Reading...
Play button
Play button
Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
244 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
A hapten has:
a.Immunogenicity b.Reactivity c.Both d.Neither |
b. Reactivity
|
|
|
A prion is a very large / small pathogen
|
Small
|
|
|
The capsid of a virus is formed from:
a.Protein b.Carbohydrate c.Lipid |
a. Protein
|
|
|
Which of the following is not a mechanism for viruses to enter cells:
a Receptor mediated exocytosis b.Phagocytosis c.Pinocytosis |
a. receptor mediated exocytosis
|
|
|
Type II interferon is also called:
a.Alpha interferon b.Beta interferon c.Gamma interferon |
c. gamma interferon
|
|
|
T/F Bacteria have their DNA located within a nucleus
|
False
|
|
|
Most bacteria need/ do not need oxygen for metabolism to occur
|
Do not need
|
|
|
Which of the following is involved in the non-specific defence mechanisms:
a.Inflammation b.B cells c.Cell mediated immune response |
a) inflammation
|
|
|
Inflammation consists of:
a.Vascular responses only b.Cellular responses only c.Both vascular and cellular responses d.Neither vascular nor cellular responses |
c) both vascular and cellualr responces
|
|
|
White blood cells adhere to the cells of the endothelium / endometrium
|
endothelium
|
|
|
Which of the following is involved in the production of eicosanoids:
a.Phospholipase A1 b.Phospholipase A2 c.Phospholipase C d.Phospholipase D |
b) Phospholipase A2
|
|
|
Cyclo-oxygenase 1 / Cyclo-oxygenase 2 is always present in the tissues
|
Cyclo-oxygenase 1
|
|
|
Prostacyclin is the name of:
a.PGG2 b.PGH2 c.PGI2 d.PGD2 e.PGE2 |
c) PHI 2
|
|
|
Lipoxygenase produces thromboxanes / leukotrines
|
Leukotrines
|
|
|
PAF inhibits / stimulates the actions of platelets
|
Stimulates
|
|
|
T/F Histamine is not secreted by mast cells
|
False
|
|
|
Which of the following directly causes fever:
a.Interleukin 1 b.Interleukin 3 c.Interleukin 7 d.Interleukin 5 e.Interleukin 9 |
a) interleukin 1
|
|
|
Bradykinin is derived from
a.Hageman factor b.Kininogen c.Kallikrein |
b) Kininogen
|
|
|
MHC I/ MHC II complexes are found on cells that are infected with a virus
|
MHC I
|
|
|
Which of the following ingests antigens by receptor mediated endocytosis
a.Macrophages b.Dendric cells c.B cells |
c) B cells
|
|
|
T lymphocytes pass from the:
a.Medulla of the thymus to the cortex b.Cortex of the thymus to the medulla c.Neither of the above |
b) cortex of the thymys to the medulla
|
|
|
Which of the following is not a type of protein that forms a TCR
a.Alpha b.Beta c.Gamma d.Delta e.Epsilon |
e) epsilon
|
|
|
24.Immature thymocytes that enter the thymus are:
a.CD3+ / CD4+ / CD8+ b.CD3+ / CD4- / CD8+ c.CD3+ / CD4+ / CD8- d.CD3- / CD4- / CD8- |
c) CD3+ / CD4+/ CD8-
|
|
|
Hassal’s corpuscles are formed from:
a.Dendritic cells b.Epithelial cells c.Macrophages |
b) epithelial cells
|
|
|
Positive / negative selection occurs first
|
Positive
|
|
|
Co-stimulation / co-inhibition is provided by interleukin II
|
Co-stimulation
|
|
|
Define a naïve helper T cell
|
Undifferentiated helper T cells that can become either a Th1 or Th2 cell
|
|
|
Which of the following stimulates antibody mediated immunity
a.Th0 b.Th1 c.Th2 |
c) Th2
|
|
|
If a macrophage presents an antigen to a Th0, then the result would be the formulation of:
a.Th1 b.Th2 c.Th3 |
a)Th1
|
|
|
The formation of Th1 helper T cells inhibits/ facilitates the formation of Th2 helper T cells
|
inhibits
|
|
|
The surface antigen B7 on an antigen presenting cell binds with
a.CD3 b.CD 4 c.CD8 d.CD 28 |
d) CD 28
|
|
|
Memory T4 lymphocytes
a.Remain in the location in which the original T4 lymphocytes was stimulated b.Migrate through the body to allow pretection in sites that were not infected c.Both a) and b) d.Neither a) nor b) |
a) remain in the location in which the original T4 lymphocyte was stimulated
|
|
|
Tc1 / Tc2 lymphocytes produce gamma interferon (INF-y)
|
Tc1
