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210 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What are the forms of Vitamin D present during Vitamin D synthesis (in order)
cholesterol precurser (cholecalciferol) used to make Vitamin D3-->converted to calcidiol by the liver-->converted to calcitriol by the kidneys
Specifically what organ senses long-term hypotension
the kidneys
What is the function of Renin
Renin breaks down Angiotensinogen (secreted by the liver) into Angiotensin I
What cleaves AgI into Ag II
ACE--> Angiotensin coverting enzyme
How many spinal nerves are there
31
How many cranial nerves are there
12
Somatic Nervous System
supplies mainly skeletal muscle cells
Autonomic Nervous System
supplies cardiac muscle cells, smooth muscle cells, and glands
Endocrine Glands
ductless glands, release secretions--hormones--directly into the blood stream; target cell can be great distance from secreting cells
Exocrine Glands
the secretion is released into a duct, then from that duct to the outside
What are the two types of sweat glands
merocrine (eccrine): watery
apocrine: thick cold sweat; odiferous; sex pheromones
Pheromones vs. Hormones
Pheromones: secreted outside of the body and effects different individuals of the same species
Hormones: secreted inside the body and effects/triggers response in the same individual
Anterior Pituitary aka
Adenohypophysis
Posterior Pituitary aka
Neurohypophysis
Stalk of Pituitary aka
Infundibulum
2 Parts of the anterior pituitary
parstuberalis and parsdistalis
What are examples of Hormones excreted by the Posterior Pituitary
OT and ADH
Oxytocin and Antidiaretic Hormone
What connects the Posterior Pituitary to the brain
The Hypothalamo-Hypophyseal Tract via the paraventricular nucleus (OT) and the supraoptic nucleus (ADH)
What connects the Hypothalamamus to the Anterior Pituitary
the Hypothalmo-Hypophyseal Portal System
Tropic Hormone
released by a gland and regulates hormonal secretion by another gland
Paracrine Hormones
regulates hormonal secretion by neighboring cells--no blood diffusion required
alpa cells of the islets of langerhans of the pancreas
secrete glucagon-raises glucose level in blood; hyperglycemic hormone
beta cells of the islets of langerhans of the pancreas
secrete insulin-lowers glucose level in blood; hypoglycemic hormoe
delta cells of the islets of langerhans of the pancreas
secretes somatostatin (SS)-inhibits the alpha and beta cells
G-cells of the islets of langerhans of the pancreas
secrete gastrin-raises stomach acidity
F-cells of the islets of langerhans of the pancreas
secrete Pancreatic Polypeptide (PP) which inhibits the secretion of stomach acid
What hormone does the Pineal Gland secrete
Melatonin, so called the hormone of darkness, it regulates/is involved in moood disorders
SAD
Seasonal Affective Disorder
Treatment: exposure to sunlight/phototherapy
What hormone(s) does the thymus gland secrete?
thymosine and thymopoietin; play important role in differentiation/maturation of T-lymphocytes
What are the two main zones of the Adrenal Gland?
Adrenal Medulla (middle) and the Adrenal Cortex
What the the 3 zones of the Adrenal Cortex
Zona Glomerulosa
Zona Fasiciculata
Zona Reticularis
What secretes Aldosterone?
The Zona Glomerulosa of the Adrenal Cortex
What secretes Cortisol?
Zona Fasciculata and Zona Reticularis of the Adrenal Cortex
What is the system by which Aldosterone secretion by cells of the zona glomerulosm is under the control of Ag II
Renin Angiotensin Aldosterone Cascade
Glucocorticoid
helps you make glucose out of non-carbs
Gluconeogenesis
formation of glucose from non-carbohydrate precursers
What are two functions of cortisol
induces lipolysis, helps cope with stress, and inhibits protein synthesis
Function of Aldosterone
retains Na+ and therefore Cl- and H2O by osmosis; helps water reabsorption by the kidney tubules. By retaining water it raises blood volume and in turn blood pressure.
