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290 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

Angiotensin II is famous for?

-vasoconstriction

what is the primary glucocorticoid?

cortisol

what is a glucocorticoid that is also secreted and is about 1/3 as active as cortisol?

corticosterone

-helps a person resist stress


- plays an imp role in carb, prot, and fat metab


-exhibit sig permissive actions for other hormonal activities



glucocorticoids (cortisol + corticosterone)

mineralocorticoid helps you conserve?

electrolytes, specifically Na+

Dexamethasone has what kind of activity?

glucocorticoid activity

major factor for aldosterone release?

angiotensin II

control of glucocorticoid release?

-stress and diurnal rhythyms stim hypo to relase CRH -> AP release ACTH -> adrenal cortex releases glucocorticoids




(negative feedback; glucocorticoids inhibit the hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary gland)

clinical point of prolonged treatment w/ glucocorticoids?

-anti-inflammatory doses of glucocorticoids inhibit ACTH release


-stopping treatments means pituitary gland can't produce normal ACTH for up to 1 month


- need to taper the withdrawal of glucocorticoids

cortisol is bound to ?

alpha globulin called transcortin


-only a small amount is free


- the free cortisol is what interacts with tissue

what molecule starts cortisol?

cholesterol

half life of cortisol?


where is cortisol metabolized?

60-90 mins


- it is metabolized in the liver


-rate of metabolism is decreased with kidney disease and stress (including surgery)

the rate of metabolism of cortisol is decreased with?

-kidney disease


-stress (including surgery)

mechanism of action for glucocorticoids?

steroid-receptor complex acts as TF to turn on seg of dna




-leads to appropriate mRNAs -> enzymes that alter cell function

metab effects of glucocorticoids?

-stim hep gluconeogenesis, which typically involves conversion of aa into carbs


-helps restore hepatic stores of glycogen


-liver releases stored glucose to help maintain blood glucose levels


-inhibit glucose use by different tissues (except brain)

glucocorticoids will increase blood aa levels because?

glucocorticoids stimulate protein degradation in tissues, esp muscle




-mobilized AAs are available to GN or to help repair dmg tissue, or synth of new cell structures

permissive action of glucocorticoids

-small amnts of glucocorticoids must be present for number of metab rxn to occur


-required for : glucagon and catecholamines to exert their calorigenic effects


-important for catecholamines to exert their lipolytic effects


- also small amts for cat to produce pressor responses and bronchodilation



person lacking cortisol may go into circulatory shock in a stressful situation that demands immediate widespread vasoconstriction?

example of the permissive action of glucocorticoids




; no norep to facilitate vasoconstriction

benefits seen from glucocorticoids and why they may aid in resisting stress?

increased pool of glucose, AAs, and FAs available

long-term high levels of glucocorticoids?

Cushing's Syndrome can occur

in addition to being antiinflammatory, glucocorticoids are also anti?

antiallergic




- they suppress manifestations of allergic disease that are due to release of histamine from tissues

prolonged increase in plasma glucocorticoids can occur from?

adrenal tumors, prolonged admin of exogenous glucocorticoids(dexamethasone), tumors in the anterior pituitary gland, or even tumors (usually in the lungs) that secrete ACTH

symptoms of Cushing's syndrome?

fat pads, moon face, red cheeks, pendulous abdomen, striae, bruisability with ecchymoses, thin skin, poor muscle development, and poor wound healing

Cushing's syndrome symptoms?

-pt. no protein b/c excess protein catabolism


- skin and subcutaneous tissues are therefore thin


- muscles are poorly developed


- wounds heal poorly


-minor injuries can easily cause bruising


-can develop type 2 DM because of resultant hyperglycemia


- can have mineralcorticoid effect (retention of Na+) from glucocorticoids (also contributes to moon face)


-sometimes pts. are also hypertensive


- glucocoritoid excess can lead to bone dissolution and osteaporosis


- may also produce increased appetite, insomnia, and mental symptoms



morning vs evening ACTH and cortisol levels?

higher in morining, lower in evening

circadian rhythm and ACTH?