|
|
|
If a cell displays viral antigens on MHC I complexes, then it:
a.Is infected by that virus b.Is protected from being infected by that virus c.Is able to destroy that virus |
a) is infected by that virus
|
|
|
T/F Co-stimulation is required for the activity of T8 lymphocytes
|
True
|
|
|
Which of the following is able to form holes in the cell membrane of the target cell:
a.Lymphotoxin b.Interleukin II c.Perforin d.Granzymes e.CD 8 |
c) perforin
|
|
|
The B cells / plasma cells directly produce antibodies
|
Plasma cells
|
|
|
B cells mature within the:
a.Brain b.Blood c.Bone marrow d.Bile ducts |
c) bone marrow
|
|
|
MALT is associated with the
a.Mucosal membranes b.Mediastinum c.Muscle tissue |
a) mucosal membranes
|
|
|
T/F B cells can act as an antigen presenting cell
|
True
|
|
|
Following B cell clonal expansion, the daughter cells are different / identical to the parent cell
|
identical
|
|
|
Plasma cells have an increased / decreased rate of transcription and translation
|
increased
|
|
|
The function of memory B cells is to:
a.Produce antibodies in the event of re-invasion of a specific antigen b.Produce antigens to stimulate the secondary immune response c.Produce plasma cells in the event of re-invasion of a specific antigen d.Stimulate APC’s in the event of re-invasion of a specific antigen |
c) produce plasma cells in the event of re-invasion of a specific antigen
|
|
|
The type of antibody that is most elevated in the secondary response is IgM / igG
|
IgG
|
|
|
Which of the following is not a region involved in antibody formation:
a.Versatile region b.Joining region c.Diversity region d.None of the above |
a) versatile region
|
|
|
There are two / five types of heavy chains that are possible in the structure of antibodies
|
two
|
|
|
Which of the types of antibodies is the most common in blood
a.IgA b.IgD c.IgE d.IgG e.IgM |
a) IgA
|
|
|
The secretory form of IgA is a momoner / dimer
|
monomer
|
|
|
T/F The B cell reseptor is formed from IgM
|
True
|
|
|
Mast cells contain:
a.Fab receptors for IgE b.Fc receptors for IgE c.Both fab and Fc receptors for IgE d.Neither Fab nor Fc receptors for IgE |
.
|
|
|
Which of the following recognises antigens:
a.The Fab portion only b.The Fc portion only c.Both the Fab portion and the Fc portion d.Neither the Fab nor the Fc portion |
.
|
|
|
Precipitation is most efficiently performed by IgM / IgE
|
IgM
|
|
|
Define an opsonin
|
A substance that increases the rate of phagocytosis of a target
|
|
|
The transfer of immunity across the placenta occurs due to which type of antibody:
a. IgA b.IgD c.IgE d.IgG e.IgM |
d) IgG
|
|
|
The secretory IgA molecules enter epithelial cells via
a.Phagocytosis b.Pinocytosis c.Exocytosis d.Receptor mediated endocytosis |
d) receptor mediated endocytosis
|
|
|
Which of the following is correct regarding NK cells:
a.The express a TCR b.They express a BCR c.They express both a TCR and a BCR d.They do not express a TCR nor a BCR |
d) they do not express a TCR nor a BCR
|
|
|
NK cells secrete perforin / antibodies
|
perforin
|
|
|
Which of the following is associated with binding to IgE antibodes:
a.Mast cells b.Basophils c.Eosinophils d.All of the above e.None of the above |
a) Mast cells
|
|
|
The classical / alternative pathway of the complement cascade requires an antigen-antibody complex
|
classical
|
|
|
State the component of the complement cascade that is the common end result for both pathways
|
formation of c56
|
|
|
Which of the following does not form part of the MAC
a.C6 b.C7 c.C8 d.C9 e.C10 |
c10
|
|
|
The MAC destroys cells by:
a.Opening holes in the cell membrane of the target cell b.Destroying the DNA of the target cell c.Phagocytosing the target cell |
opening holes in the cell membrane of the target cell
|
|
|
The submucose is internal / external to the serosa
|
internal
|
|
|
Which of the followins is not a portion of the peritoneum
