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65 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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136. A spinal nerve is
a composed of gray matter. B formed by the joining of ipsilateral and contralateral nerve roots. C carrying only efferent information. D connected with a sympathetic chain ganglion by a ramps communicants. |
d
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137. A plexus is
a. an interlacing network of nerves. b. the chain of sympathetic ganglia, c. the series of cerebral ventricles. d. the innervation of a muscle. |
a
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138. The spinal pathway called the spinothalamic pathway
a. carries (me touch and pressure sensations. b. carries coarse touch, temperature, and pain sensations. c. carries information from muscle receptors. d. carries information from the brain down the spinal cord. |
b
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139. Autonomic pathways
a. are monosynaptic b. are called catecholinergic because they release epinephrine (adrenalin). c. have preganglionic and postganglionic elements in the pathway. d. innervate the somatic portion of the motor system. |
c
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140. In comparing the sympathetic and parasympathetic branches, it is true that
a. the just synapse is close to the spinal cord in the parasympathetic system. b. the transmitter released by preganglionic cells in both divisions is acetylcholine. c. the transmitter released by sympathetic postganglionic cells is acetylcholine. d, both branches can be referred to as adrenergic. |
b
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141. A sensory modality refers to
a. how intense the stimulus is. b. what kind of stimulus the receptors are most sensitive to. c. where on the body the stimulus comes from (somatotopic location). d. how long the stimulus lasts. |
b
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142. Sensory adaptation
a. is the result of detrimental flow. b. results from transduction. c. is a decrease in responsiveness with repeated stimulation. d. is a decrease in the size of the action potentials. |
c
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143. Innervation of
a. the stretch receptors is by (wierd symbol, looks like a 6) motor neurons. b. the regular contractile fibers in a muscle is by (wierd symbol, looks like a 6) motor neurons. c. the Golgi tendon organs is by (symbol looks like an "a") motor neurons. d. the baroreceptors is by (symbol looks like an "a") motor neurons. |
a
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144. Light moves through the eye in which sequence?
a. Cornea, sclera, iris, pupil, vitreous humor b. Cornea, vitreous humor, aqueous humor c. Cornea, pupil, choroid, sclera d. Cornea, aqueous humor, pupil, lens, vitreous humor |
d
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145. Accommodation is accomplished primarily by
a the fovea. B the choroid plexus. C shape changes of the lens. D changes in the diameter of the pupil. |
c
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146. The photoreceptor type that is responsible for color vision is the
a.Cone. B ganglion cell. C rod. D rhodopsin. |
a
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147. The area of the retina that is specialized for the most detailed vision
a. has a high concentration of rods. B is a circular region called the macula lutes. C is where the optic nerve exits the retina (optic disc). D is called the optic chiasm. |
b
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148. Corresponding points are
a. points where the central artery and vein enter the optic disc. b. brain regions where the visual information ends up. c. present in the visual system of newborns. d. points where the same information from the visual world falls on both retinas. |
d
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149. The two sensory systems in which we find receptors called hair cells are the
a. visual and auditory systems. b. visual and olfactory systems. c. auditory and vestibular systems. d. auditory and olfactory systems. |
c
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150. In the middle ear, we find the
a. external auditory canal. b. region between the tympanic membrane and the round and oval windows. c. saccule and the utricle. d. basilar membrane and the tectorial membrane. |
b
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151 The organ of Corti
a. is the entrance to the semicircular canal. b. consists of an ampulla and a cupula. c. is the basis of antigravity reflexes. d. is where different sound frequencies are sorted out. |
b
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152. We localize sound by its
a. frequency. b. time of arrival and intensity. c. pitch. d. monotone. |
b
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153. Which cranial nerves carry all the taste information?
