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82 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
75% of mortality occurs in the hospital from trauma with in ____ hours
48 hours,
Possible contraindications to cricothyroidotomy
include age younger than 12 years and suspected laryngeal trauma; permanent laryngeal damage may result in the former, and uncorrectable airway obstruction may occur in the latter situation.
Induction agent contraindicated in brain and major vascular injuries?
Ketamine due to increased ICP and BP, HR
Indicators of spine injury in awake patients
neck pain, tenderness, and extremity paresthesias
C-spine clearance for awake patient
(1) no midline cervical tenderness, (2) no focal neurologic deficit, (3) normally alert, (4) not intoxicated, and (5) no distracting painful injury
The Canadian C-Spine Rule for Radiography after Trauma
(1) Is there any high-risk factor mandating radiography? (2) Are there low-risk factors that permit safe evaluation of the range of motion of the neck? (3) Can the patient rotate the neck laterally for 45 degrees in each direction without pain? Comparison of these two sets of criteria showed that the Canadian Rule is more reliable than NEXUS in diagnosing cervical spine injury in responsive patients.
The Eastern Association for the Surgery of Trauma (EAST) guidelines for radiographic clearance of c-spine for patients w/ risk factors for injury
3 views AP, lateral and open mouth and head CT
Stable fractures of the c-spine
Stable fractures of the spine are spinous process fractures; isolated osteophyte, trabecular, transverse process, and avulsion fractures without ligament injury; and wedge compression fractures with loss of ≤25% of vertebral body heigh
Standard measure of diganosing ligmentous injury
flexion and extension series
however, MRI is more accurate
Nasothracheal intubation risks in trauma patients
epistaxis, failure of intubation, and the possibility of entry of the endotracheal tube into the cranial vault or the orbit if there is damage to the cranial base or the maxillofacial complex.
increased possibility of cranial injury w/ the following
midface fractures involving the frontal sinus, as well as the orbitozygomatic and orbitoethmoid complexes.
Clinical signs of penetrating cervical airway trauma
escape of air, hemoptysis, and coughing are present in almost all patients
major blunt laryngotracheal damage signs on presentation
includes hoarseness, muffled voice, dyspnea, stridor, dysphagia, odynophagia, cervical pain and tenderness, ecchymosis, subcutaneous emphysema, and flattening of the thyroid cartilage protuberance (Adam's apple).
blunt laryngeal trauma patients may also have which condition?
cervical spine injury, in 70%
no cricothroidotomy or blind intubation!
signs of thoracic airway injuries
Pneumothorax, pneumomediastinum, pneumopericardium, subcutaneous emphysema, and a continuous air leak from the chest tube are the usual signs of this injury; they occur frequently but are not specific for thoracic airway damage. In patients intubated without the suspicion of a tracheal injury, difficulty in obtaining a seal around the endotracheal tube or the presence on a chest radiograph of a large radiolucent area in the trachea corresponding to the cuff suggests a perforated airway.
Complications of thoracic airway injury repair
suboptimal and complicated by stump leak and empyema, suture line stenosis, or the need for tracheostomy or pneumonectomy.
Which patients should be managed surgically for thoracic airway injury
Patients with lesions larger than 4 cm, cartilaginous rather than membranous injuries, concomitant esophageal trauma, progressive subcutaneous emphysema, severe dyspnea requiring intubation and ventilation, difficulty with mechanical ventilation, pneumothorax with an air leak through the chest drains, and/or mediastinitis are still managed surgically. Those without these problems may be treated nonoperatively with a reasonable outcome.
Signs of flail chest
Coexisting hemopneumothorax, paradoxical chest wall movement, and/or pain-induced splinting, history of trauma
what is predictive of development of ARDS in patient w/ flail chest?
once the contusion volume exceeds 20% of total lung volume
Management of flail chest w/o gas abnormalities
conservative - epidural analgesia w/ local and opioids, no need for resp support until pt can't exchange gasses, otherwise increase in morbidity and mortality.
which patient's should get intubated for flail chest
pulmonary contusion, respiratory insufficiency, or failure despite adequate analgesia, clinical evidence of severe shock, associated severe head injury, or injury requiring surgery, airway obstruction, and significant pre-existing chronic pulmonary disease
Ventilation settings for trauma patients
. Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) with low tidal volumes (6 to 8 mL/kg) and low inspiratory alveolar or plateau pressures should be used to decrease the likelihood of ARDS if ventilation is controlled
ventilation settings in severe bilateral pulmonary contusion patients
differential lung ventilation via a double-lumen endobronchial tube, or high-frequency jet ventilation may enhance oxygenation and cardiac function, which may be compromised by concomitant myocardial contusion or ischemia
Base deficit in shock for mild, mod and severe trauma.
