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251 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What is the hierarchical organization of the body?
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cells --> tissues --> functional units --> organs --> organ systems --> organism
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What are the 4 major cell types in the body?
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neurons, muscle cells, epithelial cells, connective tissues
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Name the 3 types of muscle cells and state whether or not they are under voluntary or involuntary control.
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skeletal muscle (voluntary), cardiac muscle (involuntary), smooth muscle (involuntary)
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Which type of cells are found wherever body fluids must be kept separate from the external environment?
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epithelial cells
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What is basement layer of epithelial cells?
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a thin underlying layer of noncellular material
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What is the primary function of connective tissue cells?
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to provide physical support, anchor or link together structures
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Which type of cells includes blood cells, bone cells and fat cells?
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connective tissue cells
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What is the primary function of muscle cells?
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to contract and produce movement
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What is the primary function of nerve cells?
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generate and propagate electrical signals
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What is the primary function of epithelial cells?
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secretion and absorption; protection
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Which type of cells are found in blood vessels, the bladder, the GI tract and the uterus?
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smooth muscle cells
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Name the 10 organ systems.
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endocrine, nervous, musculoskeletal, cardiovascular, respiratory, urinary, GI, reproductie, immune, integumentary (skin)
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Which organs/organ systems/functional units are in contact with the exterior environment?
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GI tract, nephron & lungs
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T or F. The epithelium layer runs through the entire body except in the lungs.
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False. It runs through the entire body.
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What is the volume of total body water?
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42 L
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What is the volume of water in the intracellular fluid (ICF)?
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28 L
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What is the volume of water in the interstitial fluid (ISF)?
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11 L
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What is the volume of water in the plasma?
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3L
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The extracellular fluid (ECF) includes the _________ and ________ and account for ____ of total body water.
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interstitial fluid; plasma; 1/3
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The intracellular fluid (ICF) accounts for how much of total body water?
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2/3
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The ECF _________ tissues and makes up the ________________ of the body.
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bathes; internal milieu
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T or F. Plasma is low in protein.
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False.
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T or F. There is a constant exchange between plasma and ISF.
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True.
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How did Walter Cannon define homeostasis?
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"The maintenance of static or constant conditions in the internal environment."
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What must animals do in order to maintain homeostasis?
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1. Detect external conditions.
2. Initiate compensatory responses if necessary 3. Keep vital areas buffered from unfavorable changes |
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What is a signal in a negative feedback loop compared to?
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the set point
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Which part of the negative feedback loop send a message to the effectors?
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integrating center
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What are reflexes?
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involuntary, unpremeditated, unlearned responses to a stimulus
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T or F. Once acquired, reflexes cannot be altered by learning.
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False. Most are altered by learning
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Where does the afferent pathway go?
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to the integrating center
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Where does the efferent pathway go?
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from the integrating center to the effectors
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Give an example of a + feedback loop?
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birthing contractions; action potential (Na in, opens channels, allows more Na in)
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T or F. Under normal conditions, body temperature is usually exactly at the set point.
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False. Body temperature is relatively stable but is never exactly at the set point.
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Which is a faster form of intercellular communication... hormones or neurotransmitters?
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neurotransmitters
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Which type of intercellular communication acts locally on target cells by diffusion?
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autocrine/paracrine
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T or F. Autocrine agents act on neighbouring cells.
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False. Autocrine agents work on the same cell, paracrine agents work on neighboring cells.
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T or F. Fatty acid tails are non polar.
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True.
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Most _________ cells have tight junctions.
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epithelial
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Describe tight junctions.
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- strongest type of junction
- join extracellular membranes of adjacent cells - block extracellular transport between cells - substances must go transcellularly - form a selective barrier |
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Where are desmosomes commonly found?
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in areas of stretching (skin) or high mechanical stress (cardiac cells)
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What are connexons?
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protein channels found in gap junctions that link cytosols of adjacent cells
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How big are connexons?
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small; 1.5nm diameter
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Where are gap junctions often found and what type of signals do they involve?
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cardiac cells at intercalated disks; electrical signals
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____________ add phosphate groups from ATP to proteins.
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protein kinases
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Phosphates can be removed by __________.
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protein phosphatases
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Binding of phosphate group to amino acid side chains is an example of ________ modulation.