a.Greater sac b.Medium sac c.Lesser sac |
b) medium sac
|
|
|
T/F the kidneys are retroperitoneal
|
True
|
|
|
Which of the following forms part of the hard palate
a.Maxilla only b.Palatine bones only c.Both maxilla and palatine bones d.Neither maxilla nor palatine bones |
c) both maxilla and palatine bones
|
|
|
The lateral incisors are located
a.Between the central incisors and canines b.Between the canines and the premolars c.Between the premolars and molars |
a) Between the central incisors and canines
|
|
|
The gum is also called the dentin / gingiva
|
gingiva
|
|
|
Which of the following is external to the mandible
a.Sublingual salivary gland b.Parotid salivary gland c.Submandibular salivary gland |
c) diaphragm
|
|
|
Amylase is secreted into saliva by the process of exocytosis / endocytosis
|
exocytosis
|
|
|
Which of the following mucin is secreted by mucous cells:
a.Mg1 b.Mg2 c.Both Mg1 and Mg2 d.Neither Mg1 nor Mg2 |
a) Mg1
|
|
|
Blood type antigens are present in the saliva of secretors / non-secretors
|
secretors
|
|
|
Which of the following does not cause more saliva to be secreted:
a.Chewing b.Tactile stimulation of receptors in the mouth c.Stress |
c) stress
|
|
|
Cranial nerve VII / IX innervates the parotid salivary glands
|
IX
|
|
|
Sympathetic innervation of the salivary glands increases / decreases the volume of saliva
|
decreases
|
|
|
Which of the following is the superior portion of the pharynx
a.Nasopharynx b.Oropharynx c.Laryngopharynx |
a) nasopharynx
|
|
|
The genioglossus is an intrinsic / extrinsic muscle of the tongue
|
extrinsic
|
|
|
Which of the stages of deglutition is voluntary
a.Oral phase b.Pharyngeal phase c.Oesophageal phase |
a) oral phase
|
|
|
CN IX / XII controls the majority of the muscles in the tongue
|
XII
|
|
|
The styloglossus muscle causes
a.Elevation of the tongue b.Retraction of the tongue c.Both elevation and retraction of the tongue d.Neither elevation nor retraction of the tongue |
c) both elevation and retractiono f the tongue
|
|
|
Which of the following is the external constrictor muscle of the pharynx
a.Superior constrictor b.Middle constrictor c.Inferior constrictor |
inferior constrictor
|
|
|
During deglutition, the constrictor muscle contract in a sequence that is from:
a.Superior to inferior b.Inferior to superior c.Neither of the above |
a) superior to inferior
|
|
|
Which portion of the oesophagus contains predominantly skeletal muscle tissue
a.The superior portion b.The middle portion c.The inferior portion |
a) the superior portion
|
|
|
The lower oesophageal sphincter is strengthened by which opening of the diaphragm
|
Oesophageal Hiatus
|
|
|
Gastrin stimulates / inhibits gastric secretions
|
stimulates
|
|
|
To produce hydrochloric acid, parietal cells pump hydrogen ions out of the cell in exchange for:
a.Chloride ions b.Sodium ions c.Potassium ions d.Calcium ions |
c) potassium ions
|
|
|
Histamine affects HCL production by binding with the H1 / H2 receptors
|
H2
|
|
|
T / F Intrinsic factor is absorbed via receptor mediated endocytosis
|
True
|
|
|
Pepsinogen / pepsin is an active proteolytic enzyme
|
pepsin
|
|
|
Satiety is the feeling of increased / decreased hunger
|
Decreased
|
|
|
The orexigenic / anorexic neurons increase the appetite
|
Orexigenic
|
|
|
Which of the following induces a feeling of satiety
a.Leptin b.Ghrelin c.NPY |
a) Leptin
|
|
|
The alpha MSH is involved in increasing / decreasing the appetite
|
Decreasing
|
|
|
The right / left lobe of the liver is larger
|
Right
|
|
|
Which of the following is part of the porta hepatis
a.Hepatic portal vein b.Hepatic artery c.Common hepatic duct d.All of the above e.None of the above |
d) all of the above
|
|
|
The central vein enters the superior / inferior vena cava
|
inferior
|
|
|
State one substance that is stored by the liver
|
lipids
|
|
|
The cystic duct is part of the pancreas / gall bladder
|
