A&p Final Exam Spring 2006

Front 1

Which statement best describes arteries:

Back 1

all carry blood away form the heart.

Front 2

which of the following signs of hypovolemic shock is a relatively late sign

Back 2

Rapidly falling blood pressure.

Front 3

which Lymphatic structure drains Lymph from the right upper limb and the right side
of the head and thorax.:

Back 3

right Lymphatic Duct

Front 4

_________predominate at the sites of chronic infections

Back 4

Macrophages

Front 5

The arteries that are called distributing arteries are the:

Back 5

Muscular arteries

Front 6

the antibody molecule is held together by __________ bonds:

Back 6

Disulfide

Front 7

which of the following is NOT a type of T cell

Back 7

Antigenic

Front 8

Permitting the exchange of nutrients and gases between the blood and tissue cells is the primary function of

Back 8

Capillaries

Front 9

which of the following is NOT a function of the inflammatory response:

Back 9

Replaces injured tissues with connective tissue/

Front 10

which tunic of an artery is most responsible for maintaining blood pressure and continuous blood circulation:

Back 10

Tunic Media

Front 11

the process whereby neutrophils and other white blood cells are attracted to an inflammatory site is called:

Back 11

Chemotaxis

Front 12

the system that recognizes foreign molecules and acts to immobilize, neutralize, or
destroy them is the:

Back 12

Immune System

Front 13

the pulse pressure is

Back 13

Systolic Pressure minus Diastolic Pressure.

Front 14

Functions of the spleen include all of those below except

Back 14

Crypts that trap bacteria.

Front 15

the only immunoglobulin to exist as a Pentamer is:

Back 15

IgM

Front 16

In the dynamics of blood flow through capillaries, hydrostatic pressure:

Back 16

Is the same as capillary blood pressure.

Front 17

The only T cell that can directly attack and kill other cells are the

Back 17

Cytotoxic cells

Front 18

Which of the following would NOT be classified as a Lymphatic Structure

Back 18

Pancreas

Front 19

Lymph collecting or pooling from the lower extremities would first pool in the
_______ before moving on up:

Back 19

Cisterna Chyli

Front 20

_______are released by activated T cells and macrophages to mobilize immune cells and attract other leukocytes into the area:

Back 20

Cytokines

Front 21

which of the following is NOT one of the three main factors influencing blood
pressure:

Back 21

Cardiac output

Front 22

______ determine(s) what specific foreign substances our adaptive immune system
will be able to recognize and resist:

Back 22

Our genes.

Front 23

Select the correct statement about the movement of materials at the capillary level:

Back 23

Carbon dioxide moves from its production site into the interstitial fluid.

Front 24

Which of the following is the characteristic of antibodies:

Back 24

Composed of heavy and light polypeptide chains.

Front 25

Immunocompetence

Back 25

Is the ability of individual cells to recognize a specific entigen by binding to it.

Front 26

Which of the following blood pressure readings would be indicative of hypertension:

Back 26

170/96 in a 50-year-old man.

Front 27

Normal blood pressure for an adult at age 65 is

Back 27

150/90

Front 28

Innate immune system defenses include

Back 28

Phagocytosis

Front 29

Which of the following do NOT influence arterial pulse rate

Back 29

Sleep

Front 30

Histologically, the______ is Squamous Epithelium supported by a sparse connectivetissue layer

Back 30

Tunica Intima (interna)

Front 31

Which of the following would be classified as a delayed hypersensitivity reaction:

Back 31

Allergic contact dermatitis.

Front 32

Graph rejection may be caused by

Back 32

Using a Xenograph

Front 33

Which of the following in NOT a blood vessel attached to the Circle of Willis

Back 33

Posterior Cerebral Artery

Front 34

A thrombus (blood clot) in the first branch of the arch of the aorta would affect the flow of blood to the:

Back 34

Right side of the head and neck and right upper arm.

Front 35

Specific defense system

Back 35

Immune Response

Front 36

First line of defense

Back 36

Skin and Mucous Membrane

Front 37

Second line of defense

Back 37

Inflammatory Resonse.

Front 38

Nonspecific defense system

Back 38

Inflammatory Response & skin and mucous membrane.

