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210 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
What are the forms of Vitamin D present during Vitamin D synthesis (in order)
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cholesterol precurser (cholecalciferol) used to make Vitamin D3-->converted to calcidiol by the liver-->converted to calcitriol by the kidneys
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Specifically what organ senses long-term hypotension
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the kidneys
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What is the function of Renin
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Renin breaks down Angiotensinogen (secreted by the liver) into Angiotensin I
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What cleaves AgI into Ag II
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ACE--> Angiotensin coverting enzyme
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How many spinal nerves are there
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31
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How many cranial nerves are there
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12
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Somatic Nervous System
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supplies mainly skeletal muscle cells
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Autonomic Nervous System
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supplies cardiac muscle cells, smooth muscle cells, and glands
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Endocrine Glands
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ductless glands, release secretions--hormones--directly into the blood stream; target cell can be great distance from secreting cells
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Exocrine Glands
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the secretion is released into a duct, then from that duct to the outside
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What are the two types of sweat glands
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merocrine (eccrine): watery
apocrine: thick cold sweat; odiferous; sex pheromones |
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Pheromones vs. Hormones
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Pheromones: secreted outside of the body and effects different individuals of the same species
Hormones: secreted inside the body and effects/triggers response in the same individual |
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Anterior Pituitary aka
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Adenohypophysis
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Posterior Pituitary aka
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Neurohypophysis
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Stalk of Pituitary aka
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Infundibulum
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2 Parts of the anterior pituitary
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parstuberalis and parsdistalis
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What are examples of Hormones excreted by the Posterior Pituitary
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OT and ADH
Oxytocin and Antidiaretic Hormone |
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What connects the Posterior Pituitary to the brain
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The Hypothalamo-Hypophyseal Tract via the paraventricular nucleus (OT) and the supraoptic nucleus (ADH)
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What connects the Hypothalamamus to the Anterior Pituitary
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the Hypothalmo-Hypophyseal Portal System
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Tropic Hormone
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released by a gland and regulates hormonal secretion by another gland
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Paracrine Hormones
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regulates hormonal secretion by neighboring cells--no blood diffusion required
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alpa cells of the islets of langerhans of the pancreas
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secrete glucagon-raises glucose level in blood; hyperglycemic hormone
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beta cells of the islets of langerhans of the pancreas
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secrete insulin-lowers glucose level in blood; hypoglycemic hormoe
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delta cells of the islets of langerhans of the pancreas
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secretes somatostatin (SS)-inhibits the alpha and beta cells
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G-cells of the islets of langerhans of the pancreas
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secrete gastrin-raises stomach acidity
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F-cells of the islets of langerhans of the pancreas
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secrete Pancreatic Polypeptide (PP) which inhibits the secretion of stomach acid
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What hormone does the Pineal Gland secrete
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Melatonin, so called the hormone of darkness, it regulates/is involved in moood disorders
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SAD
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Seasonal Affective Disorder
Treatment: exposure to sunlight/phototherapy |
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What hormone(s) does the thymus gland secrete?
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thymosine and thymopoietin; play important role in differentiation/maturation of T-lymphocytes
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What are the two main zones of the Adrenal Gland?
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Adrenal Medulla (middle) and the Adrenal Cortex
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What the the 3 zones of the Adrenal Cortex
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Zona Glomerulosa
Zona Fasiciculata Zona Reticularis |
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What secretes Aldosterone?
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The Zona Glomerulosa of the Adrenal Cortex
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What secretes Cortisol?
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Zona Fasciculata and Zona Reticularis of the Adrenal Cortex
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What is the system by which Aldosterone secretion by cells of the zona glomerulosm is under the control of Ag II
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Renin Angiotensin Aldosterone Cascade
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Glucocorticoid
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helps you make glucose out of non-carbs
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Gluconeogenesis
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formation of glucose from non-carbohydrate precursers
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What are two functions of cortisol
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induces lipolysis, helps cope with stress, and inhibits protein synthesis
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Function of Aldosterone
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retains Na+ and therefore Cl- and H2O by osmosis; helps water reabsorption by the kidney tubules. By retaining water it raises blood volume and in turn blood pressure.