a. Facial and vagal b. Facial, glossopharyngeal, and oculomotor c. Facial, glossopharyngeal, and vagal d. Facial and glossopharangeal |
d
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154. The olfactory receptors
a. are modified epithelial cells. b. are sensitive to a single odor or modality. c. are neurons that project through the cubiform plate. d. project without synapsing all the way to the rhinencephalon. |
c
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155. An example of a hormone that is a tyrosine derivative is
a. insulin. b. estrogen. c. oxytocin. d. triiodothyronine |
d
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156. A difference between the targets of a particular hormone and other cells in the body is that
a. the target cells have receptors for the hormone. b. the hormone only travels to the target cells. c. the target cells are the only ones that have the appropriate second messenger. d. only the target cells have the genes to allow them to respond. |
a
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157. Protein and peptide hormones typically act on their targets by
a. binding to cell-surface receptors that activate intercellular second messenger systems. B forming a messenger-receptor complex that enters the cell and ants on specific intercellular enzymes. C entering the nucleus and binding to a nuclear receptor that affects gene expression. D dissolving in the plasma membrane and interacting with cytoplasmic receptors. |
a
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158. The hormone oxytocin is
a associated with kidney function. B released from the adenohypophysis. C a steroid involved in reproduction. D released during breast-feeding. |
d
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159. Hormone secretion
a. can control the function of a gland, which is a tropic function. b. is normally regulated by positive feedback. c. is unregulated. d. always comes from identifiable glands. |
a
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160. The adrenal gland
a. secretes acetylcholine. b. has a cortex that secretes catecholnmines. c. is the source of the stress hormone cortical. d. is where resin comes from. |
c
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161, Kidney function is regulated by
a. dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA). b. secretion of renin in response to decrease in Na concentration in the blood. c. secretion of renin in response to aldosterone increases. d. angiotensin secreted by the heart. |
b
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162. The thyroid
a. secretes hormones that regulate metabolic function. b. is one of the glands that regulates the kidney, c. secretes parathormone. d. secretes the stress hormone cortical. |
a
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163. The gonadotropins are
a. LH and FSH. b. secreted by the gonads. c. steroids. d.not subject to feedback regulation. |
a
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164. The calcium content of the bones
a. will increase with vitamin D deficiency. b. will decrease if the parathromone level is reduced. c. can rise if hypocalcemia develops. d. can be promoted if calcitonin is elevated. |
d
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165. The hormone secretion of the pancreas is as follows:
a. insulin from beta cells, glucagon from delta cells, and somatostatin from alpha cells. B insulin from alpha cells, glucagon from beta cells, and somatostatin from delta cells. C insulin from beta cells, glucagon from alpha cells, and somatostatin from delta cells. D insulin and glucagon from alpha cells and somatostatin from beta cells. |
c
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166. Diabetes mellitus
a. is a disease in which somatostatin is deficient. b. is an important cause of obesity for people consuming a typical American diet. c. interferes with the absorption of food from the intestine. d. results in elevation of blood glucose. |
d
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167. Hormones associated with the GI tract include
a. resin. b. motiles. c. melatonin. d. relaxin. |
b
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168. Hemostasis involves
a. inflammation. b. clotting that protects against loss of blood. c. delivery of iron to the tissues. d. the oxygen-binding function of blood. blood sample. |
b
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169. The hematocrit
a tells how many white blood cells are in the blood. B is the percentage of the centrifuged blood occupied by the buffer coat. C reflects how good an immune response the body can make. D is the percentage of the total volume occupied by red blood cells in a centrifuged |
d
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170. The major intercellular protein in red blood cells is
a immunoglobulin. B platelet factor. C hemoglobin. D erythropoietin. (Yes, correct spelling) |
c
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171. The granulocyte that releases significant quantities of histamine is called a
a. neutrophil. b. basophil. c. eosinophil. d. polymomhonuclear leukocyte. |
b
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172. Agents of the specific immune system include
a. granulocytes. b. agranular lymphocytes. c. red blood cells. d. platelets. |
b
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173. The chief site of blood cell production in adults is
a. the spleen. b. the liver. c. the marrow of flat bones. d. the kidney. |
c
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174. The stem cell for all blood cell types is
a. megakaryocyte. b. hemocytoblast. c. erythroblast. d. osteoblast. |
b
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175. The rate of formation of red blood cells is
a. controlled by the hormone somatostatin, b. influenced by the insulin level in the blood. c. blocked by vitamin B12 in response to too many red blood cells. d. regulated by erythropoietin. |
d
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176. Diseases that involve a defect in hemoglobin's molecular structure include
a. beta thalassemia. b. atlantic anemia. c. iron-deficiency anemia. d. pernicious anemia. |
a
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177. The most abundant cation in blood is
