A&pii Final Exam Dcc S2010

Front 1

These blood cells release histamine...

Back 1

basophils

Front 2

What triggers erythropoiesis?

Back 2

increased tissue demand for oxygen

Front 3

An individual with blood AB negative...

Back 3

universal recipient
can receive any blood type in moderate amount, except that with the Rh antigen

Front 4

What is the most abundant plasma protein?

Back 4

albumin

Front 5

Where are adult blood cells made?

Back 5

Red marrow in adult life.

Front 6

What is the normal hemoglobin range?

Back 6

14-18 g/100 ml of blood

Front 7

What happens with polycythemia?

Back 7

high hematocrit,
increased blood volume,
high blood pressure

(NOT low blood viscosity)

Front 8

What are phases of hemostasis?

Back 8

hemostasis = blood clotting
vascular spasm
platelet plug formation
coagulation

(NOT fibrinolysis)

Front 9

When can erythroblastosis fetalis NOT possibly happen if mother is Rh-?

Back 9

with Rh- father.

* infant must be Rh+ (if mom Rh-) so if father was Rh-, would not get Rh+ baby

Front 10

Normal heart sounds are caused by

Back 10

closure of the heart valves

Front 11

Hemorrhage with large loss of blood causes

Back 11

lowering of blood pressure due to change in cardiac output.

Front 12

Damage to ____ is heart block

Back 12

AV node

Front 13

Blood within pulmonary veins returns to the:
- right atrium
- left atrium
- right ventricle
- left ventricle

Back 13

left atrium

Front 14

Blood enters which vessel during ventricular systole?
- aorta
- pulmonary arteries
- pulmonary vein
- aorta & pulmonary arteries

Back 14

aorta & pulmonary arteries

Front 15

Negative chronotropic factors are:

Back 15

timing
factors that decrease heart rate.

Front 16

Which tunic of an artery maintains BP and continuous circulation?

Back 16

tunica media

Front 17

What is the process by which a WBC squeezes between capillary cells to exit a blood vessel?

Back 17

emigration

Front 18

Blood islands are:

Back 18

embryonic masses of mesodermal cells that give rise to the endothelial lining of blood vessels.

Front 19

How is cerebral blood flow regulated?

Back 19

intrinsic autoregulatory mechanisms

Front 20

Clusters of small organs associated with lymphatic vessels are termed
a- lymph follicles
b- lymph nodes
c- axillary nodes
d- cisterna chli

Back 20

lymph nodes

Front 21

Which is NOT a lymph structure?
a- pancreas
b- spleen
c- Peyer's patchs of intestine
d- tonsils

Back 21

pancreas

Front 22

The distal portion of the small intestine contains clumps of lymph follicles called....

Back 22

Peyer's patches

Front 23

Lymph nodes function to:
a-aid pumping action of heart
b-filter lymph fluid & activate immune system
c-carry red blood cells
d-store blood platelets

Back 23

filter lymph fluid and activate the immune system

Front 24

The thymus is most active during

Back 24

childhood

Front 25

The spleen:
a- is the site of fetal erythrocyte production
b-stores blood platelets
c-cleanses the blood
d-site of lymphocyte proliferation
e-all of the above

Back 25

all

Front 26

Innate immune responses include all but...
a-skin acidity
b-stomach acid
c-keratin
d-fever
e-all are innate immune responses

Back 26

all

Front 27

Antibodies that act against a particular foreign substance are released by
a-T lymphocytes
b-plasma or B cells
c-lymph nodes
d-medullary cords

Back 27

plasma or B cells

Front 28

Lymph leaves a lymph node via
a-efferent lymphatic vessels
b-afferent lymphatic vessels
c-the cortical sinus
d-the subscapular sinus

Back 28

efferent lymphatic vessels

Front 29

By secreting hormones, the thymus causes what cells to become immunocompetent?
a-basophils
b-T lymphocytes
c-macrophages
d-monocytes
e-B lymphocytes

Back 29

T lymphocytes

Front 30

Describe lymph transport.