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covalent
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Cell metabolism is composed of _________ (synthesis) and _________ (breakdown)
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anabolism; catabolism
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Enzymes often need ____________ or ___________.
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cofactors; coenzymes
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T or F. Mg is a coenzyme.
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False. Mg is a cofactor
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T or F. NAD+ is a coenzyme.
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True.
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Enzymes decrease the activation energy and increase reaction rates by a factor of what?
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10^5 - 10^17
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What do rates of enzyme reactions depend on?
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1) [S] or [P]
2) [E] 3) enzyme activity |
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High affinity means ____ Km.
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low
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What is the Law of Mass Action?
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A reaction can be made to go either froward or in reverse by raising or lowering the concentrations of reactants relative to products.
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At 1/2 vmax _____ = Km.
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[S]
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T or F. 50 % of binding sites are saturated at vmax.
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False. 100%
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What does the magnitude of a cell's response depend on?
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1) The messenger's concentration
2) # of receptors present 3) affinity of receptor for messenger |
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What is the Michaelis-Menton equation?
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Vo = [S]vmax / Km + [S]
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At high affinities, 1/2 vmax occurs at a ______ [S].
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lower
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Affinity = ______.
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1/Km
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ATP can be produced by......
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1) substrate-level phosphorylation
2) Kreb's cycle 3) oxidative phosphorylation |
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T or F. The outer mitochondrial membrane is impermeable.
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False. It is freely permeable to small molecules and ions.
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T or F. The inner mitochondrial membrane is impermeable.
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True. It is impermeable to most small molecules including H+
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Kreb's cycle enzymes are found in the _____________.
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mitochondrial matrix
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Pyruvate dehydrogenase (PDH) is a ______________ enzyme and is found in the ___________.
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fat oxidizing; mitochondrial matrix
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Na+ or K+? The ICF contains more __________ and the ECF contains more _______.
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K+ ; Na+
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Which contains more protein, the ICF or the ECF?
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ICF
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Which contains ATP, the ICF or the ECF?
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ICF
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Diffusion occurs due to what phenomenon?
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random thermal motion
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What is flux?
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movement from one compartment to another per unit time
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When is net flux zero?
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When the system reaches diffusive equilibrium.
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What are the 4 factors that net flux depends on?
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temperature, mass of molecule, SA between 2 regions, medium of transport
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What is Fick's equation?
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F = Kp x A x (Co-Ci)
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What does a high Kp indicate?
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rapid diffusion (nonpolar mols)
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The ICF is usually ____________ charged.
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negatively
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Separation of charge = _________
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potential energy
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When does the electrochemical force = 0?
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When the chemical and electrical driving forces are equal
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When chemical force > electrical force, there is a net _____ force.
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outward
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When electrical force > chemical force, there is a net ______ force.
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inward
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What is Ek?
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equilibrium potential for K+ reflects the chemical driving force
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T or F. Facilitated diffusion is a form of mediated transport.
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True
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T or F. Facilitated diffusion can increase infinitely if concentration gradient is maintained.
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False. Simple diffusion can. Facilitated diffusion/mediated transport can become saturated and reach maximal flux
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Which type of diffusion involves a conformational change?
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facilitated
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What increases the affinity of the binding site during active transport?
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covalent modulation/ phosphorylation
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Does inward or outward movement of K+ require active transport?
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inward
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How many binding sites for Na+ does a transmembrane protein have? How many for K+?
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3; 2
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Which have leakier membranes, endotherms or ectotherms?
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endotherms
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How much faster is the metabolic rate of an endotherm compared to a similar sized ectotherm?
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10x
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Which type of active transport uses ATP directly?
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primary active transport
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How does secondary active transport work?
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uses [ion] gradient which is maintained by primary active transport as an energy source
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Give an example of symport/cotransport.
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movement of glucose and Na+ into cell
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Give an example of antiport/counter-transport.
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H+ moving outward, Na+ moving inward
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Symport and antiport are forms of ____________ active trasport.
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secondary
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What determines osmolarity?
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total [solute] in solution
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How may dissolved particles are in 1 osmolar solution?
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1 mole
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What is 1 osmole equal to?
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1M of glucose
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T or F. 1M of NaCl is equal to 1 osmole.
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False. It equals 2 osmoles.
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Describe the relationship between [H20] and osmolarity.
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inversely proportional
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How many mOsm are in isotonic ECF?
