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214 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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To say that the myocardium functions as a syncytium means
a. That cells are connected one to another by junctions allowing for functional unity b. That atria and ventricles contract simultaneously with every other beat c. That cells of the conducting system contract along with the myocardial cells d. That neural synapses guide the contraction of each chamber as a unit |
a. That cells are connected one to another by junctions allowing for functional unity.
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The action potential for myocardium involves
a. Slow potassium influx for depolarization b. Rapid sodium efflux for repolariation c. Rapid chloride efflux to reestablish active membrane potential d. Slow calcium influx for contraction |
d. Slow calcium influx for contraction
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Which best defines the cardiac "effective (absolute) refractory period"
a. once depolarized, the myocardial cell may not be stimulated by another action potential until repolarized b. there is continual influx of calcium ion into the sarcoplasmic reticulum c. the conducting cells are at rest d. sodium ion flows into the cell rapidly and throughout the action potential |
a. once depolarized, the myocardial cell may not be stimulated by another action potential until repolarized
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A pacemake potential is generated by
a. slow calcium entry from the sarcoplasmic reticulum b. fast sodium entry from the extracellular space c. heightened potassium permeability for hyperpolarization of the membrane d. slow sodium entry creating an unstable resting potential |
d slow sodium entry creating an unstable resting potential
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Choose the correctly matched pair
a. His bundle: conduction delay b. ST segment: papillary muscle contraction c. P wave: atrial contraction d. Atrial systole: T wave |
b. St segment: papillary muscle contraction
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The visceral pericardium
a. is called adventitia b. is the endocardium c. contains the coronary vessels d. is a potential space e. none of these |
c. contains the coronary vessels
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To meet the demands of an incrased cardiac output, you would expect coronary blood vessels to
a. anastomose b. dilate c. move around d. increase the heart rate |
b. dilate
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Oxygen unloading from hemoglobin is facilitated by all except
a. reduced pCO2 b. elevated hydrogen ion concentration c. increased temperature d. red cell glycolysis |
a. Reduced pCO2
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In a healthy individual, stroke volume is positively affected by
a. minimization of preload b. less than normal afterload c. enhanced end diastolic volume d. a negative inotropic effect |
c. enhanced end diastolic volume
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Sympathetic stimulation would most likely enhance myocardial contractility by
a. the opening of more calcium channels of the sarcoplasmic reticulum b. an increase in myocyte number c. direct opening of more potassium channels d. increasing sinoatrial rate |
a. the opening of more calcium channels of the sarcoplasmic reticulum
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During isovolumetric contraction
a. the atrioventricular valves are closed b. the sumilunar valves are closed c. the atria are in diastole d. the amount of blood in the ventricle is called "end diastolic volume" e. all are true |
e. all are true
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The second heart sound is related to
a. opening of the atrioventricular valves b. contraction of ventricles c. filling of coronary arteries d. closure of semilunar valves e. ventricular filling |
d. closure of the semilunar valves
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the Frank-Starling law of the heart states that, under normal physiologic conditions,
a. myocardia contractility is a constant b. stoke volume is maintained no matter what c. whatever volume flows into the heart is also pumped out of it d. contractility is dependent on sympathetic tone |
c. whatever volume flows into the heart is also pumped out of it
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Surfactant aids in opposing
a. the overexpansion of small airways in response to gas flow b. the tendency of alveoli to collapse due to their folm of water c. unloading of gases other than O2 into pulmonary capillaries d. the natural elastic recoil of the visceral pleura |
b. the tendency of alveoli to collapse due to their film of water
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Transpulmonary pressure
a. depends mostly on elastic recoil b. is the negative difference between intrapulmonary and intrapleural pressures c. depends on the natural tendency of the chest wall to collapse inward d. opposes alveolar surface tension and recoil |
d. opposes alveolar surface tension and recoil
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During expiration
a. Intrapulmonary pressure is less than atmospheric pressure b. The diaphragm contracts producing increased intrapulmonary volume c. Pulmonary volume contraction produces increased intrapulmonary pressure d. None of these is so |
c. Pulmonary volume contraction produces inreased intrapulmonary pressure
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vital capacity consists of
a. functional residual capacity and tidal volume b. total lung capacity less residual volume c. tidal volume plus inspiratory reserve volume d. inspiratory and expiratory reserve volumes |
b, total lung capacity less residual volume
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A substantial amount of alveolar dead space might correspond with
a. increased residual volume b. reduced ventilation to perfusion ratio c. collapsed alveoli d. any of these |
d. any of these
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Hypoventilation could produce the following:
a. lower blood pH b. hypocapnia c. increased affinity of hemoglovin for O2 in tissues d. stimulation of medulla oblongata resulting in increased respitatory rate e. a and d f. a, b and c |
e. a and d
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Choose the mismatched pair:
a. airway obstruction: bronchoconstriction b. FEVx: forcile expired volume over set time period x c. Alveolar ventilation rate: fresh gas flow exchanged in lungs over one minute d. anatomic deadspace: airway from nasopharynx to lobar bronchi only |
d. anatomic deadspace:airway from nasopharynx to lobar bronchi only
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Blood flow through a tissue is modified by
a. the pressure gradient from arteriole to venule in that tissue b. the metabolic needs of that tissue c. the length of blood vessels in that tissue d. all modify flow |
d. all modify flow
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Filling of the right and left coronary arteries occurs
a. during late ventricular diastole b. during atrial systole c. after ventricular systole d. immediately as the semilunar valves open |
c. after ventricular systole
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In the case of a relatively low pH, you would expect the respiratory compensation to be
a. an increase in alveolar dea space b. increased alveolar ventilation c. an increase in CO2 dissolved in blood driving the production of H2CO3 d. decreased venous return |
b. increased alveolar ventilation
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An analysis of pulmonary arterial blood would generally reveal