-secreted in irregular bursts throughout the day


-most frequent during early morning


-75% of cortisol production occurs between 4 am and 10 am


-peaks are reversed for persons who work at night and sleep during the day

hormones that exert masculinizing effects?


also promote protein anabolism and growth

androgens


-testosterone is the most active androgen

DHEAS (dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate)

androgen that has less than 20% of testosterone activity

peak of DHEAS (dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate) is during?

during the early 20s for both sexes

secretion of adrenal androgens is controlled by?

ACTH,




NOT GONADOTROPINS

long term changes of androgens is due to?

changes in 17 alpha-hydroxylase, not to changes in ACTH secretion

excess adrenal androgens in females?

can result in some masculinizing

important source of estrogens in men and postmenopausal women?

adrenal androgen androstenedione is converted to testosterone and to estrogens in fat and other peripheral tissues

steroid hormone formed from vitamin d in the liver and kidneys?

1,25-Dihydroxycholecalciferol




-action is to increase calcium absorption in the intestines

parathyroid hormone and calcium?

parathyroid hormone mobilizes calcium from the bone and increases urinary phosphate excretion

calcium-lowering hormone whose role is relatively minor?

calcitonin

Hydroxyapatite [(Ca3PO4)2]3Ca(OH)2 requires?

Ca 2+ and phosphate




-important in bone formation



what maintains voltage-gated sodium channels in the closed position?

calcium

most calcium is where and in what form?

99% is in the skele and teeth


it is in a crystalline form

what form of calcium is regulated?

free calcium in the extra cellular fluid

some calcium is where?

complexed with phosphate, bound to plasma proteins, and some found intracellularly

role of the free, ionized calcium:

1. vital 2nd messenger


2. blood coagulation


3. vital for muscle contraction


4. necessary for proper nerve function

results of hypocalcemia on nerves?

overexcitability of nerves and muscles (problems such as spastic contractions of respiratory muscles)




-lower threshold for depolarization

major results of low calcium?

hypocalcmic tetany, especially of muscle extremities and the larynx

laryngospasms?

result of low calcium levels, can be so severe that airway is obstructed and fatal asphyxia is produced

what can produce hypocalcemia?

alkalosis



hyperventilation due to anxiety can result in?

alkalosis and therefore hypocalcemia symptoms

hypocalcemia can results in what in the fingers, toes and mouth?

numbness

hypocalcemia can result in what of small muscles such as the hand and wrist?

tetany

hypercalcemia does what to neuromuscular activity?

depresses.




hypercalcemia can cause cardia arrhythmias




makes harder to depolarize

hypercalcemia does what to the threshold for membrane depolarization ?

it increases it.

primary structure of salts in bone?

hydroxyapatite

bone is?

-living tissue that is well vascularized


- bone is able to constantly respond to stress and strains put upon it


- structure includes compact (cortical) bone and trabecular (spongy) bone?

what are the two types of bone included in bone structure?

compact (cortical) bone




and trabecular (spongy) bone

two types of cells that live within the bone?

osteoblasts




osteoclasts

what cells are responsible for bone formation?

osteoblasts

what cells are modified fibroblasts?

osteblasts

which bone cells are responsible for bone resorption?

osteoclasts

which bone cells are members of the monocyte family?

osteoclasts

strength of bone comes primarily from inside or outside?

outside

area sealed off by the cell, acidified by what?, then dissolving what and breakingdown what?

osteoclast




acidified by proton pumps


hyroxyapatite and breaking down of collagen

calcium turnover in bone in infants vs adults?

100% per year in infants vs 18% per year in adults

bone formation and reabsorption are equally matches except?

during first 20 years and last 20 years

osteoporosis is underlying cause of 1.2m fractions/year




1/2m are what kind of fractures?




1/4m are what kind of fractures?

1/2m are vertebral fractures


-1/4m are hip fractures

what kind of replacement has been one method to help their susceptibility to osteoporosis?

estorogen replacement

ways to avoid osteoporosis in women?

estrogen replacement




- weight bearing exercise


- developing strong bones before menopause with calcium rich diets and adequate exercise

where is vit d produced?

skin

vit d is converted in the liver to ?