Function of Cortisol
as a glucocorticoid it helps you make glucose out of non-carbohydrate precursers via Gluconeogenesis
DHEA
Dehydroepiandrosteron, an angrogen or male hormone; helps development of auxillary and pubic hair and apocrine glands; also helps maintain sex drive
Steroid Hormones
exs-DHEA, Aldosterone, Estradiol, Cortisol
they dissolve/penetrate the plasma membrane of the target ell and bind to intracellular receptors
Examples of Peptide Hormones
Oxytocin (9AA)
ADH (9AA)
Ag II (8AA)
Examples of Biogenic Amines
Melatonin
Thyroid Hormones T3 and T4
Epinehperine
What amino acid is used to make the thyroid hormones and by what enzyme
thyroid hormones are derived from tyrosine which is synthesized from phenylalanine by phe-hydroxylase
What is the name of the protein transporter for the thyroid hormones
TBG=Thyroxine Binding Globulin
Examples of protein hormones
glucagon and insulin
What is Tg?
Thyroglobulin contains 123 tyrosines. Only 4-8 of them will be used to make T3 and T4.
Examples of Hormones that use cAMP as a second messenger
PTH, CT, ACTH, TSH, FSH, LH
What is the function and mechanism of PTH
Increases Ca++ absorption by the kidney tubules and promotes the transformation of calcidiol to calcitriol in the kidneys. PTH stimulates the release of RANKL from osteoblasts, but prevents the osteoblasts from using the Ca++ freed by the osteoclasts to form new bone in order to raise blood calcium level.
What is the normal Calcium level in blood
9.2-10.4 mg/ml
Where does calcitonin come from
the parafollicular cells of the thyroid gland.
What is the function and mechanism of Calcitonin
lowers blood Ca++ levels by incorporating calcium into the bone by activating the osteoblasts. at the same time it inhibits osteoclasts from degrading/reabsorbing bone.
PIP2
Phosphatidyl Inositol Bisphosphate
IP3
Inisotol triphosphate
DAG
diacyl glycerol
Why do T3 and T4 need a protein transporter
they are lipophilic
Hydrophillic Hormones
can't penetrate the plasma membrane, so they have a binding site that activates a second messenger
Lipophillic Hormones
can penetrate the plasma membrane as well as the nuclear evelope where they activate the DNA etc.
What enzyme liberates Arachidonic Acid from PIP2
Phospholipase A2
NSAID
Non Steroid Anti Inflammatory Drugs; inhibit cyclooxygenases-->prevent production of thromboxine-->helps keep blood from clotting
ex-aspirin
SAID
Steriod Anti Inflammatory Drugs; inhibit the enzyme Phospholipase A2
what are two sub-sections of the adenohypophysis
pars tuberalis and pars distalis
What is another name for growth hormone
somatotropin
What releases OT
the paraventricular nucleus
what releases ADH
the supraoptic nucleus
What are the two gonadotropins
FSH and LH
What is another name for ADH
arginine vasopressin
What is another name for TSH
thyrotropin
Which organ releases Erythropoietin (EPO)
the Kidneys, they sense low O2 tension in the blood (also the liver in small amounts)
function of Erythropoietin
induces red blood cell formation (Erythropoiesis) by targeting the hemopoietic stem cells of the red bone marrow
Where is Hepcidin secreted from
the hepatocytes of the liver
function of Hepcidin
plays important role in Iron absorption from food by intestines
What hormone is needed by growth hormones for them to function/act
Insulin-like growth factors
Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP)
secreted by atria of heart; helps with Na+ and water excretion--raises urine volume, lowers blood volume, lowers blood pressure, also functions as a vasodialator
ANP is antagonistic to...
