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158 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

What is the Landing Gear Extended speed (Vle)?
215 kts

185 kts following alternate gear extension
What is the airplane “maximum” ambient temperature limit?
50 degrees C or ISA +35 degrees, whichever is lower.

ISA + 25 degrees with the engine intake doors open “and” using NTOP or MCP power settings.
What is the airplane “minimum” ambient temperature limit?
-54 degrees
What is the maximum speed for extension of the flaps to 5°?
AFM: 200 kts
QX: 195 kts
What is the maximum speed for extension of the flaps to Flaps 10°?
AFM: 181 kts
QX: 175 kts
What is the maximum speed for extension of the flaps to 15°?
AFM: 172 kts
QX: 165 kts
What is the maximum speed for extension of the flaps to 35°?
AFM: 158 kts
QX: 155 kts
What is the Landing Gear Operating Speed (VLO)?
200 kts
What is the “maximum” airspeed for flight in severe turbulence?
210 kts
The use of MTOP power for takeoff is limited to how many minutes?
10 minutes
What is the Maximum Tire Speed?
182 kts
When are “Reduced Torque” takeoffs prohibited?
1. First flight of the day.
2. Any tailwind exists.
3. Suspected windshear.
4. De-ice fluids have been applied to the aircraft.
5. Contaminated runways.
6. Icing conditions exist below acceleration height.
When are “Reduced NP landings” prohibited?
1. Landings are accomplished at the “Solid Bug”.
2. Performance requires “Bleeds Off”.
3. Tailwind exceeds 10 kts.
4. Suspected windshear.
5. Contaminated runways.
6. Braking action is reported as “less than good”.
What are the “Engine” starter cranking limits?
1st Attempt:
70 seconds “ON” / 2 Minutes “OFF”

2nd Attempt:
70 seconds “ON” / 2 Minutes “OFF”

3rd Attempt:
70 seconds “ON” / 30 minutes “OFF”
What is the definition of “Icing Conditions”?
Icing conditions exist when:

On Ground:
OAT is +10 degrees C or less and:
- Precipitation in any form is present
- Visibility is restricted to 1 mile or less in fog
- Operating on contaminated ramps or taxiways where surface contamination may be ingested by the engines or freeze on engine nacelles, sensors or probes.

In Flight:
OAT is +5 degrees C to -40 degrees C and:
- visible moisture is present in any form.
What is the maximum “crosswind” component for takeoff or landing?
32 knots
What is the maximum “tailwind” component for takeoff and landing?
20 knots

Tailwinds between 11 and 20 kts require:

1. Nosewheel steering must be operative.
2. Antiskid must be operative.
3. Spoilers must be operative in both ground and flight modes.
4. Bleeds must be selected to OFF.

In addition:

For Takeoff:
1. Takeoff is conducted with the flaps set at 10 or 15 degrees.
2. NTOP or MTOP power is used.
3. Performance data is available.

For Landing:
1. Landing is conducted with the flaps set at 35 degrees.
2. Props are selected to 1020 for landing.
3. Landing approach angle is 4 degrees or less.
4. Landing performance data is available.
When are the tank “Aux Pumps” required to be “ON”?
Auxiliary pumps must be selected to “ON” for all takeoffs and landings.
When is the autopilot prohibited from being used?
1. Severe Icing
2. Severe to extreme turbulence
3. Single engine approaches below 1000’
4. Cat III approaches below 1000’
5. PRM breakout maneuver
6. Below 1,000’ following takeoff
7. Within 200’ agl during approach
What items require a takeoff to be aborted?
1. Takeoff torque not obtained on either engine.

Prior to 80 kts:
2. Failure of the “A/F ARM” message to post on ED.
3. Loss of HGS symbology below 80 kts when the RVR is 500’ or less and the runway centerline is not in sight.

Prior to V1:
4. Engine Failure.
5. Engine Fire.
6. Any master warning.
7. Takeoff warning horn.
8. Windshear warning.
9. Exceeding an engine limitation.
What are the “Engine Start Abort” memory items?
1. Condition lever ---- Fuel OFF
2. Start Select switch ---- Center