25-hyrdoxycholecalciferol

25-hydroxycholecalciferol is converted in kidney to? which does what to absorption in intestine?

1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol.




this increases intestine absorption of Ca2+ and PO43-)

The active transport of Ca2+ and PO43- from the intestine in increased by a metabolite of Vitamin D.




what is the metabolite?

1,25-dihyrdoxycholecalciferol

vitamin d is conerted to 25-hydroxycholecalciferol in what organ?

liver

1,25 dihydroxycholecalciferol is a steroid and binding results in activation of a DNA-binding region -> inc mRNA and these mRNA dictate?

formation of calbindin-D proteins

what two proteins are correlated with increased Ca2+ transport?

calbindin-D9K and calbindin-D28K




1,25 dihydroxycholecalciferol -> mRNA transcription -> calbindin-D proteins

regulation of 1,25 dihydroxycholecalciferol?

feedback reg by plasma ca2+ and pO4 3-




when these are high, LOW 1,25 dihydroxycholecalciferol is produced in kidneys

calcification of bone matrix due to vit d deficiency?




in children?




in adults?

in children this is called Rickets




in adults this is called osteomalacia




(result is failure to have adequate amounts of ca2+ and phosphate to sites of mineralization)

rickets in children?

1. weakness and bowing of weight-bearing bones


2. dental defects


3. hypocalcemia (tetany)

parathyroid hormone release is stimulated by?

low levels of free calcium in the plasma

calcium homeostasis:




low plas ca2+ -> release of parathyroid hormone secretion -> inc plasma parathyroid -> acts on bone to increase Ca resorption -> inc release of calcium into plasma






inc plas parathyroid -> (kidney) inc ca2+ and inc 1,25(oh)2D formation which ultimately?

decreases urinary excretion of calcium and also inc plasma 1,25 (oh)2d increases calcium absorption in the intestine

the parathyroid glands are located?

on the posterior surface of the thyroid gland

half-life or parathyroid is approx?

10 mins (this hormone has 84 aa residues)

where is parathyroid broken down?

cleaved by cells in liver and fragments and parathryoid hormone are cleared by the kidneys

what hormone acts directly on bone to increase bone resroption and mobilize Ca2+?

parathyroid hormone

what decreases plas phosphat elevels and increases phophate excretion in urine?

parathyroid hormone

when ca2+ high?

pth inhibited, ca2+ is deposited in the bones

tetany from parathyroidectormy?

hypocalcemic tetany

common metabolic complication of cacner?

hypercalcemia

hormone that inhibits bone resorption by inhibiting osteoclasts?

calcitonin

where is calcitonin produced?

parafollicular cells in the thyroid glands

two function of gonads?

1. gametogenesis


2. secretion of sex hormones

adrenal cortex produces? which are sometimes converted into what in fat and other tissues?

androgens, which are converted to estrogens

meiosis vs mitosis

meiosis - end up w/ 1/2 chromosome

in what week does the embryo have both male and female primordial genital ducts?

seventh week of gestation

the external genitalia are bipotential until what week?

external genitalia are bipotential until the 8th week

testosterone (leydig) and mullerian inhibiting substance (sertoli) cause?

male development to occur

what causes a female system to develop?

lack of testosterone (leydig) and MIS (sertoli)

during pubery what is activated from the anterior pituitary?

gonadotropins are activated from the anterior pituitary to bring about the final maturation of the reproductive system

during puberty which gonadotropins increase?

FSH + LH both trigger maturation of sex hormones

secretion of adrenal androgens, when?

near time of puberty.




8-10 in girls


10-12 in boys

secretion of adrenal androgens is controlled by what?

ACTH




NOT gonadotropins**

long term changes of androgens is due to changes in?

17 alpha-hydroxylase,




not to changes in ACTH secretion

DHT binding vs testosterone?

DHT is a more stable receptor-steroid complex

where is testosterone produced?

in the Leydig cells of the testes

abundance of DHT vs testosterone?

-there is about 10% as much DHT in the plasma as compared to testosterone

what is necessary for sexual maturity at puberty?

DHT

DHT and effects on action of testosterone?

