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71 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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65. The diploid number of chromosomes
a. is the number found in gametes. b. is forty-six in humans. c. is the number that results from meiosis. d. is twenty-two somatic chromosomes and one sex chromosome. |
b
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66. Bone is a tissue that
a.is constantly being remodeled by osteoblasts that absorb bone and osteoclasts that deposit bone. b. is composed of living cells surrounded by compact or cancellous (spongy) mineral deposits. c. cannot be changed ager adulthood is reached. d. has no blood supply. |
b
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67. A long bones such as a leg bone,
a. is characterized by possession of a cylindrical shaft, called the metathesis. b. has ends called the diathesis. c. grows during development in the region called an epiphyseal plate. d. is covered by a thick sheet of cancellous bone. |
c
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68. Bone growth is affected by
a. vitamin A, which can be produced by the body if the skin is exposed to the ' ra s sun s y . b. growth factors called somatomedins that are produced in response to growth hormone. c sex hormones that are secreted by the parathyroid glands. d the hormone calcitonin, which stimulates removal of Can from bone. |
b
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69. Bones that continue to grow throughout adulthood include
a. the long bones of the legs. b. the vertebrae. c. the bones of the middle ear. d. flat bones of the face. |
d
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70. What statement about hormonal control of bone growth is correct?
a. Excess of growth hormone during childhood results in acromegaly. b. Lack of parathormone results in rickets. c. A defect in growth hormone secretion results in one form of dwarfism. d. Hyperpituitary dwarfism is the result of excess growth hormone. |
c
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71. Osteoporosis
a. is caused by too much estrogen. b. is decalcification and weakening of bone. c. results in the difference between the male and female skeletons. d. is caused by too much calcitonin. |
b
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72. Externally, bones are described by features that relate to their shape and function.
Which statement is correct? a. Articular surfaces are sites where there is an opening or depression. b. Nerves and blood vessels pass through openings called fossa. c. A head is the proximal, expanded end of a long bone. d. A meads is a rounded articular surface that forms part of a sliding joint |
c
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73. As a child matures, the sutures of the cranial bones become more and more
a. synarthrotic b. tibiofibular. c. amphiarthrotic. d. diarthrotic. |
a
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74. Circumduction is a term that describes what sort of movement?
a. Movement away or towards the midline of the body b. Turning a bone around its own long axis c. A movement at a synovial joint in which the distal end of the bone describes a circle but the shaft does not rotate. d. Rotation so that the surface faces upward or downward |
c
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75. Supination is
a. a bone that partly encloses the pituitary gland is rotation of the arm so that the palm faces posteriorly. b. collapse of the arch of the foot. c. walking on the outside of the foot. d. rotation of the arm so that the palm faces anteriorly. |
d
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76. A bone that partly encloses the pituitary gland is
a. the cribiform plate. b. the supraorbital foramen. c. the sella turcica. d. the mastoid process. |
c
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77. The soft spots of a baby's head are called
a. the bregma and the lambda. b. the coronal and the lambdoidal c. the occipitomastoid and the squamosal. d. the anterior fontanel and the posterior fontanel. |
d
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78. The intervertebral discs
a. disappear after puberty. b. are where the spinal nerves project. c. are in contact with the vertebrae's centrum. d. form a roof over the vertebral foramen. |
c
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79. The vertebrae
a. are divided into six regions. b. are fused in the sacrum. receive the most stress in c. the cervical region. d. in the lumbar region are where the ribs are attached. |
b
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80. The true ribs
a.are nine in number. b. are connected by the sternum by costal cartilages. c. are floating. d. are also called vertebrochondral ribs. |
b
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81. The body or centrum of the vertebrae
a. is heart shaped in the lumbar region. b. is larger side-to-side in the lumbar region. c. is kidney shaped in the lumbar region. d. is disc shaped in the lumbar region. |
c
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82. Comparing the pelvic girdle with the pectoral girdle, which statement is true?