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300
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How many mOsm are in hypertonic ECF?
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400
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How many mOsm are in hypotonic ECF?
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200
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Can a solution at 300 mOsm be hypotonic. Why or why not?
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Yes. Due to penetrating solutes.
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What are the 4 features of signal transduction pathways?
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specificity, amplification, desensitization/adaptation, integration
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What are the 3 main types of membrane-bound receptors?
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channel-linked, enzyme-linked, G-protein-linked
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Are ligand gated channels fast or slow?
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fast
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Which type of receptor acts as a channel and a receptor?
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channel-linked/ ligand-gated
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What is a 1st messenger?
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intercellular chemical messenger which reaches the cell surface
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What is a 2nd messenger?
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intracellular messenger produced by the binding of the first messenger
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Name 2 important 2nd messengers.
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Ca2+, cAMP
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During glycogen breakdown in liver cells, the original hormone signal gets ____________. ________ receptors are involved.
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amplified; G-linked protein
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Why do we have a circulatory system?
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Time of diffusion is proportional to distance squared therefore gradient decreases over large distances.
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T or F. The pulmonary circuit is a high pressure system.
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False. The systemic circuit is a high pressure system.
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What is the pressure of the pulmonary circuit in mmHg?
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20 mmHg
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What is the pressure of the systemic circuit in mmHg?
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100 mmHg
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Which circuit picks up O2 at the lungs?
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pulmonary
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The systemic circuit leaves the ________ goes to the ___________________ and ends up in the ________________.
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left ventricle; organs and tissues; right atrium
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The pulmonary circuit leaves the ________ goes to the ___________________ and ends up in the ________________.
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right ventricle; lungs; left atrium
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T or F. Arteries cannot carry deoxygenated blood.
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False. Both veins and arteries can carry both oxygenated and deoxygenated blood.
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What percentage of plasma is made up of water?
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~92%
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Which is the most abundant protein in plasma?
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albumin
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T or F. Plasma and ICF have similar electrolyte values.
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False. Plasma and ISF
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What is the concentration of Na+ in the plasma?
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145 mM
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What is the concentration of Cl- in the plasma?
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100-140 mM
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What is the concentration of HCO3- in the plasma?
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24 mM
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What is the hematocrit composed of?
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red blood cells
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What is the total blood volume?
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5.5 L
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What is the volume of plasma?
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3 L
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What is the volume of RBCs?
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2.5 L
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T or F. RBCs are the most abundant cell in the body.
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True
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Which protein accounts for 85% of RBC protein content?
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hemoglobin
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Which enzyme is important for CO2 transport in RBCs?
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carbonic anhydrase (CA)
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What is the structure of a heme unit?
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ring structure
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What does a heme unit bind to?
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1 O2, a polypeptide chain (globin) which binds C02, H+, phosphates etc
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Which type of modulation does hemoglobin exhibit?
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allosteric
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Where are RBCs primarily produced?
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bone marrow
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What is the life span of an RBC? Is this long or short compared to other vertebrates?
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120 days; short
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T or F. RBCs can be recycled.
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True. ~1% per day
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What is produced when RBCs are broken down and where does this occur?
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bilirubin; spleen and liver
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Which hormone primarily regulates production of RBCs?
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erythropoietin (EPO)
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What secretes EPO?
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specialized cells in kidney
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What triggers an increase in EPO secretion?
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a decrease in O2 delivery to kidneys
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Describe polycythemia.
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Hematocrit (Rbcs) is too high, blood has high viscosity.
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Describe anemia.
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Low ability for blood to carry O2 due to low rbcs, low Hb or both.
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How can rbc production be increased?
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low O2 due to high altitude, blood doping, erythropoietin injections
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Where are leukocytes produced?
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bone marrow
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How are blood platelets formed?
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by the breakdown of wbcs
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What is the formula for Q?
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Q = delta P / R
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T or F. R cannot be directly measured.
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True. Must be calculated.
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What is MAP - CVP equal to?
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delta P
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What type of gradient drives blood flow?
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pressure gradient
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Which circuit has a lower R, systemic or pulmonary?
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pulmonary
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T or F. Blood flow is faster in the systemic circuit.
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False. Q = 5L/min for each circuit.
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What are the effects of having a low pressure and resistance pulmonary circuit?