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Function of Cortisol
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as a glucocorticoid it helps you make glucose out of non-carbohydrate precursers via Gluconeogenesis
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DHEA
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Dehydroepiandrosteron, an angrogen or male hormone; helps development of auxillary and pubic hair and apocrine glands; also helps maintain sex drive
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Steroid Hormones
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exs-DHEA, Aldosterone, Estradiol, Cortisol
they dissolve/penetrate the plasma membrane of the target ell and bind to intracellular receptors |
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Examples of Peptide Hormones
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Oxytocin (9AA)
ADH (9AA) Ag II (8AA) |
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Examples of Biogenic Amines
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Melatonin
Thyroid Hormones T3 and T4 Epinehperine |
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What amino acid is used to make the thyroid hormones and by what enzyme
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thyroid hormones are derived from tyrosine which is synthesized from phenylalanine by phe-hydroxylase
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What is the name of the protein transporter for the thyroid hormones
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TBG=Thyroxine Binding Globulin
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Examples of protein hormones
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glucagon and insulin
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What is Tg?
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Thyroglobulin contains 123 tyrosines. Only 4-8 of them will be used to make T3 and T4.
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Examples of Hormones that use cAMP as a second messenger
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PTH, CT, ACTH, TSH, FSH, LH
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What is the function and mechanism of PTH
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Increases Ca++ absorption by the kidney tubules and promotes the transformation of calcidiol to calcitriol in the kidneys. PTH stimulates the release of RANKL from osteoblasts, but prevents the osteoblasts from using the Ca++ freed by the osteoclasts to form new bone in order to raise blood calcium level.
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What is the normal Calcium level in blood
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9.2-10.4 mg/ml
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Where does calcitonin come from
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the parafollicular cells of the thyroid gland.
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What is the function and mechanism of Calcitonin
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lowers blood Ca++ levels by incorporating calcium into the bone by activating the osteoblasts. at the same time it inhibits osteoclasts from degrading/reabsorbing bone.
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PIP2
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Phosphatidyl Inositol Bisphosphate
|
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IP3
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Inisotol triphosphate
|
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DAG
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diacyl glycerol
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Why do T3 and T4 need a protein transporter
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they are lipophilic
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Hydrophillic Hormones
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can't penetrate the plasma membrane, so they have a binding site that activates a second messenger
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Lipophillic Hormones
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can penetrate the plasma membrane as well as the nuclear evelope where they activate the DNA etc.
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What enzyme liberates Arachidonic Acid from PIP2
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Phospholipase A2
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NSAID
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Non Steroid Anti Inflammatory Drugs; inhibit cyclooxygenases-->prevent production of thromboxine-->helps keep blood from clotting
ex-aspirin |
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SAID
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Steriod Anti Inflammatory Drugs; inhibit the enzyme Phospholipase A2
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what are two sub-sections of the adenohypophysis
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pars tuberalis and pars distalis
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What is another name for growth hormone
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somatotropin
|
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What releases OT
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the paraventricular nucleus
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what releases ADH
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the supraoptic nucleus
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What are the two gonadotropins
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FSH and LH
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What is another name for ADH
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arginine vasopressin
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What is another name for TSH
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thyrotropin
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Which organ releases Erythropoietin (EPO)
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the Kidneys, they sense low O2 tension in the blood (also the liver in small amounts)
|
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function of Erythropoietin
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induces red blood cell formation (Erythropoiesis) by targeting the hemopoietic stem cells of the red bone marrow
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Where is Hepcidin secreted from
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the hepatocytes of the liver
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function of Hepcidin
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plays important role in Iron absorption from food by intestines
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What hormone is needed by growth hormones for them to function/act
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Insulin-like growth factors
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Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP)
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secreted by atria of heart; helps with Na+ and water excretion--raises urine volume, lowers blood volume, lowers blood pressure, also functions as a vasodialator
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ANP is antagonistic to...
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Aldosterone as well as Ag II
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where is BNP--Brain Natriuretic Peptide secreted
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the ventricles of the heart
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ANP and BNP are...
