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68 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
1 – Which of these are characteristic of skeletal class II?
1 – Mandibular retrusion
2 – Increased overjet
3 – Long lower face height
4 – Excessive lip prominence
5 – Lip incompetence
1. 1 and 2
2. 3 and 4
3. 1, 2, and 3
4. 3, 4, and 5
5. All of the above
1. 1 and 2. That’s right, mandibular retrusion and increased overjet are characteristic of skeletal class II. The other three may or may not be present, but aren’t characteristic of skeletal class II.
2 – Which of the following are characteristic of skeletal class III?
1 – Large mandible
2 – Concave profile
3 – Long lower face
4 – Maxillary dental protrusion.
1. 1 and 2
2. 3 and 4
3. 1 and 4
4. 1, 2, and 4
5. All of the above
1. 1 and 2. That’s right, a large mandible and concave profile are characteristic of skeletal class III. A long lower face and maxillary dental protrusion (dental compensation for the skeletal discrepancy) often are also present, but they aren’t characteristic of the skeletal problem.
3 – Which of the following soft tissue findings do NOT indicate bimaxillary dentoalveolar protrusion?
1 – Lips more prominent than nasal tip
2 – lips touching at rest but forward from soft tissue points A and B
3 – lips separated at rest but not forward from soft tissue points A and B
4 – lips forward from soft tissue points A and B, and separated at rest
1. 1 and 2
2. 3 and 4
3. 1, 2, and 3
4. 2, 3, and 4
5. None of the above – they all indicate incisor protrusion
That’s right, the only correct statement is 4 – 1, 2, and 3 do not indicate excessive incisor protrusion. Incisor protrusion is judged to be excessive only if the lips are forward from soft tissue points A and B and separated at rest. It would be unusual to have lips more prominent than the nasal tip that weren’t indicative of dental protrusion, but it could happen if the nose were small and the lips large.
4 – To which of the following facial characteristics does steepness of the occlusal plane relate?
1 – Anterior face height
2 – mandibular retrusion
3 – mandibular protrusion
4 – crowding of incisors
5 – protrusion of incisors
1. 1
2. 1 and 2
3. 1, 2, and 3
4. 3, 4, and 5
5. None of the above
1. 1. That’s right, anterior face height is the only one of these characteristics that correlates well with the mandibular plane angle. A steep mandibular plane angle usually is found in patients with excessive anterior face height (long face), and a flat mandibular plane angle usually associates with a short face. But the mandibular plane angle doesn’t relates in a systematic way to the other characteristics
5 – Which of the following can be judged in full face examination of a patient?
1 – Upper face symmetry
2 – Lower face symmetry
3 – Vertical facial proportions
4 – Relative mandibular protrusion
5 – Lip protrusion
1. 1 and 2
2. 3 and 4
3. 1, 2, and 3
4. 3, 4, and 5
5. All of the above
3. That’s correct. Upper and lower face symmetry and vertical facial proportions can be evaluated from the full face (frontal) view, while the others must be evaluated from the profile view.
6 – When the distance between A and B are considered, which of the following are within the limits of class I, skeletal normal?
1 – 6 mm
2 – 4 mm
3 – 2 mm
4 – 0 mm
5 - -2mm
1. 1 and 2
2. 3 and 4.
3. 2, 3, and 4
4. 3, 4, and 5
5. All of the above
All are within the limits of normal. From soft tissue landmarks, skeletal class II is > 6mm, and skeletal class III is > -2 mm.
7 – In which of the following orthodontic clinical conditions would the patient’s facial form play a major role in the treatment plan?
1 – Jaw asymmetry
2 – crowded lower incisors
3 – anterior open bite
4 – Spaced and protruding upper incisors
1. 1 and 2
2. 3 and 4.
3. 1, 2, and 3
4. All of the above
5. None of the above
4. That’s right. In all of these conditions, the treatment plan would depend in large measure on facial form analysis; that is, the treatment plan easily could be different for identical malocclusions for patients with different facial proportions.
8 – Which of the following correctly describe the relationship between facial proportions, esthetics, and beauty?
1 – Faces with more than moderate disproportions are judged unesthetic.