DHT amplifies the action of testosterone in the tissue

5 alpha-reducatase catalyzes?

converstion of test -> DHT

LH -> testis -> test -> 5alpha-reducatase in target cell -> DHT ->

gonadotropin reg


spermatogenesis


sex differentiation (wolffian stim, external virilization)


sex maturation at puberty

note these male reproductive system structures:

1. testis


2. seminiferous tubules


3. epididymis


4. vas deferens


5. prostate gland


6. seminal vesicle


7. Urethra

testes are made up of loops of?

seminiferous tubules

walls of seminiferous tubules contain?

sertoli and primitive germ cells

between tubules in testes?

insterstitial cells (cells of Leydig)




these secrete test

sertoli cells secrete:

1. androgen-binding protein (keeps androgen levels high)


2. Inhibin (will inhibit FSH secretion)


3. MIS ( for emb dev)




4. Sertoli cells contains aromatase which converts androgens to estrogens

what contains aromatase and what is its function?

sertoli cells




aromatase converts andro to estro

what matures into primary spermatocytes?

spermatogonium

primary spermatocytes go through meiosis to become?

spermatids, which have the haploid number of 23 chromosomes

spermatids associate with what cell to mature into?

the spermatids associate with the Sertoli cell to mature to spermatozoa




(which are then released into the lumen of the seminiferous tubules)

1 spermatogonium will produce how many spermatids?

512

temp of the testes is normally ?

32 C or 89.6 F

what adds fructose and prostaglandins and accoutns for about 60% of the volume of semen?

seminal vesicles

what adds 20% of the volume and what does it secrete to neutralize acidic vaginal secretion?

prostate gland adds 20% of the volume. It secretes and alkaline fluid

serine protease that is secreted into the semen?




significance of plasma PSA levels?

prostate-specific androgen




-hydrolyzes sperm motility inhibitor


(semenogelin)




-elevated plasma PSA occurs w/ prostate cancer

what hormone acts on Leydig cells to reg testosterone secretion?

L-L




Luteinizing hormone (LH)

FSH acts on what part? and what specific part of that part?

seminiferous tubules, specifically Sertoli cells to enhance spermatogenesis

LH an FSH are stimulated by ?

GnRH from the hypothalamus

inhibin B acts where?

at the anterior pituitary

testosterone positively influences?

sertoli cells and spermatogensis

test inhibits release of?

LH and GnRH

inhibin b inhibits?

FSH




inhibin secreted by Sertoli

primorial follicles formed during?




how many @ time of birth?

-formed during fetal dev, no more formed after birth




-normal primordial follicles = 1 million @ time of birth

ova undergo first meiotic division and are arrested in what phase until adulthood?

prophase

# primordial follicles @ puberty?

< 300k

start of ovarian cycle?


(4)

-several primordial follicles enlarge


-cavity forms around each ovum and is filled w/ follicular fluid


-one grows rapidly around day 6


-one wins and the others regress, turning into atretic follicles

winning follicle ->

theca interna of follicle is primary source of circulating estrogens


- at 14 days distended follicle ruptures and ovum goes into abdominal cavity to be picked up by fimbria


-ovum release is ovulation

what picks up the ovum in the abdominal cavity?

fimbria

follicle ruptures and changes proliferation of granulosa and theca cells occurs forming what?




this initiates ?




now luteal cells

-corppus leteum




-luteal phase of menstrual cycle




-secrete estrogens and progesterone

purpose of corpus luteum?

secrete abundant progest and lesser amounts of estro into blood

corpus luteum becomes functional when?

4 days after ovulation

wall of uterus is called?

endometrium

where will fertilized egg (blasocyst) implant and form placenta?

endometrium

when fert has not occured, endometrium goes through cycles of?

-menstrual phase


-proliferative phase


-secretory phase

proliferative phase and endometrium?




what days?

- thickness of endometrium grows


-typically from days 5-14

proliferative phase changes to secretory phase (uterine phases) upon?

egg implant

before ovulation hormone?




after ovulation?

-estrogen




-estrogen AND progesterone (in secretory phase of uterine cycle)

secretory phase, progest acts on endometrium?

thickened, estrogen-primed endometrium conversion to richly vascularized, glycogen-filled tissue

secretory phase occurs from days?

