
What is the maximum airspeed deviation on a stabilized approach below 500’ AFE?
-5 kts to +10 kts
What is the maximum rate of descent between 2,000’ AGL and 1,000’ AFE/RA on a stabilized approach?
2,000 fpm
After any gear selection, what else should be checked by the pilot flying, beside the proper gear indication?
Both Pilots must confirm:

1. Check for proper gear indications and the “amber” gear handle light is extinguished.

2. Check all “Hydraulic Pressures” are normal.
Who is responsible for verifying the gear is down when performing the landing checklist?
Both Pilots
How does the Pilot Monitoring announce to the Pilot Flying when airspeed is below Vmin?
“Airspeed”
When do we fly the “Solid Bug” on approach below 1,000’ AFE?
1. Suspected windshear or wind gusts greater than 10 kts.
2. Bank angles in excess of 15 degrees is required.
3. “REF SPEEDS” switch is in the “INCR” position. (Icing Conditions)
At what pitch attitude on landing may a tail strike occur?
Above 6 degrees pitch attitude.
How would a tail strike be indicated?
- Master Warning & chime
- “Touched Runway” warning
The aircraft must be configured for landing above what altitude?
Gear and Flaps: 1,000 feet AGL

Airspeed: By 500 feet AGL
The aircraft must be stabilized prior to what altitude?
Prior to 1,000 feet AFE.
If the pitch attitude reaches 6 degrees nose up or if an excessive sink rate develops on short final, the Pilot flying should correct how?
With an “increase in power with no further increase in pitch attitude”.

Note:
A pitch increase may result in a “tail strike” occurring.
Relative to pitch attitude during the landing flare, what callouts is the “Pilot Monitoring” required to make?
“5 DEGREES” / No Response required

“6 DEGREES” / Flying pilot responds “CORRECTING”
What Condition Lever setting is required with “REF SPEEDS INCR” and “FLAPS 35 Degrees”?
MAX 1020 RPM

Note:
- Anytime that the “REF SPEEDS” switch is in the “INCR” position the condition levers must be at the “MAX 1020” position, regardless of the flap setting!
What Condition Lever setting is required with “REF SPEEDS INCR” and “FLAPS 15 Degrees”?
MAX 1020 RPM

Note:
- Anytime that the “REF SPEEDS” switch is in the “INCR” position the condition levers must be at the “MAX 1020” position, regardless of the flap setting!
In gusty conditions (gusts greater than 10 kts) the approach should be flown at what speed?
Solid Bug
When are the flaps retracted on a two-engine Missed Approach?
Above acceleration height and the airspeed at least “Climb Bug + 10 kts”.
When must a “Terminating Checklist” be accomplished?
1. Final Flight of the day.
2. Anytime that the aircraft will remain on the ground for over 1 hour unattended.
3. The next assigned crew has not arrived at the aircraft.
4. Any other time deemed appropriate by the captain.
How do you “Secure” an airplane?
- Close all cabin doors and service doors.
- Close the flight deck door.
- Ensure all cargo doors and exterior compartments are closed.

Note:
If a jetway is against the aircraft then the jetway doors must be closed and locked to prevent access to the aircraft.