Anatomy Exam I

Front 1

at what levels of the lumbar plexus does the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve come from?

Back 1

L2 and L3

Front 2

at what levels of the lumbar plexus do the anterior cutaneous branches of the femoral nerve come from?

Back 2

L2, L3, and L4

Front 3

at what levels of the lumbar plexus does the saphenous nerve come from?

Back 3

L2, L3, and L4

Front 4

at what level of the lumbar plexus does the genitofemoral nerve come from?

Back 4

L1 and L2

Front 5

where is the origin of the greater saphenous vein?

Back 5

dorsal venous arch

Front 6

where does the greater saphenous vein terminate?

Back 6

as the femoral vein after passing into the saphenous hiatus

Front 7

what vein is commonly used in coronary artery bypass grafts (CABG)?

Back 7

greater saphenous vein

Front 8

these lymph nodes drain lymphatic fluid in the entire lower extremity and inguinal/genital region; they are dime-sized, flat, and often purple

Back 8

inguinal lymph nodes

Front 9

from the inguinal lymph nodes, where does the lymph fluid go next?

Back 9

into deeper lymphatic trunks

Front 10

what is the common insertion point of the quadriceps muscle group?

Back 10

the tibial tuberosity via the patellar tendon

Front 11

what is the common peripheral innervation for the quadriceps muscle group?

Back 11

femoral nerve

Front 12

what is the common segmental innervation for the quadriceps muscle group?

Back 12

L2, L3, and L4

Front 13

what is the common action of the quadriceps muscle group?

Back 13

knee extension

Front 14

what are the 5 actions of the sartorius?

Back 14

(1) hip flexion
(2) hip abduction
(3) Hip lateral rotation
(4) Knee flexion
(5) tibial medial rotation

Front 15

what are the 5 actions of the tensor fascia latae?

Back 15

(1) hip flexion
(2) hip abduction
(3) hip medial rotation
(4) knee extension
(5) tibial lateral rotation

Front 16

what is the peripheral innervation of the sartorius?

Back 16

femoral nerve

Front 17

what is the peripheral innervation of the tensor of the fascia latae muscle?

Back 17

superior gluteal nerve

Front 18

what are the three actions of the iliopsoas muscle?

Back 18

(1) hip flexion
(2) assists with hip abduction
(3) assists with hip lateral rotation

Front 19

what is the superior border of the femoral triangle?

Back 19

inguinal ligament

Front 20

what is the lateral border of the femoral triangle?

Back 20

medial sartorius

Front 21

what is the medial border of the femoral triangle?

Back 21

adductor longus

Front 22

what is the roof of the femoral triangle?

Back 22

fascia lata

Front 23

what two muscles form the floor of the femoral triangle?

Back 23

pectineus and iliopsoas

Front 24

what are the three contents of the femoral triangle?

Back 24

(1) Femoral vein
(2) femoral artery
(3) Femoral nerve

Front 25

the femoral artery is a continuation of what artery?

Back 25

external iliac

Front 26

the femoral nerve is supplied by what segmental levels of the lumbar plexus?

Back 26

L2, L3, and L4

Front 27

what is the structure that contains both the femoral artery and vein?

Back 27

femoral sheath

Front 28

What are the five muscles that act as hip ADductors?

Back 28

(1) Pectineus
(2) Adductor Longus
(3) Gracilis
(4) Adductor Brevis
(5) Adductor magnus

Front 29

what are the three arteries that supply blood to the head of the femur?

Back 29

(1) profunda femoris artery
(2) medial femoral circumflex
(3) lateral femoral circumflex

Front 30

the profunda femoris artery passes deep to which muscle?

Back 30

adductor longus

Front 31

Where is the profunda femoris artery in relation to the femoral artery?

Back 31

lateral and posterior

Front 32

In what directions does the medial circumflex artery leave the femoral triangle?

Back 32

medially and posteriorly

Front 33

between what two muscles does the medial femoral circumflex artery leave the femoral triangle?

Back 33

iliopsoas and pectineus

Front 34

in what direction does the lateral circumflex artery leave the femoral triangle?

Back 34

laterally

Front 35

Behind what two muscles does the lateral femoral circumflex artery run?

Back 35

sartorius and quadriceps

Front 36

what muscle do the 4 perforating branches of the profunda femoris pierce?

Back 36

adductor magnus

Front 37

what muscles do the 4 perforating branches of the profunda femoris supply?

Back 37

posterior thigh musculature

Front 38

what segmental levels of the lumbar plexus are contained in the obturator nerve?

Back 38

L2, L3, and L4

Front 39

the obturator nerve enters the medial thigh via the __ __ in the pelvis

Back 39

obturator canal

Front 40

under what muscle does the obturator nerve lie?

Back 40

pectineus

Front 41

what muscle does the anterior branch of the obturator nerve run over?

Back 41

obturator externus

Front 42

what muscle does the posterior branch of the obturator nerve pierce?

Back 42

obturator externus

Front 43

what two structures is the fascia lata superiorly attached to?

Back 43

inguinal ligament and iliac crest

Front 44

what structure is the fascia lata inferiorly attached to?

Back 44

lateral condyle of the tibia

Front 45

this is a higly vascular, living, constantly changing mineralized connective tissue

Back 45

bone

Front 46

these are the cells that remove bone

Back 46

osteoclasts

Front 47

these are the cells that deposit new bone

Back 47

osteoblasts

Front 48

this is the canal that passes through the center of an osteon

Back 48

Haversian canal

Front 49

these are the canals that provide connections between different Haversian canals

Back 49

Volkmann canals

Front 50

what are the primary cells of bones?

Back 50

osteocytes

Front 51

what is the intracellular matrix of bone composed of?

Back 51

organic materials (mainly collagen fibers) and inorganic salts

Front 52

what are the two types of inorganic salts found in bone intracellular matrix?

Back 52

calcium and phosphate

Front 53

what are the three functions of bone?

Back 53

(1) to provide a structural framework for movement, support and protection
(2) participates in the production of blood (bone marrow)
(3) is a reserve for minerals

Front 54

what two minerals are reserved in the bone?

Back 54

calcium and phosphorous

Front 55

what are the two types of bone tissue?

Back 55

(1) compact/cortical
(2) trabecular/spongy/cancellous

Front 56

this type of bone consists of closely packed osteons or haversian systems

Back 56

compact/cortical

Front 57

this division of bone consists of a central canal called the osteonic canal, which is surrounded by concentric rings of matrix

Back 57

osteon

Front 58

this type of bone consists of plates/trabeculae and bars of bone adjacent to small, irregular cavities that contain red bone marrow

Back 58

trabecular/spongy/cancellous

Front 59

these bone structures act as a series of struts to redirect the forces along the axis of hte bone for optimal force distribution

Back 59

trabeculae

Front 60

this type of bone is typical of limbs with length reflecting both speed and power in movement (i.e. humerus, femur, metacarpals)

Back 60

long bones

Front 61

this type of bone is generally subject to compression; has a thin cortex of compact bone supported by an interior that is wholly trabecular (i.e. cuboid, cuneiform, scaphoid)

Back 61

short

Front 62

what are three examples of a long bone?

Back 62

(1) humerus
(2) femur
(3) metacarpals

Front 63

what are three examples of a short bone?

Back 63

(1) cuboid
(2) cuneiform
(3) scaphoid

Front 64

this type of bone consists of trabecular bone of varying thickness enclosed between laminae of compact bone

Back 64

flat

Front 65

what are two examples of a flat bone?

Back 65

(1) parietal bone
(2) scapula

Front 66

this type of bone is any element that is not easily assigned to the other three groups

Back 66

irregular

Front 67

what are two types of irregular bones?

Back 67

(1) ilium
(2) vertebrae

Front 68

these type of bones are ovoid nodules that may not be fully ossified and may be dense fibrous tissue; they are usually embedded in tendons closely related to articular surfaces or where tendons angle sharply over bony surfaces

Back 68

sesamoid

Front 69

what is an example of a sesamoid bone?

Back 69

patella

Front 70

this is the tubular shaft portion forming the long axis of a bone

Back 70

diaphysis

Front 71

this is the expanded articular end of a long bone

Back 71

epiphysis

Front 72

this is the growing part of a diaphysis adjacent to the epiphyseal cartilage

Back 72

metaphysis

Front 73

what structure in the bone does the epiphyseal plate sit on top of?

Back 73

metaphysis

Front 74

this is the fibrocellular layer on the outer surface of ALL bone types

Back 74

periosteum

Front 75

this is a deterioration of bone associated with the diabetic population

Back 75

Charcot arthropathy

Front 76

this is a stiff, load-bearing connective tissue that has a low metabolic rate and vascular supply; has a high resistance to tension, compression, and shearing

Back 76

cartilage

Front 77

how does cartilage primarily achieve nutrition?