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synergistic
|
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Permissive Hormone
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Hormone A leads to the upregulation of Hormone B receptors
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Up-regulation
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a cell increases the number of hormone receptors and becomes more sensitive to the hormone
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Down-regulation
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cell reduces its receptor population and thus becomes less sensitive to a hormone
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Example of a permissive hormone relationship
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Estrogen is needed for the cells of the uterus to be able to respond to progestron. If progestron arrives first, the uterus will not respond/feel it
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What are the three stages of stress
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1- Alarm Reaction
2- Resistance Stage 3- Exhaustion Stage |
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Alarm Reaction
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under control of Epinephrin by the Adrenal Medulla and Norepinephrine by Sympathetic Neurons; target glycogen leading to glycogenolysis, sparing glucose
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Resistance Stage of Stress Response
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mediated by Cortisol; targets fat tissues (lipolysis) also inhibits protein synthesis
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Exhaustion Stage
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targets the proteins of the muscles to be degraded into amino acids that are shuttled to the liver for gluconeogenesis leading to muscle wasting and death
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What is the effect of elevated Cortisol levels
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reduces immunity by inhibiting the synthesis of protective leukotrienes and prostaglandins, suppressing antibody production, and killing immature T and B cells
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Endemic Goiter
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Results from iodine deficiency; without iodine the thyroid gland cannot synthesize thyroid hormone. Without TH the pituitary gland receives no feedback and acts as if the thyroid were under stimulated. It produces extra TSH which bombards and causes hypertrophy of the thyroid gland.
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What is Congenital and Adult Hypothyrodism
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thyroid hyposecretion; treated with oral thyroid hormone
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Myxedema
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very sensitive to cold because no metabolic hormones to put-off heat; results from prolonged Adult Hypothyrodism
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Toxic Goiter
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Antibodies mimic TSH and bind to TSH receptors on the follicular cells of the thyroid gland. This enlarges the gland. (an autoimmune disease)
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Hypoparathyroidism
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lowers Ca++ levels in the blood leading to hyperexcitibility and can eventually lead to tetany--laryngeal spasm=fatal
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Hyperparathyrodism
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raises Ca++ levels in blood, raises reflex threshold and leads to sluggish reflexes and can lead to heart failure
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Acromegaly
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if you have a tumor in the somatotropes of the anterior pituitary too much growth hormone is secreted in adulthood. The bones are already ossified and can't gain length, so they gain thickness. Especially noticeable in bones of hands, feet, and face.
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What does GH Hypersecretion cause in childhood? Hyposecretion?
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Gigantism, Pituitary Dwarfism
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Adreno Genital Syndrome (AGS) aka
Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia (CAH) |
caused by hypersecretion of adrenal androgens; If new-born baby girls have too much secretion of DHEA it results in a blind vagina and too large of a clitoris
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Cushing Syndrome
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Hypersecretion of ACTH from the corticotropes of the anterior pituitary leads to hypersecretion of aldosterone and cortisol. Because of the high water retention form the excess Aldosterone moon face occurs. Accumulation of Adipose tissue between the shoulders results from too much cortisol.
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What are the two types of receptors for Epinephrine
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Alpha Adrenergic Receptor
Beta Adrenergic Receptor |
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Which messenger system does the Alpha Adrenergic Receptor use
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Location: smooth muscle cells around peripheral blood vessels;
Binds to receptor and activates G.q. protein that activates PLC which cuts PIP2 into IP3 and DAG. The IP3 raises intracellular Ca++ levels which leads to contraction of the smooth muscle cells-->vasoconstriction=higher/raised blood pressure |
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Which messenger system does the Beta Andrenergic Receptor use
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Epinephrine binds to the receptor and activates AC which breaks down ATP into cAMP + PPi. cAMP acts as a second messenger. Two things can happen: 1-relaxation/vasodialation of the smooth muscle cells around the coronary arteries-increases blood supply to heart tissue; 2-increases contractility of cardiac muscle cells (heart rate) both things increase blood pressure
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Alpha and Beta Blockers
|
commonly prescribed to treat hypertension
|
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V1R
|
location: plasma membrane of smooth muscle cells of Renal Arterioles
Function: vasoconstriction of renal arterioles results in a reduction of filtrate volume which conserves water in the circulation Pathway: G-q protein activates PLC |
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V2R
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Location: plasma membrane of the cells of the collecting ducts
Function: initiates production of aquaporin by the DNA which allows more water to be absorbed from the lumen of the collecting duct Pathway: G-s protein activates AC |
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Make-up of Hematocrit
|
55% Plasma
<1% Buffy Coat 45% Red Blood Cells Buffy Coat + RBCs = cellular components |
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Formation of Erythrocytes
|
Hemopoietic Stem Cells--> Erythroblasts--> Erythrocytes (Regulated by Hemopoietin released mainly by kidneys, liver in small amounts)
|
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Formation of Platelets