a. a lower pH compared to aortic blood b. a lower pCO2 than that of blood in the superior vena cava c. a higher pO2 than that of left atrial blood d. a more saturated oxyhemoglobin than that of pulmonary venous blood |
a. a lower pH compared to aortic blood
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Intraalveolar pressure falls during
a. forced expiration b. diaphragmatic relaxation c. external intercostal muscle contraction d. rapid, forced reduction in lung volume e. a, c and d |
a. forced expiration
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The normal response to inadequate perfusion of adequately ventilated alveoli is
a. increased minute ventilation b. bronchoconstriction c. pulmonary arteriolar dilation d. redistribution of air to apices |
c. Pulmonary arteriolar dilation
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The reason for pulmonary artery dilation in inadequate perfusion of adequately ventilated alveoli is
a. the SNS increases resp. rate b. the bronchioles automatically dilate in the presence of high oxygen pressure c. highly oxygenated air naturally flows up to the higher parts of lungs d. oxygen dilates pulmonary vascular beds e. none of these is correct |
d. Oxygen dilates pulmonary vascular beds
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The resistance to blood flow in a tissue is easily modifiable in
a. the total length of capillaries in the tissue b. the caliber of arterioles serving the tissue c. the red cell mass of blood d. the mass of tissue being served e. all of these |
b. the caliber of arterioles serving the tissue
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Systemic blood flow would be reduced by
a. increased peripheral vascular resistance b. increased stroke volume c. increased heart rate d. increased pressure drop from aorta to venae cavae e. increased venous return f. a, d, and e |
a. increased peripheral vascular resistance
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A state of low blood volume would be answered by release of all except
a. antidiuretic hormone b. aldosterone c. atrial natriuretic peptide d. sympathetic nervous outflow |
c. atrial natriuretic peptide
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Direct branches from the abdominal aorta include all except
a. splenic artery b. gonadal artery c. renal artery d. inferior mesenteric artery e. celiac axis |
a. splenic artery
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Branches of the thoracic aorta include
a. anterior intercostal arteries b. left subclavian artery c. right common carotid artery d. right internal mannary artery e. pulmonary arteries f. a, b, and d |
b. left subclavian artery
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The mean arterial pressure
a. is an average of the different systolic pressures in all organ systems of the body b. is the difference between the systolic and the diastolic pressre measured at the brachial artery c. is the average of systolic and diastolic pressures most accurately measured in the aortic root d. reflects the overall propulsion of blood through the tissues accounting for times spent in systole and in diastole |
d. reflects the overall propulsion of blood through the tissues accunting for times spent in systole and in diastole
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Palpable pulses include
a. subclavian artery b. renal artery c. internal carotid artery d. common iliac artery e. posterior tibial artery f. all but a |
e. posterior tibial artery
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Vasomotor tone
a. refers to variable but continuous sympathetic nervous stimulation of arteriolar smooth muscle b. is a state of continual vasodilation which prevents a rise in blood pressure c. is most closely maintained by plasma proteins d. is not generally changeable |
a. refers to variable but continuous sympathetic nervous stimulation of arteriolar smooth muscle
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An analysis quantifying the separate clotting factors in a sample of blood would be performed on which component?
a. serum b. albumin c. platelets d. plasma e. erythrocytes f. complement |
C. Platelets
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A lymphocytosis would most likely be seen with
a. a systemic viral infection b. a bacterial infection c. destruction of lymphoyte precursors in the bone marrow d. hymolysis e. increased erythropoietin |
a. a systemic viral infection
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The best donor for a blood type B+ person is
a. type AB+ b. type A+ c. Type B- d. a or c e. none |
Type B-
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Prothrombin is cleaved by ___________ to become thrombin
a. fibrinogen b. plasmin c. activated factor x d. antithrombin III |
c. activated factor x
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Hemoglobin
a. must be actively synthesized in all circulating red blood cells b. is a tetramer with one iron-containing heme group complexed with each subunit for carriage of molecular oxygen c. is completely recycled in the kidney d. these are all true |
b. is a tetramer with one iron-containing heme group complexed with each subunit for carriage of molecular oxygen
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Plasma albumin level can be a good indicator of
a. oncotic pressure of the circulation b. nutritional statue c. liver function d. blood carrying capacity for certain drugs and hormones e. all of these |
e. all of these
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All of the following are granulocytes except
a. polymorphonuclear leukocytes b. basophils c. megakaryocytes d. eosinophils e. neutrophils |
c megakaryocytes
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Erythropoietin stimulates
a. maturation of committed red cell precursors in bone marrow b. greater cardiac output c. specific antibody production by B cells d. complement activation e. oxyhemoglobin dissociation |
a. maturation of committed red cell precursors in bone marrow
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T cells
a. migrate into tissues to engulf antigens b. make antibodies to attack antigens c. may direct immune function by elaborating cytokines d. present antigens to other immunologic cells |
c. may direct immune function by elaborating cytokines
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Platelets
a. depend on vitamin K absorption for their production b. are nucleated c. are phagocytic d. are activated by factor X e. when activated form a plug in response to vascular injury f. all |
e. when activated form a plug in response to vascular injury
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Natural anticoagulants include all except
a. protein C b. antithrombin III c. tissue factor d. heparin e. plasmin |
c. tissue factor
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A patient comes to you with chest pain and shortness of breath. You determine that he has a pulmonary embolism. You decide to administer an agent which will dissolve the clot, which is in a branch of his right pulmonary artery. This agent is a derivative of recombinant DNA technology, whereby the gene for a natural anticoagulant has been inserted into the DNA of cultured cells. These cells transcribe the gene and produce the agent, which is harvested for use as a drug. Of these, the agent is most likely
a. hemolysin b. erythropoietin c. fibrinogen d. plasmin e. warfarin |
d. plasmin
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Your patient seems to improve after your astute diagnosis and therapeutic intervention, and just as you prepare to discharge him from your service, he develops abdominal pain and distension (enlargement), along with jaundice. You perform an abdominal scan and find that he has a clot in one of his large hepatic veins. You ask a consultant in gastroenterology to tend to his liver problem, and meanwhile, you sensibly decide to investigate this person's tendency to form blood clots for no apparent reason.