gall bladder
|
|
|
State the function of somatostatin
|
decrease secretion of insulin and glucagon
|
|
|
The portion of the duodenum that directly associates with the stomach is the
a.ascending portion b. superior portion c. horizontal portion d. descending portion |
b) superior portion
|
|
|
In the duodenum, Brunners glands secrete an alkaline / acidic mucous
|
alkaline
|
|
|
Paneth cells / goblet cells produce lysosome
a.5-6 hours b.5-7 days c.5-7 weeks d.5-7 months |
b) 5-7 days
|
|
|
T / F Peyers patches have no villi overlying them
|
True
|
|
|
T / F The sIgA molecules that are produced in the small intestine pass into the lumens of the blood vessels and stomach
|
False
|
|
|
The myenteric plexus is located between the layers of the muscularis / submucosa
|
muscularis
|
|
|
State the cranial nerve that innervates the digestive organs
|
X (vagus)
|
|
|
Which of the following is not a ganglion of the sympathetic nervous system
a.Superior mesenteric ganglion b.Middle mesenteric ganglion c.Inferior mesenteric ganglion |
b) middle mesenteric ganglion
|
|
|
The migrating motor complex is most associated with segmentation / peristalsis
|
peristalsis
|
|
|
T / F The smooth muscle cells of the small intestine do not contain gap junctions
|
False
|
|
|
Which of the following is not a cause of vomiting
a.Hypotonic pyloric stenosis b.Hyperemesis gravidarum c.Motion |
a) hypotrophic pyloric stenosis
|
|
|
T / F The vomiting centre is found in the medulla oblongata
|
True
|
|
|
During vomiting, the abdominal muscles contract / relax
|
Contract
|
|
|
Which of the following is not absorbed via a sodium symporter
a.Amino acids b.Monosaccharides c.Monoglycerides |
b) monosaccharides
|
|
|
T / F Calcium is absorbed across the intestine via an active transport process
|
.
|
|
|
Vitamins A,D,E and K are fat / water soluble vitamins
|
.
|
|
|
Enterohepatic circulation is the process by which bile is excreted / reabsorbed
|
.
|
|
|
When the cecum is full, the tension on the frenula of the ileocecal valve increases / decreases
|
.
|
|
|
Haustral churning / mass peristalsis triggers the events of defecation
|
.
|
|
|
Which of the following phases of the human sexual response occurs first
a.Orgasm b.Resolution c.Arousal d.Plateau |
c) arousal
|
|
|
The arousal stage of the sexual response is mediated by which segments of the spinal cord
a.C2-C4 b.T2-T4 c.L2-L4 d.S2-S4 |
d) S2-S4
|
|
|
Orgasm involves contractions of
a.Smooth muscle tissue b.Skeletal tissue c.Both smooth muscle and skeletal tissue |
c) both smooth muscle and skeletal tissue
|
|
|
123.Which of the following is not part of the penis
a.Root of the penis b.Trunk of the penis c.Glans penis |
b) trunk of the penis
|
|
|
There are two corpora cavernosa / spongiosum within the penis
|
cavernosa
|
|
|
Erection / ejaculation is due to the release of nitric oxide
|
Erection
|
|
|
The ejactulatory ducts communicate with the
a.Prostatic urethra b.Membranous urethra c.Spongy urethre |
a) Prostatic urethra
|
|
|
Following orgasm, the penis quickly / slowly returns to a flaccid state
|
slowly
|
|
|
The refractory period mainly affects males / females
|
males
|
|
|
The exposed portion of the clitoris is called the crura / glans clitoris
|
glans
|
|
|
T / F Vaginal lubrication occurs due to the secretion of mucous from glands in the vagina
|
false
|
|
|
The clitoris enlarges due to the engorgement of the corpa spongiosum / cavernosa
|
cavernosa
|
|
|
During the plateau phase, the uterus cemones more / less elevated
|
less
|
|
|
The female orgasm involves the contraction of the
a.Endometrium b.Myometrium c.Perimetrium |
myometrium
|
|
|
The female orgasm involves the contraction of the
a.Endometrium b.Myometrium c.Perimetrium |
myometrium
|
|
|
The Grafenberg spot is the remnant of the testicle / prostate in the female
|
prostate
|
|
|
During resolution / orgasm the clitoris emerges from the clitoral hood
|
.