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Hemopoietic Stem Cells--> Megakaryoblasts--> Megakaryocytes--> Platelets
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Formation of the Granulocytes
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Hemopoietic Stem Cells--> Myeloblasts--> Neutrophils + Basophils + Eosinophils
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Formation of the Lymphocytes
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Hemopoietic Stem Cells--> Lymphoblasts--> B and T Lymphocytes + Natural Killer Cells (B-Lymophocytes can differentiate into plasma cells)
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Formation of Monocytes
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Hemopoietic Stem Cell--> Monoblast--> Monocyte --> can leave the circulation between the simple squamous epithelial cells of the endothelium and enlarge in size up to 10x normal to become a Macrophage with Pseudopodia for Phagocytosis
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Eosinophillia
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results when eosinophil white blood cell counts are too high usually because of a parasitic worm infection
|
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Erythroblastosis Fetalis or Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn
|
when a Rh- mother and Rh+ father have at least their 2nd Rh+ baby the mother's anti-D antobodies attack the baby's blood cells
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RhoGam
|
shot to be given to a Rh- woman to suppress her immune system from synthesizing antibodies against the Rh factor
|
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Where is mutation for Sickle Cell Anemia located
|
Amino Acid #6 of the Beta Chain
|
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What makes up Hemoglobin
|
4 protein chains called globins: 2 alpha and 2 beta polypeptide chains
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Specifically what does O2 bind to on Hemoglobin
|
the Heme group
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Mother-Child Hemoglobin relationship
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HbF binds oxygen more tightly than HbA does; thus, it enables the fetus to extract oxygen from the mother's bloodstream
|
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What are the 3 types of protozoan plasmodium that causes malaria? Which one is deadly?
|
Plasmodium Malariae
Plasmodium Ovale Plasmodium Falciparum=deadly transmitted by Anopheles female mosquitoe |
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Thrombus
|
unwanted blood clot
|
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Thromboembolism
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Formation in a blood vessel of a clot (thrombus) that breaks loose and is carried by the blood stream to plug another vessel. When the clot dislodges it becomes a thromboembolus. Can stop O2 supply to vital tissues.
|
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What are the three steps of Hemostatis
|
1-Vascular Spasm
2-Platelet Plug Formation 3-Coagulation |
|
Vascular Spasm of Hemostatis
|
pain receptors initiate a reflex leading to vasoconstriction of smooth muscle cells of the walls of the blood vessels
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Platlet Plug Formation of Hemostatis
|
platelets aggregate and degranulate--> secrete many chemicals
Serotonin: a vasoconstrictor ADP: aggregation of platelets Thromboxine A2: stimulates activation of new platelets (an Eicosanoid) |
|
Eicosanoids
|
20-C derivatives of Arachidonic Acid
|
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Coagulation of Hemostatis
|
invloves a cascade of reactions activating many blood clotting factors (proteins mainly synthesized in the liver)
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Thrombopoiesis
|
platelet formation
|
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Clotting Factor II
|
Prothrombin
|
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Clotting Factor I
|
Fibrinogen
|
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Hemophilia
|
a deficiency in blood a blood clotting factor (tendency to bleed)
|
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Type A Hemophilia
|
in males; lack of factor VIII; y-chromosome, sex-linked (more common than type B)
|
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Type B Hemophilia
|
lack of factor IX; on y-chromosome
|
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Type C Hemophilia
|
rare type of autosome-linked disorder; lack of factor XI
|
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What are the 3 layer of the heart wall from superficial to deep
|
Epicardium=Visceral Pericardium, Myocardium, Endocardium
|
|
another name for bicuspid valve
|
mitral valve
|
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Autorhythmiticity of the Heart
|
the heart is not dependent on the nervous system for its rhythm
|
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Intercalated discs
|
join cardiac muscle cells; function as a mechanical and electrical link between cells
|
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Gap Junctions
|
in between cardiac muscle cells; transportation of molecules between adjacent cells; entire myocardium of atria or of the ventricles behaves almost like a single cell
|
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Adhering Junctions
|
in between cardiac muscle cells; "glue" adjacent cells together
|
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Absolute Refractory Period
|
period in which no stimuli of any strength can initiate an action potential
|
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ESV
|
End-Systolic Volume = 60mL
|
|
Embolus
|
foreign object traveling in the circulation. ex-air bubbles, fat droplet
|
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Atheroma
|
mass of fat; deposit of lipid-containing fat on an artery
|
|
Atherosclerosis
|
Hardening of the arteries; build up of a waxy plaque on the inside of blood vessels resulting from Monocyte and Platelet aggregation and their effects
|
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Tissue Infarction
|
tissue death as a result of lacking O2 supply
|
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Necrosis
|
cell death due to viral/intracellular paracite
|
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Apoptosis
|
programmed cell death; A natural process of self-destruction in certain cells that is determined by the genes and can be initiated by a stimulus or by removal of a repressor agent
|
|
Bronchial Circuit
|
supplies/drains the lung tissue
|
|
calmodulin
|
plays role in smooth muscle cell contraction
|
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Types of Phagocytic Cells
|
Skin--dendritic cells/langerhan cells
Liver--kupffer cells Lungs--dust cells |
|
Anatomy of the Thymus Gland
|
made of lobules divided by trabeculae; consists of a divided cortex and medulla
|
|
RE Cells (Reticular Epithelial) of Thymus
|
seal off the cortex from the medulla, secrete thymosisn, thymopoietin etc., act as antigen-presenting cells of self-antigens as gateway to the medulla
|
|
Location of the Spleen
|
left hypochondriac, inferior to diaphragm, superior to kidney, posterior lateral to stomach
|
|
Function of the Spleen
|
"erythrocyte graveyard"--old, fragile RBCs rupture as they squeeze through the capillary walls into the sinuses. Macrophages phagocytize their remains.
