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214 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Which of the following is selective for muscarinic receptors:
a. succinylcholine
b. methacholine
c. isoflurophate
d. malathion
e. carbachol
b. methacholine
which of the following is essentially totally resistant to AchE:
a. succinylcholine
b. methacholine
c. isoflurophate
d. malathion
e. carbachol
e. carbachol
which of the following forms a covalent bond with AchE:
a. succinylcholine
b. methacholine
c. isoflurophate
d. malathion
e. carbachol
c. isoflurophate
Which of the following is easily metabolized by humans and birds but not insects or fish:
a. succinylcholine
b. methacholine
c. isoflurophate
d. malathion
e. carbachol
d. malathion
Which of the following is easily hydrolyzed by butyrylcholinesterase:
a. succinylcholine
b. methacholine
c. isoflurophate
d. malathion
e. carbachol
a. succinylcholine
muscarinic receptor activation is coupled to all of the following except:
a. opening of K+ channels
b. inhibition of guanylyl cyclase
c. stimulation of NO synthase
d. formation of IP3 and DAG
e. inhibition of adenylyl cyclase
b. inhibition of guanylyl cyclase
myasthenia gravis results from:
a. toxicity of organophosphate AchE inhibitor exposure
b. high fever caused by OD of atropine
c. autoimmune reaction
d. alpha bungarotoxin poisoning
e. prolonged exposure to nicotinic receptor antagonist
c. autoimmune reaction
the rationale for therapy of myasthenia gravis is based upon the pathophysiologic findings of:
a. loss of motor nerve terminals at the NM junction
b. insufficient AchE in the synaptic cleft of the NM junction
c. diminished number of nicotinic receptors at the NM junction
d. diminished synthesis of Ach in presynaptic motor terminals at the NM junction
e. excessive release of Ach per action potential from the motor nerve of the NM junction
c. diminished number of nicotinic receptors at the NM junction
inhibition of vesicular NE storage:
a. levodopa
b. carbidopa
c. reserpine
d. tyrosine
e. both a and b are correct
c. reserpine
inhibition of NE synthesis:
a. levodopa
b. carbidopa
c. reserpine
d. tyrosine
e. both a and b are correct
b. carbidopa
enhancement of NE release:
a. ephedrine
b. amphetamine
c. cocaine
d. clonidine
e. both a and b are correct
e. both a and b are correct
inhibition of neurotransmitter reuptake through uptake1:
a. ephedrine
b. amphetamine
c. cocaine
d. clonidine
e. both a and b are correct
c. cocaine
inhibition of presynaptic neurotransmitter metabolism:
a. monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAO)
b. phenylethanolamine-N-methyltransferase inhibitor (PNMT)
c. tyrosine betahydroxylase inhibitor
d. DOPA decarboxylase inhibitor
e. catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT)
a. MAO inhibitor
enzymes common to the metabolic degradation of catecholamines are:
a. COMT and CAT
b. AchE and MAO
c. MAO and COMT
d. PNMT and MAO
e. AchE and CAT
c. MAO and COMT
administration of a beta1 selective antagonist will affect all of the following functions except:
a. rate of myocardial contraction
b. force of myocardial contraction
c. contractility of bronchial smooth muscle
d. peripheral blood pressure
e. none of the above will be excepted
c. contractility of bronchial smooth muscle
xylometazoline is recommended for the relief of nasal congestion because:
a. it is an alpha1 agonist
b. it is an alpha1 antagonist
c. it is an alpha2 agonist
d. it is an alpha2 antagonist
e. it blocks all receptors involved in mucus secretion
a. it is an alpha1 agonist
which of the following is true of both guanabenz and clonidine?
a. guanabenz and clonidine each has the same mechanism of action as guanfacine
b. clonidine can treat HTN while guanabenz can precipitate HTN
c. guanabenz is an antagonist while clonidine is an agonist at alpha2 receptors
d. guanabenz is an agonist while clonidine is an antagonist at alpha2 receptors
e. none of the above statements is true of both guanabenz and clonidine
a. guanabenz and clonidine each has the same mechanism of action as guanfacine
cocaine is sometimes used in nasopharyngeal surgery because:
a. it exerts a hemostatic effect
b. it induces a favorable 'high'
c. it has a local anesthetic effect
d. both a and b are correct
e. both a and c are correct
e. both a and c are correct
the main pharmacological difference between phenoxybenzamine and phentolamine:
a. only phenoxybenzamine is selective for the alpha1 receptor
b. only phenoxybenzamine induces an irreversible receptor blockade
c. only phenoxybenzamine is useful in pheochromocytoma
d. only phentolamine is effective in reducing BP
e. none of the above is correct
b. only phenoxybenzamine induces an irreversible receptor blockade
major considerations in the choice of beta antagonists for particular clinical uses EXclude:
a. receptor selectivity
b. membrane stabilization effects
c. intrinsic sympathomimetic activity
d. lipid solubility
e. molecular size of the drug
e. molecular size of the drug
based on receptor selectivity, which of the following drugs does not belong in the group?
a. metaproterenol
b. fenoterol
c. albuterol
d. ritodrine
e. xamoterol
e. xamoterol
based on receptor selectivity, which of the following drugs does not belong in the group?
a. prazosin
b. terazosin
c. doxazosin
d. yohimbine
e. indoramin
d. yohimbine
based on receptor selectivity, which of the following drugs does not belong in the group?
a. propranolol
b. nadolol
c. labetalol
d. pindolol
e. sotalol
c. labetalol
which of the following drug pairs represents in order, and alpha agonist and a beta antagonist?
a. salbutamol and salmeterol
b. metaraminol and metoprolol
c. metaproterenol and aterenol
d. dobutamine and butoxamine
e. pindolol and pirbuterol
b. metaraminol and metoprolol
Carbidopa:
a. inhibition of vesicular NE storage
b. inhibition of NE synthesis
c. inhibition of presynaptic NE metabolism
d. inhibition of NE reuptake into the presynaptic terminal
e. none of the above mechanisms is applicable
b. inhibition of NE synthesis
levodopa
a. inhibition of vesicular NE storage
b. inhibition of NE synthesis
c. inhibition of presynaptic NE metabolism
d. inhibition of NE reuptake into the presynaptic terminal
e. none of the above mechanisms is applicable
e. none of the above mechanisms is applicable
cocaine
a. inhibition of vesicular NE storage
b. inhibition of NE synthesis
c. inhibition of presynaptic NE metabolism
d. inhibition of NE reuptake into the presynaptic terminal
e. none of the above mechanisms is applicable
d. inhibition of NE reuptake into the presynaptic terminal
Pargyline
a. inhibition of vesicular NE storage
b. inhibition of NE synthesis
c. inhibition of presynaptic NE metabolism
d. inhibition of NE reuptake into the presynaptic terminal
e. none of the above mechanisms is applicable
c. inhibition of presynaptic NE metabolism
reserpine:
a. inhibition of vesicular NE storage
b. inhibition of NE synthesis
c. inhibition of presynaptic NE metabolism
d. inhibition of NE reuptake into the presynaptic terminal
e. none of the above mechanisms is applicable
a. inhibition of vesicular NE storage
enzymes common to the synthesis and metabolic degradation of catecholamines are:
a. dopamine beta hydroxylase, MAO and COMT
b. AchE, CAT and MAO
c. DOPA decarboxylase, CAT and COMT
d. PNMT, COMT and CAT
e. Tyrosine hydroxylase, AchE and CAT
a. Dopamine beta hydroxylase, MAO and COMT
administration of a beta2 selective agonist will affect:
a. rate of myocardial contraction
b. force of myocardial contraction
c. contractility of bronchial smooth muscle
d. peripheral BP
e. C and D
e. c and d
which of the following statements is true of both metaraminol and methoxamine?
a. metaraminol and methoxamine have the same mechanism of action as phenylephrine
b. metaraminol and methoxamine activate the same subtype of adrenergic receptors
c. metaraminol and methoxamine are agonist and antagonist, respectively, of alpha receptors
d. a and b
e. a, b and c
d. a and b
clinically useful parameters for differentiating between beta antagonists include:
a. receptor selectivity and lipid solubility
b. membrane stabilization effects and intrinsic sympathomimetic activity
c. duration of action and route of excretion
d. a and b
e. a, b and c
e. a, b and c
which of the following pairs of drugs represents the same pharmacologic class?
a. salbutamol and salmeterol
b. metaraminol and metoprolol
c. metaproterenol and arterenol
d. dobutamine and butoxamine
e. pindolol and pirbuterol
a. salbutamol and salmeterol
which of the following drug pairs represents, in order, a beta antagonist and a beta2 agonist?
a. salbutamol and salmeterol