Back 77

diffusion

Front 78

what are the three main types of cartilage?

Back 78

(1) hyaline
(2) yellow elastic
(3) fibrocartilage

Front 79

this type of cartilage has a glassy, bluish homogeneous appearance; the cells vary in shape from flat to angular

Back 79

hyaline

Front 80

where is hyaline cartilage mainly contained in the body?

Back 80

costal cartilage, nasal area, some laryngeal, tracheobronchial. all temporary cartilage, and most articular cartilage

Front 81

this type of hyaline cartilage covers the ends of bones at the articular surfaces; its smooth, resistant surface provides an almost frictionless movement

Back 81

articular hyaline cartilage

Front 82

this type of cartilage consists of chondrocytes and an extracellular matrix

Back 82

articular cartilage

Front 83

these cells make up about 10% of the net weight of cartilage, are specialized metabolically active cells, and are responsible for the development of the articular cartilage and the maintenance of the extracellular matrix

Back 83

chondrocytes

Front 84

about how much cartilage is solid matrix consisting of collagen, proteoglycans, and chondrocytes?

Back 84

20-40%

Front 85

about how much cartilage is water?

Back 85

60-80%

Front 86

what are the four layers of cartilage?

Back 86

(1) superficial tangential
(2) middle zone
(3) deep zone
(4) calcified cartilage

Front 87

what is the most commonly torn layer of cartilage?

Back 87

superficial tangential

Front 88

what are the four functions of articular hyaline cartilage?

Back 88

(1) decreases joint surface friction
(2) increases the contact area of joints (increases control of motion)
(3) decreased pressure and energy during joint loading
(4) loaded in compression

Front 89

this type of cartilage is found in the outer ear and larynx; contains typical chondrocytes, but is pervaded by yellow elastic fibers that are irregularly contoured

Back 89

yellow elastic

Front 90

most sites in which elastic cartilage occurs have __ functions

Back 90

vibrational

Front 91

this type of cartilage is dense, white fibrous tissue with fibroblasts and chondrocytes; it possesses great tensile strength and elasticity in intervertebral discs; tissue of strength and elasticity to resist repeated stresses and friction

Back 91

fibrocartilage

Front 92

where is fibrocartilage mostly located?

Back 92

articular discs, glenoid labrum, cartilaginous lining of bony grooves for tendons, and some articular cartilages

Front 93

what are the three types of muscle?

Back 93

(1) cardiac
(2) skeletal
(3) smooth

Front 94

this type of muscle is striated, and generally uninucleated contractile tissue found in the heart

Back 94

cardiac

Front 95

this type of muscle is non-striated uninucleated contractile tissue found in the visceral organs and blood vessels

Back 95

smooth

Front 96

this type of muscle is striated, multinucleated, contractile tissue attached in the bony skeleton

Back 96

skeletal

Front 97

what are the five functions of skeletal muscle?

Back 97

(1) produce skeletal movement
(2) maintain posture and body position
(3) support soft tissues
(4) guard entrances and exits
(5) maintain body temperature

Front 98

virtually all movements involve these three types of muscular contractions

Back 98

(1) isometric
(2) concentric
(3) eccentric

Front 99

this type of contraction occurs when the muscle shortens when it works

Back 99

concentric

Front 100

this type of contraction occurs when the muscle lengthens when it works

Back 100

eccentric

Front 101

this type of muscle contraction occurs when there is no joint movement as the muscle contracts

Back 101

isometric

Front 102

this is a mechanism that allows for optimum packing of fibers and optimal range potential

Back 102

pennation

Front 103

muscle fibers can shorten to __-__% of their total length

Back 103

50-60%

Front 104

this is the distance across the fattest point of a muscle; does not include the majority of the muscle fibers contracting to produce force that would act upon the tendons

Back 104

anatomical cross sectional area (ACSA)

Front 105

this cross sectional area takes into account the number of muscle fibers a muscle contains

Back 105

physiological cross sectional area (PCSA)

Front 106

these types of muscles surrounding a joint are intended to provide stability

Back 106

shunt

Front 107

these types of muscles around a joint are intended to provide range of motion

Back 107

spurt

Front 108

what is an example of a shunt muscle?

Back 108

brachioradialis (most of the direction of force is to stabilize the humeroulnar joint)

Front 109

what is an example of a spurt muscle?

Back 109

biceps brachii/brachialis (most of the direction of force is to move the humeroulnar joint)

Front 110

these are muscles that produce movement

Back 110

agonists

Front 111

this is the main muscle of the agonist group

Back 111

prime mover

Front 112

these are the other members of the agonist muscle group

Back 112

secondary movers

Front 113

these are muscles that work in opposition to specific muscles (opposition to the muscles causing the movement)

Back 113

antagonists

Front 114

these are the muscles that work together to provide motion (they can act to prevent the unwanted action/s of the agonists)

Back 114

synergists

Front 115

thes are the muscles that act primarily to stabilize a joint rather than to produce movement (i.e. rotator cuff)

Back 115

stabilizers

Front 116

this matter of the spinal cord contains various neuronal cell bodies among which are the motor neurons of the ventral horn for the innervation of muscles

Back 116

gray matter

Front 117

this spinal matter contains different fibers and tracts, which are essentially axons projecting to various neuronal levels and structures

Back 117

white matter

Front 118

this structure situated just outside the spinal column near the intervertebral foramen contains sensory neurons with a peripheral axon primarily direction to the skin and a central axon entering the spinal cord via the foramen; provides sensory input from the body

Back 118

dorsal root ganglion

Front 119

only the __ rami constitute plexuses

Back 119

ventral

Front 120

how many spinal nerves does the peripheral nervous system consist of?

Back 120

31

Front 121

at what level of the spinal column does the terminal portion of the spinal cord occur?

Back 121

L1/L2

Front 122

every peripheral nerve has a __ component, but not a __ component

Back 122

sympathetic, parasympathetic

Front 123

what parts of the spinal cord do the basic motor pathways run through?

Back 123

anterior and lateral

Front 124

the muscles innervated by the anterior divisions of a given plexus are generally of what type?

Back 124

flexors, pronators, and adductors

Front 125

the muscles innervated by the posterior divisions of a given plexus are generally of what type?

Back 125

extensors, supinators, and abductors

Front 126

the most cranial elements of a plexus provide cutaneous innervation to what border?

Back 126

pre-axial border (thumb, great toe)

Front 127

the most caudal elements of a plexus provide cutaneous innervation to what border?

Back 127

post-axial border (little finger, pinky toe)

Front 128

this is defined as a portion of the cord to which is attached a set of posterior and anterior roots, which in turn form a single pair of spinal nerves

Back 128

segment

Front 129

this is an area of skin innervated by one spinal cord segment

Back 129

dermatome

Front 130

what is the lumbar plexus made up of?

Back 130

the ventral primary rami of L1, L2 and L3 and a great part of L4

Front 131

the iliohypogastic nerve is supplied by what part of the lumbar plexus?

Back 131

L1

Front 132

the muscular branch of which nerves supply part of the obliquus inernus and transversus abdominis?

Back 132

iliohypogastric and ilioinguinal nerves

Front 133

the cutaneous branch of what nerve supplies the skin of the gluteal region lateral to T12?

Back 133

iliohypogastric nerve

Front 134

the ilioinguinal nerve is supplied by what part of the lumbar plexus?

Back 134

L1

Front 135

the cutaneous branch of what nerve supplies the proximal and medial thigh and scrotum or labium major?

Back 135

ilioinguinal nerve

Front 136

the genitofemoral nerve is supplied by what part of the lumbar plexus?

Back 136

L1 and L2

Front 137

the genital branch of what nerve supplies the cremaster muscle, scrotum and adjacent supply (and round ligament in females)

Back 137

genitofemoral nerve

Front 138

the femoral branch of what nerve supplies the skin of the proximal anterior thigh and communicates with the anterior cutaneous branches of the femoral nerve?

Back 138

genitofemoral nerve

Front 139

the anterior branch of what nerve supplies the lateral and anterior thigh as far as the knee?

Back 139

lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh

Front 140

the posterior branch of what nerve supplies the lateral and posterior thigh from the greater trochanter to mid thigh?

Back 140

lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh

Front 141

the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh is supplied by what parts of the lumbar plexus?

Back 141

L2 and L3

Front 142

the obturator nerve is supplied by what division of what roots of the lumbar plexus?

Back 142

anterior divisions of L2, L3, and L4

Front 143

the anterior branch of what nerve supplies an articular branch to the hip joint and muscular branches to the adductor longus, brevis, and gracilis?

Back 143

obturator nerve

Front 144

the posterior branch of which nerve supplies an articular branch to the knee joint and muscular branches to the obturator externus and adductor magnus and some to brevis?

Back 144

obturator nerve

Front 145

the femoral nerve is supplied by what divisions of the lumbar plexus?