2 – Perfect symmetry is highly associated with beauty.
3 – Proportional faces are judged esthetically acceptable under almost all circumstances
4 – If the lips are competent, dental protrusion is considered highly unesthetic.
1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3
4. 2, 3, and 4
5. All of the above
3. Statements 1 and 3 are correct, 2 and 4 are not. Major disproportions are unesthetic. Proportional faces are usually acceptable. Beautiful faces have slight asymmetries. Protrusion isn’t a problem until lip incompetence occurs.
9 – What is meant by the term “orthodontic triage”? It is a way of sorting patients by:
1 –Skeletal versus dental problems
2 – Retrusive-normal-protrusive lip positions
3 – The degree of mandibular protrusion, II – I – III
4 – The severity of their problems and their prognosis
4. Triage refers to the process of sorting patients by severity. Facial form analysis is a critical part of ortho triage.
10 – Which of the following are more likely to be seen in a patient with a purely dental malocclusion than in a patient with a skeletal discrepancy?
1 – Bimaxillary dentoalveolar protrusion
2 – Excessive lip separation at rest
3 – Anterior deep bite
4 – Dentoalveolar asymmetry
1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2
3. 1 and 3
4. 1, 2, and 4
5. All of the above
1. Bimaxillary dentoalveolar protrusion is most likely dental only, although it can be seen in class II skeletal problems. All the others are more likely in patients with skeletal problems.
1) Which of the following are ways that typical American and European cephs differ?
direction in which the pt faces
vertical orientation of the head
distance from the x-ray source to the pt
positioning of the ear rods
a. a and c; b and d are the same.
2) (A)The major goal of ceph analysis is to establish the relationship of the teeth of each jaw to that jaw because (B) correcting these relationships is the primary objective of ortho t(x)
a. False; False. The first statement is one goal but establishing the relationship of the jaws to the c. base and to each other also are important goals of the analysis. Correcting the pt’s malocclusion in a way that provides maximum benefit to the pt is the primary objective of ortho t(x)- this 2nd statement is just one this to consider.
3) (A) Creating an image like a lateral ceph froma cone-beam CT image is impossible bc (B) the amount of information in a CBCT is much greater than the information in a standard ceph.
a. False; True. It is possible to get a ‘synthetic ceph’ from a CBCT data.
4) Why is orienting the pt so the Frankfort plane is level is now the preferred method for takin a ceph?
a. It isn’t, NHP is preferred- Frankfort plan correlated with the natural head position and it is best if your pt is dead… NHP give you the pt real head position in life.
5) Which of the following are characteristics of a good ceph landmark?
1. Marks the position of specific teeth
2. Relates the position of a tooth to the jaw
3. Can be IDed accurately on a ceph
4. Represents a known part of one of the major functional units
a. 3 and 4. Landmarks aren’t restricted to teeth and no single landmark can related one thing to another.
6) Which landmark is found at the junction of the fronto-nasal suture?
a. Nasion. The anterior point of the intersection of the nasal and frontal bones. It represents the anterior end of the c. base and is key to establishing the length and inclination of the c. base.
7) Which landmark is at the base of the contour about the chin?
a. Point B. indicated the anterior part of the bony base of the mandibulat dentition and is located at the innermost point on the contour of the mand btwn the incisor tooth and bony chin.
8) How do you locate the landmark S (sella)?
a. Center of the space created by the depression in the ethmoid bone. The normal variations in the shape of the sella turcica make it impossible to be consistent in measurements based on the position of the bony constituents of this region, but the center of the space can be located with acceptable accuracy.
9) How do you find the landmark PNS?
a. Trace posteriorly along the roof of the mouth to the end of the bony outline, and mark the end of the palatal bone contour.
10) (A) Creating a digital model of a ceph instead of a tracing require more landmarks because (B) otherwise there is not enough information for the computer to add the lines needed to stimulate a tracing.
a. True, True and related. In digitization additional landmarks are needed to outline the c. base, add the soft tissue profile, and refine the display of the maxilla, mandible and teeth.
11) Which of the following lines is not used in establishing a vertical facial proportions?
a. N-Me. (S-N, ANS-PNS, occlusal plane, Go-Gn). This is a measure of face height but not used to establish vertical proportions. The orientation of the other 4 lines foes help.