14-28

corpus luteum regress hormonal support for endometrium is withdrawn and what happens?

-endometrium becomes thinner and the endometrium will shed (menstrual phase)

usually duration of menstrual flow?

3-5 days

ovarian cycle:

1. dev of follicle


2. release of estrogen by theca interna and granulosa cells of follicle


3. ovulation (day14)


4. formation of corpus luteum


5. release of estrogen and progesterone

the uterus is lined by a cell layer called?

the endometrium (where blastocyst (egg) ) implants and forms the placenta

shift from proliferative to secretory phase in uterine cycle?

day 14 (ovulation)

time between fertilization and implantation:

7 days: so about day 22 in secretory phase is when implantation can occur

during secretory phase of the uterine cycle, what is the function of progesterone?

converts thickened, estrogen-primed endometrium into a richly vascularized, glycogen-filled tissue

secretory phase occurs from what days?

14-28 days (relatively constant in length)

secretory phase of uterine cycle is what part of the ovarian phase?

secretory phase of uterine = luteal phase of ovarian cycle

what triggers LH surge @ day 9?

constant increase in estrogen

what does the LH surge cause?

ovulation

what inhibits LH and FSH?

progesterone from the corpus lutuem

why corpus luteum has a limited life span?

no LH bc it inhibits it via progesterone

what triggers the beginning of the cycyle?

increase of LH and FSH

what stimulates proliferation of the granulosa cells of the follicle?

FSH and estrogen

LH acts on the theca interna cells to?

produce androgens, then FSH acts on granulosa cells to convert androgens to estrogen

what are the three naturally occurring estrogens?

1. 17 beta-estradiol


2. estrone


3. estriol

LH stims theca interna to produce?

androgens

FSH stims granulosa cells to convert androgens from where into what?

from LH-stim'd theca interna cells




converts those androgens into estrogens

LH receptors in ?

theca interna cell




granulosa cells (also has FSH receptors)

what has LH AND FSH receptors?

granulosa cells

what produces inhibin B?

granulosa cells




this inhibits FSH

inhibitor of FSH?

inhibin B from granulos cells

estrogen inhibits?

LH and GnRH

what stims both LH and FSH?

GnRH

how early can hCG be detected in the blood?

as early as 6 days after conception

how early can hCG be detected in the urine?

as early as 14 days after conception

how much cardiac output does the kidney receive?

about 20-25% of the cardiac output




it is only 0.5% of the total body mass

what hormone control Na reabsorption in the body?

aldosterone

where is aldosterone formed?

adrenal cortex

how much urine is voided per day?

about 1 L of urine is voided per day

how much fluid gets filtered across the glomeruli per day?

180 L of fluid

how many mmol of glucose is filtered?




how many mmol of glucose is excreted?

800 mmol of glucose filtered/day




0 mmol of glucose excreted/day

meq Na filtered into renal tubules each day?




excreted?

26000 meq Na+ filtered in to renal tubules each day




only 150 meq goes out in urine each day

-formation of a plasma filtrate, free of protein, which enters the proximal tubule

glomerular filtration

t-transfer of desirable water and solutes from the tubular fluid to the renal tubule cells ( and hence back into the blood stream )

tubular reabsorption

-secretion of solutes from the renal tubules into the tubular fluid

tubular secretion

first part of proximal tubule vs latter portion of proximal tubule?

first part: sodium reabsorbed mostly by co-transport w/ glucose and amino acids




latter part: sodium is reabsorbed mostly by diffusion through sodium channels

sodium is co-transported w/ K+ and Cl- where?

in the ascending loop of Henle

why does a diabetic have higher urine output than normal?

osmotic pressure from glucose pulls water into the urine

PAH (para-aminohippuric acid) ?

tubular secretion is demonstrated by PAH

the secretion of K+ is regulated by?

aldosterone; takes sodium out of tubule, and helps set it up so potassium goes into the tubule

what is secreted into the proximal tubule, distal tubule, and collecting duct ?

hydrogen ions




-this is an important mechanism in the acid-base balance

what monitors the Na+ and Cl- levels in the tubular fluid?