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prevents fluid filtration in lungs, prevents shunting of blood, minimizes workload by right ventricle
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What are the effects of having a systemic circuit with high pressure and resistance?
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ensures good fluid filtration in systemic capillaries, rapid shunting of blood, left ventricle has high work-load
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T or F. The left ventricle has a thicker wall than the right ventricle.
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True. It is doing more work.
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What is the most important factor in determining resistance?
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radius
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What happens to flow if the radius is decreased by 2x? Which law does this correspond to?
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flow decreased by 16x; 4th power law
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T or F. Total resistance is greater than any single R for vessels arranged in parallel.
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False. Resistance is less than any single R for vessels arranged in parallel and greater than any single R for vessels in series (additive).
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Which is the most common arrangement of resistances in the body?
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in parallel
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Why do capillaries not have a huge total resistance even though they have a small radius?
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they are arranged in parallel
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What is TPR?
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total peripheral resistance - combined resistance of all blood vessels within systemic circuit
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What happens to flow and resistance during vasoconstriction?
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resistance increases, flow decreases
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What happens to flow and resistance during vasodilation?
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resistance decreases, flow increases
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What is the formula for MAP?
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MAP = CO x TPR
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T or F. Arterioles have a greater diameter than venuoles.
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True.
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T or F. Arteries have a greater diameter than veins.
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True.
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Does the amount of elastic tissue in the walls increase or decrease as the arteries branch into smaller arteries?
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it decreases
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Does the amount of smooth muscle in the walls increase or decrease as the arteries branch into smaller arteries?
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it increases
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Which type of blood vessels is known as a pressure reservoir?
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arteries
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T or F. Arteries have high compliance.
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False. Arteries have low compliance meaning a small increase in blood volume causes a large increase in blood pressure.
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Which layers do capillaries not have that all other blood vessels have?
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smooth muscle and connective tissue
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Which type of vlood vesseles are best known as the site where resistance to blood flow can be regulated and why?
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arterioles (due to the smooth muscle which can contract or relax)
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Which blood vessels are known as "a volume reservoir?"
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veins
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Why do veins have thinner walls than arteries?
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blood pressure in veins is lower
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Which 3 types of blood vessels are sites of exchange?
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capillaries, venules, arterioles
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What is the formula for compliance?
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compliance = delta V / delta P
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How does compliance relate to stretching?
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the higher the compliance, the greater a vessel can be stretched
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How much of the stroke volume leaves the arteries during diastole?
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1/3
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What does pulse pressure depend on?
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stroke volume, speed of ejection, compliance of arteries
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T or F. PP is inversely proportional to compliance.
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true
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In which type of blood vessel/heart compartment does bp fluctuate the most?
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left ventricle
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How does hardening of the arteries affect compliance?
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decreases compliance
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Which type of blood vessels are a major site of resistance?
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arterioles
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T or F. Arterioles are well innervated.
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True.
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What is active hyperemia and what causes it?
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metabolic rate increases causing O2 to be consumed faster than it is delivered, O2 decreases, CO2 increases, vasodilation occurs which promotes increased blood flow to increase oxygen delivery
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What is reactive hyperemia?
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decrease in blood flow causes decrease in O2 concentration, vasodilation occurs, blood flow increases
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T or F. Active hyperemia is an example of a negative feedback loop whereas reactive hyperemia is an example of a positive feedback loop.
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False. Both are negative feedback loops
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What type of receptors do arterioles have? What do they do?
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adrenergic receptors, trigger vasoconstriction through NorEpi
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Epi is released from the ________ and causes vaso_________ via alpha-adrenergic receptors and vaso______ via beta2-adrenergic receptors.
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adrenal medulla; constriction; dilation
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T or F. Epi has a greater affinity for alpha receptors.
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False. Beta2
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Which type of adrenergic receptors are found in skeletal muscle?
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both alpha and beta2
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Which type of adrenergic receptors are primarily found in most vascular beds?
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alpha
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During exercise, vaso__________ occurs in skeletal and cardiac muscle vasular beds. Vaso_____ occurs in most other vascular beds.
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Dilation; contriction
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Vaso_______ is the dominant effect during exercise.
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contriction
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T or F. The heart can act as an endocrine gland.
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True. IT can secrete atrial natriuretic hormone (a vasodilator)
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What type of hormones are angiotensin, vasopression and endothelin1?