Call for the “Engine Start Abort” checklist
What are the Elevator Control Jam memory items?
1. Autopilot ---- disengage
2. Maintain current speed and aircraft configuration
3. Both pilots try to overcome the jam.
4. If unable to overcome the jam, “Pitch Disconnect T-Handle” pull and rotate 90 degrees (flying pilot)
5. Call for the “Elevator Control Jam Checklist”
What are the Roll Control Jam memory items?
1. Autopilot ---- disengage
- If controls are still jammed:
2. “Roll Disconnect T-Handle” pull and rotate 90 degrees (flying pilot)
3. Call for the “Roll Control Jam Checklist”
What is the wing span of the aircraft?
93’ 3”
What is the minimum pavement width to make a 180° turn?
84’ 5”
When must the autopilot be disengaged on an approach?
Precision Approach: 200 feet
Non-Precision Approach: 200 feet
CAT II/III: Prior to the FAF
What is the “minimum” altitude for autopilot engagement after takeoff or following a go-around?
1,000 feet AGL
When must the autopilot be disengaged on a 0 degree flap landing?
Prior to 1,000 feet AGL
Can the autopilot be used in “severe” turbulence?
No

The autopilot must be selected to “OFF” in severe to extreme turbulence.
Can you engage the autopilot in “severe” icing?
No

The autopilot must be “OFF” in severe icing conditions.
The autopilot needs to be “OFF” by what point on an AIII approach?
Prior to the FAF.
Can the autopilot be engaged with the yaw damper inoperative?
No

The yaw damper must be operative for the autopilot to engage!
What is “Level One” automation?
Hand flying / Raw data

Used when:
- Collision Avoidance
- Terrain Avoidance
- Aircraft Upset
- Unexpected response from automation
- PRM Breakout Maneuver
What is “Level Two” automation?
Use of the “Flight Director” with or without the autopilot.

Used when:
- Takeoff & Initial Departure
What is “Level Three” automation?
Use of the “Flight Management System” with or without the autopilot.

Used when:
- Normal Enroute Operations
The “Flap Auto Trim” feature operates between which flap settings?
Flaps are operating between Flaps 15 degree and Flaps 35 degree range.

For the “Flap Auto Pitch Trim” system to function the following conditions must exit:
1. Weight off wheels for 2 seconds.
2. Autopilot must be disengaged.
3. Manual Trim is not being used.
4. Airspeed less than 200 kts CAS.
5. Flaps are moving between 15 and 35 degrees either up or down.

Note: With the autopilot “engaged” the “Autopilot Pitch Trim” will work at “High Speed” when below 180 kts CAS and “Low Speed” when above 180 kts CAS. There is no upper speed limit.
What battery switches must be “ON” in order to provide APU fire protection?
The Battery Master and all three batteries!

The Battery Master switch must be “ON”. This will connect all three batteries to the Essential Buses. The “Right Essential” bus must be powered for APU Fire Protection!

Company procedure also requires all battery switches to be “ON”. This allows for charging of the batteries through the APU generator!

Fire “Extinguishing” is powered from the Hot Battery Bus and is always available unless the battery cables are physically disconnected from the Standby Battery!
After starting the APU, how long should you delay before selecting the “BL AIR” switch to “ON”?
2 minutes
What are the “APU” ambient temperature limits?
Lower Limit:
-35 degrees C

Upper Limit:
50 degrees C or ISA + 35 degrees, which ever is lower
Is the APU fire protection system automatic or manual?
Fully Automatic

The APU will automatically shutdown and release the halon extinguishing agent after 7 seconds.
Is it permitted to operate the APU while over-wing refueling?
No
Can we operate the APU during de-icing?
Yes, however the APU bleed air must be selected to “OFF”.
Are there any restrictions to operating the APU with passengers on board?
The APU may not be left unattended with passengers on board.
Can we operate the APU during pressure refueling?
Yes

However the APU may not be “started” during refueling operations. The electrical system must remain in a steady state while refueling!
Do the “engine” bleed air switches have any effect on the APU bleed air?
The APU bleed valve will “CLOSE”.
Engine bleed air has precedence!
Where does the APU get its fuel?
Left wing “Collector Bay” through an APU fuel shutoff valve.
How much fuel does the APU burn?
130 lbs per hour with the APU bleed air “OFF”.

260 lbs per hour with the APU bleed air “ON”.
What kind of electrical power does the APU generator provide?
28 volt DC power in “Parallel” with the ships generators.

APU generator is not available with the “External Power Switch” physically selected to the “ON” position!

The APU generator is rated at 400 AMPS.

Receives power from the “Right Main DC Bus” for starting.
What action is required after two (2) unsuccessful APU start attempts?
Wait 2 minutes until another start attempt is accomplished. Following the third start attempt a 30 minute wait is required!