Front 39

What is necessary to supply the body with O2 and dispose of CO2

Back 39

Blood pH adjustment

Front 40

The smallest microscopic subdivision of the lung is the:

Back 40

Lobule

Front 41

The plicae circlares and intestinal villi are found in which of the four layers of the alimentary tube well

Back 41

Mucosa

Front 42

Which of the following influence the increase in ventilation that occurs as exercise is initiated

Back 42

Decrease in lactic acid levels

Front 43

The most powerful respiratory stimulus for breathing in a healthy person is

Back 43

Increase of Carbon Dioxide

Front 44

Which of these is NOT part of the Splechnic circulation

Back 44

Inferior Vena Cava

Front 45

The amount of air that can be inspired above the tidal volume is called

Back 45

Inspiratory Capacity

Front 46

In the plasma, the quantity of oxygen in solution is

Back 46

Only about 1.5% of the oxygen carried in dissolved form.

Front 47

The larynx contains

Back 47

The thyroid cartilage

Front 48

Intrapulmonary Pressure is the

Back 48

Pressure within the Alveoli of the lungs.

Front 49

_________is/are NOT important as a stimulus in the gastric phase of gastric
secretion

Back 49

Carbohydrates

Front 50

The statement, “in a mixture of gases, the total pressure is the sum of the individual
particle pressures of gases in the mixture.” is

Back 50

Dalton's Law

Front 51

The ______ contains lobules with sinusoids (lined with macrophage) that lead to a
central venous structure.

Back 51

Liver.

Front 52

Which of the following is NOT found on the right lobe of the lungs:

Back 52

Cardiac notch.

Front 53

Since the lungs are filled with fluid during fetal life, which of the following
statements is true regarding respiratory exchange:

Back 53

Respiratory exchanges are made through the placenta.

Front 54

Pancreatic amylase can get to the small intestine via the:

Back 54

Cystic duct

Front 55

Which of the following can diminish lung compliance:

Back 55

Factors that decrease the surface tension of the fluid film of the alveoli.

Front 56

Hepatocytes do not:

Back 56

Produce digestive enzymes.

Front 57

Chyme is created in the:

Back 57

Stomach.

Front 58

Possible cause of hypoxia include:

Back 58

Too little oxygen in the atmosphere.

Front 59

Which of the following is NOT true of saliva?

Back 59

Contains enzymes that begin the breakdown of proteins.

Front 60

Air and food are routed into the proper channels by the:

Back 60

Larynx.

Front 61

The walls of the alveoli are composed of two types of cells, type I and type II. The function of type II is:

Back 61

to secrete surfactant.

Front 62

Which of the following is not a characteristic of the large intestine:

Back 62

It is longer than the small intestine.

Front 63

Which of the following produce intrinsic factor:

Back 63

Parietal cells.

Front 64

The layer of the digestive tube that contains blood vessels, lymphatic nodes. And a rich supply of elastic fibers:

Back 64

Submucosa.

Front 65

Paneth cells:

Back 65

Secrete enzymes that kill bacteria.

Front 66

Under normal conditions the gastric mucosa pours out as much as:

Back 66

2 to 3L of gastric juice per day.

Front 67

Which of the following provide the greatest surface area for gas exchange.

Back 67

Alveoli.

Front 68

Nervous control of gastric secretion is provided by:

Back 68

The vagus nerve and enteric plexus.

Front 69

The ingestion of a meal high in fat content would cause which of the following to
occur:

Back 69

Bile would be released from the gallbladder to emulsify the fat in the duodenum.

Front 70

The functions of the nasal conchae are to enhance the air turbulence in the cavity and to increase the mucosal surface area exposed to the air:

Back 70

True

Front 71

The intrinsic factor of smooth muscle to exhibit the stress – relaxation response is termed plasticity:

Back 71

True.

Front 72

Each lung has an indention, the pelvis, through which blood vessels enter and leave the lungs:

Back 72

False

Front 73

As food passes through the digestive tract, it becomes less complex and the nutrients are more readily available to the body:

Back 73

True

Front 74

Smoking diminishes ciliary action and eventually destroys the cilia:

Back 74

True.

Front 75

The main chemical activity of the stomach is to begin the digestion of proteins:

Back 75

True

Front 76

The roof of the nasal cavity is termed by parts of the frontal bone:

Back 76

False.

Front 77

Cystic fibrosis may significantly impair the activity of the liver:

Back 77

False.

Front 78

The peritomeum is the most extensive serous membrane in the body:

Back 78

True.