b. metaraminol and metoprolol
c. metaproterenol and arterenol
d. dobutamine and butoxamine
e. penbutolol and pirbuterol
e. penbutolol and pirbuterol
NE is considered the neurotransmitter in the SNS because;
a. NE is synthesized and stored in the sympathetic nerve terminals
b. NE is released upon depolarization of sympathetic nerve terminals
c. NE is metabolized by enzymes of the SNS
d. a, b and c
e. a and b
d. a, b and c
epinephrine and cocaine can each be used to reduce bleeding from small blood vessels because:
a. epi activates alpha receptors and cocaine blocks beta receptors
b. epi causes vasoconstriction and cocaine causes local anesthesia
c. epi directly and cocaine indirectly cause vasoconstriction
d. epi reduces BP and cocaine increases brain activity
e. epi acts on beta receptors and cocaine releases NE
c. epi directly and cocaine indirectly cause vasoconstriction
while both are antihypertensives, propranolol and pindolol differ in their clinical usage because:
propranolol is a nonselective beta antagonist while pindolol is beta1 selective
b. propranolol has intrinsic sympathomimetic activity and pindolol has high lipid solubility
c. only propranolol has high lipid solubility and membrane stabilizing effects
d. only pindolol can cross the BBB
e. actually propranolol and pindolol have identical pharmacological profiles
c. only propranolol has high lipid solubility and membrane stabilizing effects
mydriasis:
a. phenylephrine/contraction of ciliary muscles
b. phenylephrine/contraction of radial muscles
c. pilocarpine/contraction of pupillary sphincter
d. atropine/relaxation of radial muscles
e. none of the above
b. phenylephrine/contraction of radial muscles
bradycardia:
a. phenylephrine/vasoconstriction
b. methacholine/stimulation of cardiac muscarinic receptors
c. propranolol/blockade of cardiac beta receptors
d. vagal nerve stimulation
e. all of the above
c. propranolol/blockade of cardiac beta receptors
tachycardia:
a. isoproterenol/beta2 receptor stimulation
b. phentolamine/blockade of alpha receptors
c. epinephrine/ after propranolol
d. a and b
e. all of the above
d. a and b
treatment of myasthenia gravis:
a. sux/agonist at NM endplate
b. pilocarpine/release of Ach from presynaptic NM junction
c. pyridostigmine/inhibition of AchE
d. edrophonium/inhibition of butyrylcholinesterase
e. c and d
c. pyridostigmine/inhibition of AchE
treatment of asthma:
a. ipratroprium/blockade of muscarinic receptors in lung
b. metaproterenol/stimulation of beta2 receptors in lung
c. metoprolol/stimulation of beta2 receptors in lung
d. a and b
e. all of the above
d. a and b
produce surgical level of skeletal muscle relaxation:
a. sux/stimulation of NM endplate
b. tubocurarine/blockade of NM endplate
c. physostigmine/inhibition of AchE
d. a and b
e. all of the above
d. a and b
treatment of glaucoma:
a. pilocarpine/stimulation of muscarinic receptors
b. epi/stimulation of alpha receptors
c. timolol/blockade of beta1 receptors
d. a and c
e. all of the above
e. all of the above
Contraindicated in glaucoma and prostatic hypertrophy
a. scopolamine
b. atropine
c. terazosin
d. a and b
e. all of the above
d. a and b
treatment of motion sickness:
a. ipratropium
b. scopolamine
c. atropine
d. a and b
e. all of the above
b. scopolamine
A farm worker accidentally exposed to a high concentration of agricultural organophosphate insecticide an hour earlier should be administered:
a. atropine
b. pralidoxime
c. tubocurarine
d. a and b
e. all of the above
d. a and b
aside from cholinergic agonist, the following also cause EDRF (NO) formation in the endothelial cells and subsequent vasodilatation:
a. ATP
b. histamine
c. bradykinin
d. cGMP
e. a, b and c
e. a, b and c
inhibition of NE synthesis:
a. levodopa
b. carbidopa
c. reserpine
d. metyrosine
e. both b and d are correct
e. both b and d are correct
enhancement of NE release:
a. pargyline
b. amphetamine
c. cocaine
d. clonidine
e. both b and c are correct
b. amphetamine
inhibition of neurotransmitter reuptake through uptake 1
a. tolcapone
b. amphetamine
c. cocaine
d. clonidine
e. both a and d are correct
c. cocaine
inhibition of presynaptic NE metabolism:
a. MAO inhibitor
b. PNMT inhibitor
c. tyrosine betahydroxylase inhibitor
d. DOPA decarboxylase inhibitor
e. COMT inhibitor
a. MAO inhibitor
cocaine is no longer recommended for use in nasopharyngeal surgery because:
a. it reduces nasal blood flow
b. it elicits addictive behaviors
c. it has a local anesthetic effect
d. both a and b are correct
e. both a and c are correct
b. it elicits addictive behaviors
what property of beta antagonists is responsible for their contraindication in depression?
a. receptor selectivity for beta1 receptors
b. membrane stabilizing effects
c. intrinsic sympathomimetic activity
d. lipid solubility
e. prolonged duration of action
d. lipid solubility
based on receptor selectivity, which of the following drugs does not belong in the group?
a. metaproterenol
b. fenoterol
c. salbutamol
d. ritodrine
e. xamoterol
e. xamoterol
based on receptor selectivity, which of the following drugs does not belong in the group?
a. propranolol
b. nadolol
c. carvedilol
d. pindolol
e. sotalol
c. carvedilol
which of the following drug pairs represents, in order, a beta antagonist and a beta2 agonist?
a. salbutamol and salmeterol
b. metaraminol and metoprolol
c. metaproterenol and arterenol
d. dobutamine and butoxamine
e. penbutolol and pirbuterol
e. penbutolol and pirbuterol
the indirect-acting sympathomimetics are so-called because:
a. they modulate NE binding to adrenereceptors
b. they modulate epi binding to adrenoreceptors
c. they enter the nerve terminal and cause the release of NE
d. both a and b are correct
e. all of the above are correct
c. they enter the nerve terminal and cause the release of NE
the reason terazosin but not butoxamine is used for BPH has to do with:
a. the selective alpha1 antagonist property of terazosin causes prostatic vasoconstriction
b. the selective beta2 antagonist property of butoxamine reduces prostatic contractility
c. the selective penetration of prostate tissue by terazosin but not by butoxamine
d. the ability of terazosin to release NE selectively in the prostate
e. none of the above statements explains the use of terazosin in prostatic hypertrophy
e. none of the above statements explains the use of terazosin in prostatic hypertrophy
all of the following agents may be used for the treatment of HTN except?
a. labetalol
b. propranolol
c. prazosin
d. yohimbine
e. metoprolol
d. yohimbine
the adverse effects of alpha receptor antagonism include all of the following reactions except:
a. postural hypotension
b. tachycardia
c. nasal stuffiness
d. a and c are both correct
e. a, b and c are correct
e. a, b and c are correct
which of the following statements is/are true about the beta antagonists?
a. esmolol has an ultra-short duration of action
b. pindolol has intrinsic sympathomimetic activity
c. propranolol has high lipid solubility
d. all of the above are true
e. none of the above is true
d. all of the above are true
when drug B was given before epi, the pressor effect of the agonist was converted to a depressor effect. drug B is likely to be:
a. propranolol
b. phentolamine
c. yohimbine
d. metoprolol
e. isoproterenol
b. phentolamine
which of the following combination of drugs would produce the same blood pressure effect as NE?
a. phenylephrine and tolazoline
b. phenylephrine and isoproterenol
c. propranolol and norepinephrine
d. amphetamine and xylometazoline
e. ritodrine and metoprolol
b. phenylephrine and isoproterenol
pyridostigmine and neostigmine may cause all of the following except:
a. bronchoconstriction
b. constipation
c. reversible inhibition of AchE
d. nicotinic effects at the NM end plate
e. miosis and spasm of accommodation
c. reversible inhibition of AchE
in very young children, the most common cause of death due to belladonna alkalosis (atropine, scopolamine [hyoscine], hyocyamine) is:
a. dehydration
b. hypertension
c. hyperthermia
d. intraventricular heart block
e. renal failure
c. hyperthermia
antimuscarinic drugs in the elderly may be hazardous because:
a. they can elevate intraocular pressure in patients with glaucoma
b. they frequently cause ventricular tachycardia
c. they may precipitate urinary retention
d. a and c
e. all of the above
d. a and c
a 60 year-old male patient presents with glaucoma. he also has mild BPH. your recommended therapy might include:
a. topical echothiaphate
b. topical pilocarpine
c. topical timolol
d. a or b
e. any of the above
e. any of the above
muscarinic receptor activation is coupled to:
a. opening of K+ channels
b. formation of IP3 and DAG