Contact maintenance control following the third start attempt!
How is an unsecured door annunciated on the flight deck?
1. Master Warning flashes & chime.
2. “FUSELAGE DOORS” warning flashes.
3. Door system page indicates open doors in a red filled rectangle.
Which doors have a “ditching dam”?
Type II/III Emergency exit at row 2.

- The door is hinged at the bottom and will fall “open” unless the lever is selected to the “Ditching” position.

The foward “Passenger Door” also has a “pull down” ditching dam above the door frame!
Explain the O2 masks three modes of operation.
Normal:
Regulator automatically supplies an ambient air/oxygen mixture which varies with cabin altitude.

100%:
Regulator supplies 100% oxygen regardless of cabin altitude “On Demand”.

Emergency:
Regulator supplies 100% oxygen at a slight positive pressure.
How long will a PBE provide oxygen to the user?
15 minutes
Where are the portable fire extinguishers located on the aircraft?
(1) Behind the captain’s seat on the flight deck.

(1) Forward Emergency Stowage Compartment
(In front of Row 2)

(2) In Left Doghouse compartment.
What components operate off the “Engine Accessory Gearbox”?
1. FMU
2. Oil Pump
3. DC Starter-Generator
4. PMA (Permanent Magnet Alternator)

Remember: “FOD-P”
What components operate off the “Propeller Reduction Gearbox”?
1. Hydraulic Pump
2. AC Generator
3. PCU (Propeller Control Unit)
4. POG (Propeller Overspeed Governor)

Remember “HAP-P”
What is the function of the “Power Uptrim”?
- Augments the power of the operating engine by 10% nominal during an engine failure during takeoff.
- The working engine’s FADEC will receive a signal from the failed engines Propeller Electronic Control Unit (PEC).
- FADEC will change the engine power rating from NTOP to MTOP and add 10% nominal power. (NTOP of 92% goes to MTOP of 102%)
- Displays an “UPTRIM” message on ED
- Engine power changes from NTOP to MTOP
- Operating engines “Torque Bug” changes to MTOP

- Automatically “arms” when:
1. Both “power levers” are above 60 degree power lever angle.
“and”
2. Both engine torques are above 50%.

- Automatically “occurs” when:
1. Failed engines torque falls below 25% with the power levers in the “RATING” detent “and” “MTOP” is not selected.
2. Npt falls below 80% with the power levers in the “RATING” detent “and” “MTOP” is not selected.

Note: Uptrim may be cancelled by reducing “BOTH” power levers out of the “Rating Detent” briefly!
What action would you take for an “ENG FADEC FAIL” warning light?
Call for the checklist!

If the engine fadec fails the engine will automatically either completely shutdown or stabilize at either flight idle or ground idle.

There are three (3) types of Fadec Warnings:
1. Critical (Red Warning)
2. Cautionary (Amber Warning)
3. Advisory (No Warning)

- Critical failures can either shutdown the engine or stabilize the engine power at flight or ground idle.
- Cautionary failures causes reduced power output or uneven power output. Use caution when adjusting power!
- Advisory failures will give no indication to the flight crew! Maintenance personnel can download the fault from the database.
Does the autofeather need to be “armed” for “Uptrim” to occur?
No

Engine uptrim is independent of the autofeather system.
What is the “lower” ambient temperature limit for operation of the aircraft?
-54 degrees C
The use of “MTOP” for takeoff is limited to how many minutes?
10 minutes
What systems on the aircraft have fire protection?
1. Engines
2. APU
3. Forward and Aft Baggage Compartments
4. Lavatory
What are the cockpit indications of an engine fire?
Fire Warning tone “and”
Illumination of the following five (5) fire warning lights:
1. Respective engines “T-Handle”
2. Master Warning
3. Check Fire Detect
4. Both “ENGINE FIRE PRESS TO RESET” switchlights.
What does the “SMOKE” warning indicate?
Smoke is detected in one of the baggage compartments by at least one of the installed smoke detectors.

The forward baggage compartment has 1 smoke detector.
The aft baggage compartment has 2 smoke detectors.

The smoke detectors use a photo cell to detect smoke. The “SMOKE” warning will most likely remain illuminated even with the fire extinguished due to the halon vapors being detected!
The Q-400 has a fire warning tone in the event of an engine fire. How do you silence the tone?
By pressing either the left or right “ENGINE FIRE PRESS TO RESET” switchlights.
How many baggage compartment “High Rate” fire bottles are there?
Two (2)

One for the “Forward” and one for the “AFT” baggage compartments.