A base deficit between 2 and 5 mmol/L suggests mild shock, between 6 and 14 mmol/L indicates moderate shock, whereas >14 mmol/L is a sign of severe shock. An admission base deficit in excess of 5 to 8 mmol/L correlates with increased mortality
Class I trauma
blood loss
HR
BP
RR
Urine output
mental status
fluid replacement
<750 ml
<15%
<100 HR
normal BP
14-20 RR
> 30 ml urine
Slightly anxious
crystaloid
Class II trauma
blood loss
HR
BP
RR
Urine output
mental status
fluid replacement
750-1500
15-30 %
>100 HR
normal BP
20-30 RR
urine output of 20-30 ml/hr
mildly anxious
crystaloid
Class III trauma
blood loss
HR
BP
RR
Urine output
mental status
fluid replacement
1500-2000
30-40%
>120 HR
decreased BP
30-40 RR
urine 5-15
anxious and confused
crystaolloid + blood
Class IV trauma
blood loss
HR
BP
RR
Urine output
mental status
fluid replacement
> 2L blood
> 40 %
> 140 HR
Decreased BP
> 35 RR
urine output negligible
confused and lethargic
crystalloid + blood
transfusion threshold in trauma
hematocrit <25% for young, healthy patients and <30% for older patients or those with coronary or cerebrovascular disease
vicious cycle or lethal triad of trauma
acidosis, hypothermia and coagulopathy
fluid therapy for severe trauma
liquid plasma replacement along with fluids and PRBCs as soon as the patient arrives in the emergency department, and continuing it throughout surgery.
what is liquid plasma and how does it differ from FFP
Liquid plasma differs from fresh-frozen plasma (FFP) in that it is frozen at -180°C within 8 to 24 hours, whereas FFP is frozen within 8 hours. It contains all of the stable proteins found in FFP, although in slightly lower concentrations. The major difference is a 25% reduction of factor VIII. One unit of FFP contains approximately 7% of the coagulation factor activity of a 70-kg man.
most important cause of death in head-injury patients?
hypotension
a single episode of systolic blood pressure <90 mm Hg is associated with a 50% increase in mortality, and subsequent episodes or lower pressures78 increase mortality even further.
most appropriate thearpeutic interventions for head trauma
normalization of the systemic blood pressure (mean blood pressure >80) and maintaining the Pao2 >95, the ICP <20 to 25 mm Hg, and the CPP 50 to 70 mm Hg. 30 degrees head elevation, sedation and neuromuscular blockers are given as necessary, and cerebrospinal fluid is drained through a ventriculostomy catheter, if available. Rapid and adequate restoration of the intravascular volume with isotonic crystalloid and, if necessary, with colloid solutions should be aimed at maintaining the CPP between 50 and 70 mm Hg while attempting to minimize further brain swelling.
crystaloid of choice for brain trauma
NS, since LR is slightly hypotonic
diuretic of choice for head trauma
mannitol
mannitol toxicity and adverse effects
hyponatremia, high serum osmolality, and a gap between calculated and measured serum osmolality >10 mOsm/L, may result when the drug is given in large doses (2 to 3 g/kg) or to patients with renal failure. Mannitol should be used with great care in the presence of hypotension, sepsis, nephrotoxic drugs, or pre-existing renal disease as these may also precipitate renal failure. the effects of mannitol result from its activity in regions of the brain where the blood–brain barrier is intact. It may exacerbate edema in injured areas in which it may easily enter the tissues.
what is AVDo2
1.34 · Hgb · (Sao2 – Sjvo2), with the saturations expressed as decimal values, and normally is approximately 6. An increase in this value is a sign of insufficient blood flow, whereas a subnormal level indicates hyperemia. A reduction in ICP with elevation of CPP during treatment is reflected by a rise in Sjvo2 and a narrowing of the AVDo2, presumably reflecting an improvement in the circulation to the brain.
criticism of use of AVDO2 in brain injured patient
reflects global 02 consumption, not in the ischemic area
when one should use barbiturates to decrease ICP in head injured patients?
only for refractory high ICP
predictors of spine injury
a history of a motor vehicle, industrial, or athletic accident, an act of violence, or a fall; penetrating trauma resulting in a neurologic deficit below a specific spinal level; or pain and tenderness over the involved vertebrae
does spinal pain always localize to the level of injury?