Of these choices, the most likely source of his problem is: a. Factor X deficiency b. Thrombocytopenia c. Antithrombin III excess d. Protein S deficiency e. Overdose of warfarin (Coumadin) |
d. Protein S deficiency
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The lympahtic vessels serve
a. to return interstitial fluid to the circulatory system b. as conduits for immune cells c. in the absorption of lipids from the gastrointestinal tract d. all |
d. all
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Functions of the spleen include
a. accessory hematopoiesis b. reserve platelet population c. sequestration of senescent red blood cells d. absorption of dietary lipids from portal circulation e. destruction of encapsulated microorganisms f. all except d g. b, c, and d |
f. all except d
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All may be classified as being or containing mucosal or submucosal aggregates of lymphoid tissue except
a. Peyer's patch b. Waldeyer ring c. thymus d. appendix e. tonsil |
c. thymus
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Most education of T cells is accomplished in
a. bone marrow b. thymus c. circulation d. liver e. mucosa associated lymphatic tissue (MALT) |
b. thymus
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These cells have class I MHC
a. T lymphocytes b. liver cells c. renal cells d. macrophages e. all have class I MHC f. only a and d have class I MHC |
e. all have class I MHC
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Functions of CD8 cells include
a. recognition of class I MHC processed with foreign antigens b. phagocytosis c. release of histamine d. release of perforins e. all f. a and d only |
f. a and d only
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A person who is traveling to Egypt within a week and who has never had the viral syndrome hepatitis A visits the doctor for a travel consultation. The doctor injects the patient with a dose of IgG against hepatitis. The drug has been obtained from pooled serum samples from patients who have had hepatitis A. We would consider this:
a. an example of active immunity, as should the patient contact the hepatitis virus in the near future, these globulins will be active atgainst the agent b. an example of immune nmemory, for on seeing the circulating ntibody, the patient's own immune system will respond by educating its B cells' memory against hepatitus virus c. an example of passive immunity, as the patient is receiving antibody synthesized by other hosts. d. an example of cell-mediated immunity, as the patnet's cellular immune system will take over the job behuim by the donors of the IgG. |
c. an example of passive immunity, as the patient is receiving antibody synthesized by other hosts
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A plasma cell
a. is a marginated monocyte b. is a quiescent lymphocyte residing in the spleen c. produces complement for opsoniation of specific antigens d. is a B cell clone in circulation that produces specific antibody e. is another name for a dendritic cell of the reticuloendothelial system |
d. is a B cell clone in circulation that produces specific antibody
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This immunoglobulin is active in the earliest phase of humoral immunity against a pathogen
a. IgD b. IgM c. IgA d. IgE e. IgF |
b. IgM
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Tissue cells infected by a viral agent are recognized by
a. circulating macrophages b. T helper cells whose cytokines destroy the infected cell c. B helper cells, which secrete complement d. cytotoxic T cells, which recognize the viral antigens processed with class I MHC |
d. cytotoxic T cells, which recognize the viral antigens processed with class I MHC
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This is a portion of an antigen which is not immunogenic by itself, but must be bound to a larger molecule to produce an immune response
a. haplotype b. hapten c. Fc region d. Perforin e. MHC |
b. hapten
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The continuous patrolling function of immunologic cells is called
a. immune tolerance b. biological warfare c. immune surveillance d. antigenic determination e. autosomal dominance f. manifest destiny |
c. immune surveillance
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Another name for antbody mediated immunity, as opposed to cellular immunity
a. mucosal b. complementary c. demarginated d. humoral e. histocompatible |
d. humoral
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The process by which marginated immune cells enter tissues from capillaries is
a. opsonization b. vaccination c. transfection d. diapedesis e. hybridization |
d. diapedesis
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A toxin which destroys the precursors of white blood cells in the bone marrow would produce a peripheral
a. anemia b. thrombosis c. leukocytosis d. clotting factor deficiency e. leukopenia |
e. leukopenia
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Increased numbers of reticulocytes in circulation indicates a response of the marrow to
a. anemia b. thrombosis c. leukocytosis d. anxiety e. viral infection |
a. anemia
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A monoclonal antibody is
a. a memeber of MHC II which is displayed on memory cells b. a B cell gene product which recognizes one specific antigen c. a cytokine produced by a specifically activated T helper cell d. the substance of a vaccine |
b. a B cell gene product which recognizes one specific antigen
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Antibodies
a. are globulin proteins which function in humoral defence b. have Fab regions for the recognition of antigenic epitopes c. have Fc regions which bind to complement d. may opsonize large antigenic substances e. all are true f. a and b only |
e. all are true
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Somatic recombination
a. is the processing of foreign antigens and combining them with class II MHC for presentation to T cells b. is the development of a concerted attack of B, T, granulocytic and monocytic leukocytes against a specific antigen c. ocurs when complement is activated against foreign or self antigen d. refers to the ability of the naive B cell's genome to reorganize its globin genes for the purpose of making a specific antiody |
d. refers to the ability of the naive B cell's genome to reorganize its globin genes for the purpos of making a speciic antibody
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Complement is
a. a set of plasma globulins which, when activated, can form a membrane attack complex on foreign antigens b. often activated by opsonization of foreign antigens c. a protein which recognizes a specific region of antibodies bound to antigens d. one of the vitamin K dependent clotting factors e. all but d |
e. All but d
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MHC
a. is a complex of proteins which circulates freely in the plasma and allows for the development of an immune response b. is a set of cell surface glycoproteins which allow for intercellular recognition to aid in the immune response c. are blood group antigens d. is usually a foreign antigen that must be recognized on the surface of self cells |
b. is a set of cell surface glycoproteins which allow for intercellular recognition to aid in the immune response
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Inflammation
a. is infection by a foreign agent b. is the response of the organism to an injury, whereby mediators dilate capillary beds c. is maladaptive and detrimental d. delays healing |
b. is the response of the organism to an injury, whereby mediators dilate capillary beds
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Lymph nodes
a. are found in the Waldeyer ring b. are found in the cisterna chyli c. cluster in ther cervical, axillary and inguinal regions of the body d. sequested spent red blood cells |
c. cluster in the cerical, axillary and inguinal regions of the body
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Prothrombin time
a. is often expressed as the international normalized ratio (INR) b. depends on platelet activation c. is related to the availability of clotting factors d. may be impaired by vitamin K deficiency e. all of these but B |
e. all of these but B
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The extrinsic clotting pathway
a. occurs with intravascular injury b. depends on platelet activation c. does not involve Factor X d. Activates tissue thromboplastin |
d. activates tissue thromboplastin
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Rh factor
a. is a blood group antigen that is found only in Rhesus macaques b. Agglutinates Rh- blood cells c. if encountered by Rh- blood types, may elicit antibodies which will agglutinate Rh+ cells in future encounters d. must be considered problematic if not matched ina first transfusion |
c. if encountered by Rh- blood types, may elicit antibodies which will agglutinate Rh+ cells in future encounters
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Vaccination with a live attenuated virus
a. shold produce a full blown illness as it is antigenic b. provides immune memory should the same live virus be encountered later in the life of the organism c. provides non-specific, passive immunity d. none e. all |
b. provides immune memory should the same live virus be encountered later in the life of the organism
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An action potential
a. is essential for impulse propagation b. involves the influx of negative ions to depolarize the membrane c. is initiated by potassium movement d. varies according to the stimulus strength which evokes it e. none of these |
a. is essential for impulse propagation
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Membrane depolarization