12) Which of the following statements usually would not correctly describe a pt with a long face?
a. Maxilla rotated down anteriorly. (open bite, mand rotated down anteriorly, increased anterior face height). In the long face pt, the maxilla ais much more likely to be rotated down posteriorly rather than anteriorly. The severe shows the palatal plane almost parallel to the true horizontal line….
13) Which of the following measurements would be most useful in establishing the AP position of the mandible relative to the c. base?
a. SNB. It is the only one with info relating the c. base (S-N) to the mandible (B).
14) To compare whether an upper incisor had erupted too much, which of the following characteristics would be most useful?
a. Distance from root apex to ANS-PNS line. Best indicator for excessive. For the lower incisors it would be the distance of the root apex from the mandibular plane (Go-Gn). Angular measurements wouldn’t work and the distance from the root apex is better than from the incisal edge.
1) What is the major purpose of preparing ceph tracings so that they can be superimposed?
a. Reduces the amount of info that is displayed. (or else would be a blur). Function of the information reduction produced by making cephs: allows multiple registrations, makes it possible to observe growth and treatment changes, and makes landmarks visible.
2) (A) C. base superimposition are on the S-N line registered at N because (B) N does grow forward relative to the central part of the C. base.
a. False, True. The C. base superimposition is on the S-N line at S, so that the forward growth of the nasion will not affect the apparent forward growth of the facial structures below it.
3) What would be the apparent effect on facial growth of superimposing on the posterior part of the c. base and registering on a point there that was distal to and below S (Basion, for example)?
a. Make growth look more forward and less downward. Because the registration point would be below S. Sometimes will see superimpositions on the Ba-N line registered at Ba or other lower pts, especially if the presenter want to show how some type of t(x) made the jaws grow forward.
4) (A) In a mandibular superimposition you should superimpose posteriorly on the inferior alveolar canal instead of just using the mandibular plane (Go-Gn) because (B) Go can be significantly affected by surface remodeling.
a. True, True, and related. Studies based on implants in the mand have show the best superimposition is on the lingual contour of the mand symphysis anteriorly (but changes in the Gn relative to it usually are small), and on the inferior alveolar canal posteriorly, where changes in the location of Go can be surprisingly large
5) Which of the following are seen clearly in a maxillary superimposition?
1. remodeling of the anterior palate
2. Upward or downward movement of PNS
3. Increase in distance of maxillary teeth from the palatal plane
4. Forward or backward movement of incisors relative to their supporting bone
a. 3 and 4. Vert or Ap movement of the teeth relative to the maxilla can be visualized in a maxillary superimposition but you can register on the lingual contour of the palate and keep the palatal plane (ANS-PNS) level, so change in either of these cannot be seen6) Which of the following could not be a correct interpretation of superimpositions from a pt. being treated for a CII problem?
6) Which of the following could not be a correct interpretation of superimpositions from a pt. being treated for a CII problem?
1. Shortening of the body of the mandible
2. Trasversal tipping of the maxillary incisors
3. Increase in mandibular plane angle
4. Downward growth of the mandible
a. 1 and 2. The mand may not grow during a perior of treatment, but shortening of the mand body would not occur and of course you can’t see transverse movements of the incisors in a lateral ceph. An increase in the mand plane angle and down growth of the maxilla are often observed
7) If the maxilla rotated down posterioly during t(x), which of the following would you expect NOT to see in a set of c. base, maxillary and mandibular superimpositions.
1. downward-backward rotation of the mand
2. Major retraction of the maxillary incisors
3. Increase in the mandibular plane angle
4. Increase in the ant face height
5. Downward movement of the gonial angle area
a. 5. Retraction of the max incisors almost surely would not be seen bc the maxillary rotation would tend to move them anteriorly relative to the c. base. All the rest expected.
8) Which of the following could not be correct interpretations of superimpositions from a pt being treated for a long face CII problem with premolar EXTs and CII elastics?
