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211 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Which of the following monitors body position and motion? a. hair cells along the basilar membrane b. projection fibers c. hair cells of the vestibule and semicircular ducts d. sensory neurons whose cell bodies are in the adjacent spiral ganglion |
c. hair cells of the vestibule and semicircular ducts |
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Regarding the events involved in hearing: a. the pressure waves distort the tectorial membrane on their way to the round window of the scala tympani. b. vibration of the basilar membrane causes vibration of hair cells against the tectorial membrane. c. movement of the stapes at the round window establishes pressure waves in the perilymph of the scala vestibuli. d. movement of the vestibular membrane causes displacement of the auditory ossicles. |
b. vibration of the basilar membrane causes vibration of hair cells against the tectorial membrane. |
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When analyzing sound waves in the ear, the number of hair cells stimulated is interpreted as which characteristic? a. volume b. frequency c. pitch d. wavelength |
a. volume |
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Choose the correct statement regarding the structural features of the semicircular ducts. a. A horizontal rotation, as in shaking the head "no," stimulates the hair cells of the anterior semicircular duct. b. When the perilymph stops moving, the elastic cupula rebounds to its normal position. c. The cupula has a density very close to that of the surrounding endolymph. d. At a crista, the kinocilia and stereocilia of the hair cells are free-floating in the cupula. |
c. The cupula has a density very close to that of the surrounding endolymph. |
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What occurs when the head is in the normal, upright position? a. Otiliths distort the hair cell processes b. receptor output increases c. the otiliths are shifted to the side d. the otiliths push the hair cell processes down |
d. the otiliths push the hair cell processes down |
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The tensor tympani muscle: a. originates from the posterior wall of the middle ear and inserts on the stapes. b. inserts on the "handle" of the malleus. c. attaches at three points to the interior surface of the tympanic membrane. d. permits the equalization of pressures on either side of the tympanic membrane. |
b. inserts on the "handle" of the malleus |
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Which structure is continuous with the very delicate corneal epithelium that covers the surface of the cornea? a. palpebral conjunctiva b. ocular conjunctiva c. medial angle of the eye d. fornix |
b. ocular conjunctiva |
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Ceruminous glands are found in which of the following? a. inner ear b. auditory tube c. external acoustic meatus d. bony labyrinth |
c. external acoustic meatus |
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Choose the correct statement regarding the visual pathways. a. The two optic nerves, one from each eye, reach the mesencephalon at the optic chiasm. b. Collaterals from the fibers synapsing in the medial geniculate nuclei continue to subconscious processing centers. c. Axons from the approximately one million amacrine cells penetrate the wall of the eye and proceed as the optic nerve (II). d. Each photoreceptor monitors a specific receptive field. |
d. each photoreceptor monitors a specific receptive field |
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Which statement correctly describes the process that occurs when light strikes a visual pigment? a. The location of the stimulated horizontal cells indicates the specific portion of the retina stimulated by the arriving photons. b. Bleaching occurs when the rhodopsin molecule breaks down into retinal and opsin. c. Opsin activation changes the permeability of the outer segment to potassium. d. On absorbing light, retinal changes to a more circular shape. |
b. Bleaching occurs when the rhodopsin molecule breaks down into retinal and opsin. |
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Which photoreceptor cells respond to the longest wavelengths of light, ranging from approximately 500-700 nm? a. red cones b. blue cones c. rods d. green cones |
a. red cones |
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Choose the correct statement regarding photoreception. a. Each photoreceptor synapses with an amacrine cell. b. The outer segment contains the photoreceptor's major organelles. c. The pigment epithelium absorbs photons that are not absorbed by visual pigments. d. The inner segment of a photoreceptor contains flattened membranous plates that contain the visual pigments. |
c. The pigment epithelium absorbs photons that are not absorbed by visual pigments. |
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The axons of which cells converge at the optic disc to form the blind spot? a. amacrine cells b. bipolar cells c. ganglion cells d. horizontal cells |
c. ganglion cells |
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For distant vision, which event is true? a. the ciliary muscle relaxes b. the ciliary body moves toward the lens c. the refractive power of the lens increases d. the lens is rounded |
a. the ciliary muscle relaxes |
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Which structure supports the lens and controls its shape? a. neural tunic b. ciliary body c. ora serrata d. choroid |
b. ciliary body |
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Which of the following is a characteristic of the dilator pupillae muscles? a. Contraction of these muscles decreases the diameter of the pupil. b. Increased light intensity activates the dilator pupillae muscles. c. These muscles form a series of concentric circles around the pupil. d. Contraction of these muscles increases the diameter of the pupil. |
d. Contraction of these muscles increases the diameter of the pupil. |
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Aqueous humor forms through active secretion by epithelial cells of which of the following? a. choroid b. ciliary body c. canal of Schlemm d. ora serrata |
b. ciliary body |
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What separates the free margins of the upper and lower eyelids? a. lateral canthus b. medial canthus c. palpebral fissure d. lacrimal caruncle |
c. palpebral fissure |
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Which characteristic is true of the olfactory pathway to the cerebrum? a. Axons traveling along the olfactory tract reach the thalamus first, which relays the sensory information to the olfactory cortex. b. Axons leaving the olfactory epithelium collect into 20 or more bundles that penetrate the cribriform plate of the sphenoid. c. The first synapse occurs in the olfactory bulb. d. The distribution of olfactory information to the limbic system and the epithalamus explains the profound emotional and behavioral responses, as well as the memories, that can be triggered by certain smells. |
c. the first synapse occurs in the olfactory bulb |
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During the process of olfaction, which molecular event occurs? a. The binding of an odorant to its receptor protein leads to conversion of cyclic AMP to ATP. b. Hyperpolarization occurs. c. Sodium ions exit the receptor cell. d. Cyclic AMP opens sodium channels in the plasma membrane. |
d. Cyclic AMP opens sodium channels in the plasma membrane. |
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Filiform papillae __________. a. contain about five taste buds each b. do not contain taste buds c. contain as many as 100 taste buds each d. form a V near the posterior margin of the tongue |
b. do not contain taste buds |
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Which cranial nerve monitors all the taste buds located on the anterior two-thirds of the tongue? a. X b. VIII c. IX d. VII |
d. VII |
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Which gustatory receptors are sodium ion leak channels? a. sweet receptors b. bitter receptors c. umami receptors d. salt receptors |
d. salt receptors |
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Which of the following develop(s) into photoreceptors? a. ependymal cells on the outer wall of the optic cup b. the neural tissue of the outer wall of the optic cup c. mesoderm aggregating around the optic cup d. ependymal cells on the inner wall of the optic cup |