Aldosterone as well as Ag II
where is BNP--Brain Natriuretic Peptide secreted
the ventricles of the heart
ANP and BNP are...
synergistic
Permissive Hormone
Hormone A leads to the upregulation of Hormone B receptors
Up-regulation
a cell increases the number of hormone receptors and becomes more sensitive to the hormone
Down-regulation
cell reduces its receptor population and thus becomes less sensitive to a hormone
Example of a permissive hormone relationship
Estrogen is needed for the cells of the uterus to be able to respond to progestron. If progestron arrives first, the uterus will not respond/feel it
What are the three stages of stress
1- Alarm Reaction
2- Resistance Stage
3- Exhaustion Stage
Alarm Reaction
under control of Epinephrin by the Adrenal Medulla and Norepinephrine by Sympathetic Neurons; target glycogen leading to glycogenolysis, sparing glucose
Resistance Stage of Stress Response
mediated by Cortisol; targets fat tissues (lipolysis) also inhibits protein synthesis
Exhaustion Stage
targets the proteins of the muscles to be degraded into amino acids that are shuttled to the liver for gluconeogenesis leading to muscle wasting and death
What is the effect of elevated Cortisol levels
reduces immunity by inhibiting the synthesis of protective leukotrienes and prostaglandins, suppressing antibody production, and killing immature T and B cells
Endemic Goiter
Results from iodine deficiency; without iodine the thyroid gland cannot synthesize thyroid hormone. Without TH the pituitary gland receives no feedback and acts as if the thyroid were under stimulated. It produces extra TSH which bombards and causes hypertrophy of the thyroid gland.
What is Congenital and Adult Hypothyrodism
thyroid hyposecretion; treated with oral thyroid hormone
Myxedema
very sensitive to cold because no metabolic hormones to put-off heat; results from prolonged Adult Hypothyrodism
Toxic Goiter
Antibodies mimic TSH and bind to TSH receptors on the follicular cells of the thyroid gland. This enlarges the gland. (an autoimmune disease)
Hypoparathyroidism
lowers Ca++ levels in the blood leading to hyperexcitibility and can eventually lead to tetany--laryngeal spasm=fatal
Hyperparathyrodism
raises Ca++ levels in blood, raises reflex threshold and leads to sluggish reflexes and can lead to heart failure
Acromegaly
if you have a tumor in the somatotropes of the anterior pituitary too much growth hormone is secreted in adulthood. The bones are already ossified and can't gain length, so they gain thickness. Especially noticeable in bones of hands, feet, and face.
What does GH Hypersecretion cause in childhood? Hyposecretion?
Gigantism, Pituitary Dwarfism
Adreno Genital Syndrome (AGS) aka
Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia (CAH)
caused by hypersecretion of adrenal androgens; If new-born baby girls have too much secretion of DHEA it results in a blind vagina and too large of a clitoris
Cushing Syndrome
Hypersecretion of ACTH from the corticotropes of the anterior pituitary leads to hypersecretion of aldosterone and cortisol. Because of the high water retention form the excess Aldosterone moon face occurs. Accumulation of Adipose tissue between the shoulders results from too much cortisol.
What are the two types of receptors for Epinephrine
Alpha Adrenergic Receptor
Beta Adrenergic Receptor
Which messenger system does the Alpha Adrenergic Receptor use
Location: smooth muscle cells around peripheral blood vessels;
Binds to receptor and activates G.q. protein that activates PLC which cuts PIP2 into IP3 and DAG. The IP3 raises intracellular Ca++ levels which leads to contraction of the smooth muscle cells-->vasoconstriction=higher/raised blood pressure
Which messenger system does the Beta Andrenergic Receptor use
Epinephrine binds to the receptor and activates AC which breaks down ATP into cAMP + PPi. cAMP acts as a second messenger. Two things can happen: 1-relaxation/vasodialation of the smooth muscle cells around the coronary arteries-increases blood supply to heart tissue; 2-increases contractility of cardiac muscle cells (heart rate) both things increase blood pressure
Alpha and Beta Blockers
commonly prescribed to treat hypertension
V1R
location: plasma membrane of smooth muscle cells of Renal Arterioles
Function: vasoconstriction of renal arterioles results in a reduction of filtrate volume which conserves water in the circulation