a. takes place over a relatively long period of time b. requires an efflux of potassium ions c. makes the inside of the cell more positive than it is at resting potential d. requires the presence of myelin e. b, c, and d |
c. makes the inside of the cell more positive than it is at resting potential
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The glial cells involved in maintaining the blood brain barrier are
a. oligodendrocytes b. astrocytes c. arbor vitae d. substantia nigra e. amygdala |
b. astrocytes
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An ascending tract
a. is usually found in the anterior horn of the spinal cord b. must cross the midline in the spinal cord c. typically exits the spinal cord via a ventral root d. synapses on a third order neuron in the thalamus e. is always involved in a reflex arc |
d. synapses on a third order neuron in the thalamus
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Nissl substance
a. is in the nucleus of the nerve cell b. represents synaptic bouton vesicles c. in the amount viewed is a rough measure of the biosynthetic activity of the neuron d. is found exclusively in the midbrain and is for dopamine production e. forms the cerebrospinal fluid |
c. in the amount viewed is a rough measure of the biosynthetic activity of the neuron
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During the absolute refractory period
a. the membrane is completely impermeable to sodium b. it is possible to generate another action potential if the stimulus is strong enough c. intracellular proteins may leak out of the cell and hyperpolarize the membrane d. the membrane potential becomes more negative compared to resting potential e. there is no movement of ions at all |
a. the membrane is completely impermeable to sodium
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The resting electrochemical gradient is restored following an action potential by
a. the myelin sheath b. Na+/K+ ATPase pumps c. binding of specific neurotransmitter d. a series of graded potentials e. excitatory post synaptic potentials |
b. Na+/K+ ATPase pumps
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Inhibitory post synaptic potentials may result from
a. an efflux of potassium b. an influx of chloride c. an influx of proteins d. none of these e. a and b |
e. a and b
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The blood brain barrier
a. is composed partly of oligodendrocytes which myelinate capillaries in the CNS b. keeps all lipophilic substances from crossing neuronal membranes c. is not maintained in the cerebral cortex d. is composed of three layers; dura, arachnoid and pia e. none of these |
e. none of these
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Unconscious control of motor function, such as intensity and inhibition of unwanted or unnecessary movements is mediated partly by
a. the lentiform nucleus b. the thalamus c. the cerebellum d. the cerebral peduncles e. the anterior horns of the spinal cord |
a. the lentiform nucleus
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Example of a visceral motor function:
a. afferent message of carotid artery pressure b. antagonistic response to skeletal muscle stretch message c. production of saliva d. image production from retina upon occipital cortex |
c. production of saliva
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True of superior colliculus
a. is is an auditory nucleus of the diencephalon b. it contains motor tracts from precentral gyrus c. it is a ventral medullary structure d. produces reflexive head/neck movement related to visual stimulus |
d. produces reflexive head/neck movement related to visual stimulus
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The choroid plexus
a. consists of capillaries and ependymal cells b. is the chief structure of the blood brain barrier throughout the CNS c. is located in the arachnoid mater d. filters CSF directly into the dural venous sinuses |
a. consists of capillaries and ependymal cells
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The prosencephalon
a. will form the pons and medulla b. will become the cerebral hemispheres c. will give rise to the thalamus and basal nuclei d. b and c e. none |
d. b and c
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Neural crest cells will
a. differentiate into anterior horn cells and dorsal horn cells b. become ganglia - both sensory and autonommic - and adrenal medulla c. close the neural tube in week four of gestation d. form the cerebellum e. all |
b. become ganglia - both sensory and autonomic - and adrenal medulla
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All synapse in the thalamus except
a. optic tract fibers b. axons conbveying conscious proprioception c. ophthalmic branch trigeminal fibers d. axons of cell bodies in the precentral gyrus e. auditory tract fibers |
d. axons of cell bodies in the precentral gyrus
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Functions of the hypothalamus include all except
a. informing organism of hunger and satiety b. osmoregulation c. endocrine regulation d. visceral response to emotion e. awareness of posture |
e. awareness of posture
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The correct direction for the flow of cerebrospinal fluid would be
a. from lateral ventricle through interventricular foramen into third ventricle b. from cerebral aqueduct thgough third ventricle into subarachnoid space c. from choroid plexus through circulatory system into dural venous sinus d. from third ventricle into lateral aperture into choroid plexus |
a. from lateral ventricle through interventricular foramen into third ventricle
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A message carrying pain/temperature/crude touch information
a. crosses the midline in the lower medulla b. enters the spinal cord to synapse in the ventral horn c. travels int he spinothalamic tract d. has a first order neuron in the postcentral gyrus e. is entireley ipsilateral from beginning to end |
c. travels in the spinothalamic tract
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All are true of the oculomotor nerve except
a. it exits the brain at the mesencephalon b. it controls the levator palpebrae superioris c. it has visceral function d. it is directly involved in the reception of visual stimuli e. it has input from the precentral gyrus of the cerebral cortex |
d. it is directly involved in the reception of visual stimuli
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Choose the mismatched set:
a. trochlear nerve - superior oblique muscle b. trigeminalnerve - muscles of facial expression c. glossopharyngeal nerve - muscles for swallowing d. CN VIII - equilibrium e. spinal accessory - sternocleidomastoid |
d. trigeminal nerve - muscles of facial expression
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Function/s of the vagus nerve include
a. laryngeal innervation for speaking b. parasympathetic innervation of viscera of thorax and abdomen c. motor supply to muscles of mastication d. all e. a and b only |
e. a and b only
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Ventral rami
a. are mixed motor and sensory nerves b. along with the dorsal rami of multiple levels form plexi serving neck and extremities c. are pure motor nerves exiting the cord directly from the ventral horn d. only exist at thoracic cord levels e. b and c |
a. are mixed motor and sensory nerves
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Choose the mismatched pair:
a. phrenic nerve - cervical plexus b. median nerve - brachial plexus c. vagus nerve - medulla d. sciatic nerve - lumbar plexus e. CSF - choroid plexus |
d. sciatic nerve - lumbar plexus
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Choose the true statement about smooth muscle innervation:
a. enzymes quickly degrade the neurotransmitter so the effects of the nerve impulse are short-lived b. most are under the control of corticospinal tract neurons which synapse in the anterior horn of the spinal cord c. the neurotransmitter binds to specific receptors on the muscle cell and usually works by producing intracellular second messengers, which delays and prolongs the effects d. type which supplies extraocular (extrensic eye) muscles |
C. the neurotransmitter binds to specific receptors on the muscle cell and usually works by producing intracellular second messengers, which delays and prolongs the effects
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The reflex arc
a. allows a muscle which is stretched to stretch just a bit more b. for initial muscle stretch involves sensing by the Golgi tendon organ c. for initial muscle contraction causes reciprocal activation d. involves a third order neuron of the thalamus e. none of these |
c. for initial muscle contraction causes reciprocal activation
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Pyramidal tract neurons
a. cross in the corpus callosum b. form the anterior portion of the midbrain c. originate in the parietal lobe d. are involved in reflex arcs e. all of these |
b. form the anterior poortion of the midbrain
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An example of lateralization of function
a. language b. vision c. hearing d. unconscious proprioception e. all are lateralized |
a. language
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The portion of the ventricular system which passes through the mesencephalon is called
a. interventricular foramen b. cerebral aqueduct c. ventral horn d. anterior median fissue |
b. cerebral aqueduct
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Voluntary motor tract neurons are included in all the following structures except
a. cerebral peduncles b. corticospinal tract c. pyramids d. internal capsule e. dorsal columns |
e. dorsal columns
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The cerebellum