juxtaglomerular apparatus




-thus GFR can be controlled through autoregulation




-feedback mechanism can occur within a few seconds

distal proximal tubule goes through what ?

the juxtaglomerular apparatus

macula densa cells:

senses what goes on inside renal tubule (Na)

GFR and fluid velocity?

more glomerular filtration rate = more fluid velocity






(thus less time to pull out sodium from tubular fluid)

more sodium absorbed by macula densa cells?

inc na/k pump activity, more adenosine forms, more adenosine increases calcium released by macular densa cells and smooth muscle contraction occurs in afferent arterioles -> decrease GFR





proximal convuluted tubule and water?

permeable to water




water reabsorption is automatic




watter passively follows osmotic gradient set up by active transport of sodium

in proximal tubule, how much water is reabsorbed?

65% of water is already absorbed

descending loop of henle and water?

permeable to water, but no sodium reabsorb

ascending loop and water?

impermeable to water, but Na reabsorb

sodium level in plasma?

300 mosm/kg

in Henle how much water is removed?

about 15% of total water

osmolality at bottom of loop of henle?

1200

adh (vasopressin) and collecting duct?

more aquaporins -> more water reabsorption

loop of Henle establishes a concentration gradient

important for collecting duct

Primary site for regulation of the amount of water and sodium that go out in the urine.

collecting ducts

Distal convoluted tubule:

impermeable to water, also reabsorbs sodium (5% water absorbed here)

aldoesterone turns on pumps AND?

it activated na/k pumps, but it also opens up new sodium channels

dilute urine and vasopressin levels?

low vasopressin leads to higher urine volume (dilute urine)

what inhibits the release of vasopressin

alcohol

factors that influence vasopressin secretion

1. increased osmotic pressure of plasma


2. decreased ecf volume


3. pain, emotion, "stress", exercise


4. nausea and vomiting


5. standing


6. clofibrate, carbamazepine


7. angiotensin II





vasopressin secretion decreased

1. decreased effective osmotic pressure of plasma


2. increased ECF volume


3. alcohol

two drugs that increase vasopressin secretion?

clofibrate and carbamazepine

normal gfr?

125 ml/min

what catalyzes carbonic acid formation?

carbonic acid formation is catalyzed by carbonic anhydrase

what has the ability to acidify the urine?

the kidneys have the ability to acidify the urine

hyperventilation =

less co2 and shifts the equilibrium towards carbonic acid, thus acidifying the blood in the process

reabsorption of bicarbonate ion: 1 of 3 principle mechanisms for acidification of the urine

-occurs primarily in proximal tubule


-

formation of monobasic phosphate happens mostly in?

distal tubule and collecting ducts

what is formed in the cells of the proximal and distal convoluted tubules?

ammonia




glutamine to glutamine is the principle reaction forming ammonium (NH4)

two enzymes that convert glutamine into product and NH4+

glutaminase and glutamic dehydrogenase

regulation of sodium primarily occurs?

in the collecting ducts via aldosterone

what is amiloride?

a diuretic, it functions by inhibiting the epithelial sodium channel

Ouabain function?

inhibits sodium/potassium pump, which means sodium stays in renal tubule fluid

stimuli for aldosterone:

1. low Na+ (turn on renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system)




(renin comes out of juxtaglomerular apparatus)




2. increased plasma K+ levels directly stimulate aldosterone (from adrenal cortex) which simulates aldosterone




3. ACTH (adrenocorticotropoic hormone) acutely increases aldosterone production

atrial natriuretic peptide

1. released by cells in atria in response to increased volume


2. inhibits renin and therefore aldosterone


3. which therefore inhibits sodium channels in the collecting duct


4. end result is more sodium excreted in urine

K extra cellular = 5.5 mmol/l and intracellular =?

150mmol/l

hyperkalemia ->

arrhythmias and low levels cna produce muscle weakness, decreased glucose tolerance and arrhythmias

where is K+ reabsorbed?

proximal tuble and in henle

where is potassium secreted?

in distal tubule and in collecting duct

aldosterone controls amount of what secreted in the colelcting duct?