|
|
Function of the Liver as an immume organ
|
produces the complement proteins that result in the cascades that initiate immune clearance, phagocytosis, cell lysis, and inflammation; produce the blood clotting factors
|
|
What are the functions of C3b
|
phagocytosis
immune clearance cytolysis by C5b |
|
Another name for complement proteins
|
MHC-III
Major Histocompatibility Complex III |
|
What does MAC stand for and what does it consist of?
|
Membrane Attack Complex; C5b, C6, C7, C8, ring of C9
|
|
MHC-I
|
plasma membrane proteins found in every nucleated cell in the human body; can display self-antigens, or foreign antigens; Tc Cells respond
|
|
MHC-II
|
occur only on antigen presenting cells (APCs) and display only foreign antigens; TH cells respond
|
|
Cytokines
|
A small protein released by cells that has a specific effect on the interactions between cells, on communications between cells or on the behavior of cells. The cytokines includes the interleukins, lymphokines and cell signal molecules
|
|
IL-1 and IL-2 (Interleukins)
|
messengers between leukocytes; specifically target and stimulate the division of cytotoxic T-lymphocytes producing many clones that recognize the same antigen and attack the microbial cells upon contact. Also activate B-lymphocytes and WBCs that function in non-specific immunity--antibody mediated immunity
|
|
Perforins
|
secreted by natural killer cells as well as cytotoxic T-cells. They drill holes in the plasma membrane of enemy cells.
|
|
Interferons
|
produced by dying viral infected cells. They induce the healthy neighboring cells to produce antiviral agents.
|
|
HAART
|
Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy
|
|
Haldane Effect
|
the presence of O2 lowers Hb affinity to bind to CO2
|
|
Bohr Effect
|
presence of CO2 will lower the affinity of Hb to bind to O2
|
|
Hb.H
|
deoxygenated Hemoglobin
|
|
CA
|
carbonic anhydrase
|
|
Nomral pH of the blood
|
7.35-7.45
|
|
Myoglobin
|
one polypeptide chain as opposed to four; for O2 storage as opposed to transport; hyperbolic binding curve as opposed to sygmoidal binding curve
|
|
What is the P50 value of Hb vs. Mg
|
Hb=26mm Hg
Mg=1mm Hg |
|
2,3-bisphosphoglycerate
2,3-BPG |
a biproduct of cellular metabolism in RBCs. It binds to the beta chain of adult hemoglobin and lowers their affinity to bind O2.
|
|
Opportunistic Pathogens
|
take advantage of a suppressed immune system
|
|
Carbon Monoxide Poisoning
|
CO competes and has higher affinity to bind Hb compared to O2. CO is colorless and odorless. Highly toxic at low concentrations ~0.2% in atmosphere
|
|
Allesteric Protein
|
one that has multiple binding sites, ex-Hemoglobin
|
|
carbaminoglobin/
carbaminohemoglobin |
Hb.CO2
|
|
carboxyhemoglobin
|
Hb.CO-->carbon monoxide poisoning
|
|
Examples of pulmonary infections (3) that can be lethal to AIDS patients
|
Streptococus Pneumoniae
Mycobacterium Tuberculosis Candida Albicans |
|
Isomerase
|
group of enzymes that catalyzes the conversion of one isomer into another. Especially important when the "dead end" Dihydroxy Acetone Phosphate can be converted into Glyceraldehyde 3-Phosphate depending on the energy needed.