1. anterior displacement of the maxillary incisors
2. Forward growth of the mandible
3. Eruption of the first molars in both arches
4. Decrease in anterior face height
a. 1 and 4. They almost couldn’t happen with this treatment plan. The maxillary extractions and CII elastics both would favor pulling the max incisors back and the elastics would help elongate the posterior teeth and prevent a decrease in anterior face height.
9) Which of the following are correct interpretations of these superimpositions from a patient being treated for a long face CII problem?
1. Retraction of upper and lower incisors
2. Forward growth of the mandible
3. Downward and forward growth of the maxilla
4. Eruption of the first molars in both arches
a. 1 and 4. They almost couldn’t happen with this treatment plan. The maxillary extractions and CII elastics both would favor pulling the max incisors back and the elastics would help elongate the posterior teeth and prevent a decrease in anterior face height.
9) Which of the following are correct interpretations of these superimpositions from a patient being treated for a long face CII problem?
1. Retraction of upper and lower incisors
2. Forward growth of the mandible
3. Downward and forward growth of the maxilla
4. Eruption of the first molars in both arches
a. 1, 2, 4. The mand also grows downward- the position of the maxilla was quite stable.
10) From this pt being treated for a CIII problem, which of the following is not a correct interpretation of the superimpositions?
a. Forward displacement of the maxillary teeth relative to the maxilla. (forward movement of the maxilla, downward movement of the maxilla, down-backward rotation of the mandible and stable position of the mand teeth all happen). Moving the maxilla forward without displacing the maxillary teeth was a highly desirable outcome, bc she had a max deficiency. Rotating the mand down and back also moves the chin back.
11) Which of the following are correct interpretations of this c. base superimposition in a pt being treated for posterior crossbite with a maxillary expansion appliance?
a. Not possible to evaluate the crossbite correction, vert position of the mand and max molars maintained (not major transverse expansion occurred – bc not possible to evaluate with a lateral ceph)
1 – In doing a space analysis, what is the significance of observing a skeletal class III relationship?
1 – Incisor position assumption is violated.
2 – Tooth size correlation is violated
3 – Molar repositioning assumption is violated
4 – No significance, it makes no difference to space
1. In a class III patient (as in a class II), incisor position is likely to change. They “reach” to the correct position.
2 – In space analysis, how do you account for the change in first permanent molar position that may occur during the transition to the permanent dentition?
1 – measure the distance from the lower buccal cusp to the upper groove
2 – Measure the distance from the upper buccal cusp to the lower groove
3 – Measure the size difference between the upper and lower premolars
4 – Subtract the average mesial movement from the space available
2. The correct procedure is to measure the distance the lower molar would have to move forward to create a class I relationship, which is the distance from upper buccal cusp to the lower groove.
3 – Ceph analysis shows that in your patient, the lower lip is slightly behind the E line. The correct interpretation is:
1. Slight protrusion
2. Normal lip position
3. Slight retrusion
4. Severe retrusion, the lip should be in front of the E line.
2. The lower lip is normally slightly behind the E line, although the E line can be affected by the size of the nose or chin.
4 – Why do prediction tables based on tooth size correlations work better for white folks than other ethnic groups?
1 – Caucasian teeth are more predictable
2 – Upper lateral incisor variation is less in Caucasians
3 – Lower premolars are extremely variable in Asians
4 – Published tables are based largely on data from whiteys
4. There aren’t tables available for each specific ethnic group.
5 – In space analysis, why is the prediction formula different for the max and mand teeth?
1. It isn’t. The same formula works.
2. Different forumula required because the correlation coefficients are different for the two arches.
3. Different formula required because the correlations are different for the two arches.
4. Different formula required because the method is different for the upper and lower arch.
3. The correlations are different, the coefficients and method are the same.
6 – During the mixed dentition, which is the preferred method of measuring space available for the permanent teeth?
1. Measure the width of each tooth individually and sum the numbers
2. Measure the intercanine and intermolar widths and sum the numbers.
3. Form a wire to the ideal catenary curve and measure its perimeter.
4. Measure the length of arch segments from first molar to first molar.
4. Measuring the length of arch segments is preferred. A catenary curve is possible and less accurate.
7 – In doing a space analysis, what’s the significance of observing a skeletal class II relationship?