Pathway: G-q protein activates PLC
V2R
Location: plasma membrane of the cells of the collecting ducts
Function: initiates production of aquaporin by the DNA which allows more water to be absorbed from the lumen of the collecting duct
Pathway: G-s protein activates AC
Make-up of Hematocrit
55% Plasma
<1% Buffy Coat
45% Red Blood Cells
Buffy Coat + RBCs = cellular components
Formation of Erythrocytes
Hemopoietic Stem Cells--> Erythroblasts--> Erythrocytes (Regulated by Hemopoietin released mainly by kidneys, liver in small amounts)
Formation of Platelets
Hemopoietic Stem Cells--> Megakaryoblasts--> Megakaryocytes--> Platelets
Formation of the Granulocytes
Hemopoietic Stem Cells--> Myeloblasts--> Neutrophils + Basophils + Eosinophils
Formation of the Lymphocytes
Hemopoietic Stem Cells--> Lymphoblasts--> B and T Lymphocytes + Natural Killer Cells (B-Lymophocytes can differentiate into plasma cells)
Formation of Monocytes
Hemopoietic Stem Cell--> Monoblast--> Monocyte --> can leave the circulation between the simple squamous epithelial cells of the endothelium and enlarge in size up to 10x normal to become a Macrophage with Pseudopodia for Phagocytosis
Eosinophillia
results when eosinophil white blood cell counts are too high usually because of a parasitic worm infection
Erythroblastosis Fetalis or Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn
when a Rh- mother and Rh+ father have at least their 2nd Rh+ baby the mother's anti-D antobodies attack the baby's blood cells
RhoGam
shot to be given to a Rh- woman to suppress her immune system from synthesizing antibodies against the Rh factor
Where is mutation for Sickle Cell Anemia located
Amino Acid #6 of the Beta Chain
What makes up Hemoglobin
4 protein chains called globins: 2 alpha and 2 beta polypeptide chains
Specifically what does O2 bind to on Hemoglobin
the Heme group
Mother-Child Hemoglobin relationship
HbF binds oxygen more tightly than HbA does; thus, it enables the fetus to extract oxygen from the mother's bloodstream
What are the 3 types of protozoan plasmodium that causes malaria? Which one is deadly?
Plasmodium Malariae
Plasmodium Ovale
Plasmodium Falciparum=deadly
transmitted by Anopheles female mosquitoe
Thrombus
unwanted blood clot
Thromboembolism
Formation in a blood vessel of a clot (thrombus) that breaks loose and is carried by the blood stream to plug another vessel. When the clot dislodges it becomes a thromboembolus. Can stop O2 supply to vital tissues.
What are the three steps of Hemostatis
1-Vascular Spasm
2-Platelet Plug Formation
3-Coagulation
Vascular Spasm of Hemostatis
pain receptors initiate a reflex leading to vasoconstriction of smooth muscle cells of the walls of the blood vessels
Platlet Plug Formation of Hemostatis
platelets aggregate and degranulate--> secrete many chemicals
Serotonin: a vasoconstrictor
ADP: aggregation of platelets
Thromboxine A2: stimulates activation of new platelets (an Eicosanoid)
Eicosanoids
20-C derivatives of Arachidonic Acid
Coagulation of Hemostatis
invloves a cascade of reactions activating many blood clotting factors (proteins mainly synthesized in the liver)
Thrombopoiesis
platelet formation
Clotting Factor II
Prothrombin
Clotting Factor I
Fibrinogen
Hemophilia
a deficiency in blood a blood clotting factor (tendency to bleed)
Type A Hemophilia
in males; lack of factor VIII; y-chromosome, sex-linked (more common than type B)
Type B Hemophilia
lack of factor IX; on y-chromosome
Type C Hemophilia
rare type of autosome-linked disorder; lack of factor XI
What are the 3 layer of the heart wall from superficial to deep
Epicardium=Visceral Pericardium, Myocardium, Endocardium
another name for bicuspid valve
mitral valve
Autorhythmiticity of the Heart
the heart is not dependent on the nervous system for its rhythm
Intercalated discs
join cardiac muscle cells; function as a mechanical and electrical link between cells
Gap Junctions
in between cardiac muscle cells; transportation of molecules between adjacent cells; entire myocardium of atria or of the ventricles behaves almost like a single cell
Adhering Junctions
in between cardiac muscle cells; "glue" adjacent cells together
Absolute Refractory Period
period in which no stimuli of any strength can initiate an action potential
ESV
End-Systolic Volume = 60mL
Embolus
foreign object traveling in the circulation. ex-air bubbles, fat droplet