Front 79

The first teeth to appear are the deciduous teeth:

Back 79

True.

Front 80

Normal quiet breathing approximately 750ml air moves into and out of the lungs with each breath:

Back 80

False.

Front 81

The pharyngeal – esophageal phase of swallowing is involuntary and is controlled by the swallowing center in the thalamus and lower pons:

Back 81

False.

Front 82

The descending limb of the loop of Henle:

Back 82

Contains fluid that becomes more concentrated as it moves down into the medulla.

Front 83

The first major branch of the renal artery is:

Back 83

Segmental

Front 84

Which of the following glands are responsible for 60% of the synthesis of semen:

Back 84

The seminal vesicles

Front 85

Blood vessels of the renal columns are called:

Back 85

Interlobar.

Front 86

Which of the following occurs as a result of undescended testes:

Back 86

Inadequate or nonviable sperm will be produced.

Front 87

The urinary bladder is composed of ______ epithemlium:

Back 87

Transitional

Front 88

The mechanism that establishes the medullary osmotic gradient depends most on the permeability properties of:

Back 88

Loop of Henle

Front 89

The seminal vesicles:

Back 89

Produce a yellowish fluid rich in fructose.

Front 90

Spermiogenesis involves:

Back 90

The formation of a functional sperm by the stripping away of superfluous cytoplasm.

Front 91

The dartos and cremaster muscles are important to the integrity of the male
reproductive system. Which of the following is true about the role they play:

Back 91

They regulate the temperature of the testes.

Front 92

The fatty tissue surrounding the kidneys is important because:

Back 92

It stabilizes the position of the kidneys by holding them in their normal position.

Front 93

The ovaries:

Back 93

Are surrounded by the tunica albuginea.

Front 94

The functional and structural unit of the kidneys is:

Back 94

Nephron

Front 95

The structures that receive the ovulated oocyte, providing a site for fertilization, are called:

Back 95

The fallopian tubes.

Front 96

Effects of estrogen include:

Back 96

Growth of the breasts at puberty

Front 97

The __ artery lies on the boundary between the cortex and medulla of the kidney

Back 97

Arcuate.

Front 98

A Bowman’s capsule does not contain:

Back 98

A vasa recta.

Front 99

The chief force pushing water and solutes out of the blood across the filtration
membrane is

Back 99

Glomerular hydrostatic pressure (glomerular blood pressure)

Front 100

Alcohol acts as a diuretic because it:

Back 100

Inhibits the release of ADH

Front 101

The filtration membrane includes all but:

Back 101

Renal fascia.

Front 102

Which of the following statements is true concerning the mammary glands of both males and females:

Back 102

The mammary glands are modified sweat glands that are actually part of the
integumentary system.

Front 103

Which of the following is the correct statement about uterine tubes.

Back 103

The infundibulum is the funnel-shaped region near the ovary.

Front 104

Tubular reabsorption:

Back 104

By active mechanisms usually involves movement against an electrical and/or chemical gradient.

Front 105

Which of the following statements about the female reproductive process is NOT true.

Back 105

Rebuilding the endomerium is under the control of prolactin.

Front 106

Excretion of dilute urine requires:

Back 106

Impermeability of the collecting tubule to water.

Front 107

The glomerular filtration rate is approximately 350ml/min.

Back 107

False

Front 108

Urea is reabsorbed in the loop of Henle.

Back 108

False.

Front 109

Pain during ovulation is called dysmenorrheal.

Back 109

False.

Front 110

Aldosterone is a hormone that causes the renal tubules to reclaim sodium ions from the filtrate.

Back 110

True.

Front 111

The terminal portion of the urinary system is the urethra.

Back 111

True.

Front 112

The kidney consumes about 15% of all oxygen used by the body at rest.

Back 112

False.

Front 113

Female orgasm is required for conception.

Back 113

False.

Front 114

Urine is 95% water by volume.

Back 114

True.

Front 115

The myogenic mechanism reflects the tendency of vascular smooth muscle to stretch.

Back 115

False.

Front 116

Blood in the urine may be a symptom of bladder cancer.

Back 116

True.

Front 117

Atrial naturetic factor inhibits sodium reabsorption.

Back 117

True.

Front 118

The soft mucosal lining of the uterus is the endomertium.

Back 118

True.

Front 119

Having a kinked uterer is called Renal Ptosis.

Back 119

True.