|
|
|
The gliding mechanism affects the prepuce in the circumcised / uncircumsided male
|
uncircumcised
|
|
|
The external / internal os dips into the pool of semen during the female orgams
|
external
|
|
|
In the symptothermal method of contraception, the temperature is assessed and at ovulation time slightly lowers / elevates
|
elevates
|
|
|
T /F The withdrawal method of contraception is an effective choice for preventing pregnancies
|
False
|
|
|
A diaphragm / IUD is inserted into the uterus
|
IUD
|
|
|
The OCP contains varying levels of:
a.FSH and LH b.Cortisol and oestrogen c.Oestrogen and progesterone |
c) oestrogen and progesterone
|
|
|
The form of surgical sterilisation that affects females is tubal ligation / vasectomy
|
ligation
|
|
|
The sperm cell and secondary oocyte are haploid / diploid
|
haploid
|
|
|
Which of the following types of chromosomes has arms that are equal in length:
a.Acrocentric b.Sub-metacentric c.Metacentric |
c) metacentric
|
|
|
In the genetic description of 21q22.3, which number indicates the chromosome number
a.21 b.22 c.3 |
a)21
|
|
|
The genotype / phenotype refers to the genetic code that is located within the DNA
|
genotype
|
|
|
A genotype of TT is described as
a.Heterozygous b.Homozygous dominant c.Homozygous recessive |
b) homozygous dominant
|
|
|
Which allele of the I gene does not code for a functional protein
a.Ia b.Ib c.Io |
c) I o
|
|
|
Which of the following alleles is most associated with the formation of the rhesus antigen
a.A b.B c.C d.D |
d) D
|
|
|
Sex linked inherited disorders usually result from alleles on the X/Y chromosome
|
X
|
|
|
What is the time frame in which a developing human is called an embryo
a.The first 8 hours b.The first 8 days c.The first 8 weeks |
c) the first 8 weeks
|
|
|
T/F Following cellular division, the zona pellucida is surrounded by the morula
|
.
|
|
|
Implantation of the embryo usually starts on day 6 / 16 following fertilization
|
6
|
|
|
The decidua basalis / capsularis is connective tissue
|
basalis
|
|
|
The epiblast / hypoblast divides to form the amniotic cavity
|
epiblast
|
|
|
The yolk sac / amnion functions to produce blood cells in the early embryos
|
yolk sac
|
|
|
State the structure that the connecting stalk becomes
|
umbilical cord
|
|
|
The extraembryonic mesoderm lines the cytotrophoblast / yolk sac
|
cytotrophoblast
|
|
|
Which of the following contains blood vessels:
a. promary villi of the cytotrophoblast b. secondary villi c. tertiary villi |
tertiary villi of the cytotrophoblase
|
|
|
The bilaminar disc is formed from the:
a. epiblast only b. hypoblast only c. both epiblast and hypoblast d. neither |
c. both epiblast and hypoblast
|
|
|
Which of the following is not found in a three week embryo:
a.primitive node b. primitive streak c. primitive groove |
c. primitive groove
|
|
|
The layer of the trilaminar disc that is formed from connective tissues is the:
a. ectoderm b. endoderm c. mesoderm |
c. mesoderm
|
|
|
All nervous tissue of the embryo is derived from the:
a. ectoderm b. endoderm c. mesoderm |
a. ectoderm
|
|
|
The notochord develops into the:
a. vertebral bodies b. nucleus pulposus of the intervertebral discs c. both a and b d. neither a nor b |
c. both a and b
|
|
|
The neural tube develops from fusion of the two neural folds / grooves
|
folds
|
|
|
Which of the folloing is not found in the embryo during organogenesis
a. para-axial mesoderm b. intermediate mesoderm c. medial mesoderm |
c. medial mesderm
|
|
|
The somatic / splanchnic mesoderm is located on the amnion side of the embryo
|
somatic
|
|
|
The intraembryonic coelom is the precursor to the abdominal / cranial cavity
|
adominal
|
|
|
T/F The gut tube is lined with epithelial cells
|
True
|
|
|
The embryo folds into a "C" shape due to
a. the endoderm side developing faster than the extodermal side b. the exodermal side developing faster c. neither |
b. the ectoderm side developing faster than the endodermal side