a. ependymal cells on the outer wall of the optic cup |
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How is the intensity or loudness of a sound detected and communicated by the ear? a. the amount of the basilar membrane that is moved b. the amount of distortion of the stereocilia c. the number of hair cells stimulated d. the region of the basilar membrane that is moved |
c. the number of hair cells stimulated |
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Which structure or structures in the vestibular complex provide(s) you with sensory information about your position with respect to gravity? a. the posterior semicircular duct b. the anterior semicircular duct c. the saccule and utricle d. the lateral semicircular duct |
c. the saccule and utricle |
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Which of the following is found in the external ear? a. malleus b. external acoustic meatus c. cochlea d. saccule |
b. external acoustic meatus |
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Which of the following is/are found in the middle ear? a. auditory ossicles b. external acoustic meatus c. cochlea d. semicircular canals |
a. auditory ossicles |
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If the round window were not able to bulge out with increased pressure in the perilymph, how would the perception of sound be affected? a. low-frequency sounds could not be heard b. sound perception would be reduced or eliminated c. sound perception would be amplified d. high-frequency sounds could not be heard |
b. sound perception would be reduced or eliminated |
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Which of the following auditory ossicles directly attaches to the tympanic membrane? a. incus b. utricle c. stapes d. malleus |
d. malleus |
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What is the term for the funnel-shaped external ear? a. auditory tube b. cochlea c. auricle d. tympanic membrane |
c. auricle |
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In both the vestibular complex and the cochlea, what name do the structures that are stimulated to produce equilibrium sensations and the structures that are stimulated to produce sound sensations share? a. hair cells b. perilymph c. otoliths d. ossicles |
a. hair cells |
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Ascending auditory sensations synapse in the thalamus and then are delivered by projection fibers to the __________. a. auditory cortex of the parietal lobe b. auditory cortex of the frontal lobe c. auditory cortex of the occipital lobe d. auditory cortex of the temporal lobe |
d. auditory cortex of the temporal lobe |
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Which cranial nerve conveys sensory information from the internal ear? a. cranial nerve VIII b. cranial nerve IV c. cranial nerve III d. cranial nerve VI |
a. cranial nerve VIII |
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In the ear, information about the direction and strength of mechanical stimuli is provided by the __________. a. endolymph b. auditory ossicles c. hair cells d. vestibular ganglia |
c. hair cells |
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A person generally turns their head when they hear a loud noise, to investigate the source of the noise. What part of the nervous system mediates that reflex movement? a. inferior colliculus of the midbrain b. vestibular nucleus of the medulla c. auditory cortex of the temporal lobe d. medial geniculate nucleus of the thalamus |
a. inferior colliculus of the midbrain |
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What is the dividing line between the external ear and the middle ear? a. sacculus b. utriculus c. tympanic membrane d. pharyngotympanic tube |
c. tympanic membrane |
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What is the name given to the collection of calcium carbonate crystals whose movement over hair cells triggers impulses to the brain concerning body position? a. saccules b. ampullae c. otoliths d. kinocilia |
c. otoliths |
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Vibration of which structure directly causes stimulation of hair cells in the spiral organ? a. tectorial membrane b. basilar membrane c. perilymph d. stereocilia |
b. basilar membrane |
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Which structure in the internal ear provides you with equilibrium sensations? a. the spiral organ b. tectorial membrane c. cochlea d. vestibular complex |
d. vestibular complex |
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Which of the following is NOT a part of the brain used in the auditory pathway? a. inferior colliculus b. auditory cortex c. medial geniculate nucleus d. primary motor cortex |
d. primary motor cortex |
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What is the normal pathway for auditory stimuli to cause conscious perception of a sound? a. Spiral organ; vestibular branch of CN VIII; medulla; midbrain; thalamus; auditory cortex b. Spiral organ; cochlear branch CN VIII; pons; midbrain; thalamus; auditory cortex c. Spiral organ; cochlear branch of CN VIII; medulla; midbrain; thalamus; auditory cortex d. Spiral organ; cochlear branch of CN VIII; midbrain; medulla; thalamus; auditory cortex |
c. Spiral organ; cochlear branch of CN VIII; medulla; midbrain; thalamus; auditory cortex |
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Distortion of which structures produces equilibrium sensations as well as hearing? a. perilymph b. tympanic membrane c. tectorial membrane d. sterocilia |
d. sterocilia |
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The receptors in the inner ear that provide sensations of gravity and linear acceleration are in the __________. a. saccule and the utricle b. otolith and the statoconia c. semicircular and cochlear ducts d. ampulla and the cupula |
a. saccule and the utricle |
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The energy content of a sound determines its intensity, which is measured in __________. a. furlongs b. hertz c. millimeters d. decibles |
d. decibles |
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What is the primary reason most older people have trouble detecting odors? a. a deterioration of the sensory cortex for smell b. a deterioration of the sensory pathway conveying smell sensations c. a decline in the number of olfactory receptors d. sensory neuron synaptic neurotransmitter decline |
c. a decline in the number of olfactory receptors |
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What structure(s) is/are responsible for the sense of hearing? a. semicircular canals b. saccule c. cochlea d. utricle |
c. cochlea |
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In which bone is the internal ear located? a. the pterygoid process of the sphenoid bone b. petrous part of the temporal bone c. the squamous part of the temporal bone d. the temporal process of the zygomatic bone |
b. petrous part of the temporal bone |
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Which of the following could cause the formation of cataracts? a. adverse reactions to drugs b. injury c. aging d. all of the listed responses are correct |
d. all of the listed responses are correct |
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The structure in the cochlea of the inner ear that provides information to the central nervous system (CNS) is the __________. a. basilar membrane b. scala tympani c. organ of Corti d. tectorial membrane |
c. organ of Corti |
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Which of the following are found on gustatory cells and help them function in taste perception? a. microtubules b. cilia c. flagella d. taste hairs |
d. taste hairs |
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Which lingual papillae do NOT contain taste buds? a. fungiform b. all of these papillae contain taste buds c. filiform d. circumvallate |
c. filiform |
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What is the first thing that must happen for an odor to be perceived? a. generator potential b. action potential c. binding of an odorant to a receptor protein d. Na+ inflow through the plasma membrane of the receptor |
c. binding of an odorant to a receptor protein |
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Which of the following is NOT classified as a special sense? a. olfaction b. touch c. vision d. gustation |
b. touch |