c. inhibition fo adenylyl cyclase
d. stimulation of NO synthase
e. all of the above
e. all of the above
preferred drug for treating glaucoma by opening the canal of Schlemm:
a. atropine
b. pilocarpine
c. phenylephrine
d. timolol
e. ipratropium
b. pilocarpine
the action of timolol in glaucoma is as a:
a. alpha1 agonist
b. beta1 agonist
c. alpha1 antagonist
d. beta2 antagonist
e. local anesthetic
d. beta2 antagonist
if one took an overdose of tyramine, we can expect which of the following symptoms?
a. hypertension
b. tachycardia
c. congestive heart failure
d. both a and b are correct
e. all of the above are correct
d. both a and b are correct
given the distribution of receptor subtypes at the postsynaptic cell, which of the following combination of drugs would completely block the action of epinephrine at these sites?
a. phenoxybenzamine and propranolol
b. phentolamine and pindolol
c. prazosin and butoxamine
d. only combinations a and b will do
e. any of the above combinations will do
d. only combinations a and b will do
if the aromatic hydroxyl groups in a catecholamine is deleted, what can we expect of the pharmacology of the resulting analog?
a. increased transport through the BBB
b. increased activity on the respective receptors
c. greater alpha receptor selectivity
d. both a and c are correct
e. all of the above are correct
a. increased transport through the BBB
what is common among the following set of drugs: acebutolol, betaxolol, metoprolol
a. they are all beta receptor antagonists
b. they are all beta-1 selective antagonists
c. they are all beta2 selective antagonists
d. both a and b are correct
e. both a and c are correct
d. both a and b are correct
epinephrine causes an increase in pulse pressure because epinephrine:
a. increases cardiac output
b. activates beta1 receptors
c. increases systolic pressure
d. both a and b are correct
e. both a and c are correct
d. both a and b are correct
infusion of phentolamine prior to infusing epinephrine caused a change in the BP response. this change is commonly referred to as:
a. phentolamine reversal
b. phentolamine induction
c. epinephrine antagonism
d. epinephrine reversal
e. phentolamine conversion
d. epinephrine reversal
another drug that can reproduce the effects of phentolamine on epinephrine's actions is:
a. phenoxybenzamine
b. prazosin
c. phenylephrine
d. both a and b are correct
e. all of the above are correct
d. both a and b are correct
beta antagonists when used long term to treat HTN produce:
a. decreased BP
b. decreased CO
c. decreased peripheral resistance
d. both a and b are correct
e. all of the above are correct
e. all of the above are correct
betaxolol might be preferred for treating HTN in a patient with asthma because:
a. it blocks beta receptors that cause asthmatic attacks
b. it blocks beta receptors in the heart but not in the lungs
c. it has strong intrinsic sympathomimetic activity (ISA)
d. it only acts on lung tissue
e. all of the above are correct except a
b. it blocks beta receptors in the heart but not in the lungs
adverse effects of beta antagonists can include:
a. fatigue because beta blockers inhibit ATP hydrolysis
b. depression because beta blockers decrease blood flow to the brain
c. sexual dysfunction because beta blockers inhibit testosterone synthesis
d. rebound hypertension because beta blockers can only partially act on beta receptors
e. none of the above is correct
e. none of the above is correct
contraindications in the use of beta adrenoceptor antagonists include:
a. diabetes
b. asthma
c. congestive heart failure
d. both a and b are correct
e. all of the above are correct
e. all of the above are correct
a pharmaceutically relevant reason the names of most beta antagonists end with 'olol' is:
a. to show the drugs belong to the same pharmacological class
b. to aid association of the drug with its clinical usage
c. to show the drugs were made by the same company
d. both a and b are correct
e. none of the above is correct
d. both a and b are correct
the enzyme that degrades acetylcholine is:
a. acetylcholine esterase
b. pseudocholinesterase
c. acetylCOA
d. a and b
e. all of the above
d. a and b
ordinarily the SNS and PNS innervate organs in a counterbalancing manner with effects from their transmitters NE and Ach acting upon adrenergic and cholinergic receptors, respectively. however, in some instances there are exceptions to the rule. these exceptions are:
a. sweat glands which are innervated by sympathetic cholinergic nerves
b. arterioles which contain muscarinic receptors but lack parasympathetic nerve innervation
c. smooth muscle of the lungs which contain beta2 receptors but lack sympathetic innervation
d. a and b
e. all of the above
e. all of the above
all muscarinic receptors:
a. are G-protein coupled receptors
b. are coupled to cAMP
c. exhibit inhibitory effects on target organs
d. a and b
e. all of the above
a. are G-protein coupled receptors
nicotinic receptors:
a. are found only on skeletal muscle and autonomic ganglia
b. are stimulated and desensitized by nicotine
c. contain 5 subunits each with an Ach binding site
d. a and b
e. none of the above
d. a and b
if the objective in treatment of asthma is to relax constricted bronchi one may employ:
a. metaproterenol
b. isoproterenol
c. ipratropium
d. a and b
e. all of the above
e. all of the above
if a selective agonist is to be employed to treat asthma then one may select:
a. metoprolol
b. ipratropium
c. metaproterenol
d. a and b
e. all of the above
c. metaproterenol
a centrally acting anticholinergic drug for the treatment of Parkinson's disease is:
a. atropine
b. scopolamine
c. benztropine
d. physostigmine
e. a, b and c
c. benztropine
the SLUD reaction would be produced by an OD of:
a. isoflurophate
b. atropine
c. propranolol
d. scopolamine
e. a and b
a. isoflurophate
what is the pharmacologic description of edrophonium:
a. direct acting agonist selective for muscarinic receptor
b. reversible AchE inhibitor with short duration of action
c. irreversible AchE inhibitor employed in chemical warfare
d. antidote for organophosphate poisoning
e. direct acting agonist with muscarinic and nicotinic receptor activity that is made selective by route (mode) of administration
b. reversible AchE inhibitor with short duration of action
what is the pharmacologic description of pralidoxime (2-PAM):
a. direct acting agonist selective for muscarinic receptor
b. reversible AchE inhibitor with short duration of action
c. irreversible AchE inhibitor employed in chemical warfare
d. antidote for organophosphate poisoning
e. direct acting agonist with muscarinic and nicotinic receptor activity that is made selective by route (mode) of administration
d. antidote for organophosphate poisoning
what is the pharmacologic description of carbachol:
a. direct acting agonist selective for muscarinic receptor
b. reversible AchE inhibitor with short duration of action
c. irreversible AchE inhibitor employed in chemical warfare
d. antidote for organophosphate poisoning
e. direct acting agonist with muscarinic and nicotinic receptor activity that is made selective by route (mode) of administration
e. direct acting agonist with muscarinic and nicotinic receptor activity that is made selective by route (mode) of administration
what is the pharmacologic description of soman:
a. direct acting agonist selective for muscarinic receptor
b. reversible AchE inhibitor with short duration of action
c. irreversible AchE inhibitor employed in chemical warfare
d. antidote for organophosphate poisoning
e. direct acting agonist with muscarinic and nicotinic receptor activity that is made selective by route (mode) of administration
c. irreversible AchE inhibitor employed in chemical warfare
what is the pharmacologic description of pilocarpine:
a. direct acting agonist selective for muscarinic receptor
b. reversible AchE inhibitor with short duration of action
c. irreversible AchE inhibitor employed in chemical warfare
d. antidote for organophosphate poisoning
e. direct acting agonist with muscarinic and nicotinic receptor activity that is made selective by route (mode) of administration
a. direct acting agonist selective for muscarinic receptor
if treatment of organophosphate poisoning is delayed, AchE cannot be rescued because of the process referred to as:
a. covalent bonding
b. sequestration
c. aging
d. desensitization
e. receptor dimerization
c. aging
select the naturally derived plant drug known as calabar bean, Ordeal bean, and Eserine:
a. atropine
b. physostigmine
c. pilocarpine
d. muscarine
e. benztropine
b. physostigmine
Match a drug to each pharmacologic action (drugs may be used more than once):