a. has ipsilateral somatotopy b. receibes input from musculoskeletal receptors c. is responsible for conscious proprioception d. a, b only e. a, b, and c |
d. a and b only
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The right optic nerve carries:
a. visual information of the right world only b. visual information of the left world as sense by the right temporal retina c. visual information of the right world received at the optic disc only d. visual information of the left retina crossing in the optic chiasm e. none of these |
b. visual information of the left world as sensed by the right temporal retina
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Lower motor neurons reside in the
a. dorsal horn of the spinal cord b. dorsal root ganglion c. grey commissure of the spinal cord d. lateral column of the spinal cord e. anterior horn of the spinal cord |
e. anterior horn of the spinal cord
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All are gray matter except
a. hypothalamus b. cingulate gyrus c. putamen d. internal capsule e. oculomotor nerve nucleus |
d. internal capsule
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This layer of embryonic cells gives rise to the central nervous system
a. ectoderm b. Nissl substance c. Glia d. ependyma e. substantia nigra |
a. ectoderm
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Choose the correct match
a. midbrain - rhombencephalon b. telencephalon - cerebellum c. myelencephalon - medulla d. diencephalon - pons |
c. myelencephalon - medulla
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Choose the correct statement about cellular anatomy of the brain:
a. oligodendrocytes may provide myelin sheaths for the axons of many neurons b. the blood brain barrier is formed by neurons which myelinate ependyma c. neurons of the choroid plexus are responsible for the manufacture of cerebrospinal fluid d. sometimes an axon can be part of an ascending pathway, and sometimes it can be descending, depending on the electrical stimulus it receives e. microglia line the cabities of the cerebrum and brainstem |
a. oligodendrocytes may provide myelin sheaths for the axons of many neurons
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A conscious motor function relies on
a. a first order neuron commencing in a dorsal root and synapsing on a second order neuron in the thalamus b. a two-neuron descending pathway beginning in the frontal lobe contralateral to its destination c. information being sent up through the spinal cord from peripheral joint receptors to the cerebellum for maintenance of balance d. first order neurons in the basal ganglia |
b. a two-neuron descending pathway beginning in the frontal lobe contralateral to its destination
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The linear growth (rostral to caudal) of the spinal canal beyond the length of the spinal cord in the fetus
a. is not normal and will result in a congenital defect b. causes the cord to end in the sacrum c. happens before the formation of the neural tube d. brings the spinal nerves down from their cord levels, creating the cauda equina |
d. brings the spinal nerves down from their cord levels, creating the cauda equina
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Smiling and frowning are brought to you by cranial nerve
a. III b. V c. VI d. VII e. IX |
d. VII
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Columns in the spinal cord
a. contain tracts projecting to and from the brain b. contain synapses of neurons for sensory modalities c. are at their most plentiful in the thoracic levels d. include ventral horn cells |
a. contain tracts projecting to and from the brain
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The spinothalamic tract
a. carries proprioceptive information b. is part of the dorsal columns c. synapses in the anterior horn d. crosses in the thalamus e. is in part a pain pathway |
e. is in part a pain pathway
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Contralateral somatic motor control of brain over body is achieved by tracts crossing in
a. the cerebral peduncles b. the lateral geniculate nucleus c. the caudal medulla d. the spinothalamic tract e. the anterior horn |
c. the caudal medulla
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An action potential traveling into the trigeminal ganglion
a. is graded depending upon the strength of the pain stimulus b. will produce contraction of the masseter muscle c. is the result of the specific neurotransmitter binding at the receptor d. will lead to a synapse in the thalamus |
d. will lead to a synapse in the thalamus
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Repolarization of a nerve cell membrane occurs
a. when membrane permeability changes to allow potassium to diffuce out of the cell b. when sodium permeability is increased compared to that in depolarization c. in response to a negative transmembrane potential d. when intracellular calcium concentration increases |
a. when membrane permeability changes to allow potassium to diffuse out of the cell
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Saltatory conduction
a. is an actual phenomenon of charges jumping from one node to another along the length of an axon b. is the jumping movement of neurotransmitter across a synaptic cleft c. is the rapid transmission of depolarizing current from node to node along the length of an axon facilitated by the presence of internodal myelin d. is the transfer of an impulse from a first to a second order neuron in a tract |
c. is the rapid transmission of depolarizing current from node to node along the length of an axon facilitated by the presence of internodal myelin
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The catecholamine is
a. histamine b. serotonin c. acetylcholine d. norepinephrine |
d. norepinephrine
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Choose the dural structure
a. leteral aperture b. tentorium cerebelli c. longitudinal fissure d. choroid plexus e. foramen of Monro |
b. tentorium cerebelli
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Not part of the auditory pathway:
a. inferior colliculus b. medial geniculate body c. chchlear nerve d. cerebral peduncles e. temporal cortex |
d. cerebral peduncles
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All are directly involved in limbic system function except
a. amygdala b. fornix c. caudate d. cingulum e. mamillary bodies |
c. caudate
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Choose the correct pair
a. pons - middle cerebellar peduncle b. vestibular nerve - organ of corti c. olfactory tract - medial geniculate nucleus d. abducens nerve - medial rectus muscle e. inferior colliculus - pyramids |
pons - middle cerebellar peduncle
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The helicotrema
a. is the apex of the lateral semicircular canal b. contains endolymph c. is near receptors for the highest frequencies d. is an organ of position sense e. is the continuation of the scala vestibuli with the scala tympani |
e. is the continuation of the scala vestibuli with the scala tympani
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Choose the uveal structure
a. optic disc b. ciliary muscle c. retina d. cornea e. median aperture |
b. ciliary muscle
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Ciliary muscle construction
a. accommodates the lens for far vision b. depends on cranial nerve VI c. depends on sympathetic nervous function d. narrows the pupil e. none of these |
e. none of these
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Cerebellar functions include
a. awareness of discriminative touch b. determination of timing and intensity of movement c. relat of unconscious proprioceptive information d. sending neurons to anterior hron cells in the spinal cord |
c. relay of unconscious proprioceptive information
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The dilator iridis
a. produces aqueous humor b. is controlled by CN V c. is activated by sympathetic discharge d. is part of the neural layer of the eye e. opens the scleral venous sinum |
c. is activated by sympathetic discharge
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The vibration of the audigory ossicles inputs to the inner ear via the
a. mastoid antrum b. oval window c. helicotrema d. semicircular canals e. macula |
b. oval window
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Structure responsible in part for sensory impulses which deal with static equilibrium
a. sprial ganglion b. organ or Corti c. crasta ampullaris d. otolith e. trigeminal ganglion |
d. otolith
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A brisk (normal) quadriceps muscle stretch reflex
a. tells us that the sciatic nerve is intact b. indicates that the contralateral motor gyrus is functioning c. gives important information about the ipsilateral lumbar spinal cord and lumbar plexus d. says a great deal about ipsilateral cerebellar function e. depends on the Golgi tendon organ |
c. gives important information about the ipsilateral lumber spinal cord and lumbar plexus
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A sound wave of a particular frequency resonates with the movement of
a. otoliths upon specific hair cells of the crista ampullaris b. the tectorial membrane above specific hair cells of the spiral organ of Corti c. endolymph over the cristae of the spiral ganglion d. perilymph through the helicotrema |
b. the tectorial membrane above specific hair cells of the spiral organ of Corti
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A woman has a goiter, or thyroid enlargement, related to iodine deficiency. The absence of iodide does not allow for the usual adequate production of thyroxine in the thyroid follicles. As a reflection of the need to increase the production ofthyroid hormone with whatever iodine is available to her, you might expect to find which factor elevated in a sample of this woman's serum?