No
signs of spinal injury in comatose patients
flaccid areflexia, loss of rectal sphincter tone, paradoxical respiration, and bradycardia in a hypovolemic patient suggest the diagnosis
harmful side-effects of steroid therapy for spinal cord patients
increased rate of sepsis, pneumonia, and days of intensive care and positive-pressure ventilation, and is also associated with increased mortality in the 36 to 74% of patients with spine injuries who also have head injuries
at which C-spine level will a patient need ventilatory assistance?
C 4 and above
neuromuscular blockade in quadriplegic patients
avoid succinylcholine , may use Roc to intubate if RSI is desired
indication for thoracotomy in patients w/ hemothorax
Initial drainage of 1,000 mL of blood, or collection of >200 mL/hr for several hours, a “white lung” appearance on the anteroposterior chest radiograph, or a continuous major air leak from the chest tube
What is VATS? when does it need to be performed?
Hemodynamically stable patients with persistent bleeding of <150 mL/hr are managed with video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery (VATS) to control bleeding. This procedure requires placement of a double-lumen tube to collapse the lung on the involved side; it can also be useful in diagnosis of suspected diaphragmatic, cardiac, or mediastinal injuries; evaluation of some bronchopleural fistulas; and evacuation of clotted blood or an empyema that does not drain with a chest tube. Use of VATS decreases the need for open thoracotomy and the number of negative explorations in stable trauma patients
consequences of penetrating cardiac trauma?
Pericardial tamponade, cardiac chamber perforation, and fistula formation between the cardiac chambers and the great vessels
classic findings of cardiac tamponade?
tachycardia, hypotension, distant heart sounds, distended neck veins, pulsus paradoxus, or pulsus alternans
findings in cardiac injury? after blunt trauma
angina, sometimes responding to nitroglycerin, dyspnea, chest wall ecchymosis and/or fractures; dysrhythmias of any type; and right-sided or left-sided congestive heart failurea
diagnosis of cardiac injury? after blunt trauma
The diagnosis is based on the 12-lead ECG, troponin I level, and echocardiography. The ECG is very sensitive, although not specific. A normal trace cannot rule out the diagnosis, but it is the best screening test. Common ECG abnormalities include almost any type of dysrhythmia, ST or T-wave changes, and conduction delays.
Clinical sings of aortic injury?
Increased arterial pressure and pulse amplitude in upper extremities
Decreased arterial pressure and pulse amplitude in lower extremities
Absent or weak left radial artery pulse
Osler's sign: discrepancy between left and right arm blood pressure
Retrosternal or interscapular pain
Hoarseness
Systolic flow murmur over the precordium or medial to the left scapula
Neurologic deficits in the lower extremities
radiographic features of aortic injury?
Widened mediastinum
Blurring of the aortic contours
Widened paraspinal interfaces
Left apical cap
Opacified aortopulmonary window
Broadened paratracheal stripe
Displacement of the left main-stem bronchus
Displaced SVC
Rightward deviation of the esophagus and trachea
Nasogastric tube shift
Left hemothorax
Sternal and/or upper rib fractures
Lung contusion
Pneumothorax
ct findings in aortic injury
Mediastinal hematoma
Aortic wall irregularity
Intimal flap
False aneurysm
Pseudocoarctation
Intramural hematoma
Intraluminal clot or medial flap
ultrasound findings for aortic injury
Intimal flap
Turbulent flow
Dilated aortic isthmus
Acute false aneurysm
Intraluminal medial flap
Hemothorax
Hemomediastinum
at which anatomical point does thoracic aortic injury mostlikely appear?
at the isthmus—the junction between the free and fixed portions of the descending aorta—in 90% of cases, and carries an 80% mortality in the first hour following injury.