K+ ; via activity of the sodium/potassium pumps in the colelcting duct, and this increases the number of epithelial sodium channels

turning on renin-angiotensin aldosterone system?

1. conserve water


2. increase wate retention/volume


3. increase blood pressure

increase in blood pressure then renin?

decreases, so no reabsorption of sodium

what triggers the activation of renin?

low sodium




-renin helps to release aldosterone (which attempts to save sodium)

low gfr

low blood volume or low blood pressure

how anp reduce blood volume?

inhibits release of renin

renal failure

metabolic acidosis- results in altered enzyme activity bc too much aicd


will depress cns (interfereing with neuronal excitability)




potassium retention (hyperkalemia)


-altered cardia and neural activity because of changing resting membrane potential




uremic toxicity

ramifications of sodium imbalance

-high sodium -> elevated bp, generalized edema, congestive heart disease if too much sodium




-hypotension and possible circulatory shock if too little sodium is consumed

ramifications of loss of plasma proteins because of leakiness ofglomeruli

-edema caused by a reduction in plasma-colloid osmotic pressure

-refers to acute decline in GFR


-includes increasei n bloodurea nitrogen and serum creatinine




-frequent complication of hypotensive shock

acute renal failure

-refers to end-stage renal disease


- characterized by servere and chorinically elevated levels of BUN




-characterized by marked sclerosis of both glomeruli and intersitium and by tubular atrophy

chronic renal failure

one of the most common causes of chronic renal failure

chronic glomerulonephritis

disease which have secondary effects on glomerulus?

1. diabetes mellitus


2. systemic lupus erythematosus


3. hypertension


4. amyloidosis

noninflammatory glomerulupathies?

nephrosis (nephrotic syndrome)

inflammatory glomerular diseases?

nephritic (nephritis)

major chars of nephrosis (noninflammatory glomerulupathies)

1. heavy proteinuria


2. hypoproteinemis (esp. hypoalbuminemia)


3. peripheral edema


4. hyperlipidemia and lipiduria

initial event in nephrosis?

derangement in glomerular capillary walls resulting in increased permeability to plasma protein




massive proteinuria results




largest proportion of protein lost in he urine is albumin




fluid escapes into tissue because of decreased plasma oncotic pressure

major causes of syndrome in adults?

1. membranous nephropathy (30%)


2. glomerulopatheis associated with systemic diseases

major causes of nephrotic syndrome in children

1. epithelial cell (minimal change) disease (70%)

characterized by diffuse thickening of the glomerular capillary wall and accumulation of immunoglobulin-containing deposits along basement membrane




form of chronic immun complex-mediated disease

membranous nephropathy

major nephrotic syndrome:`

association w/ other systemic disease of with various drugs




(drugs including penicillamine, captopril, gold, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs




underlying malignant tumars




and lupus

diabetic microangiopathy involves hyaline arteriolosclerosis (hyaline thickening of the vessel walls narrowing the lumun) of both the afferent and efferent arterioles?

diabetic glomerulusclerosis




-leading cuase of end-stage renal disease in the US

epithelial cell disease

* largely a disorder in children


* alteration in podocytes (forms slits in glomerulus)


* responds well to corticosteroids and the changes are reversible during remission

nephritis (inflammatory glomerular diseases) are characterized by:

-hematuria


-proteinuria


-oliguria


-dereased GFR (elevated BUN and serum creatinine )

circulating immune complex nephritis:

*glomerular trapping of circulating antigen/antibody complexes




* aggregates of these can penetrate glomerulus and become trapped in subepithelial location




*htne neutrophils attracted

acute postinfectious glomerulonephritis

-sudden onset of nephritic syndrome


- sequel to infection (commonly from streptococci)


- most commonly affect children




(streptococci can affect the valves of the heart)

primary infection in acute postinfectious glomerulonephritis?

in pharynx




begins w/ oliguria, hematuria, facial edema, and hypertension

systemic lupus erythematosus

70 percent of patients w/ SLE will develop clinically significant renal disease




about 15% develop membranous glomerulopathy




trapping of immune complexes -> renal damage




renal failure = cause of death in 1/3 of patients





percent water of :




plasma


soft tissues (muscle, skin, organs)


bone


fat

plasma is more than 90% water




soft tissues are 70-80% water




bone is 22% water




Fat is only 10 % water

only body fluid which can be directly altered or regulated?