Back 145

posterior divisions of L2, L3, and L4

Front 146

in the abdomen, which nerve sends a muscular branch to the iliacus muscle?

Back 146

femoral nerve

Front 147

the anterior branch of what nerve has an intermediate cutaneous branch, medial cutaneous branch, nerve to the pectineus, and nerve to the sartorius?

Back 147

femoral nerve

Front 148

the posterior branch of what nerve contains the saphenous nerve, muscular branch to the quadriceps femoris, and articular branch to the knee?

Back 148

femoral nerve

Front 149

this nerve supplies the skin on the medial side of the leg, and is a branch of the femoral nerve

Back 149

saphenous nerve

Front 150

what are the components of the sacral plexus?

Back 150

lumbosacral trunk (portion of VPR of L4 and VPR of L5) and the VPRs of S1, S2, S3, and part of S4

Front 151

this band of the sacral plexus is formed by the union of the lumbosacral trunk with S1, S2, and most of S3, and continues as the sciatic nerve

Back 151

upper

Front 152

this band of the sacral plexus is formed by a smaller part of S3 and S4; it continues as the pudendal nerve

Back 152

lower

Front 153

this nerve supplies the levator ani and the external anal sphincter

Back 153

pudendal nerve

Front 154

the peripheral nerve to the quadratus femoris and gemellus inferior musces is supplied by what parts of the sacral plexus?

Back 154

anterior divisions of L4, L5, S1 (S2)

Front 155

the peripheral nerve to the obturator internus and gemellus superior muscles is supplied by what parts of the sacral plexus?

Back 155

anterior divisions of L5, S1, and S2

Front 156

the peripheral nerve to the piriformis muscle is supplied by what parts of the sacral plexus?

Back 156

posterior divisions of L(5), S1, and S2

Front 157

the peripheral nerve to the gluteus maximus muscle (inferior gluteal nerve) is supplied by what parts of the sacral plexus?

Back 157

posterior divisions of L5, S1, and S2

Front 158

the peripheral nerve to the gluteus medius muscle (superior gluteal nerve) is supplied by what parts of the sacral plexus?

Back 158

posterior divisions of L4, L5, and S1

Front 159

the peripheral nerve to the gluteus minimus muscle (superior gluteal nerve) is supplied by what parts of the sacral plexus?

Back 159

posterior divisions of L4, L5, and S1

Front 160

the posterior femoral cutaneous nerve is supplied by what parts of the sacral plexus?

Back 160

anterior divisions of S2 and S3 and posterior divisions of S1 and S2

Front 161

what are the two branches of the sciatic nerve?

Back 161

tibial and common peroneal (fibular)

Front 162

the tibial nerve is supplied by what parts of the sacral plexus?

Back 162

anterior divisions of L4-S3

Front 163

the common peroneal/fibular nerve is supplied by what parts of the sacral plexus?

Back 163

posterior divisions of L4-S2

Front 164

the pudendal nerve is supplied by what parts of the sacral plexus?

Back 164

anterior divisions of S2-S4

Front 165

the branch of the pudendal nerve that supplies the levator ani is supplied by what parts of the sacral plexus?

Back 165

S2-S4

Front 166

the branch of the pudendal nerve that supplies the coccygeus and sphincter ani external is supplied by what parts of the sacral plexus?

Back 166

S4

Front 167

this nerve supplies cutaneous innervation to the perineum (labia or scrotum and penis and clitoris) and is a branch of the pudendal nerve

Back 167

perineal nerve

Front 168

the pelvic splanchnic nerves are supplied by what portions of the sacral plexus?

Back 168

S2, S3, and S(4)

Front 169

this artery arises as a bifurcation of the abdominal aorta at the fourth lumbar area and divides into the internal and external portions

Back 169

common iliac artery

Front 170

where does the common iliac artery divide into the internal and external iliac artery?

Back 170

just anterior to the SI joint

Front 171

this artery passes through the obturator foramen to the obturator externus, adductor group of muscles, and a branch to the ligament of the head of the femur

Back 171

obturator artery

Front 172

what are the branches of the internal iliac artery that supply the lower extremity?

Back 172

(1) obturator artery
(2) inferior gluteal artery

Front 173

this branch of the internal iliac artery supplies the buttocks and posterior thigh

Back 173

inferior gluteal artery

Front 174

this artery is larger than the internal iliac artery and enters the thigh behind the inguinal ligament to become the femoral artery

Back 174

external iliac artery

Front 175

this branch of the external iliac artery forms an anastomosis with the superior epigastric artery off the internal thoracic, behind the rectus abdominis muscle. It may establish a means of collateral circulation if there is a blockage of the common or external iliac artery

Back 175

inferior epigastric artery

Front 176

this artery is a continuation of the external iliac artery after it passes through the femoral triangle

Back 176

femoral artery

Front 177

what three muscles does the femoral artery send muscular branches to?

Back 177

(1) sartorius
(2) vastus medialis
(3) adductor group

Front 178

215.4
self efficacy

Back 178

is the degree of control people feel they have in a situation

Front 179

between what two muscles does the profunda femoris pass?

Back 179

adductor longus and adductor magnus

Front 180

what artery pierces the adductor magnus to anastomose with branches of the popliteal artery?

Back 180

profunda femoris

Front 181

this is a branch of the profunda femoris that passes laterally behind the sartorius and rectus femoris and divides

Back 181

lateral femoral circumflex

Front 182

this is a branch of the profunda femoris that winds around the femur between the pectineus and iliopsoas and supplies the adductor and lateral rotator muscles

Back 182

medial femoral circumflex

Front 183

these branches of the profunda femoris perforate the adductor magnus and give off muscular, cutaneous, and anastomosing branches

Back 183

perforating arteries

Front 184

what are the four branches of the profunda femoris artery?

Back 184

(1) lateral femoral circumflex
(2) medial femoral circumflex
(3) perforating arteries
(4) muscular branches to the muscles of the thigh

Front 185

this branch of the lateral femoral circumflex supplies the greater trochanter, femoral head, and femoral neck

Back 185

ascending branch

Front 186

this branch of the lateral femoral circumflex supplies the vastus lateralis and helps form the genicular anastomosis

Back 186

descending branch

Front 187

this branch of the lateral femoral circumflex helps form the cruciate anastomosis by piercing the vastus lateralis and winding around the femur

Back 187

transverse branch

Front 188

this branch of the medial femoral circumflex joins the cruciate anastomosis

Back 188

transverse branch

Front 189

this branch of the medial femoral circumflex goes to the hip joint

Back 189

acetabular branch

Front 190

this artery arises from the femoral just before it passes through the adductor magnus

Back 190

descending genicular artery

Front 191

articular branches of the descending genicular artery take part in what anastomosis?

Back 191

genicular

Front 192

this is a continuation of the femoral artery extending from the hiatus of the adductor canal to the lower border of the popliteus muscle

Back 192

popliteal artery

Front 193

what two structures cross the popliteal artery from lateral to medial?

Back 193

(1) popliteal vein
(2) tibial nerve

Front 194

what branches of the popliteal artery wind around the femur above both femoral condyles to gain the front of the knee joint?

Back 194

superior genicular arteries

Front 195

this artery anastomoses with the descending genicular artery from the femoral, medial inferior genicular, and lateral superior genicular arteries

Back 195

medial superior genicular artery

Front 196

this artery gives a superficial branch to the vastus lateralis and anastomoses with the descending branch of the lateral femoral circumflex and lateral inferior genicular arteries

Back 196

lateral superior genicular artery

Front 197

this artery supplies the cruciate ligaments and synovial membrane of the knee joint

Back 197

middle genicular artery

Front 198

these branches of the popliteal artery arise deep to the gastrocnemius

Back 198

inferior genicular arteries

Front 199

what are the 6 branches of the popliteal artery?

Back 199

(1) cutaneous
(2) superior muscular branches
(3) sural arteries
(4) superior genicular arteries
(5) middle genicular artery
(6) inferior genicular arteries

Front 200

this artery supplies the popliteus, tibial collateral ligament, proximal tibia, anastomoses with the lateral inferior genicular and medial superior genicular arteries, anterior tibial recurrent artery, and saphenous branch of the descending genicular artery; and is a branch of the popliteal artery

Back 200

medial inferior genicular artery

Front 201

this artery anastomoses with the medial inferior genicular, lateral superior genicular, and anterior and posterior tibial recurrent and circumflex fibular arteries, and is a branch of the popliteal artery

Back 201

lateral inferior genicular artery

Front 202

what are the seven arteries involved in the genicular anastomosis?