The High rate bottles is installed “above” the respective compartments in the ceiling.
How many baggage compartment “Low Rate” fire bottles are there?
Only one (1)

The forward baggage compartment and aft baggage compartment “share” the low rate bottle.
What indications are associated with smoke in the “FWD” baggage compartment?
1. Master Warning (Press to Reset)
2. Master Warning Chime
3. “SMOKE” warning light (flashing red)
4. “Baggage FWD SMOKE/EXTG” switchlight illuminates on FPP.
5. “FIRE BOTTLE FWD ARM” (amber) illuminates on the FPP.
What indications, if any, would you have for a fire in the lavatory?
- There is no visible or aural indications on the flight deck.
- The smoke detector alarm will activate
- A chime is heard over the cabin PA system.
- The “RED” light will illuminate on both the Mid Cabin and Aft Cabin flight attendant advisory panels.
What does pulling of the “Fire T-Handle” accomplish?
1. Emergency Fuel Shutoff Valve closes.
- indicated on FPP by illumination of the “white” Fuel Valve” closed light and the green open light goes out.
2. Emergency Hydraulic Shutoff Valve closes.
- indicated on FPP by illumination of the “white” HYD Valve” closed light and the green open light goes out.
3. FWD and AFT fire bottles “ARM” to fire to the pulled T-Handles side.
How do you determine which engine is on fire?
The respective engines “T-Handle” will illuminate!

The following five indications will be present:
Fire Warning tone “and”
Illumination of the following five (5) fire warning lights:
1. Respective engines “T-Handle”
2. Master Warning
3. Check Fire Detect
4. Both “ENGINE FIRE PRESS TO RESET” switchlights.
To which yoke are the ailerons connected?
First Officer’s yoke
To which yoke are the spoilers connected?
Captain’s yoke
What do the ground spoiler advisory lights, ROLL OUTBD & ROLL INBD, indicate?
That the respective spoilers have extended while in “Ground Mode” following touchdown.
What 3 conditions must be met on touchdown for the “Ground Spoilers” to extend?
1. The “FLT/TAXI” switch must be in the “FLT” position.
2. Both power levers must be “at or aft” of the flight idle gate.
3. The PSEU is receiving a weight-on-wheels signal from “both” main landing gear.
What is the degree of full rudder travel?
Flaps at 0 degree detent:
12 degrees left & right

Flaps out of 0 degree detent:
18 degrees left & right
What is the function of the “Powered Flight Control Shutoff” switchlights on the glareshield?
The switchlights are used in the event of a “Jammed PCU” to remove hydraulic pressure to the PCU.

RUD 1 / RUD 2 Switchlight:
- depressurizes the respective jammed PCU
- RUD 1 = Lower PCU
- RUD 2 = Upper PCU

SPLR 1 / SPLR 2 Switchlight:
- Shuts off “extension” pressure to the respective inboard or outboard spoilers. This allows the spoilers to retract!
- SPLR 1 = Inboard Spoilers PCU’s
- SPLR 2 = Outboard Spoilers PCU’s
Is it OK to complete a rudder check with the nose wheel steering “OFF”, but with the tug still attached to the aircraft?
No

The tug must be disconnected from the aircraft and the “D” ring observed prior to conducting the rudder check!
If the roll spoilers do not deploy or the props do not move into discing upon landing should you increase or relax forward pressure on the control column?
Relax forward pressure on the control wheel. Applying forward pressure will create uplift on the main wheels, which can decrease braking effectiveness and defeat the weight-on-wheels signal for ground spoiler deployment.
When does the “Flap Auto Pitch Trim” operate?
Only when the following conditions are met:

1. The Autopilot is “not engaged”.
2. WOW indicates the aircraft has been airborne for at least two (2) seconds.
3. CAS is less than 200 kts.
4. Manual pitch trim is not being used.
5. The AFCS detects that the flaps are moving between the 15 and 35 degree range either up or down.

Note: With the autopilot “engaged’ The Autopilot Pitch Trim system operates at “High Speed” below 180 kts CAS and “Low Speed” above 180 kts CAS. There is no upper speed limit.
If the electric trim is in motion for more than 3 seconds, what happens?
1. An aural clicking sound is heard over the flight deck speakers.
2. Elevator Trim shutoff switchlights illuminate on “both sides” of the glareshield.