drugs: atropine, neostigmine, edrophonium, echothiophate, succinylcholine

a. produces cycloplegia
b. bladder emptying after oral administration
c. contraindicated in patients with prostatic hypertrophy
d. skeletal muscle fasiculation followed by paralysis
e. indirect acting miotic with long duration of action
atropine: a. produces cycloplegia

neostigmine: b. bladder emptying after oral administration

atropine c. contraindicated in patients with prostatic hypertrophy

succinylcholine: d. skeletal muscle fasiculation followed by paralysis

echothiophate: e. indirect acting miotic with long duration of action
what is the effect of epi on cardiac contractile force?
a. increase
b. decrease
c. decrease then increase
d. no change
e. none of the above is true
a. increase
to account for the rise in pulse pressure and mean arterial pressure after epi, we must consider the facts that:
a. epi activates alpha1 receptors only
b. epi activates beta1 receptors only
c. epi activates alpha1 and beta1 receptors
d. epi activates alpha1 and beta2 receptors
e. epi activates beta1 and beta2 receptors
c. epi activates alpha1 and beta1 receptors
propranolol prevents epi-induced change in heart rate because:
a. it blocks the SA node
b. it blocks conduction from atrium to ventricle
c. it blocks alpha and beta receptors
d. it prevents epi effects on beta1 receptors
e. none of the above explanations is relevant
d. it prevents epi effects on beta1 receptors
the sharper rise in systolic and diastolic pressures after propranolol can be most appropriately attributed to which of the following drug properties?
a. epi stimulates alpha1 receptors and propranolol blocks beta1 receptors
b. epi stimulates alpha2 receptors and propranolol blocks beta2 receptors
c. epi stimulates alpha1 receptors and propranolol blocks beta2 receptors
d. epi activates all beta receptros and propranolol blocks all beta receptors
e. none of the above explanations correctly accounts for the response profile
c. epi stimulates alpha1 receptors and propranolol blocks beta2 receptors
considering the adrenergic nerve terminal, if uptake2 were blocked, the consequences would include:
a. excessive reuptake of NE
b. less response to amphetamine
c. greater response to endogenous NE
d. decreased enzyme activity of COMT
e. increased enzyme activity of MAO
c. greater response to endogenous NE
what would be the effect of administering reserpine on sympathoadrenergic activity?
a. there would be decreased vesicular storage of transmitter
b. there would be decreased release of transmitter
c. there would be decreased activity of MAO
d. both a and b are correct
e. both a and c are correct
d. both a and b are correct
drugs with a primary mechanism of action at uptake1 include:
a. tolcapone
b. metyrosine
c. amphetamine
d. salbutamol
e. cocaine
e. cocaine
considering cardiac postsynaptic cells, what subtypes of alpha and beta adrenoceptors can we expect to contribute to physiological tissue activity?
a. alpha1 adrenoceptors only
b. beta1 adrenoceptors only
c. alpha2 adrenoceptors only
d. alpha1 and beta1 adrenoceptors
e. beta1 and beta2 adrenoceptors
d. alpha1 and beta1 adrenoceptors
given the distribution of receptor subtypes at the postsynaptic cells of the autonomic nervous system, which of the following combination of drugs would completely mimic the action of epi at these sites?
a. xylometazoline and xamoterol
b. salbutamol and salmeterol
c. clonidine and ritodrine
d. metaraminol and metaproterenol
e. methoxamine and moxonidine
a. xylometazoline and xamoterol
which of the following are legitimate uses of alpha agonists?
a. to increase blood flow and blood pressure following cardiogenic shock
b. to decrease blood flow in epistaxis or gingivectomy
c. to decrease nasal congestion
d. both a and c are correct
e. all of the above uses are legitimate
e. all of the above uses are legitimate
if one took an OD of amphetamnine, we can expect which of the following symptoms?
a. HTN
b. tachycardia
c. CHF
d. both a and b are correct
e. all of the above are correct
d. both a and b are correct
what is common in the pharmacology of the following set of drugs: acebutolol, atenolol, metoprolol?
a. they are all beta antagonists
b. they are all beta1 selective antagonists
c. they are all beta2 selective antagonists
d. both a and b are correct
e. both a and c are correct
d. both a and b are correct
butoxamine should be avoided in an asthmatic because:
a. it induces massive insulin release
b. it stimulates beta2 receptors on the lungs
c. it blocks fluid production needed to lubricate the lungs
d. all of the above are correct
e. none of the above is correct
e. none of the above is correct
which of the following are a contraindication for propranolol?
a. diabetes
b. asthma
c. PVD (Raynaud's dz)
d. both a and b
e. all of the above
e. all of the above
either prazosin or pindolol may be used to treat HTN. what is true about these drugs?
a. they are both adrenoceptor antagonists
b. prazosin decreases peripheral resistance while pindolol decreases cardiac output
c. prazosin can cause orthostatic hypotension while pindolol may not cause resting bradycardia
d. both a and b are correct
e. all of the above are correct
e. all of the above are correct
what properties of terazosin qualify it for use in the treatment of BPH?
a. it is an alpha antagonist
b. it is a better anticancer agent than prazosin
c. it blocks micturition
d. all of the above are correct
e. none of the above is correct
a. it is an alpha antagonist
which of the following statements may be true of ritodrine?
a. it is an adrenoceptor agonist
b. it is a beta2 antagonist
c. it is used to delay premature labor
d. both a and c are correct
e. both b and c are correct
d. both a and c are correct
select the example of a depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent
a. sux
b. pyridostigmine
c. tubocurarine
d. a and b
e. all of the above
a. sux
a patient exhibiting severe SLUD reaction is a candidate for treatment with:
a. tubocurarine
b. physostigmine
c. atropine and 2PAM
d. pyridostigmine
e. edrophonium
c. atropine and 2PAM
the nicotinic cholinergic receptor in adult human muscle is a:
a. alpha2-beta-gamma-delta Na+ channel
b. 12 transmembrane spanning receptor operated Na+ channel
c. 7 transmembrane spanning G-protein coupled receptor
d. ATP-dependent K+ channel
e. ligand-operated Ca++ channel
a. alpha2-beta-gamma-delta Na+ channel
match the following drugs and their neuropharmacologic action at the cholinergic system: hemicholinium, botulinum toxin, bethanechol, pirenzepine, tubocurarine

a. selective blocker of muscarinic receptors
b. inhibits synthesis of Ach
c. competitive antagonist of Ach at nicotinic receptors
d. selective muscarinic receptor agonist
e. prevents release of Ach from synaptic vesicles
pirenzepine: a. selective blocker of muscarinic receptors