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While eating kung pao chicken, Rachel bites into a small, innocent-looking red pepper. Suddenly, her eyes begin to water, and she reaches for her glass of water. This message of “peppery hot” food has traveled to her central nervous system (CNS) via which cranial nerve? a. facial (VII) b. vagus (X) c. glossopharyngeal (IX) d. trigeminal (V) |
d. trigeminal (V) |
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When you enter your A&P lab for a dissection, you notice the smell of preservatives. By the time you are finished with lab, you don’t smell the preservatives anymore. Why? a. your sensory cortex ignores the odor b. central adaptation c. the receptors adapt d. the chemicals evaporate |
b. central adaptation |
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Gustatory reception begins when dissolved chemicals contact taste hairs on the __________. a. vallate papillae b. filiform papillae c. basal cells d. gustatory cells |
d. gustatory cells |
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After synapsing in the thalamus, gustatory information is projected to the appropriate portion of the __________. a. sensory cortex b. medial lemniscus c. medulla d. cranial nerves VII, IX, and X |
a. sensory cortex |
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If the tongue surface is completely dry, you can’t taste a salt crystal placed on the tongue. Why not? a. dryness allows other chemicals to block the receptor b. the salt crystal was placed on the wrong part of the tongue c. the salt ions will have no moisture in which to dissolve, so they will stay in crystal form and they will not stimulate the taste receptors d. dryness damages the taste buds |
c. the salt ions will have no moisture in which to dissolve, so they will stay in crystal form and they will not stimulate the taste receptors |
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Which of the following is NOT a primary taste sensation? a. spicy b. sour c. salty d. sweet |
a. spicy |
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Which of the following is FALSE regarding olfaction? a. olfactory glands produce thick, pigmented mucous b. each individual smell has a structurally different receptor c. olfactory cilia bind odorant molecules d. the number of olfactory receptor cells decline as we age |
b. each individual smell has a structurally different receptor |
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The central nervous system (CNS) interprets smell on the basis of the particular pattern of __________. a. sensory impression b. neuronal replacement c. receptor activity d. cortical arrangement |
c. receptor activity |
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What skull structure must the axons from the olfactory epithelium pass through in order to get to the olfactory bulbs? a. cribriform plate b. nasal bones c. lacrimal bones d. ethmoid bone |
a. cribriform plate |
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What is the ultimate higher-order olfactory destination? a. the olfactory cortex b. the medulla oblongata c. the hypothalamus d. the thalamus |
a. the olfactory cortex |
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Which sequence of events is the correct sequence for triggering conscious perception of an odor? a. Odorant binds to receptor protein; depolarization of nerve fiber; activate G protein; activate adenylate cyclase; formation of cyclic AMP; action potential triggered b. Odorant binds to receptor protein; activate adenylate cyclase; formation of cyclic AMP; activate G protein; depolarization of nerve fiber; action potential triggered c. Odorant binds to receptor protein; activate G protein; activate adenylate cyclase; formation of cyclic AMP; depolarization of nerve fiber; action potential triggered d. Odorant binds to receptor proteins; formation of cyclic AMP; activate G protein; activate adenylate cyclase; depolarization of nerve fiber; action potential triggered |
c. Odorant binds to receptor protein; activate G protein; activate adenylate cyclase; formation of cyclic AMP; depolarization of nerve fiber; action potential triggered |
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How do salty substances trigger the sensation of salty taste as compared to the sensation of sweet taste? a. the structure of the taste buds for salty substances is different b. Na+ ions diffuse through the membrane c. salty substances stimulate different taste buds d. salty substances activate G proteins and sweet substances do not |
b. Na+ ions diffuse through the membrane |
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At Christmas dinner, your grandfather complains that the food doesn’t taste the same as it used to. Why is this happening? a. sensory information is not conducted as efficiently by sensory neurons b. his number of taste buds has declined with age c. the sensory cortex is not as sensitive to taste stimulation d. the seasoning is different than when he was younger |
b. his number of taste buds has declined in age |
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What is the correct sequence of structures in the olfactory pathway? a. Receptor; olfactory bulb; olfactory tract; olfactory nerve fibers; olfactory cortex b. Receptor; olfactory nerve fibers; olfactory tract; olfactory bulb; olfactory cortex c. Receptor; olfactory nerve fibers; olfactory bulb; olfactory tract; olfactory cortex d. Receptor; olfactory tract; olfactory bulb; olfactory nerve fibers; olfactory cortex |
c. Receptor; olfactory nerve fibers; olfactory bulb; olfactory tract; olfactory cortex |
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Olfactory secretions that absorb water and form thick, pigmented mucous are produced by __________. a. basal cells b. olfactory glands c. olfactory bulbs d. salivary glands |
b. olfactory glands |
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One of the few examples of neuronal replacement in adult humans is the turnover in which of the following populations? a. vestibuloreceptor population b. auditory receptor population c. optic receptor population d. olfactory receptor population |
d. olfactory receptor population |
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The most detailed information about a visual image is provided by the __________. a. cones b. rods and cones c. optic disk d. rods |
a. cones |
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What role does vitamin A have in the eye a. the protein part of rhodopsin is synthesized from vitamin A b. vitamin A activates opsin for rhodopsin-based photoreception c. the visual pigment retinal is synthesized from vitamin A d. vitamin A acts as a coenzyme for the activation of transduction |
c. the visual pigment retinal is synthetized from vitamin A |
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Which of the following is NOT part of the vascular tunic? a. ciliary body b. choroid c. iris d. sclera |
d. sclera |
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What part of the eye contains the smooth muscle that allows focusing the eye for clear imaging of an object? a. the iris b. the lens c. the retina d. the ciliary body |
d. the ciliary body |
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Which of the following is found in most of the volume of the large posterior cavity of the eye? a. iris b. aqueous humor c. vitreous body d. cornea |
c. vitreous body |
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Which of the following is NOT a function of tears? a. reducing friction b. keeping the eyelids from sticking together c. removing debris d. preventing bacterial infection |
b. keeping the eyelids from sticking together |
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What structure produces a thick secretion that can become gritty overnight and result in what is commonly called “sleep” in the eyes? a. conjunctiva b. medial canthus c. lacrimal apparatus d. lacrimal caruncle |
d. lacrimal caruncle |
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During the focusing process, what happens when light travels from the air into the relatively dense cornea? a. reflexive adjustments occur in both pupils b. the sclera assumes an obvious color c. the light path is bent d. pupillary reflexes are triggered |
c. the light path is bent |
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Which of the following is NOT one of the types of cones in the retina? a. green cones b. blue cones c. red cones d. yellow cones |
d. yellow cones |
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What is another term for nearsightedness? a. hyperopia b. emmetropia c. presbyopia d. myopia |