how is it altered?

plasma (20% of 1/3) is filtered by the kidney

what is controling factor for fluid shifts between interstitial fluid and intracellular ?

sodium/potassium pump




cell would not be able to export sodium if na/k pump stopped working?

alkalosis?

causes convulsions and overexcitability of CNS (may seem like extreme nervousness)

hypoventilation results in?

acidosis

hyperventilation results in?

respiratory alkalosis

carbonic anhydrase

-high levels found in renal cells




-converts co2 and h2o to h2co3

lymphatic circulation route?

capillaries/ecf/lyphatic vessels/thoracic duct/ veins

lyphatic system starts where?

in the capillary bed




they run parallel to the blood vessels

thoracic duct of lymph system empties into?

the subclavian vein

blood volume is what percent of body wt?




what percent of that blood volume is plasma?

blood volume is about 8% of body weight




plasma is 55% of blood volume (other part is cellular elements )

active in production of cells




in almost all bones in children (also in extramedullar sites)




adults: usually in vertebrae, sternum, and some long bones




has pluripotent stem cells and progenitor cells

red marrow

inactive form of marrow




color due to lipid storage




can be reactivated if needed for cell production

yellow marrow

three types of granulocytes?

Basophils - resemble mast cells; contain heparin/hestiamin; allergic rxns


Neutrophils - nonspecific phagocytes


Eosinophils - not esp phago, involved in allergies/parasitic disease



most abundant granulocyte?

neutrophils -nonspecific phagocytes

types of agranulocytes:

lymphocytes (B+T)




monocytes - differentiate into macrophages

what cells contain heparin/histamine?

basophil (type of granulocyte, which is a type of wbc)




resemble mast cells and involved in allergic rxns




also eosinophils are involved in allergies/parasitic disease

most abundant type of agranulocyte:

lymphocytes (B+T)

megakaryocyte will form?

platelets

half life of this granulocyte is 6 hours




100 billion per da




enter tissues when triggered by infection of inflammatory cytokines




non-specific phagocytes

neutrophils

how do neutrophils cain access to pint of inflammation in either superficial tissue or deeper tissue?

chemotaxis and diapedesis

after neutrophil phagocytosis then?

degranulation and respiratory burst

neutrophils discharge this enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of cl-,br-,i-, and scn- to acids.

myeloperoxidase

associated w/ sharp increase in O2 uptake and metabolism in neutrophil (respiratory burst) and generation of O2-

NADPH oxidase

O2- + 2H+ -> h2o2 catalyzed by?

cytoplasmic form of SOD-1




cytoplasmic form of superoxide dismutase

kiling zone in neutrophils formed from?

elastase, o2-, h2o2, and hocl




neutrophils contain elastase and metalloproteinases

enter blood from bonemarrow, circulate for 72 hours then enter tissue where they live for 3 months. they then differentiate into?

monocytes differentiate into macrophages.

wandering cells found esp. in connective tissue and underlying epithelial surfaces




contain histamin, heparin and proteases




participate in allergic rxns and parasite rxns

mast cells

rbc is regulated by?

erythropoietin (kidney + Kupffer cells of liver)

secreted hormonal factor (from wbcs) if aa sequence is known

interleukins (IL)

secreted hormonal factor (from wbcs) if aa sequence is unknown

cytokines or lymphokines

develop from population in thymus

lymphocytes

large lymphocytes




imp in cancer and viral infections (these and monocytes are responsible for innate immunity

natural killer cells (NK)




1 of 3 population of lymphocyte

consists of a series of proenzymes circulating in plasma. Activation of the system ("fixing complement") leads to several effects, including lysis of lipid membranes, release of histamine, chemotaxis, opsonization.

the complement system

active/acquired immunity mechanisms are mediated by?

B+T lymphocytes




divided into 2 systems: humoral and cellular; specific antibodies and cytokine directed (cell-on-cell)