Back 30

Lymph transport depends on the movement of adjacent tissues, such as skeletal muscles

Front 31

Which is not a normal component of lymph?
a-water
b-plasma proteins
c-red blood cells
d-ions

Back 31

red blood cells

Front 32

B lymphocytes develop immunocompetence in the
a-thymus
b-spleen
c-bone marrow
d-lymph nodes

Back 32

bone marrow

Front 33

In clonal selection of B cells (when a particular B cells divides and produces antibodies), what determines which cells will divide to become clones?
a-ability of a B cell to bind to antigen
b-lymphocyte type
c-complement fixation
d-macrophage activity

Back 33

ability of a B cell to bind to antigen

Front 34

The only T cells that can directly attack and kill other cells are the
a-supressor cells
b-helper cells
c-cytotoxic cells
d-plasma cells

Back 34

cytotoxic cells

Front 35

Prospecting by Referral..

Back 35

Is the easiest when done correctly.

Front 36

What do interferons do?

Back 36

interferons interfere with viral replication within cells.
aka kill neighboring cells.

Front 37

Which does NOT describe adaptive immunity?
a-MHC I and II provide mechanisms for displaying antigens
b-T helper cells are not needed for an adaptive immune response
c-our genes determine which B cells respond to which antigens.
d-cytotoxic T cells can directly attack specific body cells and destroy them.

Back 37

T helper cells are not needed for an adaptive immune response.

Front 38

All of the following are true about the inflammatory response except:
a-begins with release of chemicals by injured tissue, phagocytes & mast cells.
b-causes blood vessels to dilate resulting in edema
c-is systemic
d-causes swelling, redness, heat & pain
e-sets the stage for repair process

Back 38

is systemic.
Inflammation is local NOT systemic.

Front 39

Antibody functions include all of the following except:
a-binding & inactivating chemical toxins released by bacteria
b-cross linking cell bound antigens on red blood cells...
c-linking soluble antigens together so that they fall out of solution
d-targeting foreign cells so that complement proteins can cause cellular lysis.

Back 39

cross-linking cell-bound antigens.
what is that????

Front 40

What is the function of the hepatic portal circulation?

Back 40

collect absorbed nutrients for metabolic processing in the liver.

Front 41

When we ingest large molecules such as lipids, carbs, & proteins, they must undergo catabolic reactions whereby enzymes split these molecules. This is called:

Back 41

chemical digestion

Front 42

Name the four layers of the organs in the alimentary (digestive) canal.
(from the lumen out)

Back 42

mucosa
submucosa
muscularis exerna
serosa

Front 43

What increases the absorptive effectiveness of the small intestine?

Back 43

plicae circulares and intestinal villi

Front 44

Solutes in saliva include:
a-only salts and minerals
b-only proteases and amylase
c-mucin, lysozyme, electrolytes, salts & minerals
d-electrolyes, digestive enzymes, mucin, lysozyme, wastes and IgA.

Back 44

the last one.

Front 45

In addition to storage & mechanical breakdown of food, the stomach...

Back 45

initiates protein digestion and kills bacteria.

Front 46

Hydrochloric acid is secreted by which cells in the stomach?
a-chief cells
b-parietal cells
c-serous cells
d-mucous neck cells

Back 46

Parietal cells.

Front 47

There are three phases of gastric secretion. When does the cephalic phase occur?

Back 47

before food enters the stomach and is triggered by aroma, sight or thought.

Front 48

What secretes pepsinogen, a digestive enzyme?
a-chief cells
b-parietal cells of the duodenum
c-Brunner's glands
d-goblet cells of the small intestine

Back 48

chief cells of the stomach

Front 49

The enzymatic breakdown of any type of food molecule is called

Back 49

hydrolysis

Front 50

Which vitamin requires intrinsic factor in order to be absorbed?
a-B12
b-K
c-A
d-C

Back 50

B12

Front 51

The ingestion of a meal high in fat content would cause what to occur?...

Back 51

Bile would be released from the gallbladder to emulsify the fat in the duodenum.

Front 52

Which is not characteristic of the pancreas?
a-contains endocrine & exocrine cells.
b-secretes about 1500ml daily of pancreatic juice
c-secretes active digestive enzymes
d-has islets that secrete glucagon & insulin

Back 52

c. secretes active digestive enzymes
(active digestive enzymes would destroy itself. they are activated once in small intestine)

Front 53

The molecule that is the major source of readily available body fuel is:
a-fat
b-glucose
c-acetyl CoA
d-cellulose

Back 53

glucose

Front 54

Dietary fats are important because

Back 54

they help the body absorb fat-soluble vitamins (D,E,A,K)

Front 55

Why is cholesterol important?