d. myopia |
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The fibrous tunic, the outermost layer covering the eye, consists of the __________. a. pupil and the ciliary body b. lacrimal sac and orbital fat c. sclera and the cornea d. iris and the choroid |
c. sclera and the cornea |
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What is the primary function of the lens of the eye? a. to biochemically interact with the photoreceptors of the retina b. to absorb light after it passes through the retina c. to focus the visual image on retina receptors d. to integrate visual information for the retina |
c. to focus on the visual image on retina receptors |
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There is an old saying, “All cats are gray at dusk.” Which of the following statements explains this saying? a. At dusk, only cones are stimulated, and they are equally stimulated. The combination of all the cone colors is gray. b. Rods and cones are stimulated equally, but the brain does not know how to process this confusing information, so the resulting color is gray. c. At dusk, only rods are stimulated, and because rods detect only black and white, the resulting image is of a gray cat. d. Neither rods nor cones are stimulated at dusk. |
c. At dusk, only rods are stimulated, and because rods detect only black and white, the resulting image is of a gray cat. |
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The sensation of vision arises from the integration of information arriving at the __________. a. visual cortex of the cerebrum b. lateral geniculate nucleus of the left side c. lateral geniculate nucleus of the right side d. reflex centers in the brain stem |
a. visual cortex of the cerebrum |
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While Andy is mowing the lawn, a rock strikes him in his right eye, damaging the eye and causing infection and degeneration in his right optical tract. Which part of his brain can NO LONGER receive visual information? a. either prefrontal cortex b. right visual cortex c. left visual cortex d. none of the listed responses are correct |
c. left visual cortex |
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What happens when a photon strikes rhodopsin? a. entry of sodium ions into cells accelerates b. rhodopsin is degraded and is not useful c. 11-cis retinal is transformed into 11-trans retinal d. neurotransmitter release increases |
c. 11-cis retinal is transformed into 11-trans retinal |
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What determines the color of the eye? a. light reflecting through the cornea onto the retina b. the reflection of light from the aqueous humor c. the thickness of the iris and the number and distribution of pigment cells d. the number and distribution of pigment cells in the lens |
c. the thickness of the iris and the number and distribution of pigment cells |
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At 1:00 p.m., Emma is carefully studying an image of the eye in her A&P textbook. When she focuses directly on the image, it falls on what part of her retina? a. fovea b. ora serrata c. optic disk d. optic nerve |
a. fovea |
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When photons stimulate either rods alone or all three types of cones, the eye perceives __________. a. all the individual colors of the visible light spectrum b. either red or blue light c. white light d. black objects |
c. white light |
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Exposure to bright light produces a __________. a. rapid reflexive increase in pupillary diameter b. very slow reflexive decrease in pupillary diameter c. rapid reflexive decrease in pupillary diameter d. slow reflexive increase in pupillary diameter |
c. rapid reflexive decrease in pupillary diameter |
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What is the correct order of structures that drain tears from the eye? a. Lacrimal puncta; lacrimal canaliculi; lacrimal sac; nasolacrimal duct b. Lacrimal sac; lacrimal puncta; lacrimal canaliculi; nasolacrimal duct c. Nasolacrimal duct; lacrimal sac; lacrimal canaliculi; lacrimal puncta d. Lacrimal puncta; lacrimal sac; nasolacrimal duct; lacrimal canaliculi |
a. Lacrimal puncta; lacrimal canaliculi; lacrimal sac; nasolacrimal duct |
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What vitamin is required to produce the visual pigments of the photoreceptors? a. vitamin C b. vitamin A c. vitamin K d. vitamin D |
b. vitamin A |
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When one or more classes of cones are nonfunctional, the result is __________. a. image inversion b. creation of a blind spot c. color blindness d. the appearance of "ghost" images |
c. color blindness |
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Which layer of the eye would be affected first by inadequate tear production? a. the conjunctiva b. the cornea c. the lens d. the sclera |
a. the conjunctiva |
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Which endocrine effect on normal growth is correct? a. PTH and calcitonin promote the absorption of calcium salts for subsequent deposition in bone. b. The targets for androgens and estrogens are not gender specific. c. Without ADH, the passage of amino acids and glucose across plasma membranes is drastically reduced or eliminated. d. If thyroid hormones are absent during fetal development or the first year of life, the nervous system will not develop normally, and mental retardation will result. |
d. If thyroid hormones are absent during fetal development or the first year of life, the nervous system will not develop normally, and mental retardation will result. |
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Which of the following is an effect of renin released by endocrine cells in the kidney? a. increased red blood cell production b. ADH secretion c. suppression of thirst d. inhibition of the renin-angiotensin system |
b. ADH secretion |
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Natriuretic peptides __________. a. promote the loss of sodium and water at the kidneys b. increase blood volume and pressure c. stimulate renin release and ADH secretion d. involve stretch receptors in the kidneys |
a. promote the loss of sodium and water at the kidneys |
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In which possible outcome is one hormone required for a second hormone to produce its effect? a. antagonistic effects b. permissive effects c. integrative effects d. additive effects |
b. permissive effects |
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Which outcome produces different, but complementary, effects in specific tissues and organs? a. integrative effects b. additive effects c. permissive effect d. antagonistic effects |
a. integrative effects |
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Type 1 diabetes __________. a. is the most common form of diabetes mellitus b. is associated with obesity c. is non-insulin dependent d. is characterized by inadequate insulin production by the pancreatic beta cells |
d. is characterized by inadequate insulin production by the pancreatic beta cells |
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Which is a characteristic of the exhaustion phase of the stress response? a. The adrenal cortex stops producing glucocorticoids. b. Reduction in digestive activity and urine production occurs. c. Peripheral tissues (except neural) break down lipids to obtain energy. d. There is a loss of K+ and H+. |
a. The adrenal cortex stops producing glucocorticoids. |
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The resistance phase of the stress response involves __________. a. reduction in digestive activity and urine production b. elevation of blood glucose concentrations c. breakdown of structural proteins as the body's primary energy source d. mobilization of glycogen and lipid reserves |
b. elevation of blood glucose concentrations |
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Which is a function of melatonin in humans? a. sets circadian rhythms b. stimulates the release of steroid hormones by the adrenal cortex c. stimulates the melanocytes of the skin d. stimulates reproductive function |
a. sets circadian rhythms |
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Which pancreatic cell population functions in producing a hormone that inhibits gallbladder contractions? a. PP cells b. delta cells c. beta cells d. alpha cells |
a. PP cells |