Back 202

(1) medial genicular artery
(2) lateral genicular artery
(3) descending genicular artery
(4) descending branch of lateral femoral circumflex artery
(5) circumflex fibular artery
(6) anterior tibial recurrent artery
(7) posterior tibial recurrent artery

Front 203

this is a superficial network between the fascia and skin around the patella formed by 7 different arteries

Back 203

genicular anastomosis

Front 204

this is the anterior terminal branch of the popliteal artery that passes through the interosseus membrane, descends along the tibia, and continues as the dorsalis pedis artery at the dorsum of the foot

Back 204

anterior tibial artery

Front 205

what nerve does the anterior tibial artery run along with

Back 205

deep fibular nerve

Front 206

this artery is a branch of the anterior tibial artery; it joins the genicular anastomosis to anastomose with the medial and lateral inferior genicular arteries

Back 206

anterior tibial recurrent

Front 207

this is a branch of the anterior tibial artery that anastomoses with the posterior tibial and medial plantar arteries

Back 207

anterior medial malleolar artery

Front 208

this is a branch of the anterior tibial arterythat anastomoses with the perforating branch of the peroneal and lateral tarsal arteries

Back 208

anterior lateral malleolar artery

Front 209

this is a continuation of the anterior tibial artery distal to the ankle joint; it runs to the sole of the foot through the 1st intermetatarsal space to complete the plantar arch

Back 209

dorsalis pedis artery

Front 210

this is the internal branch of the popliteal artery that begins at the lower border of the popliteus muscle, passes downwards and medially on the back of the leg, and divides into the medial and lateral plantar arteries under the origin of the adductor hallucis

Back 210

posterior tibial artery

Front 211

this is a branch of the posterior tibial artery that sends muscular branches to the soleus, tibialis posterior, flexor hallucis longus, and peronei, nutrient artery to the fibula, and perforates through the interosseus membrane to anastomose with the anterior malleolar artery and lateral tarsal artery

Back 211

fibular artery

Front 212

what four muscles does the fibular artery supply?

Back 212

(1) soleus
(2) tibialis posterior
(3) flexor hallucis longus
(4) peroneals

Front 213

what branch of the fibular artery connects it with the posterior tibial artery?

Back 213

communicating branch

Front 214

this is a branch of the posterior tibial artery that is a smaller terminal branch which passes along the medial side of the foot to the base of the first metatarsal, and gives three small superficial digital branches

Back 214

medial plantar artery

Front 215

this is a branch of the posterior tibial artery that is a larger terminal branch which passes laterally to the base of the 5th metatarsal, then turns medially to join the dorsalis pedis to complete the plantar arch

Back 215

lateral plantar arch

Front 216

this is the largest vein in the body; it begins in the marginal vein of the foot and ends in the femoral vein about 3 cm distal to the inguinal ligament; it drains the sole of the foot and communicates with the small saphenous and deep veins

Back 216

greater saphenous vein

Front 217

this vein begins as a continuation of the lateral marginal vein of the foot; it pierces the deep fascia in the lower part of the popliteal fossa and ends in the popliteal vein proximal to the knee joint and sends branches to the great saphenous vein

Back 217

lesser/small saphenous vein

Front 218

what nerve does the lesser saphenous vein travel with in the leg?

Back 218

sural nerve

Front 219

what are five functions of connective tissue?

Back 219

(1) to hold together more specialized tissues
(2) to retain them in their proper anatomical relations
(3) circumscribes the various functional units or organs
(4) supports nerves and blood vessels as they course between the body parts
(5) supports the entire body and retains the shape of many of its parts

Front 220

the special properties of the various types of connective tissue are determined by the composition of the __ __

Back 220

extracellular matrix

Front 221

what two types of fibers are contained in the extracellular matrix of fascia

Back 221

collagen and elastin

Front 222

this is the interstitial substance or matrix found in the extracellular matrix of fascia; it is a fluid, semifluid or solid materal which occupies the intercellular spaces in fibrous connective tissue, cartilage, or bone

Back 222

ground substance

Front 223

this is a supportive fibrous membrane, covering, supporting and separating muscles; it also unites the skin with underlying tissue

Back 223

fascia

Front 224

this type of fascia lines the abdominal and thoracic cavities

Back 224

internal fascia

Front 225

this type of fascia lies deep to the superficial fascia and is usually referred to as the deep fascia

Back 225

external or investing fascia

Front 226

this is the outer connective tissue layer of blood vessels

Back 226

adventitia

Front 227

this is the connective tissue layer that forms the surface of voluntary muscle

Back 227

epimysium

Front 228

the chief function of this type of fascia that is often found lining the thoracic and abdominal cavities is to attach the parietal layer of the serous sacs to the inner aspect of the body wall

Back 228

internal fascia

Front 229

this type of fascia is a padding layer of loose connective tissue of variable thickness that merges with the deep aspect of the dermis; subcutaneous nerves, vessels and lymphatics travel here

Back 229

superficial/irregular fascia

Front 230

this type of fascia is a connective tissue membrane

Back 230

deep/regular fascia

Front 231

what are the layers of the skin (including the fascia) superficial to deep?

Back 231

(1) epidermis
(2) dermis
(3) superficial fascia
(4) deep fascia
(5) muscle

Front 232

is the superficial fascia more or less elastic than the deep fascia?

Back 232

more elastic

Front 233

what are three functions of superficial fascia?

Back 233

(1) increase mobility of the skin
(2) adipose content contributes to thermal insulation
(3) adipose content is an energy store for metabolic use

Front 234

the quantity and distribution of fat in the superficial fascia is more abundant and widely distributed in what sex?

Back 234

females

Front 235

is the superficial fascia more abundant in colder or hotter regions?

Back 235

colder

Front 236

this type of fascia is composed mainly of collagenous fibers which are arranged regularly and comprise a tough inelastic sheet around muscles; it may pass inbetween groups of muscles and attach to bone, forming septa which separate compartments

Back 236

deep fascia

Front 237

what are 5 functions of deep fascia?

Back 237

(1) segregates functional groups of muscles
(2) provides firm support for muscles
(3) sometimes provides a place for muscle attachment
(4) power of muscle is decreased when deep fascia is stripped
(5) pressure rises in the compartment formed by the fascia because of its limited compliance

Front 238

this is a powerful band of deep femoral fascia that transmits the pull of the TFL and gluteus maximus to the femur and tibia

Back 238

iliotibial band

Front 239

these are localized transverse thickenings of the deep fascia that retain tendons deep to them and prevent bowstringing

Back 239

extensor and flexor retinacula

Front 240

these are potential spaces filled with loose connective tissue between or among more dense layers of connective tissue

Back 240

fascial spaces

Front 241

this is a closed connective tissue sac filled with fluid; the inner surface is smooth and glistening, moistened by synovial fluid and the outer surface blends with surrounding loose connective tissue; they develop in response to friction between tendon and bone, ligament, or other tendons; or we are born with them

Back 241

bursae

Front 242

there are __ named and fairly constant bursae in the whole body

Back 242

50

Front 243

what two structures are most bursae found beneath?

Back 243

muscle or tendon

Front 244

this structure is a complex connective tissue tube wrapped completely around tendons

Back 244

tendon sheath

Front 245

the lower leg is divided into __ compartments

Back 245

3

Front 246

the thigh has __ or __ compartments, depending on the source, that are formed by intermuscular septa

Back 246

2 or 3

Front 247

which nerve supplies the anterior compartment of the lower leg?

Back 247

deep fibular nerve

Front 248

which nerve supplies the posterior compartment of the lower leg?

Back 248

tibial nerve

Front 249

the arm has __ compartments that are formed by the lateral and medial intermuscular septa

Back 249

2

Front 250

what are the two compartments of the arm?

Back 250

anterior (flexor) and posterior (extensor)

Front 251

the forearm has __ compartments that contains layers of muscles

Back 251

2

Front 252

what are the two compartments of the forearm?

Back 252

anterior and posterior

Front 253

the anterior compartment of the forearm is further subdivided into what two subgroups?

Back 253

superficial and deep

Front 254

the posterior compartment of the lower leg is further subdivided into what two subgroups?

Back 254

superficial and deep

Front 255

what are the six fascial compartments of the hand?

Back 255

(1) hypothenar
(2) thenar
(3) central compartment
(4) adductor compartment
(5) interossei compartments
(6) midpalmar and thenar spaces

Front 256

this syndrome is a clinical state of myoneurial anoxia that results from prolonged elevations of tissue pressure within a closed, nondistensible osseofascial compartment

Back 256

compartment syndrome

Front 257

what are some possible causes of compartment syndromes?

Back 257

(1) decreased size of the compartment (such as with constrictive dressings or injuries)
(2) increased size of the compartment (such as with swelling, exertion, hemorrhage, fractures, or soft tissue trauma)

Front 258

intracompartmental pressures between __ and __ mm Hg may render the muscles in that compartment ischemic, and that these pressure, if maintaining for __-__ hours, produce necrosis

Back 258

30-50; 4-8

Front 259

what is tissue pressure in the normal muscle compartment at rest?