Back 55

stabilizes plasma membrane
parent molecule of steroids

Front 56

What is a complete protein?

Back 56

A complete protein must contain all the body's essential amino acid requirements (10)

Front 57

The term metabolism is best defined as:

Back 57

the sum of energy
produced by all chemical reactions &
mechanical work of the body.

Front 58

It is important to ensure your diet is rich in vitamins because...

Back 58

most vitamins are co-enzymes needed to help the body utilize essential nutrients

Front 59

The primary function of cellular respiration is to:

Back 59

generate ATP, which traps some of the chemical energy of food molecules in its high energy bonds.

Front 60

Glycogen is formed in the liver during the
a-postabsorptive state
b-absorptive state
c-starvation period
d-period when the metabolic rate is lowest

Back 60

absorptive state
as soon as enough glucose is in the blood, the body starts making glycogen.

Front 61

Which yields the highest amount of energy per gram when metabolized?
a-fats
b-vitamins & minerals
c-food & beverage high in caffeine
d-proteins

Back 61

fats (9 cal per gram)

Front 62

The walls of the alveoli are composed of two types of cells, type 1 and type II. The function of type II is:
a-to secrete surfactant
b-to trap dust & debris
c-to replace mucus in the alveoli
d-to protect the lungs from bacterial invasion

Back 62

to secrete surfactant

Front 63

The pleurae are vital to the integrity of the lungs because:
a-they contain cilia that protect the lungs
b-they control the volume of the lungs
c-they maintain the proper temp of the lungs during sleep
d-they produce a lubricating serous secretion, allowing the lungs to glide over the thorax wall during breathing.

Back 63

they produce a lubricating serous secretion, allowing the lungs to glide over the thorax wall during breathing.

Front 64

Surfactant helps to prevent the alveoli from collapsing by:

Back 64

interfering with the cohesiveness of water molecules, thereby reducing the surface tension of alveolar fluid.

Front 65

Which changes occur as the conducting tubes of the lungs become smaller?
a-cartilage rings are gradually replaced by regular plates of cartilage.
b-resistance to air flow can increase due to constriction of smooth muscle.
c-smooth muscle amount increases
d-lining of the tubes changes from ciliated columnar to simple squamous epithelium which lines the alveoli.
e-all of the above.

Back 65

all

Front 66

Possible causes of hypoxia include:
a-too little oxygen in the atmosphere
b-obstruction of the esophagus
c-taking several rapid deep breaths
d-getting very cold

Back 66

too little oxygen in the atmosphere

Front 67

The lung volume that is the total volume of exchangeable air is
a-tidal volume
b-vial capacity
c-inspiratory capacity
d-expiratory reserve volume

Back 67

vital capacity

Front 68

Respiratory control centers are in the

Back 68

medulla and pons

Front 69

Oxygen and Carbon Dioxide are exchanged in the lungs and through all cell membranes by

Back 69

diffusion

Front 70

The respiratory membrane is a combination of

Back 70

alveolar & capillary walls and their basement membranes

Front 71

The lungs
a-are surrounded by the pleurae, a double layered serosa
b-have 3 lobes in the right lung and 2 in the left
c-are supplied by the bronchial arteries
d- all of the above are correct

Back 71

all are correct

Front 72

How much of the bound oxygen is unloaded during one systemic circulation?

Back 72

25%

Front 73

The saturation of hemeglobin by oxygen is influenced by all but:
a- the temp of blood
b-the partial pressure of CO2 in blood
c-the pH of the blood
d-the amount of air inhaled

Back 73

the amount of air inhaled

Front 74

When do the lungs fill up with air?

Back 74

When the volume increases by expansion and
the pressure inside the lungs is lower than atmospheric pressure

Front 75

What is the respiratory rate of newborn?

Back 75

at its highest,
40-80 respirations per minute.