Note: The Elevator Trim shutoff switchlights must be “manually” pressed to deactivate the trim system.
When operating flaps, will the “Flap Auto Pitch Trim” operate if the pilot operates the electric trim?
No

Manually selecting the trim will override the Flap Auto Pitch Trim system.
How is the angle of attack (AOA) transducer’s heat turned “ON” and “OFF”?
They are fully automatic and there are no control switches!

The AOA vane heat will automatically heat anytime that there is “115V AC Power” available to the aircraft.

- Left AOA vane is powered through the “Left 115-volt Variable AC Bus”
- Right AOA vane is powered through the “Right 115-volt Variable AC Bus”
What control or controls does the control lock lock?
The control lock prevents the power levers from being advanced forward into the flight range during ground operations.

The control lock also locks the ailerons in the “neutral” position.
Are the ailerons mechanically operated or hydraulically powered?
The ailerons are “mechanically” controlled and operated.
Above what speed are the outboard roll spoilers deactivated?
Above 170 KIAS.

The FCECU disables the “extension” pressure to the outboard spoilers!

Failure to de-activate “or” re-activate the spoilers through 170 kts will display the “SPLR OUTBD” caution light.
Which spoilers deploy while on the ground?
Both the “Inboard” and “Outboard” roll spoilers will extend while on the ground when the FLT/TAXI switch is in the “FLT” position.

Requirements for deployment:
- FLT/TAXI Switch must be in the “FLT” position.
- Weight on wheels detected on both “Main Gear”.
- Power levers at “or” aft of the Flt Idle gate.
How could you disable a runaway “Pitch Trim” command?
By pressing the “Elevator Trim Shutoff” switchlight on “either” side of the glareshield.
A “Takeoff Warning” will sound with the flaps selected “Less Than” or “Greater Than” what?
Less than 3.6 degrees “or” more than 20 degrees.

Note: Warning only occurs when:
1. There is weight on the nosewheel.
“and”
2. Both power levers are advanced beyond 50% torque.
What powers the #3 hydraulic system?
A gas charged accumulator.
Pressure is maintained in the accumulator to 2600 to 3250 psi by a DC Motor Pump.

Note:
The #3 Backup Hydraulic system provides pressure to the left and right “inboard” elevator PCU’s for emergency pitch control.
The “#3 HYD PUMP” caution light will illuminate anytime that:
- System #3 pressure drops below 900 PSI
“or”
- The pump remains in operation for over 60 seconds.
What is the purpose of the PTU?
Acts as a backup power source for the #2 Hydraulic System.

Requires:
- Normal system #1 operation.
- Normal fluid quantity in system #2.

The PTU will “only” automatically activate when the flaps are out of 0 degrees with the parking brake released!
It must be “manually” activated while inflight!

Note: The switchlight will illuminate when the PTU is either manually activated or automatically activated.
What powers the PTU?
Hydraulic System #1 fluid pressure.

Operation of the PTU requires:
1. Normal operation of the #1 Hydraulic System.
“and”
2. Normal hydraulic fluid quantity in the #2 Hydraulic System.
What systems are powered by the #1 Hydraulic System?
“FIBAR PE”

Flaps
Inboard Roll Spoilers
Brakes (Normal)
Anti-skid
Rudder (Lower PCU)
PTU
Elevators (Outboard PCU’s)
What backs up the #1 hydraulic pump?
The “Standby Hydraulic Pump”.

The Standby Hydraulic pump will automatically operate when:
1. The #1 engine fails
“or”
2. The flaps are selected out of the 0 degree detent with the parking brake released.

The Standby Hydraulic pump is powered by:
- Normally: Right AC Bus
- Backup: Left AC Bus
When will the “Standby Hyd Pump” turn on automatically?
When:
1. The #1 engine fails
“or”
2. The flaps are selected out of the 0 degree detent with the parking brake released.
Will the green “ON” switchlight illuminate if the standby hyd pump is automatically activated?
No

The green “ON” segment will only illuminate when the pump is “manually” activated.
What systems are powered by the #2 Hydraulic System?
“LOSER E”

Landing Gear
Outboard Roll Spoilers
Steering
Emergency/Parking Brake
Rudder (Upper PCU)
Elevator (Center PCU’s)
When will the PTU turn “ON” automatically?
Anytime that the flaps are selected out of the 0 degree detent with the parking brake released.
The PTU “will not” automatically activate while in normal flight, it must be manually selected to “ON”.
The PTU green “ON” light will illuminate when the PTU is either Manually activated or Automatically activated!
How do the hydraulic systems protect against fluid loss?
Hydraulic System #1 and Hydraulic System #2 are each equipped with an “Isolation Valve”.
If inadequate fluid quantity is detected in the system reservoirs the associated Isolation Valve will close and illuminate the respective “#1/#2 HYD ISO VLV” caution light.