|
|
|
The portion of the gut tube that lies cephalically to the yolk sac is the:
a. foregut b. midgut c. hindgut |
a. foregut
|
|
|
T/F The septum transversum separates the heart from the foregut
|
False
|
|
|
The hear starts to beat at approximately the third / eighth week of gestation
|
third
|
|
|
T/F Whartons jelly is found in the umbilical cord
|
True
|
|
|
There are two umbilical arteries / veins in the umbilical cord
|
arteries
|
|
|
The thoracic / abdominal portions of the right and left lymphatic duct unite into a single tube
|
abdominal
|
|
|
The allantois fuses with the connecting stalk / yolk sac
|
connecting stalk
|
|
|
The cloacal / oropharyngeal membrane breaks down to form the anus
|
cloacal
|
|
|
the sulcus terminalis is located in the tongue / stomach
|
tongue
|
|
|
The anterior / posterior portion of the pituitary gland is derived from the pharynx
|
anterior
|
|
|
T/F The bronchi develop as an outpouching of the foregut
|
true
|
|
|
Which of the following is connected to both the ventral and dorsal mesentery:
a. foregut b. midgut c. hindgut |
b) midgut
|
|
|
T/F The spleen is derived from the midgut
|
false
|
|
|
T/F The urachis is located on the posterior aspect of the urinary bladder
|
.
|
|
|
Which of the followins is not a precursor of the urinary kidneys:
a. pronephros b. molenephros c. metanephros |
b) molenephros
|
|
|
The paramesonephric / mesonephric ducts develop into the uterine tubes
|
paramesonephric
|
|
|
Which of the following is not a portion of the external genitalia of the embryo
a. urogenital fold urogenital orifice urogenital tract |
c. urogenital tract
|
|
|
T/F Both the penis and the scrotum have a raphe
|
True
|
|
|
The tunica / processus vaginalis is destroyed in the developing embryo
|
processus
|
|
|
The deep / superficial inguinal ring is associated with the external oblique muscle
|
superficial
|
|
|
The placenta is delivered during:
a. stage one of parturation b. stage two of parturation c. stage three of parturation |
c. stage three of parturation
|
|
|
Which of the following is not a portion of the neural tube:
a. prosencephalon b. mesencephalon c. rhombencephalon d. tubencephalon |
d) tubencephalon
|
|
|
The flexure that divides the metencephalon and myencephalon is the
a, cephalic flexure b. pontine flexure c. cervical flexure |
b) pontine flexure
|
|
|
T/F Cranial nerve XII is derived from the myencephalon
|
True
|
|
|
Which of the following portions of the somites forms skeletal muscle
a. myotome b.sclerotome c.dermatome |
b) sclerotome
|
|
|
The superior / inferior somites degenerate in the human
|
.
|
|
|
Describe why there are 8 cervical spinal cord segments and only 7 cervical vertebrae
|
The 1st cervical spine nerve passes between the occiput & C1, therefore above the vertebrae
|
|
|
The facial bones derive from the neurocranium / viscerocranium
|
viscerocranium
|
|
|
The hypophyseal cartilage develops into the body of the sphenoid / ethmoid
|
sphenoid
|
|
|
The otic capsule forms the:
a. petrous portion of the temporal bone b. mastiod process of temporal bone c. both d. neither |
c) both the petrous portion and mastiond process of the temporal bone
|
|
|
There are 3 / 6 fontanelles
|
6
|
|
|
The pharyngeal arch that is innervated by cranial nerve VII is:
a. arch 1 b. arch 2 c. arch 3 |
b) arch 2
|
|
|
The maxillary / mandibular process forms the mandible
|
mandibular
|
|
|
The medial / lateral procerss of the two nasal placodes fuse together to form the columella
|
medial
|
|
|
The second / third pharyngeal arch forms all facial muscles
|
second
|
|
|
There are 5 / 31 pharyngeal pouches
|
5
|
|
|
Which of the followins is not derived from the third pharyngeal pouch
a. superior parathyroid gland b. inferior parathyroid gland c. thymus gland |
a) superior parathyroid gland
|
|
|
The upper / lower limb buds rotate medially during weeks 6-8 of gestation
|
lower
|
|
|
The head / tail of the breast is located near the axilla
|
.