Back 259

0-14 mm Hg

Front 260

what are the 4 P's of classic signs of compartment syndrome?

Back 260

(1) pain (unrelieved by immobilization and worse with passive stretch of muscle)
(2) pallor
(3) paralysis
(4) pulselessness

Front 261

what is the treatment for an established acute compartment syndrome?

Back 261

fasciotomy (cutting through the facia to relieve pressure)

Front 262

what three bones make up an innominate bone of the pelvis?

Back 262

ilium, ischium, and pubis

Front 263

the pelvis is made up of what three bones?

Back 263

2 innominate bones and the sacrum

Front 264

what are three purposes of the pelvis?

Back 264

(1) to serve as attachment site for large muscles of trunk and LEs
(2) transfers body weight
(3) form body wall for the viscera (bowel, bladder, reproductive organs)

Front 265

what are the attachments of the gluteal muscles that are seen on the ilium?

Back 265

gluteal lines

Front 266

this structure separates the greater and lesser sciatic notches on the pelvis

Back 266

ischial spine

Front 267

the ischial tuberosity is a common origin for what muscle group?

Back 267

hamstrings

Front 268

what joint is formed by the connection of the sacrum to an innominate bone?

Back 268

sacroiliac (SI) joint

Front 269

what plane is the ilium oriented in on the pelvis?

Back 269

sagittal

Front 270

what plane are the ischium and pubis oriented in on the pelvis?

Back 270

frontal

Front 271

in what three directions is the acetabulum oriented?

Back 271

(1) laterally
(2) inferiorly
(3) anteriorly

Front 272

what type of articular cartilage is found on the acetabulum?

Back 272

lunate

Front 273

this is a fibrocartilaginous ring complete by the transverse ligament that completely surrounds the acetabulum, and serves to deepn the socket

Back 273

labrum

Front 274

what are three functions of the labrum of the hip?

Back 274

(1) deepens the socket
(2) aids in stability
(3) increases contact area with femur, therefore decreasing contact stress

Front 275

this angle is the extent to whcih the acetabulum surrounds the femoral head within the horizontal/transverse plane

Back 275

acetabular anteversion angle

Front 276

what is the normal acetabular anteversion angle in adults?

Back 276

20º

Front 277

would a larger or smaller acetabular anteversion angle cause less stability and make the hip more vulnerable to anterior stress (i.e. labral tears)

Back 277

larger

Front 278

would a large or smaller acetabular anteversion angle cause a flexion impingement and too much laxity posteriorly in the hip?

Back 278

smaller

Front 279

this angle is the extent to which the acetabulum covers the femoral head within the frontal plane

Back 279

center edge angle

Front 280

what is the normal range of center edge angle/angle of Weiberg within adults?

Back 280

35-40º

Front 281

would a larger or smaller center edge angle cause someone to be susceptible to impingement?

Back 281

larger

Front 282

this is the largest and strongest bone in the body

Back 282

femur

Front 283

where does the ligament of the head of the femur attach on the head?

Back 283

fovea

Front 284

what landmark of the femur does the iliopsoas attach to?

Back 284

lesser trochanter

Front 285

what landmark of the femur does the glut max attach to?

Back 285

gluteal tuberosity

Front 286

this angle is the relative rotation that exists between the shaft and neck of the femur, and is in the transverse plane

Back 286

angle of declination (version, torsion)

Front 287

what is the normal angle of declination in newborns?

Back 287

30-35º

Front 288

what is the normal angle of declination in adults?

Back 288

15º (14-19º)

Front 289

this is the angle between the femoral neck and shaft in the frontal plane

Back 289

angle of inclination

Front 290

what is the normal range of angle of inclination in newborns?

Back 290

140-150º

Front 291

what is the normal range of angle of inclination in adults?

Back 291

125-128º

Front 292

these systems in the femoral head and neck align themselves with stress

Back 292

trabeculae

Front 293

what type of forces create the medial trabecular system in the femur?

Back 293

body weight/compression

Front 294

what type of forces create the lateral trabecular system in the femur?

Back 294

pull of muscles

Front 295

this area of the femoral neck is the area of no trabecular bone, and is therefore a weak spot that is more susceptible to fractures

Back 295

Ward's triangle

Front 296

the most bone growth comes from what area of the long bone?

Back 296

inferior/distal system

Front 297

this axis of the femur is parallel to the shaft

Back 297

anatomical axis

Front 298

this axis of the femur is from the center of the femoral head to the femoral condyles

Back 298

mechanical axis

Front 299

what is the normal range of the angle formed between the anatomical and mechanical axes of the femur?

Back 299

10-15º

Front 300

what type of joint is the hip classified as?

Back 300

ball and socket

Front 301

where is the center of rotation of the hip located?

Back 301

medial to the superior edge of the greater trochanter, and lateral and inferior to the body's center of mass, and inferior to the middle third of the inguinal ligament

Front 302

this is a position of maximal tension and good congruency in the hip joint; it provides stability to the joint and is a position of decreased accessory movement

Back 302

close packed position

Front 303

what three positions is the femur in when it is in the close packed position?

Back 303

(1) full extension
(2) slight medial rotation
(3) slight abduction

Front 304

between what two structures does the capsule of the hip joint extend?

Back 304

from the labrum to the base of the femoral neck

Front 305

in what orientation are the outer fibers of the labrum of the hip?

Back 305

longitudinal

Front 306

in what orientation are the inner fibers of the labrum of the hip?

Back 306

circular

Front 307

what is another name for the inner fibers of the labrum of the hip?

Back 307

zona orbicularis

Front 308

this ligament of the hip is shaped like a Y; it is most likely the strongest ligament in the body and resists extension mostly and secondarily medial rotation

Back 308

iliofemoral ligament

Front 309

what two ligaments of the hip are located on the anterior side?

Back 309

iliofemoral and pubofemoral

Front 310

what ligament of the hip is located on the posterior side?

Back 310

ischiofemoral

Front 311

this ligament of the hip limits abduction

Back 311

pubofemoral

Front 312

this ligament of the hip limits medial rotation

Back 312

ischiofemoral ligament

Front 313

this is the ligament that attaches the femoral head to the acetabulum and acts as a conduit for the acetabular artery

Back 313

ligamentum teres

Front 314

this ligament of the hip completes the cartilaginous ring/labrum that deepens the socket

Back 314

transverse ligament

Front 315

this bursa is located underneath the gluteus maximus along the greater trochanter

Back 315

trochanteric

Front 316

this bursa is located right on the ischium near the hamstring attachment on the ischial tuberosity

Back 316

ischial or ischiogluteal

Front 317

this bursa, located on the anterior side of the hip, is often aggravated by hip flexion

Back 317

iliopectineal

Front 318

the ventral division of the lumbar plexus forms which nerve?

Back 318

obturator nerve

Front 319

the posterior division of the lumbar plexus forms what nerve?

Back 319

femoral nerve

Front 320

what three roots are considered to form the lumbar plexus?

Back 320

L2-L4

Front 321

what five roots are considered to form the sacral plexus?

Back 321

L4, L5, S1, S2, and S3

Front 322

the ventral and posterior divisions of the sacral plexus form what nerve?

Back 322

sciatic nerve

Front 323

the more ventral portion of the sacral plexus forms what nerve?

Back 323

tibial nerve

Front 324

the more posterior portion of the sacral plexus forms what nerve?

Back 324

common fibular nerve

Front 325

at what landmark do the iliacus and psoas major muscles combine to form the iliopsoas muscle?

Back 325

inguinal ligament

Front 326

what is the primary muscle that flexes the hip?

Back 326

iliopsoas

Front 327

what are all the muscles that contribute to hip flexion?

Back 327

(1) iliopsoas
(2) rectus femoris
(3) sartorius
(4) possibly pectineus
(5) tensor fascia lata

Front 328

what are the two primary hip extensors?

Back 328

gluteus maximus and hamstrings

Front 329

what are the seven muscles that act to extend the hip?

Back 329

(1) gluteus maximus
(2) hamstrings
(3) obturator internus
(4) superior gemellus
(5) inferior gemellus
(6) piriformis
(7) posterior adductor magnus

Front 330

what are the 5 muscles that act to abduct the hip?

Back 330

(1) Gluteus medius
(2) gluteus minimus
(3) tensor fascia lata
(4) sartorius
(5) piriformis (with the hip flexed)

Front 331

what are the 5 muscles that act to adduct the hip?

Back 331

(1) pectineus
(2) adductor brevis
(3) adductor longus
(4) adductor magnus
(5) gracilis

Front 332

what are the 5 muscles that act/assist to medially rotate the hip?

Back 332

(1) tensor fascia lata
(2) anterior gluteus medius
(3) gluteus minimus
(4) anterior fibers of adductor magnus
(5) medial hamstrings

Front 333

what are the 6 deep lateral rotators of the hip?