1. Incisor position assumption is violated.
2. Tooth size correlation is violated.
3. Molar repositioning assumption is violated.
4. No significance, it makes no difference to space.
1. The teeth want to be correct, so they reach towards the correct pattern.
8 – Which of the following is not a frequent cause of error in space analysis?
1. Inaccurate measurements of space available
2. Inaccurate measurement of incisor width
3. Incorrectly trimmed casts
4. All are important
4 – They’re all important. Incorrectly trimmed casts can hide molar position, evidently.
9 – Which of the following is not a valid method for calculating the space required for the unerupted permanent teeth?
1. Radiographic evaluation
2. Tooth size correlation
3. Jaw size – tooth size correlation
4. Radiographic plus tooth size correlation
3. It’s made-up.
10 – If your patient has protrusive lips as judged from the facial form analysis, how would that affect your interpretation of the space analysis results?
1 – Patient has more space than the analysis indicates.
2 – Patient has less space than the analysis indicates.
3 – Space may increase as incisor becomes more protrusive
4 – Space may increase as molar moves forward less than it would otherwise
2. Space analysis overestimates space when teeth are protruding, since some space may be needed to reduce the protrusion.
11 – Which of the following is not a factor to consider in interpreting the results of space analysis?
1 –Skeletal classification
2 – dental classification
3 – incisor position
4 – dental arch growth
5 – they all must be considered
4. A valid assumption of the analysis is that there’s no significant growth of the jaws anterior to the mesial of the first permanent molars, so growth in this area can be ignored.
12 – Which of the following is a way that class I molars are achieved in a child who is skeletally class I, but has flush terminal plane primary molars?
1. Distal shift of the upper molar
2. mesial shift of the lower molar
3. differential forward growth of the upper jaw
4. restriction of mandibular growth
2. Mesial shift due to differential forward growth or tooth movement is the only one that can lead to class I molars.
13 – (A) The size of the unerupted mandibular canine and premolars can be established better from the size of the maxillary than the mandibular incisors because (B) there is an excellent correlation between the size of the upper incisors and lower canines/premolars.
Both are false.
14 – (A) During the mixed dentition, space available for permanent teeth often is less than the space required because (B) the primary incisors are significantly smaller than the permanent incisors that replace them.
Both true, but unrelated
15 – Which is not a key assumption in mixed dentition space analysis?
1. There is a high correlation between the size of anterior and posterior teeth
2. Jaw growth occurs primarily in the tooth bearing area of the jaws
3. The patient fits the reference population group.
4. The incisors will not move facially or lingually during future growth.
5. Repositioning of the molars during the premolar exchange is predictable.
2. This is the opposite of true.
16 – What is suggested by a unilateral class II molar relationship in a child who is skeletal class I?
1. Loss of space in the upper arch
2. Loss of space in the lower arch
3. Class III growth pattern with uprighting of the lower incisors
4. Eruption along a wider perimeter
1. A class II molar on one side suggests space loss in the upper arch. The lower molar is in the correct AP position, while the upper is further forward due to space loss.
1. (A) The Angle classification ignored the possibility of excessive protrusion of the teeth that compromised esthetics because (B) Angle believed that everyone had the potential to have 32 teeth in ideal occlusion without an esthetic problem.
Both true, related. Angle strongly opposed orthodontic removal of teeth.
2. Which of the following terms are inappropriate to use within the Angle system?
1 – incisor crowding
2 – deep bite
3 – posterior crossbite
4 – skeletal class III
2, 3, 4. Angle fails to include descriptions of vertical, transverse, or skeletal relationships.
3. How does the addition of protrusion to the characteristics considered in classification affect the way crowding is measured?
1 – requires lip prominence to be considered
2 – requires ceph analysis
3 – requires adjustment of arch length discepency
None of the above. It has no effect on the way crowding is measured. The effect is on the interpretation of the results, not on the determination of space.
4. Which of the following characteristics of malocclusion would be most likely to be associated with a pitch of the maxilla down posteriorly?
1. Ant open bite
2. Ant deep bite
3. Post crossbite
4. Post openbite
5. All are equally possible
1 – Ant open bite. Rotates mandible down and back. Pitch is not related to crossbite.