hemicholinium: b. inhibits synthesis of Ach

tubocurarine: c. competitive antagonist of Ach at nicotinic receptors

bethanechol: d. selective muscarinic receptor agonist

botulinum toxin: e. prevents release of Ach from synaptic vesicles
mydriasis:
a. phenylephrine
b. atropine
c. scopolamine
d. a and b
e. all of the above
d. a and b
cycloplegia:
a. homatropine
b. phenylephrine
c. physostigmine
d. timolol
e. a and b
a. homatropine
bradycardia:
a. physostigmine
b. atropine
c. phenylephrine
d. phentolamine
c. phenylephrine
tachycardia:
a. atropine
b. phentolamine
c. isoproterenol
d. a and b
e. all of the above
e. all of the above
treat asthma:
a. isoproterenol
b. ipratropium
c. atropine
d. a and b
e. all of the above
a. isoproterenol
treat pheochromocytoma
a. phentolamine
b. metoprolol
c. labetalol
d. a and b
e. c or d
c. labetalol
site of action of phenylephrine to cause mydriasis:
a. radial muscle of iris
b. pupillary sphincter muscle
c. CNS
a. radial muscle of iris
site of action of atropine to cause mydriasis:
a. radial muscle of iris
b. pupillary sphincter muscle
c. CNS
b. pupillary sphincter muscle
site of action of homatropine to cause cycloplegia:
a. ciliary muscle
b. pupillary sphincter
a ciliary muscle
site of action of phenylephrine to cause bradycardia:
a. cardiac
b. presynaptic receptors
c. arteriole
c. arteriole
site of action of atropine to cause tachycardia:
a. cardiac
b. arteriole
c. cardiac/arteriole
a. cardiac
site of action of phentolamine to cause tachycardia:
a. cardiac
b. arteriole
c. cardiac/arteriole
b. arteriole
site of action of isoproterenol to cause tachycardia:
a. cardiac
b. arteriole
c. cardiac/arteriole
c. cardiac/arteriole
site of action of isoproterenol to treat asthma:
a. bronchial smooth muscle
b. presynaptic parasympathetic nervous system
a. bronchial smooth muscle
site of action of labetalol to treat pheochromocytoma:
a. arteriole
b. cardiac
c. arteriole and cardiac
c. arteriole and cardiac
generally, presynaptic adrenoceptors:
a. regulate transmitter reuptake
b. regulate transmitter metabolism
c. regulate transmitter release
d. regulate calcium influx
e. all of the above
c. regulate transmitter release
reserpine:
a. inhibits dopamine synthesis
b. inhibits vesicular dopamine uptake
c. inhibits dopamine catabolism
d. inhibits NE release
e. inhibits vesicular ATP synthesis
b. inhibits vesicular dopamine uptake
if you lack uptake 2, we can expect that:
approximately 80% of released NE will remain at the synapse
b. approximately 20% of released NE will be taken back into the neuron
c. most of the NE released will be metabolized by MAO
d. postsynaptic receptors will become desensitized
e. there will be minimal impact on presynaptic NE reuptake
e. there will be minimal impact on presynaptic NE reuptake
phenoxybenzamine (P) is similar to indoramin (I) in that:
a. P and I both block alpha1 receptors
b. P and I are irreversible receptor antagonists
C. P and I cannot be used in treating pheochromocytoma
d. both drugs, though acting at different receptors, reduce BP by 50%
e. none of the above is true
a. P and I both block alpha1 receptors
administration of a beta1-selective antagonist will inhibit which of the following cardiac functions?
a. chronotropy
b. inotropy
c. sympathetic maintenance of cardiac output
d. a and b are correct
e. all of the above are correct
e. all of the above are correct
pharmacologically, which of the following drugs is least like the others:
a. metaproterenol
b. fenoterol
c. salbutamol
d. ritodrine
e. xamoterol
e. xamoterol
the class of drugs that acts to ultimately increase transmitter release is:
dihydroxyphenylalanine decarboxylase inhibitors
b. COMT inhibitors
c. tyrosine hydroxylase inhibitors
d. MAO inhibitors
e. dopamine vesicular storage inhibitors
d. MAO inhibitors
which of the following drug pairs represents opposite pharmacological classes?
a. salbutamol and salmeterol
b. metaraminol and metoprolol
c. metaproterenol and arterenol
d. betaxolol and butoxamine
e. penbutolol and pirbuterol
e. penbutolol and pirbuterol
in a postsynaptic cell that is a vascular smooth muscle cell, what subtypes of adrenoceptors can we expect to be functionally relevant in this tissue?
a. only alpha1 adrenoceptors
b. only beta2 adrenoceptors
c. only alpha2 adrenoceptors
d. both beta1 and alpha2 adrenoceptors
e. both alpha1 and beta2 adrenoceptors
e. both alpha1 and beta2 adrenoceptors
Which of the following combinations of drugs would completely block the action of epi on BP?
a. phenoxybenzamine and propranolol
b. phentolamine and pindolol
c. prazosin and butoxamine
d. a or b
e. any of the above
d. a or b
if a person ingested tyramine-containing foods while receiving a MAO inhibitor, he/she is at risk for:
a. hypertensive crisis
b. stroke
c. GI bleeding
d. a and b are correct
e. all of the above are correct
d. a and b are correct
beta antagonists when used long term to treat HTN produce:
a. decreased CO
b. decreased PVR
c. decreased BP
d. both a and b are correct
e. all of the above are correct
e. all of the above are correct
which of the following will produce mydriasis when instilled in the eye:
a. echothiophate
b. phenylephrine
c. pilocarpine
d. a and b
e. all of the above
b. phenylephrine
which of the following will produce miosis and lens thickening simultaneously when instilled in the eye?
a. pilocarpine
b. tropicamide
c. phenylephrine
d. a and b
e. all of the above
a. pilocarpine
which of the following will cause mydriasis and lens flattening simultaneously when instilled in the eye?
a. atropine
b. phenylephrine
c. pilocarpine
d. a and b
e. all of the above
d. a and b
scopolamine is contraindicated in subjects with:
a. glaucoma
b. prostatic hypertrophy with urinary retention
c. myasthenia gravis
d. a and b
e. all of the above
d. a and b
contraction of smooth muscle by NE is via:
a. G-protein coupled receptor
b. production of IP3/DAG
c. opening of K+ channels
d. a and b
e. all of the above
d. a and b
relaxation of the smooth muscle by Ach is via:
a. G-protein coupled receptor
b. production of NO
c. activation of guanylyl cylcase
d. a and b
e. all of the above
e. all of the above
a 3 year-old child has been admitted to the ER. antimuscarinic drug OD is suspected. Antimuscarinic OD may cause all of the following except:
a. blurred vision
b. hyperthermia
c. GI atonia
d. miosis
e. tachycardia
d. miosis
the following may cause cycloplegia when used topically in the eye:
a. atropine
b. tropicamide
c. physostigmine
d. a and b
e. all of the above