Front 76

A Bowman's capsule does not contain
a-podocytes
b-a vasa recta
c-fenestrated capillaries
d-an efferent arteriole

Back 76

a vasa recta

Front 77

An increase in the production of concentrated urine is due to

Back 77

an increase in ADH

Front 78

The urinary bladder is composed of _____ epithelium to allow for stretch

Back 78

transitional

Front 79

The kidneys are stimulated to produce renin:
a-when the peritubular capillaries are dilated
b-when the pH of the urine decreases
c-by a decrease in the blood pressure
d-when the specific gravity of urine rises above 1.10

Back 79

by a decrease in blood pressure

Front 80

The glomerulus differs from other capillaries in the body in that it:
a-has a basement membrane
b-is impermeable to most substances
c-is drained by an efferent arteriole
d-has a blood pressure much lower than the other organ systems

Back 80

is drained by an efferent arteriole

Front 81

Ureters

Back 81

are capable of peristalis like that of the GI tract.

Front 82

Fatty tissue surrounding kidneys...

Back 82

stabilizes and protects the kidneys by holding htem in position and cushioning them.

Front 83

The renal corpuscle is made of
a-Bowmans capsule and glomerulus
b-the descending loop of Henle
c-the renal pyramid
d-the renal papilla

Back 83

Bowmans' capsule and glomerulus

Front 84

The complete functional unit inside the kidneys is known as..
a-the nephron
b-the loop of Henle
c-Bowman's capsule
d-the basement membrane of the capillaries.

Back 84

the nephron.

Front 85

The chief force pushing water and solutes out of the blood across the filtration membrane is:

Back 85

glomerular hydrostatic pressure
(glomerular blood pressure)

Front 86

What triggers micturation?

Back 86

the stretching of the bladder wall.

Front 87

The mechanism of water reabsorption by the renal tubules is:
a-active transport
b-osmosis
c-solvent drag
d-cotransport with sodium ions

Back 87

osmosis

Front 88

The fluid (filtrate) in the glomerular (Bowman's) capsule is similar to plasma except that it does not contain a significant amount of:
a-glucose
b-hormones
c-electrolytes
d-large plasma proteins

Back 88

large plasma proteins

Front 89

Which statement about tubular reabsorption is incorrect:
a-is the movement of most filtered substances back into the blood.
b-can occur by active or passive transport, as well as by osmosis, depending on the substance to be reabsorbed.
c-is partially dependent on hormones
d-all of the above are correct

Back 89

all are correct

Front 90

While the kidneys process about 180 L of blood-derived fluids daily, the amount of urine that actually leaves the body each day is...

Back 90

1% or 1.8 Liters

Front 91

Which is responsible for concentrated urine?
a-cortical nephrons
b-juxtamedullary nephrons
c-neither

Back 91

juxtamedullary nephrons

Front 92

How much water is in the intracellular fluid compartment?

Back 92

2/3

Front 93

The term hypotonic hydration or water intoxication refers to:

Back 93

a dangerous condition that may result from renal insufficiency or drinking extraordinary amounts of water.

Front 94

Atrial natriuretic peptide is a hormone made in the atria of the heart. The influence of this hormone is:
a-to enhance atrial contractions
b-to activate the renin-angiotension mechanism
c-to prevent pH changes caused by organic acids
d-to reduce blood pressure and blood volume by inhibiting sodium and water retention.

Back 94

to reduce blood pressure and blood volume by inhibiting sodium and water retention.

Front 95

Whearas sodium is found mainly in the extracellular fluid, most ____ is found in the intracellular fluid.
a-iron
b-chloride
c-potassium
d-magnesium

Back 95

potassium

Front 96

A falling blood pH and a rising CO2 due to pneumonia or emphysema indicates:
a-respiratory acidosis
b-respiratory alkalosis
c-metabolic acidosis
d-metabolic alkalosis

Back 96

respiratory acidosis

Front 97

Electrolyte balance:
a-refers to the phosphate balance in the body.
b-may be disturbed due to higher loss of electrolytes on hot days or extreme exercise
c-is usually difficult to maintain
d-can be disrupted bc water is not free to move between cells and capillaries.

Back 97

may be disturbed due to higher loss of electrolytes on hot days or extreme exercise

Front 98

The regulation of potassium balance:
a. is not linked to sodium balance.
b. includes renal secretion, but never absorption
c. is accomplished mainly by hepatic mechanisms
d. involves aldosterone-induced secretion of potassium.

Back 98

involves aldosterone-induced secretion of potassium.