|
|
General Formula of Glycolysis
|
Glucose-->2 Pyruvates
with the production of 2 ATP and 2 NADH |
|
what does NADH stand for?
|
Nicotineamide Adenine Dinucleotide "Reduced"
|
|
What is the total number of ATPs produced during Glycolysis?
|
4 with the net production being 2
|
|
Where does Glycolysis take place
|
in the cytosol of the cell
|
|
Where does the intermediate step take place?
|
Inner Compartment of the Mitochondria
|
|
What three reactions does Pyruvate Dehydrogenase Complex catalyze?
|
1-dehydrogenation
2-incorporation of Coenzyme A 3-decarboxylation |
|
What are two other names for the Krebs Cycle?
|
Citric Acid Cycle
TCA cycle (tricarboxylic acid cycle) |
|
What does FADH2 stand for?
|
Flavine Adenine Dinucleotide
|
|
Oxidation
|
loss/stripping of electrons
glucose oxidation is stored in the electron rich molecules of NADH and FADH2 |
|
Where do the 10 NADH produced during cellular respiration come from?
|
2 from glycolysis
2 from intermediate step 6 from Krebs Cycle |
|
What is another name for the protein gradient in the Mitochondria?
|
proton motive force
|
|
Chemiosmotic Theory aka chemiosmosis
|
making ATP out of ADP and Pi via ATPsynthase using proton motive force
|
|
the donation of electrons and build up of proton motive force from 1 NADH molecule yields how many ATPs?
|
3 ATPs
|
|
the donation of electrons and build up of proton motive force from 1 FADH2 molecule yields how many ATPs?
|
2 ATPs
|
|
Amphibolic Pathways
|
metabolic pathways that include both anabolism and catabolism
|
|
In the fermentation of glucose such as in the metabolism of RBCs, what acts as the final acceptor of the electrons?
|
the pyruvates
|
|
Spermatogenesis (names of the cells in order)
|
Spermatogonium--> Primary Spermatocyte--> 2 Secondary Spermatocytes--> 4 Spermatids--> 4 sperm
|
|
Nondisjunction
|
failure of chromosomes to separate during anaphase. this results in gametes with extra chromosome and others with one less chromosome
|
|
Trisomy in which chromosome will give Down Syndrome?
|
Chromosome #21
|
|
Trisomy
|
having 3 copies rather than the normal 2 of a chromosome
|
|
Nondisjunction vs. trisomy and monosomy
|
Nondisjunction takes place during gamete formation and trisomy and monosomy occur in the zygote
|
|
Turner Syndrome
|
monosomy in the X-chromosome
the zygote is X0 rather than XX or XY; gonadal disfunction=sterile |
|
Triplo X Syndrome
|
trisomy in the X-chromosome; usually no distinguishable difference to the naked eye between women with triple X and the rest of the female population
|
|
XYY
|
male with extra male chromosome
-nothing wrong with the male -may be stronger, taller, more muscluar |
|
XXY
(Klinefelter Syndrome) |
male with extra female chromosome
-develop breasts -loss of male secondary characteristics such as facial hair and deep voice sound |
|
Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome
|
(XY) condition that results in the partial or complete inability of the cell to respond to androgens. The unresponsiveness of the cell to the presence of androgenic hormones can impair or prevent the masculinization of male genitalia in the developing fetus, as well as the development of male secondary sexual characteristics at puberty, but does not significantly impair female genital or sexual development.
|
|
Why do we need oxygen?
|
To serve as the final accepter of electrons in the electron transport chain of the mitochondria
|
|
What are the two types of alveolar cells and their functions?
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Type I= squamous epithelial cells that allow gas diffusion
Type II= cubodial cells that provides alveolar surfactant (aka great alveolar cells) |
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Surfactant
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allows repeated expansion and prevents the collapse at the end of expiration=compliance
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What are the main respiratory muscles?
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diaphragm, rectus abdominus, external intercostals, internal intercostals, obliques-internal and external
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What is NFP?
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net filtration pressure in the kidney nephron = 10 mmHg
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What is GFR?
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Glomerular Filtration Rate= 180 L/day
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Value of the filtration coefficient
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12.5 ml of filtrate/ 1mmHg/ min
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