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Falling blood glucose levels will stimulate which endocrine cells of the pancreas to secrete glucagon? a. alpha cells b. delta cells c. F cells d. beta cells |
a. alpha cells |
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The development of pubic hair in boys and girls before puberty is an effect of hormones produced by which adrenal region? a. zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex b. zona reticularis of the adrenal cortex c. the adrenal medulla d. zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex |
b. zona reticularis of the adrenal cortex |
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Glucocorticoids are released by the __________. a. zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex b. zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex c. zona reticularis of the adrenal cortex d. adrenal medulla |
b. zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex |
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Activation of the renin-angiotensin system stimulates secretion of which adrenal gland hormone? a. androgen b. glucocorticoid c. mineralocorticoid d. epinephrine |
c. mineralocorticoid |
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Calcitonin: a. increases renal reabsorption of sodium and water, especially in the presence of ADH. b. can be administered clinically to treat several metabolic disorders associated with elevated calcium levels and excessive bone formation. c. enhances the reabsorption of calcium at the kidneys. d. results in polyuria when underproduced. |
b. can be administered clinically to treat several metabolic disorders associated with elevated calcium levels and excessive bone formation. |
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Which is an effect of parathyroid hormone on peripheral tissues? a. mobilizes calcium from bone b. increases urinary loss of calcium c. inhibits the formation and secretion of calcitriol at the kidneys d. promotes inactivation of vitamin D |
a. mobilizes calcium from bone |
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Which cell population produces the hormone calcitonin? a. beta cells b. F cells c. C cells d. delta cells |
c. C cells |
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Which of the following is an effect of thyroid hormones on peripheral tissues? a. decreased turnover of minerals in bone b. increased sensitivity of respiratory centers to changes in oxygen and carbon dioxide concentrations c. increased heart rate and force of contraction d. decreased sensitivity to sympathetic stimulation |
c. increased heart rate and force of contraction |
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Which statement regarding thyroid hormones is true? a. About 10 percent of all thyroid secretions are T4. b. Follicle cells remove thyroglobulin from the follicle cavity by exocytosis. c. Carrier proteins in the basal membrane of the follicle cells passively transport iodide ions (I-) into the cytoplasm. d. The bloodstream normally contains more than a week's supply of thyroid hormones. |
d. The bloodstream normally contains more than a week's supply of thyroid hormones. |
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Which hormone specifically targets cells that produce hormones that affect glucose metabolism? a. GH b. ACTH c. LH d. MSH |
b. ACTH |
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Oxytocin __________. a. rises (in its concentration) during sexual arousal and peaks at orgasm in both sexes b. is released in response to a variety of stimuli, most notably a rise in the solute concentration in the blood, or a fall in blood volume or blood pressure c. stimulates the release of steroid hormones by the adrenal cortex d. stimulates cell growth and reproduction |
a. rises (in its concentration) during sexual arousal and peaks at orgasm in both sexes |
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Which anterior pituitary hormone induces ovulation in females and stimulates sex hormone production by the interstitial cells of the testes in males? a. prolactin (PRL) b. growth hormone (GH) c. luteinizing hormone (LH) d. follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) |
c. luteinizing hormone (LH) |
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Somatomedins __________. a. stimulate tissue growth by increasing amino acid uptake b. involve positive feedback mechanisms to control hypothalamic hormone release c. control the hypothalamic release of hormones directly through sensory stimulation d. stimulate secretion of GH-RH |
a. stimulate tissue growth by increasing amino acid uptake |
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In which mechanism of intercellular communication are target cells in distant tissues and organs? a. synaptic communication b. paracrine communication c. endocrine communication d. direct communication |
c. endocrine communication |
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Prostaglandins are examples of which type of hormones? a. steroid hormones b. tryptophan derivatives c. eicosanoids d. catecholamines |
c. eicosanoids |
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Which endocrine structure synthesizes hormones involved with fluid balance and smooth muscle contraction? a. pituitary gland b. pancreas c. pineal gland d. hypothalamus |
d. hypothalamus |
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Which structure secretes hormones involved in the stimulation and coordination of the immune response? a. kidneys b. thymus c. pineal gland d. thyroid gland |
b. thymus |
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Cyclic AMP (cAMP): a. binds to receptors in the mitochondria and nucleus. b. interacts with calmodulin. c. diffuses through membrane lipids. d. acts as a second messenger. |
d. acts as a second messenger |
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Choose the correct statement regarding the mechanism of interaction for steroid hormones. a. The hormones do not alter the pattern of protein synthesis. b. The steroid hormones are transported across the plasma membrane. c. The hormones bind to receptors in the plasma membrane. d. The hormones diffuse across the lipid part of the plasma membrane and bind to receptors in the cytoplasm or nucleus. |
d. The hormones diffuse across the lipid part of the plasma membrane and bind to receptors in the cytoplasm or nucleus. |
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In order to make the heart more responsive to epinephrine, thyroid hormone must also act on the heart muscles. This hormonal coordination is referred to as a(n) ____________ effect. a. antagonistic b. interactive c. permissive d. synergistic |
c. permissive |
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Mary is complaining of inability to focus, muscle weakness, and always feeling cold. These symptoms could be signs of _________. a. diabetes insipidus b. hypercalcemia c. hyperthyroidism d. hypothyroidism |
d. hypothyroidism |
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An abnormally low production of gonadotropin produces a condition called __________. a. diabetogenesis b. hypogonadism c. diabetes insipidus d. somatomedins |
b. hypogonadism |
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Common medical problems related to diabetes mellitus include which of the following? a. high metabolic rate b. muscular weakness c. partial or complete blindness d. low blood pressure |
c. partial or complete blindness |
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Hypothyroidism, and myxedema may result from an inadequate amount of __________. a. dietary iodide b. sodium and calcium c. salt in the diet d. magnesium and zinc |
a. dietary iodide |
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Why do the levels of GH-RH and CRH rise during the resistance phase of the general adaptation syndrome? a. the need for increased protein synthesis by muscle tissue is increased b. the need for elevated blood pressure is increased c. the need for glucose by the nervous system is great d. the need for aldosterone is increased |
c. the need for glucose by the nervous system is great |
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One of the major benefits of a rise in melatonin is its ____________. a. promotion of a sense of euphoria b. ability to increase serotonin production c. effect on depressing reproduction d. antioxidant properties |
d. antioxidant properties |