d. a and b
accepted therapeutic indications for the use of antimuscarinic drugs include all of the following except:
a. Parkinsons' dz
b. glaucoma
c. traveler's diarrhea
d. motion sickness
e. postoperative bladder spasm
b. glaucoma
tubocurarine:
a. used in treatment of hypertensive emergency
b. adjunct to anesthesia to produce skeletal muscle relaxation
c. administered in "heroic" doses in treatment of organophosphate poisoning
d. used to treat post-surgical atony
b. adjunct to anesthesia to produce skeletal muscle relaxation
neostigmine:
a. used in treatment of hypertensive emergency
b. adjunct to anesthesia to produce skeletal muscle relaxation
c. administered in "heroic" doses in treatment of organophosphate poisoning
d. used to treat post-surgical atony
d. used to treat post-surgical atony
trimethaphan:
a. used in treatment of hypertensive emergency
b. adjunct to anesthesia to produce skeletal muscle relaxation
c. administered in "heroic" doses in treatment of organophosphate poisoning
d. used to treat post-surgical atony
a. used in treatment of hypertensive emergency
atropine:
a. used in treatment of hypertensive emergency
b. adjunct to anesthesia to produce skeletal muscle relaxation
c. administered in "heroic" doses in treatment of organophosphate poisoning
d. used to treat post-surgical atony
c. administered in "heroic" doses in treatment of organophosphate poisoning
this drug is most selective for muscarinic receptors:
a. Ach
b. methacholine
c. carbachol
d. bethanechol
d. bethanechol
increase in BP after pretreatment with atropine and administration of a large dose (5 mg) of Ach is due principally to Ach stimulation of:
a. muscarinic M3 receptors on endothelial cells associated with arterioles
b. nicotinic receptors on sympathetic ganglia
c. nicotinic receptors on the adrenal medulla
d. a and b
e. b and c
e. b and c
for NO to be effective it must activate:
a. adenylyl cyclase to produce cAMP
b. guanylyl cyclase to produce cGMP
c. phospholipase to produce IP3/DAG
d. a and b
e. all of the above
b. guanylyl cyclase to produce cGMP
the mechanism of action of viagra in treatment of ED is to:
a. increase release of NO via stimulation of NO synthase
b. inhibition of degradation of NO upon sexual stimulation
c. inhibition of degradation of Ach
d. inhibition of degradation of cGMP
e. inhibition of degradation of cAMP
d. inhibition of degradation of cGMP
with respect to the respiratory system and asthma, all of the following are true except:
a. cholinergic agonists cause increased smooth muscle contraction and bronchoconstriction
b. postganglionic sympathetic nerve stimulation causes bronchodilation
c. inhalation of beta2 receptor agonists produce bronchodilation
d. beta2 receptor blockers are contraindicated while inhaled muscarinic receptor antagonists are therapeutic in asthma
a. cholinergic agonists cause increased smooth muscle contraction and bronchoconstriction
the mechanism of the antidote 2-PAM against organophosphate poisoning is:
a. antagonist of muscarinic and nicotinic receptors which are overstimulated by the poison
b. blockade of AchE to prevent binding of the poison
c. regeneration of the AchE via hydrolysis of the poison
d. reduction in release of Ach to decrease further stimulation of central and peripheral cholinergic receptors
e. enhance metabolism of Ach to decrease further stimulation of central and peripheral cholinergic receptors
c. regeneration of the AchE via hydrolysis of the poison
myasthenia gravis results from:
a. genetic disorder
b. adverse drug reaction
c. viral infection
d. autoimmune disorder
e. bacterial infection
d. autoimmune disorder
histopathologic characteristics of myasthenia gravis include:
a. loss of cholinergic innervation to NMJ
b. loss of nicotinic receptors at the NMJ
c. widening of the synaptic cleft
d. a and b
e. all of the above
d. a and b
pathophysiologic characteristics of myasthenia gravis include:
a. ineffective CAT
b. ineffective choline transporter
c. circulating antibody to Nm receptors
d. a and b
e. all of the above
c. circulating antibody to Nm receptors
although the half-life of atropine and scopolamine is only a few hours the effects when instilled in the eye of patients with highly pigmented eyes may require _____ for full recovery of accommodation and pupil diameter:
a. 12 hours
b. 1 day
c. 7-10 days
d. 4 weeks
c. 7-10 days
tyramine exemplifies the pharmacologic mechanism of:
a. ganglionic blockade
b. inhibition of transmitter release
c. facilitation of transmitter release
d. interference with vesicular storage
e. blockade of transmitter reuptake
c. facilitation of transmitter release
which of the following is/are true of catecholamine uptake systems?
a. uptake 1 is presynaptic and uptake 2 is postsynaptic
b. uptake 1 can transport norepinephrine while uptake 2 does not transport norepinephrine
c. uptake 1 is located at the plasma membrane while uptake 2 is located in the cell cytoplasm
d. both a and b are correct
e. both a and c are correct
a. uptake 1 is presynaptic and uptake 2 is postsynaptic
with repeated administration, reserpine can induce a hypoadrenergic state because:
a. it prevents vesicular NE storage
b. it blocks dopamine transport via the vesicular monoamine transporter
c. it decreases the release of NE
d. both a and c are correct
e. all of the above are correct
d. both a and c are correct
alpha2 selective agonists include all of the following except:
a. clonidine
b. guanabenz
c. rilmenidine
d. moxonidine
e. methoxamine
e. methoxamine
the SNS generally consists of a preganglionic neuron, a ganglion, and a postganglionic neuron that releases NE into the synaptic cleft. one exception to this arrangement may be found in which anatomic structure?
a. myocardium
b. blood vessels
c. liver
d. kidney
e. uterus
d. kidney
hexamethonium illustrates the pharmacologic mechanism of:
a. ganglionic blockade
b. inhibition of transmitter release
c. facilitation of transmitter release
d. interference with vesicular storage
e. blockade of transmitter reuptake
a. ganglionic blockade
a major difference between the pharmacology of cocaine and pargyline is that:
a. one acts at the presynaptic terminal while the other acts at postsynaptic sites
b. one leads to an increase in noradrenergic transmission while the other is sympatholytic
c. one has clinically relevant uses while the other does not
d. one can be used for the treatment of hypertension while the other cannot
e. none of the above contrasts is correct
COME BACK TO THIS CARD