Fluid is then only supplied to:

System #1:
Rudder
Elevator
Flaps
PTU

System #2:
Rudder
Elevator
If hydraulic systems #1 and #2 fail, will brakes be available?
“Normal” system pressure will be lost to the Main Brakes and Emergency Brake.

Accumulator pressure will allow up to 6 brake applications on the Emergency Brakes.

No anti-skid protection will be provided!
Will the green “ON” switchlight illuminate if the PTU is automatically activated?
Yes

The green “ON” segment will illuminate anytime the PTU is either manually “or” automatically activated.
What systems are powered by the #3 Hydraulic System?
The #3 Backup Hydraulic system only provides power to the “Inboard PCU’s” of the left and right elevators.
What is the purpose of the #3 Main Hydraulic system?
To act as a backup pressure for elevator control in the event of Hydraulic System #1 or Hydraulic System #2 failure.

The #3 Backup Hydraulic System will “automatically” function when:
1. Either engine fails
2. Both engines fail
3. Manually by selecting the “HYD #3 ISOL VLV” switchlight.
What is the “minimum” hydraulic quantity for dispatch in each system?
40% in all three systems.

50% is recommended!
When will the standby hydraulic pump automatically activate?
Automatically activates when:
1. #1 engine fails
“or”
2. Flaps are selected out of the 0 degree detent with the parking brake released.
When will the PTU automatically operate?
Anytime that the flaps are selected out of the 0 degree detent with the parking brake released.

Loss of #2 Hydraulic pressure while inflight will require “Manually” activating the PTU.
What is the minimum landing gear strut extension?
Nose Strut:
- If less than 1” contact maintenance control and advise.
- If “no chrome” is visible than a maintenance log entry is required.
- If strut bottoms out during taxi a maintenance log entry is required.

Note:
The normal nose strut extension of 1” to 3” has been removed from the FSM!

Main Gear Strut:
- Normal extension is 1.5” to 4.5”
What do the gear lights in the floor provide?
The “Alternate Downlock Verification” light system.

The lights provide an alternate means of verifying the down and locked status of all three landing gear.
What does the landing gear inhibit switch do?
Disables the electrical commands sent to the landing gear solenoid valve for the normal extension system when the gear select handle is moved.
Is anti-skid available when using the emergency brake?
No
What is the minimum parking brake pressure for engine start?
Starting the “Right” engine first = 500 psi

Starting the “Left” engine first = 1,000 psi
If sufficient parking brake pressure is not available for engine start, what can be done?
Procedure #1
- Capture and secure the nosewheel with the tug.
- Start the #2 engine first.
- Verify normal park brake pressure after #2 Hyd press indicates normal.

Procedure #2
- Open the “Landing Gear ALT Release Door” on overhead.
- Pull the Main Landing Gear Release handle to open the main gear doors.
- Close the “Landing Gear ALT Release Door” on overhead.
- Use the pump handle on the flight deck to activate the manual pump in the right main gear wheel well until pressure is at least 500 psi for starting the right engine first or 1,000 psi for starting the left engine first.
- Remove the pump handle and return it to the flight deck.

Procedure #3
- Brief the ground crew to “chock” the nose gear and left main gear.
- Start the #2 engine first and allow the brake pressure to obtain “1500 psi minimum” prior to removing the left main gear wheel chock. The left main gear wheel chock must be removed prior to starting the #1 engine!
When would the “gear warning tone” sound?
Whenever the gear is not “down and locked” and any of the following conditions exist:
1. Flaps are greater than 8.5 degrees with “both” power levers aft of the “rating” detent and “either” engine torque less than 50%.
2. Airspeed is less than 156 KIAS with both power levers “near” the FLT IDLE gate (within approx 12 degrees of FLT IDLE).