Back 333

(1) piriformis
(2) superior gemellus
(3) inferior gemellus
(4) obturator internus
(5) obturator externus
(6) quadratus femoris

Front 334

what are the 4 superficial lateral rotators of the hip?

Back 334

(1) gluteus maximus
(2) sartorius
(3) posterior gluteus medius
(4) lateral hamstrings

Front 335

when the trunk moves with the pelvis causing an ipsilateral lumbopelvic rhythm, what are the hip flexors causing?

Back 335

forward bending

Front 336

when the trunk remains upright and the pelvis moves, causing a contralateral lumbopelvic rhythm, what are the hip flexors causing?

Back 336

anterior pelvic tilt

Front 337

this type of lumbopelvic rhythm is associated with forward bending (trunk moving with the pelvis)

Back 337

ipsilateral

Front 338

this type of lumbopelvic rhythm is associated with anterior pelvic tilt (trunk remains upright while the pelvis moves)

Back 338

contralateral

Front 339

what muscles often cause posterior pelvic tilt?

Back 339

hip extensors

Front 340

what muscles cause pelvis rotation over a lower extremity?

Back 340

hip rotators

Front 341

this is an area of skin innervated by the same spinal segment

Back 341

dermatome

Front 342

this is a group of muscles innervated by the same spinal segment

Back 342

myotome

Front 343

this is an area of bone innervated by the same spinal nerve

Back 343

sclerotome

Front 344

what bony landmark of the pelvis is located at the L4-L5 interspace?

Back 344

iliac crest

Front 345

what bony landmark of the pelvis is located at S2?

Back 345

PSIS

Front 346

in adults, does the femoral shaft angle medially or laterally due to the angle of inclination of the proximal femur?

Back 346

medially

Front 347

what is the approximate knee alignment in the frontal plane (physiologic valgus)?

Back 347

165-170º

Front 348

the lateral epicondyle gives attachment to what ligament?

Back 348

lateral/fibular collateral ligament

Front 349

does the medial or lateral condyle of the femur extend farther?

Back 349

medial

Front 350

the medial epicondyle gives attachment to what ligament?

Back 350

medial/tibial collateral ligament

Front 351

the upper part of the medial epicondyle that serves as the insertion for the adductor magnus muscle

Back 351

adductor tubercle

Front 352

what muscle inserts at the adductor tubercle?

Back 352

adductor magnus

Front 353

the articulating surface of the femur that forms a U shaped concavity where the patella sits

Back 353

trochlear groove

Front 354

does the lateral or medial surface of the trochlear groove extend more anteriorly, acting as a buttress to prevent lateral patellar dislocation?

Back 354

lateral

Front 355

the area of separation on the posterior surface of the femur between the medial and lateral condyles

Back 355

intercondylar fossa

Front 356

an oval nodule of bone or fibrocartilage in a tendon lying over a bony surface

Back 356

sesamoid bone

Front 357

what is the largest sesamoid bone in the body?

Back 357

patella

Front 358

located proximaly on the anterior surface of the tibia; acts as attachment for the patellar tendon

Back 358

tibial tuberosity

Front 359

located on the anterior surface of the lateral condyle of the tibia; site of attachment for the IT band

Back 359

lateral tibial tuberosity (Gerdy's tubercle)

Front 360

the lateral condyle of the tibia is the origin of what muscle anteriorly?

Back 360

extensor digitorum longus

Front 361

the medial condyle of the tibia is the insertion of what two structures?

Back 361

semimembranosus and MCL

Front 362

structure located on the posterior aspect of the proximal surface of the tibia; formed by medial and lateral intercondyle tubercles, and is a prominent spine between articular facets

Back 362

intercondylar eminence

Front 363

the apex of the head of the fibula gives attachment to what two structures?

Back 363

tendon of the biceps femoris and LCL

Front 364

the neck of the fibula is the site where what nerve is located and palpable?

Back 364

common fibular nerve

Front 365

what type of joint is the tibiofemoral joint?

Back 365

condylar/condyloid (double condyloid with medial and lateral compartments)

Front 366

what type of joint is the patellofemoral joint?

Back 366

sellar/saddle

Front 367

what plane does flexion and extension of the tibiofemoral joint occur in?

Back 367

sagittal

Front 368

around what axis does flexion and extension of the tibiofemoral joint occur?

Back 368

coronal/frontal

Front 369

what plane does medial and lateral rotation of the tibiofemoral joint occur?

Back 369

transverse plane

Front 370

around what axis does medial and lateral rotation of the tibiofemoral joint occur?

Back 370

vertical axis

Front 371

what plane does abduction and adduction of the tibiofemoral joint occur?

Back 371

frontal

Front 372

the patella glides inferiorly during what knee movement?

Back 372

flexion

Front 373

the patella glides superiorly during what knee movement?

Back 373

extension

Front 374

the central portion of the common tendon of the quadriceps tendon which is continued from the patella to the tibial tuberosity

Back 374

patellar ligament/tendon

Front 375

the cruciate ligaments are named for their attachments to what structure?

Back 375

tibia

Front 376

which ligaments of the knee provide the most resistance to anterior-posterior shear forces between the tibia and the femur?

Back 376

cruciate ligaments

Front 377

where do the cruciate ligaments receive their blood supply from?

Back 377

synovial tissue

Front 378

the cruciate ligaments receive neural supply from branches of what nerve?

Back 378

posterior tibial nerve

Front 379

which ligament of the knee is the primary restraint for anterior tibial translation?

Back 379

anterior cruciate ligament

Front 380

what other movement besides anterior translation of the tibia does the ACL check?

Back 380

tibial medial rotation

Front 381

tension on the ACL at terminal knee extension assists in the external rotation of the tibia for what mechanism?

Back 381

screw home mechanism

Front 382

what are the two bands of the ACL?

Back 382

anteromedial and posterolateral bands

Front 383

the ACL provides 85% of the restraining force to anterior tibial displacement when the knee is at what two degree measurements?

Back 383

30 and 90º

Front 384

this ligament is the main restraint in the knee for posterior tibial translation

Back 384

PCL

Front 385

is the anterior or posterior band of the ACL taut in 90º flexion?

Back 385

anterior

Front 386

is the anterior or posterior band of the ACL taut in extension?

Back 386

posterior

Front 387

the PCL provides 90-95% of the total restraint to posterior displacement of the tibia on the femur when the knee is in how much flexion?

Back 387

90º

Front 388

at what position are the collateral ligaments of the knee most taut?

Back 388

knee extension

Front 389

what motion do the collateral ligaments of the knee resist?

Back 389

hyperextension

Front 390

this is a broad fan shaped ligament that begins at the medial femoral epicondyle, runs distal and anteriorly, and ends at medial tibia; resists valgus stresses at the knee and resists lateral tibial rotation

Back 390

tibial/medial collateral ligament

Front 391

does the MCL resist varus or valgus forces?

Back 391

valgus

Front 392

this is a strong cordlike structure that begins at the lateral femoral epicondyle and ends at the head of the fibula, and resists varus forces at the knee and limits rotation betwen the tibia and femur

Back 392

fibular/lateral collateral ligament

Front 393

does the LCL resists varus or valgus forces?

Back 393

varus

Front 394

this ligament is the key restraint to lateral patellar translation; may be important in surgical repairs of patellar dislocated; aka transverse retinacular ligament

Back 394

medial patellofemoral ligament

Front 395

these ligaments connect the menisci around their periphery to the tibial condyles and have a vertical fiber direction

Back 395

coronary ligaments

Front 396

these ligaments join the anterior horns of the medial and lateral meniscus and have a horizontal fiber direction

Back 396

transverse ligament

Front 397

these ligaments attach both menisci directly or indirectly to the patella; anterior capsular thickenings

Back 397

meniscopatellar ligament

Front 398

this ligament begins laterally and proximally at the intercondylar fossa and posterior surface, and runs distally to posterior margin of medial condyle of tibia; posterior capsule reinforcement

Back 398

oblique popliteal ligament

Front 399

many of the superficial fibers of the oblique popliteal ligament are derived from the tendon of which muscle?

Back 399

semimembranosus

Front 400

this ligament is a triangular band of fibers attached above the posterior aspect of the lateral condyle of the femur and passes superficial tot he popliteus muscle, to attach to the posterior border of intercondylar area of tibia and to posterior surface of fibular head

Back 400

arcuate popliteal ligament

Front 401

these ligaments arise from the posterolateral side of the lateral meniscus; anterior portion runs anterior to PCL and posterior portion runs posterior to PCL

Back 401

meniscofemoral ligaments

Front 402

what are 6 functions of the meniscus?