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In seasonally breeding animals where reproduction is dependent on day length, melatonin from the pineal gland plays an important role. Where and how does melatonin exert its inhibiting effect to slow down reproductive processes? a. anterior pituitary; reduced GnRH production b. Hypothalamus; reduced TRH production c. hypothalamus; reduced GnRH production d. posterior pituitary; inhibiting ADH production |
c. hypothalamus; reduced GnRH production |
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What phase of the general adaptation syndrome or stress response is dominated by the hormone epinephrine? a. the resistance phase b. the exhaustion phase c. the alarm phase d. the conservation phase |
c. the alarm phase |
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Which endocrine gland secretes a hormone that may be involved in setting circadian rhythms? a. pituitary gland b. thyroid gland c. pineal gland d. adrenal gland |
c. pineal gland |
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The additive effects of growth hormone (GH) and glucocorticoids illustrate the __________. a. synergistic effect b. integrative effect c. permissive effect d. antagonistic effect |
a. synergistic effect |
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What is the role of renin in the secretion of aldosterone? a. renin is converted by the adrenal gland into aldosterone b. renin converts angiotensinogen into angiotensin I c. renin is a precursor molecule that is converted into angiotensinogen d. renin stimulates the adrenal gland to produce aldosterone |
b. renin converts angiotensinogen into angiotensin I |
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What hormone is synthesized from molecules of the neurotransmitter serotonin in the pineal gland? a. melanocyte-stimulating hormone b. melatonin c. oxytocin d. pinealtonin |
b. melatonin |
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Individuals susceptible to seasonal affective disorder (SAD) may be prescribed to seek exposure to bright light for a certain amount of time every day or take selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI). The reason behind the treatment is to _____________. a. prevent conversion of serotonin to melanin, and increase serotonin concentration at the synaptic junctions b. prevent conversion of melatonin to serotonin, and increase melatonin concentration at the synaptic junctions c. prevent conversion of melanin to serotonin, and increase melatonin concentration at the synaptic junctions d. prevent conversion of serotonin to melatonin, and increase serotonin concentration at the synaptic junctions |
d. prevent conversion of serotonin to melatonin, and increase serotonin concentration at the synaptic junctions |
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Although it is a pump for the circulation of the blood, the heart secondarily functions as an endocrine organ also. What hormone does the heart produce? a. erythopoietin b. natriuretic peptides c. norepinephrine d. ADH |
b. natriuretic peptides |
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Type II diabetes is correlated with obesity. Obesity causes the body cells to become more _______________. a. insulin resistant b. glucagon resistant c. growth hormone resistant d. glucose resistant |
a. insulin resistant |
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Increased amounts of light would inhibit the production of which hormone? a. norepinephrine b. cortisol c. androgens d. melatonin |
d. melatonin |
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In children, when sex hormones are produced prematurely, the obvious behavioral changes will cause the child will become _______. a. lethargic and docile b. overweight and disgruntled c. aggressive and assertive d. regressive and retarded |
c. aggressive and assertive |
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The hormone insulin lowers blood glucose concentration and glucagon raises it. This is an example of what type of hormone interaction? a. permissive b. antagonistic c. integrative d. synergistic |
b. antagonistic |
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Abnormal glucocorticoid production by the adrenal glands results in __________. a. hypo- and hyperaldosteronism b. seasonal affective disorder c. addison disease and cushing disease d. adrenogenital syndrome and hynecomastia |
c. Addison disease and Cushing disease |
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Acromegaly is a disorder caused by overproduction of which hormone? a. LH b. FSH c. growth hormone d. progesterone |
c. growth hormone |
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Following blood donation, which hormone is needed to stimulate red blood cell formation? a. erythropoietin b. renin c. atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) d. calcitroil |
a. erythropoietin |
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Which hormone is responsible for the stimulation of red blood cell formation in the bone marrow? a. renin b. erythropoietin c. thymosin d. calcitriol |
b. erythropoietin |
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Which of the following statements about the pineal gland is INCORRECT? a. together with the gonads, it secretes androgens b. it produces melatonin c. it is found in the diencephalon of the brain d. it is important in maintaining the circadian rhythms, or day and night cycles of an individual |
a. together with the gonads, it secretes androgens |
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The differing but complementary effects of calcitriol and parathyroid hormone on tissues involved in calcium metabolism illustrate the __________. a. additive effect b. permissive effect c. integrative effect d. antagonistic effect |
c. integrative effect |
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What is the term for the phenomenon that occurs when two hormones present together produce effects that are weaker than the effects of either one acting alone? a. permissive effect b. synergism c. antagonism d. integrative effect |
c. antagonism |
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Why does a person with Type 1 or Type 2 diabetes urinate frequently and have increased thirst? a. Diabetes inhibits the hypothalamus from producing Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH). b. Rising glucose concentration inhibits reabsorption by the kidney. c. Diabetes injures the kidneys, causing excess water loss. d. Abnormally elevated glucose levels in the blood cause increased urination. |
d. abnormally elevated glucose levels in the blood cause increased urination |
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One of the causes of diabetes mellitus is an autoimmune disease. This is where the immune system will recognize and destroy insulin-producing cells. What cells in the pancreas are affected by this condition? a. beta cells b. alpha cells c. delta cells d. PP cells |
a. beta cells |
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Which category of hormones produced by the adrenal gland has an affect on the electrolyte composition of the body fluids? a. sympathetic mimicking hormones b. mineralocorticoids c. androgens d. glucocorticoids |
b. mineralocorticoids |
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What is the function of aldosterone? a. production of androgens b. acceleration of glucose synthesis c. secretion of epinephrine d. conservation of sodium ions |
d. conservation of sodium ions |
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If it has been a long time since you have eaten, which of the following things will occur? a. glucose levels in the blood fall below normal levels b. the liver stores glucose c. glucagon levels in the blood decrease d. glycogen is stored in the skeleton muscles |
a. glucose levels in the blood fall below normal levels |
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The secretion of aldosterone is brought about by all these factors except one. Which factor is INCORRECT? a. a drop in blood pressure b. a drop in blood volume c. a drop in blood concentration of Na+ d. a drop in blood concentration of K+ |
d. a drop in blood concentration of K+ |
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Insulin is important to normal growth because it promotes __________. a. an adequate supply of energy and nutrients to growing cells b. absorption of calcium slats for deposition in the bone c. normal development of the nervous system d. all of the listed responses are correct |
a. an adequate supply of energy and nutrients to growing cells |