a. FSH b. tyrosine c. cAMP d. adenosine |
d. TSH
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Steroid hormones
a. are derivitives of cholesterol b. act through cAMP second messenger systems c. are manufactured in the adrenal medulla d. include adrenocorticotropic hormone e. a and d |
a. are derivatives of cholesterol
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Cyclic AMP
a. is activated by GTP b. is the first messenger for polypeptide hormones c. is the second messenger for steroid hormones d. is cleaved by adenylate cyclase e. activates protein kinases |
e. activates protein kinases
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Hormone activity depends on
a. the presence and number of specific receptors in target tissue b. the strength of bonds between hormone and receptor c. the amount of hormone in blood stream d. all of these |
d. all of these
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A hormone's "half life" is
a. half the usual time it takes for the hormone to act in the target tissue b. the time it takes for the hormone to produce half its maximal effect c. the time it takes for a given bloodlevel of hormone to decrease by half d. the time it takes to produce a half-maximal amount of hormone in the gland of origin e. when half the hromone's target receptors are bound to hormone |
c. the time it takes for a given blood level or hormone to decrease by half
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Adequate or elevated circulating amounts of thyroid hormone have a direct negative feedback effect on which target tissue?
a. pancreatic beta cells b. pituitary thyrotropes c. zona fasciculata cells d. parafollicular cells of the thyroid e. colloid |
b. pituitary thyrotropes
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The adenohypophysis
a. stores oxytocin b. stores releasing hormones c. synthesizes steroid hormones d. is the anterior pituitary |
d. is the anterior pituitary
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Growth hormone
a. is produced in thehypothalamus b. is inhibited by somatostatin c. induces lipogenesis and glycogenesis in fat and liver d. releases amino acids from muscle tissue |
b. is inhibited by somatostatin
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Gonadotropins
a. stimulate FSH and LH production b. are inhibited by dopamine c. diffuce through cell membranes d. stimulate sex steroid synthesis and gamete maturation and production e. all of the above |
d. stimulate sex steroid synthesis and gamete maturation and production
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Insulin
a. utliizes cAMP as a second messenger b. is secreted from the pancreas by sympathetic stimulation in times of stress c. causes gluconeogenesis in the liver d. is excreted from pancreatic acinar cells into the duodenum e. promotes lipogenesis in adipose tissue |
e. promotes lipogenesis in adipost tissue
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Antidiuretic hormone
a. is manufactured i the adenohypophysis b. release is stimulated by low blood osmolarity c. in higher concentrations causes vasodilation to promote absorption of salt d. causes reabsorption of free water in the kidney |
d. causes reabsorption of free water in the kidney
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Thyroid hormone
a. is the iodinated form of the glycoprotein thyroglobulin b. productio is stimulated directly by thyrotropin releasing hormone c. is a compound made from metabolites of iodinated tyrosine residues and formed in colloid follicles of the thyroid d. always uses a second messenger system at target tissues |
c. is a compound made from metabolites of iodinated tyrosine residues and formed in volloid follicles of the thyroid
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Blood concentration of calcium
a. is increased by calcitonin b. if elevated, negatively feeds back on parathyroid glands c. depends in part on the activation of vitamin D in the intestine d. is increased by the PTH-mediated inhibition of osteoclasts e. a and c |
b. if elevated, negatively feeds back on parathyroid glands
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Aldosterone synthesis
a. is stimulated by high serum potassium levels b. occurs in the neurohypophysis c. is a polymerization of amino acids d. occurs most during states ofhigh blood pressure |
a. is stimulated by high serum potassium levels
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Cortisol
a. is manufactured in the zona fasciculata of the anterior pituitary b. is most active in the just fed or absorptive state c. causes glycogenesis in the liver d. is a hyperglycemic hormone |
d. is a hyperglycemic hormone
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ACTH
a. is made in the adrenal cortex b. output varies in a diurnal fashion c. is manufactured in the hypothalamus d. required cholesterol for its synthesis e. all but c |
b. output varies in a diurnal fashion
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Glucagon
a. is secreted into the pancreatic duct for use in metabolizing dietary carbohydrate polymers b. is most active in the fed state c. causes release of glucose from the liver d. is stimulated by vagus nerve idscharge at mealtime |
c. causes release of glucose from the liver
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Stimulates the release of insulin from the pancreas:
a. low blood glucose b. parasympathetic discharge c. fasting state d. epinephrine e. all |
b. parasympathetic discharge
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An inhibitor of phosphodiesterase would
a. inhibit hormone binding at the cell surface receptor b. destroy adenylate cyclase c. disturb electron transport d. increase activation of protein kinases |
d. increase activation of protein kinases
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All use cAMP as a second messenger except
a. epinephrine b. vasopressin c. adrenocortocotropic hormone d. parathyroid hormone e. aldosterone |
e. aldosterone
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Sequence of DNA to which is attached a receptor for a hormone such as testosterone
a. G protein b. adenylate cyclase c. hormone response element d. tyrosine kinase |
c. hormone response element
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Hormone A' is secreted by gland A and works at a target tissue T to produce an effect E. This effect E is a product which circulates to gland B which produces hormone B' in response. Hormone B' acts on tissue T at the nuclear level to increase transcription of the receptor for hormone A". This is called
a. catabolism b. antagonism c. upregulation d. second messenger system |
c. upregulation
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Hormone that is stored in hypothalamic nerve terminals
a. oxytocin b. cortisol c. FSH d. PTH e. Prolactin |
a. oxytocin
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These are counter regulatory to insulin, except
a. ADH b. epinephrine c. cortisol d. growth hormone |
a. ADH
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These have regular diurnal levels, except
a. growth hormone b. cortisol c. adrenocorticotropic hormone d. insulin |
d. insulin
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Sympathetic discharge gives us
a. secretion of sweat b. ciliary muscle constriction c. coronary blood vessel constriction d. decreased ventilation e. all these |
a. secretion of sweat
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True statement about cholinergic receptor stimulation"
a. dilates blood vessels in skin and mucous membrane to decrease blood pressure b. dilates bronchiolar smooth muscle c. decreases heart rate d. dilates pupil for better vision |
c. decreases heart rate
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Primary motor neuron cell bodies for stimuli to sweat glands are in
a. anterior horns of craniosacral segments b. lateral horns of thoracolumbar segments c. vagal nerve nuclei d. prevertebral ganglia |
b. lateral horns of thoracolumbar segments
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Acetylcholine is the transmitter for
a. preganglionic sympathetic neurons b. postganglionic parasympathetic neurons c. the neuromuscular junction d. the neuro-adrenomedullary junction e. b and c f. all |
f. all
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Primary motor neuron cell bodies for sympathetic impulses arise in the
a. anterior horns of the thoracic spinal cord b. dorsal columns of the cervicolumbar cord c. lateral horns of the thoracolumbar spinal cord d. ventral rami of lumbosacral spinal cord |
c. lateral norns of the thoracolumbar spinal cord
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The vast majority of parasympathetic activity in the human is
a. due to thoracolumbar output b. mediated by cranial nerve ten c. an energy-consuming system d.largely supportive of the blood pressure |
b. mediated by cranial nerve ten
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Adrenergic receptor stimulation produces which effect/s?