Note:
The horn can “only” be muted provided that only one (1) power lever is pulled aft towards FLT IDLE.
How far can the nosewheel be turned via:
Rudder pedals?
Tiller?
Free Caster?
Rudder: +/- 8 degrees
Tiller: +/- 70 degrees
Free Caster: +/- 120 degrees

Note: The nosewheel steering requires 8 seconds after selecting to “ON” prior to movement.
How close must lighting be to suspend refueling?
Stop all ramp operations?
Suspend refueling operations at 5 NM

Stop all ramp operations at 3 NM
How far shall thunderstorms be avoided while inflight?
Above 23,000 feet:
- Avoid all echoes by 20 NM

At or Below 23,000 feet:
- 0 degrees or warmer: 5 NM
- Below 0 degrees: 10 NM

Note:
- Increase distances by 50% for rapidly changing cells or cells that is displaying a well defined “red area”.
- Clear all tops by 5,000 feet.
What is the maximum ground wind speed for operations?
50 kts steady winds “or” gusts to 65 kts
When shall intersection departures not be used?
Anytime that the approach end of the runway is not clearly visible.
When is a takeoff alternate required?
Anytime that the weather at the departure airport is below takeoff minimums.

You may use CAT III if available.
After pushback on an “icy” ramp, when should you move the condition levers to the “MAX” position?
Only after the tug has been removed from the aircraft and all personnel are clear!
When is an engine start abort required?
An engine start abort is required when:
1. ITT approaches or exceeds 920 degrees C.
2. NH is not in the green arc within 70 seconds of selecting the condition lever to Start & Feather.
3. Engine oil pressure fails to reach 44 psi by “Start Select Reset”.
What is the Type I climb profile?
240 KIAS to 10,000 feet then a 5 to 6 degree pitch attitude.
Reduce speed as necessary to maintain at least a 1,000 fpm climb.
What is the Type II climb profile?
185 KIAS to FL200, then decrease 5 kts per 1,000 feet.
What is the normal holding speed and configuration?
Gear UP
Flaps 0 degrees
200 KIAS
By what speed on takeoff do the power levers need to be set in the “Rating Power Detent”?
50 KIAS
What is the maximum “Main Battery” load for engine start?
40%
When is a crew required to accomplish the Preflight Checklist?
1. Initial flight of the day.
2. The captain receives a new aircraft.
3. Following unobserved maintenance.

Note:
When receiving the aircraft directly from another crew, only the abbreviated preflight inspection is required.
When do the emergency systems and equipment on the flight deck have to be checked?
Anytime that the aircraft has been left unattended by the flight crew for “any period of time”.
Should you set takeoff power with the brakes set?
No

Setting takeoff power prior to brake release, with the nose of the aircraft more than 45 degrees out of the wind is prohibited for wind speeds greater than 8 kts.

This is due to the side loads imposed on the composite propeller blades!
What is the maximum pitch on takeoff until all wheels lift off?
8 degrees until all wheels lift off!
After conducting a “Bleeds Off” takeoff, when do you select the bleeds back “ON”?
Climbing through 400 feet AGL
When do we fly Vref (ice) (solid bug) below 1,000 feet AGL?
During landing operations when:

1. Ice is adhereing to the wing leading edges or wing tips.
- Select the REF SPEEDS switch to “INCR”.
2. Maneuvering at bank angles greater than 15 degrees is required.
3. Windshear or wind gusts in excess of 10 kts is reported.
What is the “Missed Approach Procedure” for:

2-Engine ?
Single Engine ?
2-Engine Missed Approach Procedure:

- Call: “MISSED APPROACH” and press the GA button
- Rotate to command bars (10 degrees nose up)
- Call: “SET POWER”
- Call: “FLAPS ONE NOTCH UP”
- At positive rate call: “GEAR UP” (seen or heard)
- Climb at “solid bug”
- Call: “PUSH HDG / VERIFY LNAV / NAV SOURCE FMS - PUSH NAV / TUNE ___ SET COURSE ___ PUSH NAV”
- Call: “SET PITCH HOLD, PUSH ALT SELECT”

At Acceleration Height:
Call: “FLAPS UP, CLIMB POWER, AFTER TAKEOFF CHECKLIST”

Note: If an engine fails during the go-around procedure “immediately” call for the “ENGINE FAILURE CHECKLIST” to feather the propeller.

Single Engine Missed Approach Procedure:

- Call: “MISSED APPROACH” and press the GA button
- Rotate to command bars (10 degrees nose up)
- Call: “SET POWER”
- Call: “FLAPS ONE NOTCH UP”
- At positive rate call: “GEAR UP” (seen or heard)
- Climb at “open bug” with clean wings / “solid bug” with contaminated wings
- Call: “PUSH HDG / VERIFY LNAV / NAV SOURCE FMS - PUSH NAV / TUNE ___ SET COURSE ___ PUSH NAV”
- Call: “SET PITCH HOLD, PUSH ALT SELECT”