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Which type of pancreatic cell produces glucagon? a. beta cell b. F cell c. alpha cell d. delta cell |
c. alpha cell |
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Which of the following hormones stimulates triglyceride formation in the adipose tissue? a. leptin b. glucagon c. insulin d. glycogen |
c. insulin |
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What effect would elevated cortisol levels have? a. increased catabolism of glucose b. increased storage of fatty acids in adipose tissue c. elevated blood glucose level d. stimulating protein synthesis in skeletal muscle |
c. elevated blood glucose level |
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Which of the following is NOT an effect of insulin? a. increased absorption of amino acids and protein synthesis b. increased rate of glucose utilization and ATP formation c. increased breakdown of glycogen by the liver d. increased triglyceride synthesis in adipose tissue |
c. increased breakdown of glycogen by the liver |
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Damage to alpha cells in the pancreas will lead to a reduction of which hormone? a. glucagon b. glycogen c. growth hormone d. insulin |
a. glucagon |
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Androgens released from the adrenal cortex are responsible for female sex drive. Which zone of the adrenal cortex is responsible for secreting the androgens? a. zona medulla b. zona fasciculata c. zona reticularis d. zona glomerulosa |
c. zona reticularis |
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The pancreas lies in the J-shaped loop between the stomach and the small intestine in the __________. a. pelvic cavity b. cranial cavity c. abdominal cavity d. thoracic cavity |
c. abdominal cavity |
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Which of the following is NOT secreted by the pancreas? a. glucocorticoids b. glucagon c. digestive enzymes d. insulin |
a. glucocorticoids |
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Endocrine secretions from which of the following adrenal regions would increase levels of sodium ions retained at the kidney? a. adrenal medulla b. zona fasciculata c. zona reticularis d. zona glomerulosa |
d. zona glomerulosa |
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With regard to metabolic effects of insulin and glucagon, insulin can be considered as having _________ and glucagon having ___________. a. permissive effects; synergistic effects b. thermogenic effects; calorigenic effects c. anabolic effects; catabolic effects d. catabolic effects; anabolic effects |
c. anabolic effects; catabolic effects |
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Reabsorption and secretion of what ion(s) is/are directly regulated by the mineralocorticoid, aldosterone? a. Ca2+ b. Na+ and K+ c. Mg2+ d. H+ |
b. Na+ and K+ |
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Which of the following is the function of insulin? a. accelerating glucose uptake by target cells b. inhibiting the contraction of the gallbladder c. stimulating the breakdown of glycogen d. stimulating the breakdown of triglycerides |
a. accelerating glucose uptake by target cells |
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What is the normal range of blood glucose? a. 110-115 mg/dL b. 70-110 g/dL c. 70-110 mg/dL d. 45-65 mg/dL |
c. 70-110 mg/dL |
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Which part of the adrenal gland produces epinephrine and norepinephrine? a. zona fasciculata b. zona glomerulosa c. zona reticularis d. adrenal medulla |
d. adrenal medulla |
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Which hormones are produced by the pancreatic islets that regulate blood glucose concentrations? a. leptin and resistin b. cortisol and androgens c. insulin and glucagon d. calcitonin and clacitriol |
c. insulin and glucagon |
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What are the hormones released by the adrenal medulla? a. cortisol and corticosterone b. aldosterone and androgens c. mineralocorticoids and glucocorticoids d. epinephrine and norepinephrine |
d. epinephrine and norepinephrine |
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Often, when brains are removed from the body and examined in dissection, the pituitary gland is missing. This is likely because it is encased in which of the following bony structures? a. sella turcica b. posterior cranial fossa c. maxillary sinus d. frontal sinus |
a. sella turcica |
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Which of the following hormones is secreted in the pituitary gland and controls melanin production during fetal development, in young children, in pregnant women, and in some disease states? a. oxytocin b. melatonin c. luteinizing hormone d. melanocyte-stimulating hormone |
d. melanocyte-stimulating hormone |
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Which of the following is the most accurate statement about parathyroid hormone (PTH)? a. PTH causes increased osteoclast activity b. PTH causes the production of calcitriol by the digestive tract c. PTH directly stimulates osteoclasts to break down bone matrix d. PTH causes calcitonin production |
a. PTH causes increased osteoclast activity |
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Which thyroid hormone contains three iodine molecules? a. thyroglobulin b. triiodothyronine c. transthyretin d. thyroxine |
b. triiodothyronine |
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What would you expect to see in a person whose diet lacks iodine? a. increased body temperature b. decreased size of the thyroid gland c. effective response to physiological stress d. decreased metabolic rate |
d. decreased metabolic rate |
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What is the stimulus that brings about the production of parathyroid hormone (PTH)? a. hypothalamic stimulus of the parathyroid glands b. increased osteoblast activity c. low vitamin D levels in the blood d. decreasing calcium levels in the blood |
d. decreasing calcium levels in the blood |
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How does calcitriol help in the homeostatic regulation of Ca2+ concentration in the blood? a. increased release of Ca2+ from bone b. enhanced absorption of Ca2+ by the digestive tract c. enhanced reabsorption of Ca2+ by the kidney d. decreased osteoblast activity |
b. enhanced absorption of Ca2+ by the digestive tract |
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What is another name for the posterior lobe of the pituitary? a. adenohypophysis b. infundibulum c. neurohypophysis d. portal system |
c. neurohypophysis |
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________ is released as a result of an increase in blood Ca2+ level. a. PTH b. thyroid hormone c. calcitonin d. calcitriol |
c. calcitonin |
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If a person’s thyroid gland is removed, why does it take a week for the signs of decreased thyroid concentration to appear? a. There is a week’s supply of thyroid hormones bound to transport proteins. b. Thyroid hormones produce long-lasting effects that last for at least a week. c. Thyroid hormones that enter the cells are shielded from chemical breakdown. d. It takes a week to convert T4 into T3. |
a. There is a week’s supply of thyroid hormones bound to transport proteins. |
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Alcohol is a diuretic and exerts its effect by inhibiting which hormone? a. oxytocin b. aldosterone c. antidiuretic hormone (ADH) d. growth hormone |
c. antidiuretic hormone (ADH) |
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Which hormone secreted by the adenohypophysis simulates the release of hormones by the adrenal cortex? a. luteinizing hormone b. somatomedins c. oxytocin d. adrenocorticotropic hormone |
d. adrenocorticotropic hormone |
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Which of the following is a function of the thyroid hormone calcitonin? a. to reduce calcium ion levels in the blood and body fluids b. to activate genes for enzymes that control energy transformation c. to increase the rate of mitochondrial ATP production d. to activate genes for enzymes involved in glycolysis and ATP production |
a. to reduce calcium ion levels in the blood and body fluids |
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Which pituitary hormone causes liver cells to release somatomedins that increase the rate of uptake of amino acids by cells such as skeletal muscle fibers? a. growth hormone b. follicle-stimulating hormone c. thyroid-simulating hormone d. prolactin |