a. The pectoral girdle is located in the lower appendicular skeleton. b. The pelvic girdle includes the clavicle and the scapula. c. The ilium, ischium, and pubis are fused bones in the pelvic girdle. d. The pectoral bones form a complete girdle, whereas the pelvic bones form a partial girdle. |
c
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83. The origin of the biceps muscle is
a. the coracoid process. b. the ulnar notch. c. the tibial tuberosity. d. the radial tuberosity. |
a
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84. The head of the humerus articulates with a. the radius and the ulna.
b. the glenoid cavity of the scapula. c. the trochlea and the capimlum. d. medial and lateral epicondyles. |
b
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85. The "leg" is properly defined as
a. the lower appendage from the pelvic girdle to the ankle. b. the thigh through the lower limb to the toes. c. the part of the lower limb from the knee to the ankle. d. the lower limb from the thigh to the ankle. |
c
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86. The tarsals a. are bones found in the hands.
b. are responsible for the medial bulge of the ankle. c. are numbered one through five medially to laterally. d. include the talus, calcaneus, cuboid, navicular, and three cuneiform bones. |
d
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87. The muscle type that is characterized by small cells and no striations is
a. skeletal. b. smooth. c. cardiac. d. myoblast. |
b
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88. Muscle cells or fibers are each wrapped in connective tissue called the
a. endomysium. b. perimysium. c. epimysium. d. aponeurosis. |
a
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89. The more movable attachment of a muscle is called its
a. origin. b. insertion. c. tendon. d. ligament. |
b
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90. Bundles of muscle cells called fascicles
a. are covered by a perimysium. b. form a strap or spindle if they run parallel within a muscle. c. can converge on a tendon in circular muscles. d. all attach on one side of a tendon in bipennate muscles. |
b
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91. 'The classes of lever action typically exhibited by muscles and bones include
a. first class, in which moving the effort arm in one direction moves the load in the same direction. b. second class, in which the fulcrum is between the effort and the load. c. third class, in which load is moved rapidly but with a mechanical disadvantage. d. fourth class, in which the fulcrum is located at the same point as the load. |
c
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92. The neurotransmitter that is released at the neuromuscular junction is
a. epinephrine. b. histamine. c. glucagon. d. acetylcholine. |
d
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93. The types of muscle that have sarcomeres are
a. skeletal, smooth, and cardiac. b. only the constricted muscle types, c. skeletal and cardiac muscle. d. only skeletal muscle. |
c
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94. When a motor neuron is excited,
a. it can activate only one muscle cell. b. it can activate motor units in more than one muscle. c. the force that is generated is the result of how much acetylcholine is released. d. all the muscle fibers served by that motor neuron are activated. |
d
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95. The difference between isotonic and isometric contractions is that
a. in an isometric contraction, the muscle is not allowed to shorten. b. in an isotonic contraction, the weight was too heavy to lift. c. in an isometric contraction, the muscle does not develop any tension. d. in an isotonic contraction, no action potential spreads along the muscle. |
a
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96. n/a
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c
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97. In muscle contraction,
a. crossbridges form between myosin heads and actin binding sites. b. the power stroke results from synthesis of ATP. c. the Z discs of the sarcomere move away from one another. d. Ca++ is bound to myosin, releasing its energy. |
a
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98. In excitation contraction coupling,
a. the action potential moves from the sarcoplasmic reticulum to the transverse tubules. b. Ca++ is entering the muscle cell across the terminal cisternae. c. Ca'++ is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum in response to the action potential. d. Ca release channels in the membrane are closed to keep Ca levels high. |
c
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99. The voltage sensors of the T-tubular endfeet
a. are protein channels through which the Na enters. b.regulate the Ca release channels. c. connect directly to the sarcomeres. d. regulate the interaction between troponin and tropomyosin. |
b
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100. Crossbridge cycling continues