|
|
|
The release of estradiol increases / decreases the size of the fat pad of the breast
|
.
|
|
|
Colostrum contains high levels of
a. carbohydrates b. protein c. fats |
.
|
|
|
In the secretion of substances into breast milk, the transcellular / paracellular pathway allows substanves to move between cells
|
.
|
|
|
Transitional milk is secreted from:
a. approximately days 1-3 b. approx days 3-14 c. approx days 14-28 |
.
|
|
|
Which of the following can pass into the breast milk:
a. drugs b. alcohol c. nicotine d. caffeine e. all of the above |
.
|
|
|
The majority of water enters the breast milk associated with
a. lactose b. milk fat globule c. casein |
.
|
|
|
Which of the following is not a type of alpha casein:
a. alpha- S1 casein b. alpha -S2 casein c. alpha - S3 casein |
.
|
|
|
Rennin is secreted from the breast of the mother / stomach of the baby
|
.
|
|
|
Alpha lactalbumin / lactoferrin binds to iron atoms
|
.
|
|
|
Lactose is a combination of:
a. 2 glucose molecules b. 1 glucose and one fructose molecule c. 1 glucose and 1 galactose molecule |
.
|
|
|
Majority of fats secreted into the breast milk are:
a. cholesterol molecules b. tri-acyl-glycerides c. phospholipids |
.
|
|
|
Lactogenesis I/II occurs due to a sudden drop of progesterone
|
.
|
|
|
Prolactin / oxytocin stimulates milk protein synthesis
|
.
|
|
|
.A high / low level of FIL causes faster production of milk
|
.
|
|
|
The target cells of oxytocin are the:
a. myoepithelial cells b. alveolar cells c. both d. neither |
.
|
|
|
Which of the following is not a benefit of breast feeding:
a. increased acquired immunity for the baby b. nutritionally correct food c.colonisation of the digestive tractwith harmful bacteria |
c. colonisation of the digestive tract with harmful bacteria
|
|
|
Lactase functions to synthesis / digest lactose molecules
|
.
|
|
|
Permanent / temporary involution follows menopause
|
.
|
|
|
The renal pyramid is part of the renal cortex / medulla
|
medulla
|
|
|
The proximal / juxtamedullary nephrons are most associated with the formation of concentrated urine
|
juxtamedullary
|
|
|
The renal artery divides into
a) segmental arteries b) interlobar arteries c) arcuate arteries d) interlobular arteries |
a) segmental arteries
|
|
|
The afferent / efferent arteriole passes blood into the glomerulus
|
afferent
|
|
|
Fenestrations are holes that are located in the glomerular / peritubular capillaries
|
glomerular
|
|
|
State the function of renin
|
converts angiotensin into angiotensin 1
|
|
|
State two functions of angiotensin II
|
a) vasoconstriction of arterioles, therefore increase peripheral resistance
b) release of ADH from posterior pituitary, therefore increase H2O absorption therefore decrease filtrate volume |
|
|
ADH increases / decreases the number of aquaporin 2 molecules in the cell membrane of the cells of the collecting duct
|
increases
|
|
|
The countercurrent mechanism occurs because T/F the descending and ascending limbts of the loop of Henle pass in opposite directions
|
True
|
|
|
T/F The descending limb of the loop of Henle is not permeable to water
|
False
|
|
|
T/F the concentration of the filtrate in the loop of Henle is hypertonic to the renal medulla
|
False
|
|
|
As the fluid moves down the descending limb of the loop of Henle, it becomes more / less concentrated
|
More
|
|
|
As the fluid moves up the ascending lib of the loop of Henle, it becomes more / less concentrated
|
Less
|
|
|
As the fluid moves down the collecting duct, ADH causes the reabsorption / secretion of water
|
Reabsorption
|
|
|
State two factors that affect the volume of urine that is produced daily
|
diet, fluid ingestion, B.P, temp, diuretics
|
|
|
State two characteristics of urine
|
normally yellow, transparent on urination, becomes cloudy upon standing
|
|
|
T/F Creatinine is converted to creatine for excretion via the urine
|
False (vv)
|