Atheroma
mass of fat; deposit of lipid-containing fat on an artery
Atherosclerosis
Hardening of the arteries; build up of a waxy plaque on the inside of blood vessels resulting from Monocyte and Platelet aggregation and their effects
Tissue Infarction
tissue death as a result of lacking O2 supply
Necrosis
cell death due to viral/intracellular paracite
Apoptosis
programmed cell death; A natural process of self-destruction in certain cells that is determined by the genes and can be initiated by a stimulus or by removal of a repressor agent
Bronchial Circuit
supplies/drains the lung tissue
calmodulin
plays role in smooth muscle cell contraction
Types of Phagocytic Cells
Skin--dendritic cells/langerhan cells
Liver--kupffer cells
Lungs--dust cells
Anatomy of the Thymus Gland
made of lobules divided by trabeculae; consists of a divided cortex and medulla
RE Cells (Reticular Epithelial) of Thymus
seal off the cortex from the medulla, secrete thymosisn, thymopoietin etc., act as antigen-presenting cells of self-antigens as gateway to the medulla
Location of the Spleen
left hypochondriac, inferior to diaphragm, superior to kidney, posterior lateral to stomach
Function of the Spleen
"erythrocyte graveyard"--old, fragile RBCs rupture as they squeeze through the capillary walls into the sinuses. Macrophages phagocytize their remains.
Function of the Liver as an immume organ
produces the complement proteins that result in the cascades that initiate immune clearance, phagocytosis, cell lysis, and inflammation; produce the blood clotting factors
What are the functions of C3b
phagocytosis
immune clearance
cytolysis by C5b
Another name for complement proteins
MHC-III
Major Histocompatibility Complex III
What does MAC stand for and what does it consist of?
Membrane Attack Complex; C5b, C6, C7, C8, ring of C9
MHC-I
plasma membrane proteins found in every nucleated cell in the human body; can display self-antigens, or foreign antigens; Tc Cells respond
MHC-II
occur only on antigen presenting cells (APCs) and display only foreign antigens; TH cells respond
Cytokines
A small protein released by cells that has a specific effect on the interactions between cells, on communications between cells or on the behavior of cells. The cytokines includes the interleukins, lymphokines and cell signal molecules
IL-1 and IL-2 (Interleukins)
messengers between leukocytes; specifically target and stimulate the division of cytotoxic T-lymphocytes producing many clones that recognize the same antigen and attack the microbial cells upon contact. Also activate B-lymphocytes and WBCs that function in non-specific immunity--antibody mediated immunity
Perforins
secreted by natural killer cells as well as cytotoxic T-cells. They drill holes in the plasma membrane of enemy cells.
Interferons
produced by dying viral infected cells. They induce the healthy neighboring cells to produce antiviral agents.
HAART
Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy
Haldane Effect
the presence of O2 lowers Hb affinity to bind to CO2
Bohr Effect
presence of CO2 will lower the affinity of Hb to bind to O2
Hb.H
deoxygenated Hemoglobin
CA
carbonic anhydrase
Nomral pH of the blood
7.35-7.45
Myoglobin
one polypeptide chain as opposed to four; for O2 storage as opposed to transport; hyperbolic binding curve as opposed to sygmoidal binding curve
What is the P50 value of Hb vs. Mg
Hb=26mm Hg
Mg=1mm Hg
2,3-bisphosphoglycerate
2,3-BPG
a biproduct of cellular metabolism in RBCs. It binds to the beta chain of adult hemoglobin and lowers their affinity to bind O2.
Opportunistic Pathogens
take advantage of a suppressed immune system
Carbon Monoxide Poisoning
CO competes and has higher affinity to bind Hb compared to O2. CO is colorless and odorless. Highly toxic at low concentrations ~0.2% in atmosphere
Allesteric Protein
one that has multiple binding sites, ex-Hemoglobin
carbaminoglobin/
carbaminohemoglobin
Hb.CO2
carboxyhemoglobin
Hb.CO-->carbon monoxide poisoning
Examples of pulmonary infections (3) that can be lethal to AIDS patients
Streptococus Pneumoniae
Mycobacterium Tuberculosis
Candida Albicans
Isomerase
group of enzymes that catalyzes the conversion of one isomer into another. Especially important when the "dead end" Dihydroxy Acetone Phosphate can be converted into Glyceraldehyde 3-Phosphate depending on the energy needed.