a. vasoconstriction in skin and mucous membranes b. cardiac acceleration c. visceral sphincter constriction d. sweat gland secretion e. a, b, and c f. all |
a. vasoconstriction in skin and mucous membranes
b. cardiac acceleration and c. Visceral sphincter construction |
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A parasympatholytic agent would be expected to:
a. increase the heart rate b. cause secretion of saliva c. constrict pupils d. conserve energy e. all of these |
a. increase the heart rate
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Nicotinic receptors
a. are adrenergic b. are cholinergic c. respond only to nicotine d. are found in skeletal muscle |
b. are cholinergic
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Lipolysis
a. occurs in muscle tissue b. provides pree fatty acids from triglycerides c. is mediated by insulin in the liver d. is inhibited by sympathetic discharge e. all are true |
b. provides free fatty acids from triglycerides
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Thyroid hormone
a. causes glycogenesis in the liver b. increases the production of TRH c. decreases the number of adrenergic tissue receptors d. encourages cellular respiration |
d. encourages cellular respiration
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e effect of adrenaline/adrenergic neurons upon the pancreas is
a. th stimulate secretion of glucagon b. to stimulate secretion of pancreatic enzymes c. to stimulate beta cell production of insulin d. to stimulate glyconeogenesis there |
a. to stimulate secretion of glucagon
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The parasympathetic nervous system has cell bodies in the gray matter of the
a. anterior thoracic spinal cord b. posterior cervical spinal cord c. lateral sacral spinal cord d. thoracolumbar paraspinal ganglia |
c. lateral sacral spinal cord
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Cranial nerve without parasympathetic activity
a. III b. IV c. VII d. IX e. X |
b. IV
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Parasympathetic ganglia are
a. immediately lateral to the spinal cord b. next to the dorsal root ganglia c. in or on the target organ d. immediately anterior to the vertebrae |
c. in or on the target organ
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Emptying of the rectum, autonomically, is mediated by
a. cholinergic neurons b. alpha adrenergic receptors c. nicotinic receptors d. stimulation of beta two receptors |
a. cholinergic neurons
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The pupillary light reflex allows:
a. the stimulated optic nerve to reduce its own light sensation on demand b. the pupil to dilate via cranial nerve II for near vision in bright light c. for constriction of the pupil in response to light stimulation of the optic nerve d. for production of tears in response to dilation of the pupil |
c. for constriction of the pupil in response to light stimulation of the optic nerve
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Cushing's disease is a state of hypercortisolism that may be caused by a tumor of certain cells of the adenohypophysis. Which of these findings would you expect in the serum of a person with this form of Cushing's disease?
a. decreased TSH b. increased PRL c. decreased insulin d. increased ACTH e. decreased T4 |
d. increased ACTH
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Inhibition of cholinergic receptors in the pancrease would
a. block the release of insulin b. inhibit the release of glucagon c. stimulate pancreatic glycogenolysis d. cause secretion of pancreatic digestive juices |
a. block the release of insulin
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A patient is taking a blood pressuire agent which is an alpha one agtagonist. He comes to you one day because he is ill, and you ascertain that he has taken three pills three times a day instead of one pill three times a day. Which of his signs/symptoms is not consistent with an alpha one blocker overdose?
a. loss of bladder control b. flushed, reddened skin and runny nose c. BP 80/50 d. widely dilated pupils |
d. widely dilated pupils
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Your next patient comes in complaining of a very dry mouth, a pounding heart, constipation, an inability to urinate and very dry skin. You review his medicines with him and find that he put his _________ pills in the candy dish along with his M&Ms, and he absentmindedly ate many of them last evening while watching Letterman.
a. Anticholinergic b. Sympatholytic c. Parasympathomimetic d. Beta adrenergic blocker |
a. Anticholinergic
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Describe the anatomy of a sympathetic splanchnic nerve from the spinal cord to the target viscus.
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Lateral horn
thru ventral ramus thru white ramus communicans thru ganglion (w/o synapsing) thru Splanchnic nerve Synapsing in Prevertebral ganglion To Target organ |
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A patient comes to you one morning with a recent history of weight loss and fatigue. He is quite exhausted and ill-appearing. You check his cortisol level and note that it is far below normal for this time of day. You diagnose him with adrenocortical insufficiency. Explain why, if he has not been in the sunshine in months, he has such a beautiful tan.