5. (A) The Ackerman-Proffit classification scheme uses five characteristics of malocclusion because (B) the five characteristic scheme is quite compatible with computer database management and computerized diagnosis.
Both true and unrelated.
6. Which of the following types of malocclusion is most likely to be associated with a roll of the maxilla to the left?
1. Post xbite
2. ant deep bite
3. Ant open bite
4. Crowded incisors
5. All equally likely
All are equally likely.
7. What is the greatest risk of an inadequate classification that confuses analogous and homologous patients?
1. Important aspect overlooked
2. Esthetic outcome jeopardized
3. Risk of not obtaining ideal occlusion
4. improper treatment plan
5. All are equally important
4. With an improper treatment plan, any of the other problems could follow.
8. In the first step in Ackerman-Proffit classification, which of the following are major items for classification?
1 – Facial proportions
2 – tooth-lip relationships
3 – occlusal relationships
4 – skeletal vs. dental relationships
1 and 2. Facial proportions and tooth-lip relationships are in step one, and the others are observed in 3-5, using clinical and radiographic data.
9. Which of the following is NOT a possible explanation of class I molars in a child who has excessive face height?
1. distal position of the maxilla
2. mesial shift of the lower molar
3. large mandible
4. excessive eruption of the maxillary teeth
4. Excessive eruption of the upper teeth would not compensate for excess face height and downward-backward rotation of the mandible, but the other three things could.
10. Which of the following is most likely to be associated with anterior open bite?
1 – Increased distance from nose to upper incisor
2 – increased distance from lower lip to chin
3 – increased distance from nose to chin
4 – Increased distance from condyle to chin
3. If ant face height is increased, it is likely that there will be an open bite.
11. On clinical examination, in assessing whether incisor protrusion is excessive, exactly what do you look for?
1 – Protrusion of the upper incisor relative to the lower
2 – Protrusion of the upper incisor relative to the maxilla
3 – protrusion of the lower incisor relative to the mandible
4 – protrusion of the lips
5 – separation of the lips at rest
4 and 5. The lips are key to judging whether incisor protrusion is excessive. Incisor protrusion is measured by the relationship of the upper incisor to the maxilla, and the lower incisor to the mandible, but the judgment as to whether this amount is excessive is based on the position of the lips.
12. What is the characteristic that would be most useful in distinguishing a skeletal from a dental posterior crossbite?
1 – transverse relationship of upper to lower molar
2 – maxillary intermolar width
3 – mandibular intermolar width
4 – width of palatal vault
5 – width of gonial angles
4. The key measurement for assessment of skeletal crossbite is the width of the maxilla at the height of the palatal vault, which is often narrow.
13. Which of the following is least likely to produce class II malocclusion?
1 – maxillary dentition positioned upward relative to maxilla
2 – maxillary dentition positioned anteriorly relative to maxilla
3 – Maxilla positioned anteriorly relative to cranial base
4 – mandible retrusive relative to cranial base
5 – mandibular dentition retrusive relative to mandible
1. Moving the max teeth upward relative to the maxilla tends to produce class III malocclusion, since the mandible would rotate up and forward.
14. Which of the following are characteristics of skeletal deep bite?
1 – excessive vertical overlap between upper and lower incisors
2 – short posterior face height
3 – short anterior face height
4 – low mandibular plane angle
3 and 4. The teeth are irrelevant to diagnosing a skeletal deep bite.
15. Which of the following is least likely to produce a class III malocclusion?
1 – Max dentition posteriorly positioned relative to maxilla
2 – maxilla posteriorly positioned relative to cranial base
3 – mandibular dentition anteriorly positioned relative to mandible
4 – mandible prominent relative to cranial base
5 – mandible rotated to steep mandibular plane angle
5. Rotating to a steep mandibular plane angle would only decrease the mandible’s prominence.
16. Which of the following are likely to be noted in a patient with severe yaw of the maxillary dentition to the right?
1 – maxillary midline to the right of facial midline
2 – buccal posterior crossbite on the right
3 – class II molar relationship on the left.
4 – ant open bite
1,2, and 3. Anterior open bite is unrelated to yaw.