a. growth hormone |
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Which statement about the production of thyroid hormones is the most accurate? a. The hypothalamus produces TSH, which stimulates the thyroid gland to produce its hormones. b. The hypothalamus produces TRH, which stimulates the pituitary to produce TSH. c. The pituitary produces TRH, which stimulates the thyroid to produce its hormones. d. TRH stimulates the active transport of iodine into the thyroid follicle cells. |
b. The hypothalamus produces TRH, which stimulates the pituitary to produce TSH. |
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The thyroid gland curves across the anterior surface of the trachea just inferior to the __________. a. sternum b. thyroid cartilage c. dorsal ascending aorta d. scapula and clavicles |
b. thyroid cartilage |
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The parathyroid glands are embedded in the __________. a. anterior surfaces of the thyroid cartilage b. lateral surfaces of the thyroid cartilage c. posterior surfaces of the thyroid gland d. anterior surfaces of the thyroid gland |
c. posterior surfaces of the thyroid gland |
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Which pituitary hormone causes a decrease in the amount of water lost in the kidneys? a. growth hormone b. oxytocin c. antidiuretic hormone d. melanocyte-stimulating hormone |
c. antidiuretic hormone |
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Which of the following is NOT a function of parathyroid hormone? a. enhanced absorption of calcium ions in the digestive tract b. stimulation of calcitriol production at the kidneys c. enhanced excretion of calcium in the kidneys d. stimulation of osteoclasts |
c. enhanced excretion of calcium in the kidneys |
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Which of the following is NOT an effect of thyroid hormones on peripheral tissues? a. Elevated levels of oxygen consumption and energy consumption b. Increased heart rate and force of contraction c. Stimulation of the formation of red blood cells d. Maturation of lymphocytes |
d. maturation of lymphocytes |
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What is the slender, funnel-shaped structure that connects the pituitary gland to the hypothalamus? a. pars tuberalis b. infundibulum c. sella turcica d. sellar diaphragm |
b. infundibulum |
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Which of the following is a steroid hormone produced in the ovaries of the female? a. thymosin b. follicle stimulating hormone c. estrogen d. leptin |
c. estrogen |
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Which of the following is NOT classified as an amino acid–derivative hormone? a. epinephrine b. melatonin c. eicosanoids d. thyroxine |
c. eicosanoids |
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In what category are the eicosanoids, based on chemical structure? a. amino acid derivatives b. peptide hormones c. derivatives of tyrosine d. lipid derivatives |
d. lipid derivatives |
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Which type of communication is involved in short-lived communication and crisis management? a. synaptic communication b. endocrine communication c. direct communication d. paracrine communication |
a. synaptic communication |
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What is an example of a hormone that doesn’t bind to receptors on the plasma membrane, but rather to intracellular receptors in the cytoplasm or nucleus? a. steroid hormones b. peptide hormone c. catecholamine d. eicosanoids |
a. steroid hormones |
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Which of the following is NOT a way hormones affect target cells? a. Increasing or decreasing the rate of synthesis of a particular enzyme or other protein b. Stimulating the synthesis of an enzyme or structural protein not already present in the cytoplasm c. Turning an existing enzyme or membrane channel “on” or “off” d. Causing an action potential to occur |
d. causing an action potential to occur |
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Response patterns in the endocrine system are particularly effective in __________. a. crisis management b. rapid short term specific responses c. the release of chemical neurotransmitters d. coordinating cell tissue and organ activities on a sustained long term basis |
d. coordinating cell tissue and organ activities on a sustained long term basis |
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Which of the following statements about hormones is FALSE? a. They are involved in direct communication between cells. b. They travel from their tissue of origin to other tissues through the bloodstream. c. They affect a target cell. d. They can stimulate the synthesis of an enzyme or structural protein. |
a. they are involved in direct communication between cells |
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The hypothalamus secretes regulatory hormones that directly affect what gland? a. thyroid gland b. adrenal gland c. pituitary gland d. pineal gland |
c. pituitary gland |
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What type of communication uses gap junctions to allow communication between adjacent cells? a. paracrine communication b. direct communication c. endocrine communication d. synaptic communication |
b. direct communication |
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The hypothalamus provides the highest level of endocrine control. Which of the following is NOT a way the hypothalamus provides that control? a. The hypothalamus acts as an endocrine organ. b. The hypothalamus secretes regulatory hormones. c. The hypothalamus controls sympathetic output from the adrenal gland. d. The hypothalamus produces and secretes neurotransmitters, and distributes them to neurons. |
d. The hypothalamus produces and secretes neurotransmitters, and distributes them to neurons. |
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Why is the hypothalamus a major coordinating and control center? a. It stimulates appropriate responses by peripheral target cells. b. It controls the release of every hormone in the endocrine system. c. It contains autonomic centers and acts as an endocrine organ. d. It produces all hormones secreted by the pituitary gland. |
c. it contains autonomic centers and acts as an endocrine organ |
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Which of the following is an important second messenger produced by hormonal effects on a target cell? a. calmodulin b. cyclic AMP d. adenylyl cyclase d. G protein |
b. cyclic amp |
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What is meant by the term second messenger in endocrine communication? a. P protein in the membrane of the target cell b. An enzyme that is directly activated by the hormone c. An intermediary molecule produced by hormone and receptor interaction d. A second hormone that has the same effect on a target organ |
c. An intermediary molecule produced by hormone and receptor interaction |
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Which of the following hormones is produced in adipose tissue and is involved in the feedback control of appetite? a. thymosin b. leptin c. natriuretic peptides d. renin |
b. leptin |
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Which of the following would NOT be characterized as an endocrine-controlled process? a. pregnancy b. puberty c. the constriction of the iris muscles when a bright light is shined on the eye d. maintenance of reproductive abilities in a female until menopause |
c. the constriction of the iris muscles when a bright light is shined on the eye |
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The release of hormones by endocrine cells alters the __________. a. rate at which chemical neurotransmitters are released b. very specific responses to environmental stimuli c. anatomical boundary between the nervous and endocrine systems d. metabolic activities of many tissues and organs simultaneously |
d. metabolic activities of many tissues and organs simultaneously |
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A hormone that stimulates the opening of calcium channels and interaction with calmodulin __________. a. is parathyroid hormone b. will pass through the cell membrane owing to its lipid nature c. will trigger the activation of cytoplasmic enzymes d. will bind to the mitochondria inside a cell |
c. will trigger the activation of cytoplasmic enzymes |
