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125 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
The basic functional unit of the nervous system is the ________
neuron.
What are the supporting cells of the nervous system called?
neuroglia
What are the 2 major divisions of the nervous system?
central nervous system (CNS)
peripheral nervous system (PNS)
What are the functions of the CNS?
integrates, processes, and coordinates sensory data and motor commands
What are the functions of the PNS?
carries sensory information to the CNS and carries motor commands to peripheral tissues and systems
What are nerves?
bundles of axons (nerve fibers) in the PNS; carries sensory information and motor commands
What is involved in the cytoskeleton of a neuron?
neurofilaments, neurotubules, neurofibrils
What is a neurotransmitter and where is it released from?
chemical messengers released by the presynaptic cell affect the postsynaptic cell (communication); packaged in synaptic vesicles
What are the 4 structural classifications of neurons?
anaxonic neuron
bipolar neuron
Unipolar neuron
Multipolar neuron
Which are small and you cannot tell the axon from the dendrites?
anaxonic neuron
Which has one dendrite, one axon, and a cell body inbetween?
bipolar neuron
Which has an axon and dendrite that are fused and the cell body lies off to one side?
Unipolar neuron
Which has two or more dendrites and a single axon?
Multipolar neuron
What are the 3 functional classifications of neurons?
sensory neurons
motor neurons – efferent neurons
interneurons – association neurons
Where do sensory neurons deliver information?
from sensory receptors to the CNS
Where do motor neurons carry information?
from CNS to peripheral effectors
What are the 4 types of neuroglia in the CNS?
ependymal cells
Astrocytes
Oligodendrocytes
Microglia
Which is star shaped?
Astrocytes
What produces the myelin sheath in the CNS?
Oligodendrocytes
Which type of neruoglial cell engulfs cellular debris, waste products, and pathogens?
Microglia
What are the two neuroglia of the peripheral nervous system?
satellite cells – amphicytes
Schwann cells – neurilemmal cells
What is depolarization?
any shift from the resting potential – changes in potential from -70mV to smaller negative values
What is repolarization?
restoring normal resting potential after depolarization
What is hyperplatization?
an increase in the negativity of the resting potential form -70mV to -80mV or more
What is the all or none principle in relation to the neuron?
a stimulus either produces a typical action potential or does not produce one at all.
What is the threshold?
between –60mV and –55mV
*Describe the steps of a nerve impulse starting from depolarization of the initial segment to exciting the next neuron.
a.  depolarization to threshold
b.  the activation of sodium channels and rapid depolarization
i.  at the threshold, the sodium gates open and the cell membrane becomes more permeable to sodium, sodium ions rush in and rapid depolarization occurs.  The inner membrane surface now contains more positive ions that negative ones so transmembrane potential has changed from -60mV to more positive
c.  The inactivation of sodium channels and the activation of potassium channels
i.  as the transmembrane potential approaches +30mV, the sodium gates begin to close (sodium channel inactivation)
ii.  voltage regulated potassium gates are opening and potassium moves out
iii.  the loss of positive charges shifts the transmembrane potential back toward resting levels and repolarization begins
d.  The return to normal permeability
What does a cholinergic synapse release?
release ACh
Describe the events at a cholinergic synapse.
a.  an action potential arrives and depolarizes the synaptic knob (normal stimulus for neurotransmitter release is depolarization of synaptic knob)
b.  Extracellular calcium ions enter the synaptic knob, triggering exocytosis of ACh (depolarization of synaptic knob opens voltage regulated Ca gates)
c.  ACh binds to receptors and depolarizes the postsynaptic membrane (primary response is increased permeability to Na)  Depolarization is graded, if brought to threshold, an action potential will appear in the postsynaptic neuron
d.  ACh is removed by AChE – effects on the postsynaptic membrane are temporary
What are neuromodulators and what can they do?
released at the synapse with the main neurotransmitter, can alter rate of neurotransmitter release or change postsynaptic cell response
What is the difference between temporal and spatial summation?
What is facilitation?
a.  temporal summation – addition of stimuli occurring in rapid succession
b.  spatial summation – involves multiple synapses that are active simultaneously
What two parts does the skeletal system consist of?
axial skeleton and the appendicular skeleton
How many bones does the axial skeleton contain?  What percentage?
80 bones, contains about 40% of the bones in the human body
to create a framework that supports and protects organs in the dorsal and ventral body cavities
function of the axial skeleton
How many bones are contained in the appendicular skeleton? 
126 bones, contains about 60% of the bones in the human body
protect the brain and guard the openings to the digestive and respiratory systems.
function of the bones of the skull
What are the air filled chambers?
Sinuses
What are the immoveable joints of the skull?
Sutures
Formation of the skull involves many different ___________
ossification centers
fibrous areas between the cranial bones; quite flexible; they allow the skull to be distorted without damage
fontanels
What are the components of the vertebral column?
vertebrae, sacrum, and coccyx
cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral and coccygeal
5 divisions of the vertebral column
Which part of the vertebrae transfers the weight along the axis of the vertebral column?
body (centrum)
What is the result of the failure of vertebral laminae to unite during development and the membranes bulge outward?
spina bifida
smallest of the vertebrae
Cervical vertebrae
under the greatest strain
Lumbar vertebrae
largest of the vertebrae
Lumbar vertebrae
distinctive heart-shaped bodies
Thoracic vertebrae
long slender spinous process
Thoracic vertebrae
oval shaped bodies
Lumbar vertebrae
notched spinous process
Cervical vertebrae
Five fused sacral vertebrae make up the ______
Sacrum
Which ribs are true and why are they called this?
Ribs 1-7 are true – they connect to the sternum
Which ribs are false and why are they called this?