a?
on the basis of their pharmacological mechanism, which of the following drugs does not belong in the group?
a. albuterol
b. fenoterol
c. perbuterol
d. salmeterol
e. xamoterol
e. xamoterol
considering the general chemical structures of sympathomimetic agents, deletion of the 3,4 dihydroxy groups on the phenyl ring of NE tends to produce what effect(s)?
a. increased alpha receptor potency
b. increased beta receptor potency
c. indirect sympathomimetic activity
d. decreased transport through the BBB
e. none of the above is correct
d. decreased transport through the BBB
which of the following is a good example of a sympathomimetic agent that is not a catecholamine?
a. epinephrine
b. ephedrine
c. amphetamine
d. both a and b are correct
e. both b and c are correct
e. both b and c are correct
avocados as well as several types of cheeses and wines are contraindicated in individuals taking MAO inhibitors simply because:
a. these foods contain tyramine
b. tyramine is an indirect-acting sympathomimetic
c. MAO inhibitors reduce NE breakdown
d. the food and drug combination would synergistically increase sympathomimetic activity resulting in a hypertensive crisis
e. all of the above statements contribute to the explanation for the stated contraindication
e. all of the above statements contribute to the explanation for the stated contraindication
if the potency of drug x, an alpha receptor antagonist, is significantly greater at the alpha1 receptor than at the alpha2 receptor, then:
a. drug X can be used to treat HTN with low risk of increased NE release
b. drug X cannot be used to treat HTN because it would cause alpha2-mediated sympathetic hyperstimulation
c. drug X would have a high liability for producing postural hypotension as a result of alpha1 receptor blockade
d. both statements a and c are correct of drug X
e. none of the above statements can correctly predict the pharmacology of drug X
d. both statements a and c are correct of drug X
how can the pharmacological profile of epinephrine be converted to that of isoproterenol?
a. by pretreatment with NE
b. by pretreatment with propranolol
c. by pretreatment with phentolamine
d. by pretreatment with betaxolol
e. none of the above treatments can pharmacologically convert epi into isoproterenol
c. by pretreatment with phentolamine
sometimes combination treatment of HTN is warranted. which of the following drug combinations could work cooperatively to enhance a clinical hypotensive response?
a. alpha1 antagonist and alpha2 agonist
b. alpah1 antagonist and beta1 antagonist
c. beta1 antagonist and beta2 agonist
d. both a and b are correct
e. all of the above combinations will produce the desired effect
e. all of the above combinations will produce the desired effect

(?)
NE release in the eye physiologically causes:
a. contraction of the radial muscle and consequent miosis
b. relaxation of the ciliary muscle and consequent accommodation for far vision
c. activation of alpha1 receptors and consequent increased aqueous humor production
d. activation of beta1 receptors on the radial muscles to cause mydriasis
e. none of the above options represents a true physiological consequence of NE release in the eye
b. relaxation of the ciliary muscle and consequent accommodation for far vision

(?)
which of the statements is false of adrenoceptors in the respiratory system?
a. their major role includes dilation of the bronchioles
b. their major role includes decongestion of the upper respiratory tract
c. their major actions are mediated through beta2 and alpha1 receptors
d. the actions of these receptors are crucial to the fight or flight response
e. none of the above statements is false of adrenoceptors in the respiratory system
e. none of the above statements is false of adrenoceptors in the respiratory system