classification of thoracic aortic injuries with TEE?
grade 1 injury consists of an intramural hematoma, limited intimal flap and/or mural thrombus; grade 2 injury consists of subadventitial rupture, injury to the media, altered aortic geometry and/or small hemomediastinum; grade 3 injury consists of transsection with massive blood extravasation, intraluminal obstruction causing pseudocoarctation, and ischemia
which class based on TEE for thoracic aortic injuries could be treated w/ observation?
class 1: intramural hematoma, limited intimal flap and/or mural thrombus
Pelvic fractures, management of bleeding
external fixation and extraperitoneal packing of the pelvis in the OR followed by angiography and possible embolization is more beneficial than only external fixation and angiography
Delayed fracture repair is associated with?
an increased risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT), pneumonia, sepsis, and the pulmonary and cerebral complications of fat embolism. In open fractures, an additional important concern is infection. Wounds left unrepaired for more than 6 hours are likely to become septic.
sings of vascular trauma in patients w/ extremity fractures
pain, pulselessness, pallor, paresthesias, and paresis
Indication for surgery in patients w/ compartment syndrome?
A pressure exceeding 40 cm H2O is an indication for immediate surgery.
partial-thickness burn
is red, blanches to touch, and is sensitive to painful stimuli and heat.
Superficial burns ( first degree) involve the :
and heal?
burns involve the epidermis and upper dermis, and heal spontaneously
Deep partial-thickness (second-degree) involve?
and how are they managed?
deep dermis and require excision and grafting to ensure rapid return of function
Deep burns ( third degree), what does it look like?
management?
does not blanch even with deep pressure and is insensate
Complete destruction of the dermis requires wound excision and grafting to prevent wound infection that may lead to local sepsis and systemic inflammation
Fourth degree burns involve....
management?
involve muscle, fascia, and bone, necessitating complete excision and leaving the patient with limited function.
systemic effects of a severe burn
stimulates the release of mediators such as interleukins, tumor necrosis factor, and neopterins, locally—producing wound edema—and into the circulation, resulting in immune suppression, hypermetabolism, protein catabolism, sepsis, and multisystem organ failure. Burns >40% TBSA consistently develop catabolism and weight loss that may last up to 1 year
which pharmacological agents can decrases the catabolism in severe burns?
low-dose insulin infusion, beta-blockade, and the synthetic testosterone analogue oxandrolone
following a burn, how long does it take to develop parenchymal lung injury?
1-5 days to ARDS
Late lung complications of burns?
pneumonia and PE, take longer than 5 days to develop
ventialtory support in intubated burn patients?
low levels of PEEP will prevent the pulmonary edema that may develop secondary to loss of laryngeal auto-PEEP in patients with significant airway obstruction before intubation. Airway humidification, bronchial toilet, and bronchodilators if needed for bronchospasm are also indicated.
how does CO poisoning cause tissue hypoxia
by its 200-fold greater affinity for hemoglobin than oxygen and by its ability to shift the hemoglobin dissociation curve to the left, impairing O2 unloading to the tissues. It also interferes with mitochondrial function, uncoupling oxidative phosphorylation and reducing adenosine triphosphate production, thus causing metabolic acidosis. CO can be a direct myocardial toxin, preventing survival in patients who suffer cardiac arrest
does normal pulse ox reading exclude CO poisoning?
No, although arterial gas w/ co-oxymeter does
at which CO concentration does blood turn cherry-red?
> 40%
List symptoms for the following COHbc level?
< 15-20
20-40
40-60
>60
1. headache, dizziness, and occas confusion
2. nausea, vomiting, disorientation, visual impairment
3. agitation, combativeness, hallucinations, coma, shock
4. death
at which COHb level is hyperbaric oxygen recommended
> 30 %
Other cause of hypoxia in burned patients than CO toxicity?
Cyanide toxicity
cyanide toxicity presentation
unexplained metabolic acidosis, neuro symptoms, agitation, confusion, coma, elevated plasma lactate
what is the toxic level of cyanide?
0.2 mg/L and lethal leve is above 1 mg/ L
management of cyanide toxicity victim?
oxygen at high flows. the ion has short half life and pharmacological therapies - thiosulfate, amyl nitrate, sodium nitrate- offer no additional benefit.