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something about
Pro-opiomelanocortin (POMC) |
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Explain the overall effect of parathyroid hormone by discussing its effects on three target tissues
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1. Bones – activates osteoclasts
2. Kidneys – increases calcium reabsorption 3. Gut – elevates calcium absorption from food |
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The glomerular filtration barrier:
a. keeps small ions such as potassium i the plasma b. does not retain large proteins in plasma c. has fenestrations which do not admit blood cells into filtrate d. would be expected to have many tight junctions e. none of these |
Has fenestrations which do not admit blood cells into filtrate
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The efferent arteriole
a. is a direct branch of the cortical radiate artery b. supplies the glomerulus with plasma for filtration c. supplies capillary beds about the tubular structures d. has a static caliber e. lies in the renal medulla |
C. Supplies capillary beds about the tubular structures
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A tubular structure involved in the function of the juxtaglomerular apparatus
a. proximal convoluted tubule b. loop of henle c. afferent arteriole d. mesangial cells e. distal convoluted tubule |
E. Distal convoluted tubule
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The renal corpuscle consists of all except
a. visceral epithelium b. basement membrane c. glomerular capillary endothelium macula densa cells intraglomerular mesangial cells |
D. Macula densa cells
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The proximal expansion of the upper ureter at the renal hilum is
a. the major calyx b. the urethral orifice c. the proximal convoluted tubule d. the minor calyx e. the papilla f. the pelvis |
F. The Pelvis
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Mesangial cells are most like
a. glomerular capillary endothelial cells b. basement membrane c. Bowman's podocytes d. granular cells e. smooth muscle f. sympathetic ganglia |
E. Smooth muscle
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Tubuloglomerular feedback
a. is a process whereby NaCl flow in the tubule is kept constant b. regulates filtration in the peritubular capillaries c. directly alters production of erythropoietin d. monitors sodium concentration in the efferent arteriole e. does not alter glomerular filtration, as this is constant in any physioloic condition |
Is a process whereby NaCl flow in the tubule is kept constant
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Bowman's space
a. lies between glomerular endothelial cells and the renal capsule b. lies between its podocytes and parietal epithelium c. is created by an interstitial gradient d. filters plasma into the cortical interstitium e. is only a potential space, like that in the coverings of any viscus |
B. Lies between its podocytes and parietal epithelium
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The net filtration pressure depends upon
a. medullary concentration gradient b. capillary hydrostatic pressure c. plasma oncotic pressure d. capsular oncotic pressure e. all of these f. B and C only |
F. B and C Only
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The glomerular filtration rate varies directly as
a. mean arterial pressure b. glomerular capillary permeability c. glomerular surface area d. numbers of nephrons e. all |
E. All
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Normal urinalysis results include
a. pH = 6.0 b. 10 - 20 red blood cells per ml c. 100 mg/dl glucose d. moderate amount plasma proteins e. all |
a. pH= 6.0
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The normal glomerular filtration rate
a. is 10 mm Hg b. is 120ml/min c. is usualy reflected by a normal serum creatinine d. B and C e. A and B |
D. B and C
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All the following are functions of the proximal convoluted tubule except:
a. secretion of pharmacologic and nitrogenous metabolites b. active reabsorption of sodium c. facultative reabsorption of water d. sodium/glucose symport e bicarbonate reabsorption |
C. Facultative reabsorption of water
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The osmotic gradient between filtrate leaving the proximal convoluted tubule and plasma in general is
a. nil b. 100m0sm vs 300m0sm c. 300m0sm vs 100m0sm d. 1200m0sm vs 300m0sm |
A. Nil
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Facultative water reabsorption is a function of
a. collecting duct cells acted on by vasopressin b. the ascending limb of the loop of Henle c. Bowman's capsule affected by angiotensin II d. All proximal convoluted tubular cells e. the minor calyx |
A. Collecting duct cells acted on by vasopressin
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A high sodium in the distal convoluted tubular filtrate results directly in
a. construction of the afferent arteriole b. dilation of the proximal convoluted tubule c. a reflex increase in filtration rate d. angiotensinogen activation e. aldosterone release |
A. Constriction of the afferent arteriole
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Angiotensin I's conversion to antiotensin II occurs mostly in the
a. renal medulla b. small intestine c. distal convoluted tubule d. lung e. atrium f. glomerulus |
d. lung
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The renal cortex is ________ to plasma and the medullary intertitiium about the papilla is ________ to plasma:
a. hypotonic, isotonis b. hypertonic, hypotonic c. isotonic, hypertonic d. dypotonic, hypotonic e. hypotonic, hypertonic |
C. isotonic, hypertonic
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If the blood were tending to be alkaline, the tubular effect would be
a. uric acid secretion b. hydrogen ion secretion c. bicarbonate reabsorpotion d. chloride ion reabsorption e. none |
D. Chloride ion reabsorption
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The effect of chloride ion reabsorption when the blood is tending to be alkaline is a function of:
a. collecting duct b. Bowman's space c. juxtamedullary nephron only d. distal convoluted tubule e. proximal convoluted tubule |
E. Proximal convoluted tubule
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Effect/s of angiotensin II include:
a. sodium secretion in distal convoluted tubule b. inhibition of hypothalamic ADH release c. efferent arteriolar dilation d. increased mean arterial pressure e. increased glomerular surface area f. all g. none |
D. Increased mean arterial pressure
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Does not release renin
a. decreased MAP b. low sodium at macula densa c. sympathetic discharge d. reduced afferent arteriolar stretch e. increased cardiac output |
E. Increased cardiac output
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A physiologic change that would decrease the glomerular filtration
rate is a. obstruction of the renal artery b. increased cardiac output c. sympathetic discharge d. low sodium at the macula densa |
A. Obstruction of the renal artery
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Micturition would be _____ by a parasympatholytic agent
a. stimulated b. inhibited c. unaffected |
?
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Reabsorption by cotransport of amino acids occurs in the _______, and is into the _________.
a. juxtamedullary nephron, vasa recta b. glomerulus, Bowman's capsule c. proximal convoluted tubule, peritubular capillaries d. ascennding limb of Loop of Henle, medullary interstitium e. distal convoluted tubule, collecting duct |
?
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Aldosterone causes
a. water reabsorption in the juxtamedullary thin loop of Henle b. sodium secretion in the proximal convoluted tubule c. sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule d. sodium and water wasting in the collecting duct e. renin secretion in the juxtaglomerular apparatus |
?
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An injury resulting in a lack of production of ADH probably occurred to the _______ and would result in _____________.
a. kidney, dilute serum b. adrenal, sodium wasting c. head, dilute urine d. spinal cord, high blood pressure |
?
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The countercurrent multiplier
a. is the loop of Henle of the juxtamedullary nephron b. is the vasa recta of the renal pyramid c. may wash out the medullary interstitia gradient d. is active in the majority of nehrons |
?
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The descending limb of the loop of Henle
a. reabsorbs sodium by active transport b. reabsorbs chloride and bicarbonate ion by faciliatated diffusion depending on pH c. reabsorbs water by osmosis d. reabsorbs calcium by effects of PTH e. all of these |
?
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Renin is a product of the:
a. intraglomerular mesangial cells b. cells of the afferent arteriole c. podocytes d. macula densa cells e. juxtamedullary nephron |
?
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