Back 402

(1) reduce compressive stress at the tibiofemoral joint
(2) secondary stability
(3) lubricates the articular cartilage
(4) reduces friction between joint segments
(5) guides knees' arthrokinematics
(6) increases joint congruence (Articular contact)

Front 403

this meniscus is semicircle in shape and is attached to the MCL and semimembranosus muscle; has decreased mobility because is firmly attached to the tibial medial condyle

Back 403

medial meniscus

Front 404

this meniscus is circular in shape and is attached to the popliteus muscle, anterior and posterior meniscofemoral ligaments, PCL, and ACL, and is more loosely attached to the tibial condyle

Back 404

lateral meniscus

Front 405

what three structures is the medial meniscus attached to?

Back 405

(1) MCL
(2) semimembranosus
(3) tibial medial condyle

Front 406

what six structures is the lateral meniscus attached to?

Back 406

(1) popliteus
(2) anterior meniscofemoral ligament
(3) posterior meniscofemoral ligament
(4) PCL
(5) ACL
(6) lateral tibial condyle

Front 407

what movement of the knee causes the menisci to move anteriorly?

Back 407

extension

Front 408

what movement of the knee causes the menisci to move posteriorly?

Back 408

flexion

Front 409

during knee flexion, the contraction of what muscle pulls the lateral meniscus posteriorly?

Back 409

popliteus

Front 410

during knee flexion, the contraction of what muscle pulls the medial meniscus posteriorly?

Back 410

semimembranosus

Front 411

during knee extension, the contraction of what muscle pulls the menisci anteriorly?

Back 411

quadriceps

Front 412

this type of cartilage is smooth and pearly and covers articulating surface of the joints; avascular and aneural and receives nourishment through back and forth flow of fluid produced by joint motion

Back 412

hyaline cartilage

Front 413

is the hyaline cartilage on the surface of the medial tibial condyle thicker or thinner than the lateral condyle?

Back 413

thicker

Front 414

this type of membrane lines all surfaces of the articular cavity that is not covered by articular cartilage; extends proximally to form the large suprapatellar bursa

Back 414

synovial membrane

Front 415

is a slack overlapped pleat of tissue composed of the innermost layers of the joint capsule; increases the synovial surface area and allows full joint motion without undue tension of the synovial lining

Back 415

plicae

Front 416

what are the three distinct plicae that are identified in the knee joint?

Back 416

(1) suprapatellar
(2) medial
(3) infrapatellar

Front 417

which plica is of most interest becuase it is often implicated in problems of the extensor mechanism?

Back 417

medial

Front 418

pad like sacs or cavities lined with synovial fluid acting to reduce friction between tendon and bone, tendon and ligament, or between other structures where friction is likely to occur

Back 418

bursae

Front 419

an anterior bursa between the lower part of the patella and the skin; often implicated in housemaids knee

Back 419

subcutaneous prepatellar bursa

Front 420

an anterior bursa between the femur and the quadriceps femoris

Back 420

suprapatellar bursa

Front 421

an anterior bursa between the tendons of the sartorius, gracilis and semitendinosus and the tibia

Back 421

anserine bursa

Front 422

anterior bursa found between the tibia and patellar ligament

Back 422

deep infrapatellar bursa

Front 423

anterior bursa found between the distal part of the tibial tuberosity and the skin

Back 423

superficial (subcutaneous) infrapatellar bursa

Front 424

lateral bursa between the lateral head of the gastrocnemius and joint capsule

Back 424

gastrocnemius bursa

Front 425

lateral bursa between the tendon of the popliteus and the lateral femoral condyle

Back 425

popliteus bursa

Front 426

medial bursa between the medial head of the gastrocnemius and fibrous capsule; often implicated in the Baker's cyst

Back 426

gastrocnemius bursa

Front 427

this injury can involve the medial gastrocnemius bursa and the popliteal or semimembranosus bursa

Back 427

Baker's cyst

Front 428

a medial bursa found between the tendon of the semimembranosus and the medial tibial condyle and also the medial head of the gastrocnemius

Back 428

semimembranosus bursa

Front 429

what nerve can be implicated in medial knee pain that is not involved in any of the structures?

Back 429

infrapatellar branch of the saphenous nerve

Front 430

this structure is located in the anterior aspect of the knee joint between the patellar ligament and the underlying synovial tissue and bone, and attaches to the anterior horns of the menisci; richly innervated and sensitive to pain, so gets easily irritated

Back 430

infrapatellar fat pad

Front 431

this structure is important in resisting lateral patellar displacement when the knee is in extension

Back 431

medial patellar retinaculum

Front 432

this structure is important in resisting medial patellar displacement and is the lateral portion of the tendon of the quadriceps

Back 432

lateral patellar retinaculum

Front 433

what tissues make up the arcuate complex?

Back 433

(1) arcuate popliteal ligament
(2) FCL
(3) popliteus muscle and tendon

Front 434

which quad muscle is known as the most efficient knee extensor?

Back 434

vastus intermedius

Front 435

which muscle is the largest of the four quad muscles?

Back 435

vastus lateralis

Front 436

which quad muscle is known as the only dynamic medial patellar stabilizer?

Back 436

vastus medialis

Front 437

this is a small muscle arising from the lower part of hte femur and inserting into the synovial membrane; it draws the synovial membrane upward as the leg is extended, thereby preventing folds of the membrane from being compressed within the joint

Back 437

articularis genus

Front 438

which hamstrings muscle attaches to the medial meniscus of the knee?

Back 438

semimembranosus

Front 439

this is a broad sheet of connective tissue that attaches the tendons of the sartorius, gracilis, and semitendinosus

Back 439

pes anserinus

Front 440

this muscle unlocks the fully extended knee by medial rotation of hte tibia in open chain knee flexion and unlocks the knee by lateral rotation of the femur in standing/closed chain

Back 440

popliteus

Front 441

what is the roof of the popliteal fossa?

Back 441

skin and fascia

Front 442

what forms the floor of the popliteal fossa?

Back 442

femur, oblique popliteal ligament, expansion of semimembranosus tendon and popliteal fascia

Front 443

what forms the superolateral border of the popliteal fossa

Back 443

biceps femoris muscle

Front 444

what forms the superomedial border of the popliteal fossa?

Back 444

semimembranosus and semitendinosus muscles

Front 445

what forms the inferolateral border of the popliteal fossa?

Back 445

lateral head of gastroc

Front 446

what forms the inferomedial border of the popliteal fossa?

Back 446

medial head of gastroc

Front 447

what are the 7 contents of the popliteal fossa?

Back 447

(1) popliteal artery
(2) popliteal vein
(3) common fibular nerve
(4) tibial nerve
(5) small saphenous vein
(6) popliteal bursa
(7) fat

Front 448

what is the most common view of X ray?

Back 448

anterior to posterior direction

Front 449

the general principle of this technology is ionized particle pentration of a structure based on its density

Back 449

X ray

Front 450

what are the structures that show up on an Xray, from darkest to lightest?

Back 450

darkest: air
fat
water
bone
contrast media
white: heavy metals

Front 451

does a substance that shows up white in an Xray have high or low radiodensity?

Back 451

high

Front 452

which type of bone is whiter and more dense, cortical or cancellous?

Back 452

cortical

Front 453

what are the ABCS of reading radiographs?

Back 453

(1) Alignment
(2) Bone density
(3) Cartilage space
(4) soft tissues

Front 454

what type of physis fracture is a type I salter harris fracture?

Back 454

separation of the physis

Front 455

what type of physis fracture is a type II salter harris fracture?

Back 455

above the physis

Front 456

what type of physis fracture is a type III salter harris fracture?

Back 456

below the physis

Front 457

what type of physis fracture is a type IV salter harris fracture?

Back 457

through the physis

Front 458

what type of physis fracture is a type V salter harris fracture?

Back 458

reduction of the physis (compression)

Front 459

which type of salter harris fracture is most commonly seen?

Back 459

type II

Front 460

this technology involves the imaging of protons (hydrogen) and is good for evaluation of soft tissues

Back 460

MRI (magnetic resonance imaging)

Front 461

fat has many hydrogen ions, so what does it look like on an MRI?

Back 461

very bright

Front 462

bone has little hydrogen ions, so what does it look like on an MRI?

Back 462

black

Front 463

this MRI sequence is when fat is white, gray soft tissue detail quality, really high resolution, is good for viewing anatomy

Back 463

T1

Front 464

this MRI sequence is when water is white, soft tissue has less contrast, fat is more gray, and is good for viewing pathology

Back 464

T2

Front 465

this type of technology is produced by a combination of x rays, computers, and detectors; the xray beam goes through each slice of the patient, and they strike detectors and subsequently are converted through computer software into cross-sectional images

Back 465

CT scans (computed tomography)

Front 466

this is a series of x rays of a joint after injection of contrast; visualizes the soft tissue structures of a joint

Back 466

arthrograms

Front 467

in MRI arthrograms, what substance can be used to yield a bright hyperintense signal and allows evaluation of quite small defects of the joint capsule, bone, or labral cartilage?