a. as long as the action potential lasts. b. as long as the Ca release channels remain closed. c. as long as an excitation off signal is not received. d. long as Ca is present. |
d
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101. Repetitive stimulation of muscle can produce a smooth rise in tension or contraction
a. that is called a tetanus. b. that cannot result in greater force. c. that results in decreases in the contractile strength. d. that is never seen in normal body movements. |
a
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102. For the first few seconds of muscle contraction,
a. a ready reserve of energy is available in the form of creative phosphate. b. ADP fuels the contraction. c. no energy is required because the Ca release drives contraction. d. the demands for ATP exceed the supply. |
a
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103. A muscle that is specialized to
a. maintain posture is primarily composed of Type II (fast-twitch) fibers. b. generate rapid, strong forces is primarily composed of Type II (fast-twitch) fibers. c. generate large forces and also resist fatigue would be primarily Type I (slow twitch) fibers. d. contract slowly would be mostly composed of Type IIB fibers. |
b
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104. The oxygen demand of exercising muscle
a. is due to the fact that oxygen is bound by the Ca that enters during contraction. b. is due to the fact that energy for muscle contraction results from metabolic pathways that require oxygen. c. is due to the fact that oxygen binds lactic acid so that it can be eliminated safely. d. is related to the reaction of oxygen with actin and myosin. |
b
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105. The upper limit to performance in sustained exercise is believed to be set by the maximum rate at which
a. muscles can hydrolyze ATP. b. muscles can metabolize glucose to lactic acid. c. the cardiovascular system can deliver 02 and glucose to exercising muscles. d. the lungs can be ventilated. |
c
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106. The functional category of neurons that is responsible for neural integration is
a. the sensory neurons. b. the motor neurons. c. the interneurons d. the glim. |
c
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107. The cells of the nervous system that are not neurons are
a. the visceral cells. b. the autonomic cells. c. the glia d. the effectors. |
c
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108. The system that provides information about the state of the internal organs is
a. the special senses. b. the visceral motor system. c. the visceral sensory system. d. the autonomic motor system. |
c
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109. The region of a neuron where inputs from other neurons occur is called
a. the dendrites. b. the interaction. c. the axon hillock. d. the axon. |
a
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110. Long-distance communication is relayed by what part of the neuron?
a. The axon terminals b. The dendrites c. The cell body, or soma d. The axon |
d
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111. An effector is
a. any target of a neuron that is not another neuron. b. a sensory relay. c. another name for a synaptic cleft. d. anything that can contract. |
a
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112. A synapse is
a. a point of close contact between axon terminals and target cells. b. the place where the axon hillock joins the axon. c. a point where muscle cells come very close and electricity spreads. d. the vesicle in which neurotransmitter is stored until it is released. |
a
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113. The inside of the cell has
a. a high internal concentration of K+. b. a high concentration of both K and Na . c. more Na than K . d. almost no Na and K due to the Na /K. pump. |
a
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114. The membrane potential
a. can become more inside-negative, which is called depolarization. b. can become less polarized, which is called hyperpolarization. c. can not change from the resting level of around -70 to -80 mV. d. can become less inside-negative, which is called depolarization. |
d
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115. Excitable cells that can generate action potentials
a. include muscle cells and neurons. b. are able to stay excited (depolarized) for long periods. c. are always generating an afterhypepolarization called the spike. d. differ from unexcitable cells by having an inside-positive resting potential. |
a
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116. The sequence of events in an action potential is
a. depolarization, membrane potential exceeds threshold, Na'' inactivation, repolarization. b. depolarization, threshold exceeded, spike, and after hypepolarization. c. depolarization, spike, relative refractory period, and absolute refractory period. d. depolarization, threshold, K* channels open, and refractory period. |
b
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117. Where in a neuron does the action potential normally get initiated?