At Acceleration Height:
- Call: “PUSH ALT”
- At bug + 10 kts call: “FLAPS UP”
- At Vse call: “PUSH IAS, SET VSE”
- Call: “SINGLE ENGINE MISSED APPROACH CHECKLIST”
When are the flaps retracted on a 2-engine missed approach?
- Once the pitch reaches the go-around command bars (10 degrees) call “Flaps 1 Notch Up”.
- Remaining flaps are retracted at “Acceleration Height” with the airspeed above BUG + 10 kts.
At what pitch attitude on landing may a tail strike occur?
Above 6 degrees with strut compression.
How would a tail strike be indicated?
By illumination of the “Master Warning” and chime.
“and”
the “TOUCHED RUNWAY” warning light illuminates.
If the pitch attitude reaches 6 degrees nose up or an excessive sink rate develops on short final, the PF shall correct how?
Correct with an “increase in power” with no further increase in pitch attitude. This provides an immediate increase in lift to arrest the descent.
When must a terminating checklist be accomplished?
1. Flight crew is leaving the aircraft for more than 1 hour “or” the next assigned crew has not arrived at the aircraft.
2. Following the final flight of the day.
3. Any time deemed appropriate by the captain.
Can we operate the Q-400 without the nose wheel steering?
Departing:
The nosewheel steering is required for taxi and a discrepancy must be entered and corrected prior to taxi.

Arriving:
It is permissable to taxi the aircraft to the gate using differential power and braking.
How long does it take for the nose wheel steering to become available after selecting it “ON”?
8 seconds
After starter reset, when can you commence the start procedure for the other engine?
Only when the “Select” light extinguishes.
“and”
The “Main” battery load is 40% or less.
What is the minimum parking brake pressure to start the #2 engine first?
500 lbs
What is the minimum parking brake pressure to start the #1 engine first?
1,000 lbs
With the nose gear doors “open”, should you connect to the tug?
No

Once the engines are started the nose gear doors can close with great force! Start the #2 engine prior to connecting the tug so that the doors will close.
Is it OK to complete a rudder check with the nose wheel steering “OFF”, but with the tug still attached to the aircraft?
No

The tug is required to be disconnected and the “D” ring observed prior to completing the rudder check!
The aircraft must be configured for landing above what altitude?
Configured prior to: 1,000 feet AFE

Airspeed stabilized on the appropriate bug speed by 500 feet AFE.
The aircraft must be stabilized prior to what altitude?
- The maximum rate of descent between 2,000’ AGL/RA and 1,000’ AFE/RA is 2,000 FPM.

Below 1,000 feet:
- Aircraft in the approach configuration.
- Maximum rate of descent = Not to exceed the published glidepath “or” 1,000 FPM if not published.
- 1 dot “above” glideslope / 1/2 dot below glideslope
- 1 dot localizer deviation

Below 500 feet:
- Airspeed stabilized at +10 kts / - 5 kts
- Bank angle less than 15 degrees

Note:
- The pilot monitoring will call out any deviations.
- The pilot flying will state “correcting”.
- If the approach becomes unstabilized “or” a successful landing within the touchdown zone becomes uncertain a missed approach shall be executed!
What course of action will you take if frozen precipitation is detected in the engine intakes during a preflight inspection?
Contact Maintenance Control to determine the proper course of action.
Headsets and boom mikes shall be used for all communications below what altitude?
For all flight operations below 18,000 feet MSL.
If electrical power is lost during the “Before Start” checklist, what checklist(s) must be accomplished?
The Originating Checklist “and” Before Start Checklist must be re-accomplished from the beginning in its entirety.
If the pitch attitude reaches 5 degrees during the landing flare, what is the PM callout?
“5 DEGREES”

No response is required from the pilot flying.
If the pitch attitude reaches 6 degrees during the landing flare, what is the PM callout?
“6 DEGREES”

Pilot flying states: “CORRECTING”
What is the PF callout when the PM calls “6 DEGREES” during the landing flare?
“CORRECTING”
What “Condition Lever” setting is required with REF SPEEDS INCR and Flaps 35 degrees?
MAX 1020
If a “Flap Retract Altitude (FRA) is not specified, at what altitude AFE should the flaps be retracted?
1,000 feet AFE
Where can a pilot find runway contamination levels defined?
1. QRH

2. Performance Section of the FSM (Section 4)
In gusty conditions the approach should be flown at what speed?
Solid Bug
How is the BOW corrected for ferry flights without F/A’s onboard?
Check the “NO F/A’s” checkbox on the Jornada.