(?)
terazosin is used for the treatment of BPH because:
a. it constricts the neck of the bladder
b. it facilitates ejaculation
c. it relaxes the musculature of the prostate gland
d. it blocks the production of prostatic fluid
e. it inhibits male sexual drive
c. it relaxes the musculature of the prostate gland
fenoldopam is a dopamine D1 receptor agonist whose clinical importance derives from its ability to:
a. decrease gastric secretions
b. decrease myocardial contractility
c. decrease ocular pressure
d. decrease renal vascular resistance
e. decrease uterine tone during premature labor
d. decrease renal vascular resistance
BRL-37344 is a beta3-selective agonist. there is great interest in developing this agent into a clinically usable drug because of the expectation that beta3 agonist would:
a. increase BP in shock patients
b. decrease lipocyte mass in obese patients
c. prevent glycogen storage in liver and muscle
d. increase urinary elimination of ethanol in chronic alcoholics
e. counteract the negative effects of albuterol-like drugs during asthma therapy
b. decrease lipocyte mass in obese patients
beta receptor antagonists that can be used more safely to treat HTN in asthmatics include all of the following except:
a. acebutolol
b. betaxolol
c. atenolol
d. celiprolol
e. penbutolol
e. penbutolol
the reason propranolol is contraindicated in persons with concurrent depression is because:
a. it blocks beta receptors
b. it is highly lipid-soluble
c. it crosses the BBB
d. it has intrinsic sympathomimetic activity
e. all of the above except D
e. all of the above except d
pharmacological effects of alpha1 receptor antagonists include all of the following except:
a. decreased PVR
b. decreased BP
c. postural hypotension
d. increased NE release
e. compensatory increase in blood volume
d. increased NE release

(?)
pindolol has ISA. therefore, pindolol should not be used:
a. in persons with asthma
b. in individuals at risk of premature labor
c. in persons with HTN
d. in menopausal women or men during the "mid-life" crisis
e. none of the above conditions should preclude the use of pindolol by virtue of its intrinsic activity
e?
the pharmacological profile of carvedilol is most similar to that of:
a. esmolol
b. labetalol
c. metoprolol
d. nadolol
e. timolol
b. labetalol
beta antagonists are very popular in antihypertensive therapy possibly because of all of the following reasons except:
a. they block the chronotropic effects of NE
b. they block the inotropic effects of NE
c. they reduce CO
d. they reduce PVR
e. they reduce mean BP
d. they reduce PVR
Mr. Brown has recently had a successful cardiac transplant operation in which his badly damaged and failing heart was replaced by a healthy donor organ. Note that upon removal of the heart from the donor, the autonomic nerves degenerate and the autonomic receptors are no longer stimulated by their respective transmitters when transplanted to the recipient.

Which of the following drugs would be expected to have the SMALLEST effect on Mr. Brown’s transplanted heart function as compared with the function of a normal heart within a healthy subject’s body?
a. Bethanechol
b. Isoproterenol
c. Norepinephrine
d. Propranolol
e. Ephedrine
d. Propranolol
e. Ephedrine

(?)
Mr. Brown has recently had a successful cardiac transplant operation in which his badly damaged and failing heart was replaced by a healthy donor organ. Note that upon removal of the heart from the donor, the autonomic nerves degenerate and the autonomic receptors are no longer stimulated by their respective transmitters when transplanted to the recipient.

Which of the following drugs would be expected to have the GREATEST effect on Mr. Brown’s transplanted heart function as compared with the function of a normal heart within a healthy subject’s body?
a. Physostigmine
b. Phenylephrine
c. Isoproterenol
d. Propranolol
e. Atropine
c. Isoproterenol
match each drug to a neuropharmacologic action.
drugs:
hemicholinium-3, botulinum toxin, bethanechol, pirenzepine, tubocurarine

a. Selective blocker of muscarinic receptors
b. Inhibits synthesis of acetylcholine
c. Competitive antagonist of acetylcholine at nicotinic receptors
d. Selective muscarinic receptor agonist
e. Prevents release of acetylcholine from synaptic vesicles
pirenzepine: a. Selective blocker of muscarinic receptors

hemicholinium-3: b. Inhibits synthesis of acetylcholine

tubocurarine: c. Competitive antagonist of acetylcholine at nicotinic receptors

bethanechol: d. Selective muscarinic receptor agonist

botulinum toxin: e. Prevents release of acetylcholine from synaptic vesicles
identify the irreversible AchE inhibitor (ACHEI):
a. physostigmine
b. edrophonium
c. isoflurophate
d. 2-PAM
e. pyridostigmine
c. isoflurophate
sildenafil is effective in the treatment of ED because it:
a. causes release of NO
b. prevents metabolism of NO
c. prevents metabolism of cGMP
d. all of the above
e. a and b
c. prevents metabolism of cGMP
in the list below the drug of choice for decreasing secretions and relaxing bronchial smooth muscle of an asthmatic patient is:
a. metaproterenol
b. ipratropium
c. isoproterenol
d. phentolamine
e. scopolamine
b. ipratropium
scopolamine is contraindicated in patients with:
a. glaucoma
b. urinary retention
c. myasthenia gravis
d. a and b
e. all of the above
d. a and b
which of the following drugs, injected IV by itself, would produce a response similar to the profile obtained with the combination of propranolol and epinephrine?
a. metoprolol
b. oxymetazoline
c. isoprenaline (isoproterenol)
d. a and b
e. none of the above
b. oxymetazoline
drugs with a primary mechanism of action at uptake1 include:
a. cocaine
b. imipramine
c. reserpine
d. a and b
e. all of the above
d. a and b
inhibition of NE release:
a. pargyline
b. clonidine
c. cocaine
d. amphetamine
e. both a and b are correct
b. clonidine
administration of a beta1 selective antagonist will affect all of the following functions except:
a. rate of myocardial contraction
b. force of myocardial contraction
c. pulse pressure
d. cardiac output
e. peripheral vascular resistance (PVR)
e. PVR
xylometazoline is recommended for the relief of nasal congestion because:
a. it stimulates alpha1 receptors
b. it blocks alpha1 receptors
c. it stimulates alpha2 receptors
d. it stimulates beta2 receptors
e. it blocks all receptors involved in mucus secretion
a. it stimulates alpha1 receptors
the indirect-acting sympathomimetics are so-called because:
a. they modulate NE binding to adrenoceptors
b. they modulate epi binding to adrenoceptors
c. they enter the nerve terminal and cause the release of NE
d. they enhance synthesis of monoamine transmitter
e. all of the above are correct
c. they enter the nerve terminal and cause the release of NE
the adverse effects of non-selective alpha receptor antagonism include:
a. postural hypotension
b. tachycardia
c. nasal stuffiness
d. a and b
e. all of the above
e. all of the above
which of the following is true about the beta antagonists?
a. esmolol has an ultra-short duration of action
b. pindolol has ISA
c. propranolol has high lipid solubility
d. a and b
e. all of the above
e. all of the above
the main mechanism for terminating the synaptic action of NE depends on the activity of:
a. uptake1
b. uptake2
c. vesicular storage 1
d. COMT
e. MAO
a. uptake1
the person who received the nobel prize for discovering propranolol was:
a. sir John Vane
b. Sir James Black
c. Robert Furchgott
d. a and b received it jointly
e. b and c received it jointly
b. sir james black
The therapeutic action of clonidine, guanabenz and methyldopa may be diminished by administration of a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) because TCAs:
a. block alpha2 receptors
b. block alpha 1 receptors
c. enhance the exocytotic release of norepinephrine
d. a and b
e. all of the above


(2004exam3)
a. block alpha2 receptors