a. In the dendrites b. In the polarized region c. At the axon hillock d. In the cell body (soma) |
c
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118. A refractory period
a. is another name for the threshold. b. is a period of recovery of resting membrane properties after the spike, c. is a period of low threshold. d. is when the cell is starting to depolarize. |
b
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119. An advantage of machination is that a. the sheath is interrupted at intervals called
a. nodes of Ranvier. b. the action potentials are conducted by the glia. c. action potentials can be conducted more rapidly by saltatory conduction, d. the spike is conducted detrimentally in unmyelinated axons. |
c
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120. A nerve
a. is another name for an axon or nerve fiber. b. is enclosed in a sheath of epineurium. c. typically has only efferent or only afferent axons. d. has blood vessels called fascicles. |
b
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121. In chemical synapses,
a. the signal travels from the postsynaptic cell to the presynaptic cell. b. a neurotransmitter chemical is released from the prismatic cell. c. the membranes of the two cells fuse at the synaptic cleft. d. the presynaptic cell always excites (depolarizes) the postsynaptic cell. |
b
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122. The role of Ca in chemical synaptic transmission is
a. to remove neurotransmitter from the synaptic cleft. b. to bind to the neurotransmitter molecules. c. to depolarize the postsynaptic cell. d. to cause some synaptic vesicles to fuse with the presynaptic membrane. |
d
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123. When the neurotransmitter binds to postsynaptic membrane receptors,
a. the depolarization causes Ca to enter, b. a synaptic vesicle opens in the postsynaptic cell. c. it causes a depolarizing or hyperpolarizing permeability change. d. an action potential is generated. |
c
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124. A reflex
A that is monosynaptic has only one interneuron. B that is the quickest is the stretch reflex. C that is monosynaptic is the withdrawal reflex. D that results in extension of the contralateral appendage is the stretch reflex. |
b
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125. At the two ends of a reflex arc we have
a an integrating center and an interneuron. B a Sensory receptor and a motor neuron. C a Sensory receptor and an effector. D a Sensory receptor, an integrating center, and a motor neuron. |
c
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126. The withdrawal reflex
a involves extension of the injured appendage. B has a contralateral component that withdraws the limb from the stimulus. C arts to flex the ipsilateral appendage and extend the contralateral appendage. D is a monosynaptic reflex, which increases the speed of the response. |
c
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127. The cerebral hemispheres and basal nuclei arise from
a the myclencephalon. B the telencephalon. C the diencephalon. D the metencephalon. |
b
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128. In the CNS, the gray matter
a. is in the medulla. b. is the neuron cell bodies. c. is the inner core of the nervous system. d. is the axons that form tracts. |
b
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129. The ventricles of the brain
a. are filled with lymph. b. are filled with blood. c. are full of eyelid. d. are filled with cerebrospinal fluid. |
d
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130. The correct order of the meninges, listed from superficial to deep, is
a. the dura mater, the choroid plexus, and the arachnoid villi. b. the dura mater, the pia mater, and the arachnoid mater. c. the dura mater, the arachnoid, and the pia mater. d. the dura mater, choroid plexus, and arachnoid mater. |
c
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131. Each cerebral hemisphere
a. is divided into five major lobes. b. has a transverse sulcus that separates the right and left halves. c. has a temporal lobe, where the primary motor and sensory areas are located. d. has occipital lobes, where olfactory information is processed. |
a
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132. A somatotopic map
a. refers to the devastation in the corpus callosum. b. is a representation of information in the brain that roughly corresponds to the body surface. c. allows association of information with experience. d. is only seen in motor areas such as the cerebellum. |
b
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133. In the diencephalon, we find
a. the basal ganglia. b. the corpus striatum. c. the pineal gland. d. the amygdaloid nuclei. |
c
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134. The hypothalamus
a is located in the brain stem. B is where temperature is regulated. C connects the cerebrum with the spinal cord. D connects with the medulla oblongata to regulate endocrine function. |
b
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135. The only cranial nerve that is purely a special sensory nerve is
a. the accessory. B the vagus. C the facial. D the olfactory. |
d
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