a. potassium. b. chloride. c. calcium. d. sodium. |
d
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178. The chemical law of macroscopic elecroneutrality demands that
a. nonionic solutes equal the ionic solutes. b. the total concentration of cation equal the total concentration of anion. c. all the monovalent cations equal half the number of all the divalent cations. d. the charges on the proteins balance out all the charges on the sugars. |
b
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179, The PH of arterial blood plasma is normally in the range of
a. 4.35-5.35. b. 6.0-7.0. c. 7.35-7.45. d. 10-11. |
c
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180. A plasma protein that is specifically involved in the formation of blood clots is
a. platelet. B gamma globulin. C fibrinogen. D albumin. |
c
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181. Blood serum is
a the antibodies that can be removed from the blood. B the cellular content of the blood. C another name for blood plasma. D the plasma from which the clotting factors have been removed. |
d
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182. Rejection of transplanted or transfused cell types is
a. a nonspecific immune System response b. based upon production of antibodies against antigens on the introduced cells' surfaces. c. caused by too many antigens released into the person's blood. d. a problem for blood but not other cells that might be used for transplants. |
b
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183. Agglutination
a. is another word for clumping. b. means that antigens are being produced. c. means that the type O blood has been transfused. d. leads to tissue compatibility. |
a
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184. Erythroblastosis fetalis can result when
a. a woman is Rh+ and her baby is Rh- b. antiRh antigens cross the placenta. c. antiRh antibodies cross the placenta. d. Rhogam crosses the placenta. |
c
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185. Blood clotting
a. begins with the formation of a platelet plug. b. depends on fibrinolysis. c. involves the white blood cells called leukocytes. d. proceeds when plasminogen is activated. |
a
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186. Clotting factors
a. are released from red blood cells. b. are proteins present in the plasma. c. are activated by a lack of oxygen. d. catalyze a series of reactions that begins with the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin. |
b
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187. An embolism
a. occurs when clotting is interfered with by drugs. b. involves blockage of a blood vessel by a blood clot. c. results from the bursting of a blood vessel. d. is a bruise. |
b
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188. Which of the following is an anticipating agent?
a. Vitamin K b. Hemophilia c. Aplastic anemia d. Heparin |
b
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189. The cardiac muscle is located
a. in the endocardium. b. in the myocardium. c. between the serous and the fibrous pericardium. d. in the epicardium. |
b
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190. Blood filling the right atrium comes through
a. the superior and inferior venal cavae and the coronary sinus. b. the right and left branches of the pulmonary trunk. c. the atrioventricular valves. d. the tricuspid valves. |
a
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191. Blood flows
a from lungs to the right side of the heart. B from right atrium to left atrium. C from right ventricle to left ventricle. D from the systemic loop to the right side of the heart. |
d
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192. The malfunctions of cardiac muscle cells
a. are spontaneously active. B are connected to the sarcomeres. C are present only in the ventricular cells. D allow excitation to spread between the cells. |
d
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193. The long plateau of the cardiac action potential is due to
a the opening of L type Ca channels. B the delay in closing of the Na channels. C the rapid opening of K+ channels. D the absence of voltage-sensitive Na channels. |
a
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194. Conducting fibers of the ventricular mass are called
a. the SA node. b. the AV node. c. the Purkinje fibers. d. contractile fibers of the myocardium. |
c
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195. The heartbeat is the result of
a. a tetanic burst of action potentials. b. a single muscular action potential. c. activation of more or less of the cardiac fibers, depending on how hard the heart is working. d. a nerve impulse that drives the heart. |
b
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196. The period when the heart is relaxed is called
a. systole. b. diastole. c. stroke. d. synchrony. |
b
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197. Backflow from the ventricles into the atria when the ventricles contract is prevented by
a. the AV valve closure. b. the closure of the pulmonary and aortic valves. c. the diastolic relaxation. d. the ventricular relaxation. |
a
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198. When the heart is in an isovolumetric contraction,
a. atrial systole is occurring. b. ventricular systole is occurring, but no blood is leaving the ventricles. c. a stroke volume is being ejected. d. the arterial pressure is raised from the systolic to the diastolic pressure. |
b
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199. The difference in the arterial pressure between systole and diastole
a. is greater than the pressure difference seen in the ventricles. b. ranges from 10 mm Hg to 120 mm Hg. c. causes the blood to be sucked from the ventricles into the arteries. d. is in the range of 50 mm Hg in healthy resting adults. |
d
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200. The side of the heart that pumps blood to the lungs
a. is the left side. b. generates as much force as the side that pumps to the body. c. doesn't have to work as hard because it doesn't pump as much blood. d. is less massive because it serves a relatively low-pressure/low-resistance pathway. |
d
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