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vasocontrictor hormones
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What is the role of metarterioles?
|
act as bypass channels or shunts from arteries to venuoles
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What effect does the large SA of capillaries have on blood velocity? Why is this important?
|
high SA leads to lower blood velocity which maximizes time for exchanging nutrients and wastes
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Which type of capillaries is the most common?
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continuous
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Continuous capillaries are very permeable to _____ soluble molecules but not ______ soluble solutes and ______.
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lipid; water; proteins
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Where are fenestrated & sinusoidal capillaries commonly found and why?
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liver- highly permeable to proteins such as albumin; bone marrow- rbcs can pass through gaps
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Net flow of fluid from plasma to ISF is called ________.
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filtration
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Net flow of fluid from ISF to plasma is called _______.
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absorption
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What are the 4 main forces determining direction of flow?
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Pcap, Pif, pi cap, pi if P = hydrostatic pressure, pi = oncotic pressure
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What does Pcap favor?
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filtration
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What does pi cap favor?
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absorption
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What does pi if favor?
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filtration
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What does Pif favor?
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absorption
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What does +NFP indicate?
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filtration
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What does -NFP indicate?
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absorption
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Is venous hydrostatic pressure higher or lower than arterial hydrostatic pressure?
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lower, due to resistance in capillaries
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Is venous oncotic pressure higher or lower than arterial oncotic pressure?
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it is the same
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Is arterial NFP + or - ?
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+
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Is venous NFP + or - ?
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-
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T or F. Filtration ususally exceeds absorption.
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True. 3-4 L enters ISF
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How is the 3-4 L that enters the ISF returned to the circulatory system?
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through the lymphatic system (lymph flow)
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What happens when the 3-4 L entering the ISF is not returned to circulation?
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edema; severe case = elephantitis
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Where in the body does filtration not occur and why?
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in the lung capillaries due to low pressure, this protects from edema
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Veins are _______ compliant and store _____% of blood volume.
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highly; 50-80
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What ensures movement towards the heart through the veins?
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one-way valves
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Is resistance high or low in veins?
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low
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What does venous pressure depend on?
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volume of blood, regulation of smooth muscle, respiratory and skeletal pumo
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What effect does muscle contraction have on venous pressure?
|
muscle contraction increases venous pressure
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What does venous return have a major effect on?
|
volume ejected by the heart
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What are the 3 layers of the heart?
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epicardium, myocardium, endocardium
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How are cardiac cells connected?
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through gap junctions
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Where are contractile cells concentrated?
|
at intercalated disks in the heart
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Which type of connections are found in intercalated disks?
|
desmosomes (resist mechanical stress)
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What determine the rate the heart beats?
|
pacemaker cells, due to autorhythmicity
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Where are pacemaker cells located?
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SA node and AV node
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Which node has a higher intrinsic rate?
|
SA node
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T or F. The AV node can take over if the SA node fails or transmission to AV is blocked.
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True
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Which heart cell types display autorhythmicity?
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pacemaker cells and conducion fibers
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What is determined by the rate of leak of + ions?
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heart rate
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What type of cells are Bundle of His and perkinje fibers?
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conduction fibers
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Which is faster rate of conduction fiber or gap junction transmission?
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conduction fiber
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How are the atria and ventricles connected?
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by conduction fibers
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Where is the AP initiated?
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SA node
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What happens to the speed of transmission when the AP reaches the AV node? Why is this important?
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slows down; to make sure atria and ventricles don't contract at same time
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Where does the AP go after the AV node?
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Bundle of His
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Where does the AP go after the Bundle of His?
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divides into left and right bundle branches along ventricle muscle (Purkinje fibers)
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Where does the contraction start?
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at the apex (bottom of the heart), travels upward
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Depolarization of membrane causes Ca2+ to ____ the cytosol.
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enter
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High intracellular Ca2+ triggers ____________.
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a muscle contraction
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Which nervous system has more connections to myocardium?
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SNS
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Which NS acts on SA and AV nodes to increase hr?
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SNS
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Which NS acts on SA and AV notes to decrease hr?
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PSNS
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What is the EDV?
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end diastolic volume = volume that heart holds when at rest
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What is ESV?
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end systolic volume = blood thats left in heart after contraction
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What happens to SV when EDV increases?
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SV increases
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What happens to SV when ESV increases?
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SV decreases
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