General Formula of Glycolysis
Glucose-->2 Pyruvates
with the production of 2 ATP and 2 NADH
what does NADH stand for?
Nicotineamide Adenine Dinucleotide "Reduced"
What is the total number of ATPs produced during Glycolysis?
4 with the net production being 2
Where does Glycolysis take place
in the cytosol of the cell
Where does the intermediate step take place?
Inner Compartment of the Mitochondria
What three reactions does Pyruvate Dehydrogenase Complex catalyze?
1-dehydrogenation
2-incorporation of Coenzyme A
3-decarboxylation
What are two other names for the Krebs Cycle?
Citric Acid Cycle
TCA cycle (tricarboxylic acid cycle)
What does FADH2 stand for?
Flavine Adenine Dinucleotide
Oxidation
loss/stripping of electrons
glucose oxidation is stored in the electron rich molecules of NADH and FADH2
Where do the 10 NADH produced during cellular respiration come from?
2 from glycolysis
2 from intermediate step
6 from Krebs Cycle
What is another name for the protein gradient in the Mitochondria?
proton motive force
Chemiosmotic Theory aka chemiosmosis
making ATP out of ADP and Pi via ATPsynthase using proton motive force
the donation of electrons and build up of proton motive force from 1 NADH molecule yields how many ATPs?
3 ATPs
the donation of electrons and build up of proton motive force from 1 FADH2 molecule yields how many ATPs?
2 ATPs
Amphibolic Pathways
metabolic pathways that include both anabolism and catabolism
In the fermentation of glucose such as in the metabolism of RBCs, what acts as the final acceptor of the electrons?
the pyruvates
Spermatogenesis (names of the cells in order)
Spermatogonium--> Primary Spermatocyte--> 2 Secondary Spermatocytes--> 4 Spermatids--> 4 sperm
Nondisjunction
failure of chromosomes to separate during anaphase. this results in gametes with extra chromosome and others with one less chromosome
Trisomy in which chromosome will give Down Syndrome?
Chromosome #21
Trisomy
having 3 copies rather than the normal 2 of a chromosome
Nondisjunction vs. trisomy and monosomy
Nondisjunction takes place during gamete formation and trisomy and monosomy occur in the zygote
Turner Syndrome
monosomy in the X-chromosome
the zygote is X0 rather than XX or XY; gonadal disfunction=sterile
Triplo X Syndrome
trisomy in the X-chromosome; usually no distinguishable difference to the naked eye between women with triple X and the rest of the female population
XYY
male with extra male chromosome
-nothing wrong with the male
-may be stronger, taller, more muscluar
XXY
(Klinefelter Syndrome)
male with extra female chromosome
-develop breasts
-loss of male secondary characteristics such as facial hair and deep voice sound
Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome
(XY) condition that results in the partial or complete inability of the cell to respond to androgens. The unresponsiveness of the cell to the presence of androgenic hormones can impair or prevent the masculinization of male genitalia in the developing fetus, as well as the development of male secondary sexual characteristics at puberty, but does not significantly impair female genital or sexual development.
Why do we need oxygen?
To serve as the final accepter of electrons in the electron transport chain of the mitochondria
What are the two types of alveolar cells and their functions?
Type I= squamous epithelial cells that allow gas diffusion
Type II= cubodial cells that provides alveolar surfactant (aka great alveolar cells)
Surfactant
allows repeated expansion and prevents the collapse at the end of expiration=compliance
What are the main respiratory muscles?
diaphragm, rectus abdominus, external intercostals, internal intercostals, obliques-internal and external
What is NFP?
net filtration pressure in the kidney nephron = 10 mmHg
What is GFR?
Glomerular Filtration Rate= 180 L/day
Value of the filtration coefficient
12.5 ml of filtrate/ 1mmHg/ min