Ribs 8-10 are called false ribs – they do not connect directly to the sternum
Which ribs are floating and why are they called this?
Ribs 11-12 are floating (vertebral) ribs – they do not connect to the sternum
What respiratory activity are the ribs involved in?
breathing
When doing CPR, if you put your hands in the wrong place you could break the what?
ribs or the xiphoid process
bones of the upper and lower extremities and the pectoral and pelvic girdles that connect the limbs to the trunk
appendicular skeleton
What two bones does the pectoral girdle consist of?
scapulae and clavicles
What does the pelvic girdle consist of?
two ossa coxae
Which bones are more massive, those of the pelvic or pectoral girdles?
Pelvic girdle
Why is the female pelvis different in shape than the male pelvis?
adaptations for childbearing
  What loosens the pubic symphysis during pregnancy and allows movement of hip bones?
relaxin
larger sinus
male
larger craniums
male
coccyx points inferiorly
female
smaller teeth
female
The study of joints is _______________.
Arthrology
What are the four structural classifications of joints?
bony, fibrous, cartilaginous, synovial
Which lacks a joint cavity and two separate bones are fused?
bony
Which lacks a joint cavity but has a fibrous connective tissue connecting the articulating bones?
fibrous
Which lacks a joint cavity but cartilage binds the articulating bones?
cartilaginous
Which has a joint cavity?
synovial
What are the 3 functional classification of joints
synarthroses, amphiathroses, diathroses
An immoveable joint is  ____________
synarthroses
A slightly moveable joint is _____________
amphiathroses
A freely moveable joint is _______
diathroses
The immoveable joint between the bones of the skull, bound together by dense connective tissue is _______
suture
The greater the range of motion at a joint, the ____________ it becomes.
weaker
·       collagen fibers, and ligaments
·       shapes of articulating surface
·       other bones, skeletal muscles, or fat pads
·       tension
factors are responsible for limiting the range of motion, stabilize the joint, and reduce the chance of injury
What movement reduces the angle between the articulating elements?
Flexion
What movement increases the angle between the articulating elements?
Extension
What movement extends past the anatomical position?
Hyperextension
Movement away from the longitudinal axis of the body is _________
Abduction
Movement towards the longitudinal axis of the body is __________
Adduction
Moving your arm in a loop is _________
Circumduction
  When a structure moves in a superior direction, the movement is ________
Elevation
When a structure moves in an inferior direction, the movement is _____________
Depression
What is the condition when the nucleus pulposus protrudes into the vertebral canal?
Herniated disc
glenoid cavity and the head of the humerus. 
shoulder joint
What articulation permits the greatest range of motion of any joint in the body?
shoulder
What is the  name of various muscles that are the main mechanism for supporting the shoulder joint and limiting the range of movement?
rotator cuff
What type of movement does the elbow joint permit?
flexion, extension
What are the 3 types of muscle tissue?
cardiac, smooth, skeletal
What does skeletal muscle tissue move?
the body
What does cardiac muscle tissue move?
blood through the body
fluids and objects through the digestive system and several other functions
smooth muscle tissue move
1.  producing skeletal movement by pulling on the bones of the skeleton
2.      maintain posture and body position
3.      supporting soft tissues
4.      guarding entrances and exits
5.      maintaining body temperature – muscles use energy and generate heat
6.      store nutrient reserves
functions of skeletal muscle tissue.
The smallest functional units of muscle are _______
sarcomeres
Muscle contraction comes from interactions of _____________
thick and thin filaments
**********DESCRIBE THE STEPS OF SKELETAL MUSCLE CONTRACTION FROM NEURAL STIMULATION TO MYOSIN REACTIVATION & RELAXATION.
emailed answer
length of stimulation at the neuromuscular junction
Acetylcholinesterase (AChE) breaks down ACh and limits the duration of stimulation.
determine the duration of contraction
1.         Ca2+ ions detach from troponin
2.         troponin returns to its original position
3.         active sites covered by tropomyosin
when Ca ion concentrations in the sarcoplasm fall
The amount of tension produced by an individual muscle fiber ultimately depends on what?
number of pivoting cross bridges
What is the all or none principle?
muscle fiber is either “on” – producing tension or “off” – relaxed
What 3 things elongate the muscle fiber after the contraction is over?
hmmmmm
A resting muscle fiber uses ___________ for aerobic metabolism.
fatty acids
  A contracting muscle fiber uses _______ for aerobic metabolism.
pyruvic acid
What is the primary source of ATP product during peak periods of activity?
 Glycolysis
demand for ATP is low
resting
demands for ATP is massive
peak
aerobic metabolism provides surplus of ATP
resting
metabolism can provide most of the necessary ATP to support muscle contractions
moderate
glycolysis contribution is minor
moderate
the cell relies heavily on the anerobic process of glycolysis to generate ATP
peak
  Muscles that consist of mainly slow fibers are ______________
red muscles
What type of muscle tissue has no sarcomeres?
smooth muscle tissue
   What type of metabolism does cardiac muscle depend on?
aerobic metabolism
the cell membranes of two adjacent cardiac muscles cells are intertwined and bound together by gap junctions and desmosomes
importance of intercalated discs
help stabilize positions
importance of intercalated discs
gap junctions allow ions and small molecules to move from one cell to another – direct electrical connection
importance of intercalated discs
What is the trigger for smooth muscle contraction?
Ca ions moving  into cytoplasm
What does calcium interact with in smooth muscle contraction?
calmodulin
ability to contract over a wide range of lengths
plasticity of smooth muscle
What is the arrangement of thin and thick filaments in smooth muscle?
scattered