Back 467

gadolinium

Front 468

this type of scan can be used to detect infection or cancer

Back 468

Gallium scan

Front 469

how many views do you need on a radiograph to evaluate pathology?

Back 469

2

Front 470

this type of imaging is done by tagging compounds/cells with isotopes

Back 470

nuclear imaging

Front 471

what are five functional roles of the foot and ankle?

Back 471

(1) rigid lever to propel in gait
(2) flexible adapter for initial loading in gait
(3) shock absorber
(4) rotation absorber
(5) position locator

Front 472

is a high or low arch more rigid and better for propelling the foot forward?

Back 472

high

Front 473

what is the second largest bone in the body?

Back 473

tibia

Front 474

what is the name of the articulation of the tibia and fibula with the dome of the talus?

Back 474

ankle mortise

Front 475

which malleolus extends farther down?

Back 475

lateral

Front 476

how many bones are there in the foot?

Back 476

26

Front 477

how many tarsal bones are there in the foot?

Back 477

7

Front 478

how many sesamoid bones are commonly located in the foot?

Back 478

2

Front 479

what is considered as possibly the most important bone in the foot?

Back 479

talus

Front 480

which tarsal bone transmits force from the tibia and fibula to the foot at the talocrural joint?

Back 480

talus

Front 481

the head of the talus articulates with what other tarsal bone?

Back 481

navicular

Front 482

is the talar angle smaller or larger in children (because the head sits more medially)?

Back 482

smaller

Front 483

what is the normal talar angle of the head with the body as an adult?

Back 483

150º

Front 484

what shape is the talus anterior to posterior?

Back 484

convex

Front 485

what shape is the talus medial to lateral?

Back 485

concave

Front 486

in what position is the ankle in its close packed position (and is therefore more stable)?

Back 486

dorsiflexion

Front 487

which tarsal bone is likely the "key" to foot mechanics?

Back 487

talus

Front 488

what tarsal bone does the calcaneus articulate with superiorly?

Back 488

talus

Front 489

what tarsal bone does the calcaneus articulate with anteriorly?

Back 489

cuboid

Front 490

what joint is formed between the talus and the calcaneus?

Back 490

subtalar joint

Front 491

this is a groove under the calcaneus that sustains the talus; it is palpable just distal to the medial malleolus and contains a groove for the flexor hallucis longus tendon

Back 491

sustentaculum tali

Front 492

what muscle tendon passes through a groove in the sustentaculum tali?

Back 492

flexor hallucis longus

Front 493

which ligament attaches at the sustentaculum tali?

Back 493

spring ligament

Front 494

this is a sulcus on the lateral side of the foot between the talus and calcaneus that is filled with ligaments, synovial lining, and mechanoreceptors; is important in determining the position of the ankle

Back 494

sinus tarsi

Front 495

the cuboid bone contains a groove for what muscle?

Back 495

fibularis longus

Front 496

which three tarsal bones help form the transverse arch?

Back 496

cuneiforms (medial, intermediate, and lateral)

Front 497

which bones are considered to make up the forefoot?

Back 497

the metatarsal and phalanges

Front 498

which bones are considered to make up the midfoot?

Back 498

tarsal bones

Front 499

what bones are considered to make up the hindfoot?

Back 499

talus and calcaneus

Front 500

what two things attach at the styloid process of the 5th metatarsal?

Back 500

tendon of the fibularis brevis and part of the plantar aponeurosis

Front 501

the two sesamoid bones of the foot are located under which muscle's tendon?

Back 501

flexor hallucis brevis

Front 502

what are the two structures in the foot that have a poor blood supply and are an immediate refer out if there is a suspected fracture of the area?

Back 502

navicular and styloid process of the fifth metatarsal

Front 503

which metatarsal is short and stout and takes a lot of force?

Back 503

first metatarsal

Front 504

this is the name for one metatarsal and its phalanges

Back 504

ray

Front 505

the center/midline of the foot is through which metatarsal and its digits?

Back 505

2nd

Front 506

what type of joint is the distal tibiofibular joint?

Back 506

synarthrotic/syndesmotic

Front 507

what plane of motion does inversion and eversion of the foot take place in?

Back 507

frontal

Front 508

what axis does inversion and eversion of the foot take place around?

Back 508

anterior/posterior

Front 509

what plane of motion does dorsiflexion and plantarflexion of the foot take place in?

Back 509

sagittal

Front 510

what axis does dorsiflexion and plantarflexion of the foot take place around?

Back 510

medial/lateral

Front 511

what plane of motion does abduction and adduction of the foot take place in?

Back 511

transverse plane

Front 512

what axis does abduction and adduction of the foot take place around?

Back 512

superior/inferior

Front 513

in an open chain situation, pronation is a combination of what three ankle movements?

Back 513

eversion
dorsiflexion
abduction

Front 514

in an open chain situation, supination is a combination of what three ankle movements?

Back 514

inversion
plantar flexion
adduction

Front 515

in a closed chain situation, pronation is a combination of what three ankle movements?

Back 515

eversion
plantarflexion
adduction

Front 516

in a closed chain situation, supination is a combination of what three ankle movements?

Back 516

inversion
plantarflexion
abduction

Front 517

what three bones make up the talocrural joint?

Back 517

tibia, fibula, and talus

Front 518

what are the primary motions that occur at the talocrural joint?

Back 518

dorsiflexion and plantarflexion

Front 519

what two bones make up the subtalar joint?

Back 519

talus and calcaneus

Front 520

what two motions primarily occur at the subtalar joint?

Back 520

inversion and eversion

Front 521

what is another name for the midtarsal joints?

Back 521

Chopart's joints

Front 522

what is another name for the tarsometatarsal joints?

Back 522

Lisfranc's joints

Front 523

what are the pairs of bones that make up the midtarsal joints?

Back 523

Talus+navicular
calcaneus+cuboid

Front 524

what are the four primary motions that occur at the midtarsal joints?

Back 524

inversion/eversion and abduction/adduction

Front 525

when the two axes interact and form a cross in the midtarsal joints, what motion does the ankle do?

Back 525

supination (more stable)

Front 526

when the two axes interact and become parallel in the midtarsal joints, what motion does the ankle do?

Back 526

pronation (more flexible)

Front 527

what bones articulate in the 1st Lisfranc joint?

Back 527

1st cuneiform with the 1st MT

Front 528

what bones articulate in the 2nd Lisfranc joint?

Back 528

2nd and 3rd cuneiform with the 2nd and 3d metatarsals

Front 529

what bones articulate in the 3rd Lisfranc joint?

Back 529

cuboid with the 4th and 5th MTs

Front 530

what type of axes are the MTP and IP joints?

Back 530

straight plane

Front 531

what motions are allowed at the IP joints?

Back 531

flexion and extension

Front 532

what four motions are allowed at the MTP joints?

Back 532

flexion/extension and abduction/adduction

Front 533

what ligament is implicated in a high ankle sprain?

Back 533

anterior tibiofibular ligament

Front 534

what two ligaments are located on the medial side of the ankle?

Back 534

spring ligament and deltoid ligament complex

Front 535

what five ligaments are located on the lateral side of the ankle?

Back 535

(1) anterior tibiofibular
(2) posterior tibiofibular
(3) anterior talofibular
(4) calcaneofibular
(5) posterior talofibular

Front 536

what ligament is most often injured in inversion ankle sprains?

Back 536

anterior talofibular

Front 537

which ligament prevents posterior gliding of the tibfib complex on the talus in closed chain or prevents the talus from coming forward on the tibfib complex in open chain?

Back 537

anterior talofibular ligament

Front 538

what ligament prevents straight inversion of the ankle?

Back 538

calcaneofibular ligament

Front 539

what ligament prevents anterior gliding of the tibfib complex on the talus in closed chain or prevents the talus from going backward on the tibfib complex in open chain?

Back 539

posterior talofibular

Front 540

what bones make up the medial longitudinal arch of the foot?

Back 540

calcaneus
talus
navicular
all three cuneiforms
MTs 1-3

Front 541

which bones make up the lateral longitudinal arch of the foot?

Back 541

calcaneus
cuboid
MT 4-5

Front 542

what are the two ligaments that are found on the plantar surface of the foot?

Back 542

short and long plantar ligaments

Front 543

this ligament on the plantar surface of the foot runs from the calcaneus to the cuboid bone

Back 543

short plantar

Front 544

this ligament on the plantar surface of the foot runs from the calcaneus to the cuboid and metatarsals 2-5

Back 544

long plantar

Front 545

this structure that runs from the calcaneus to almost everything in the foot is involved in stability of the foot, and acts as a rigid lever during the push off in gait

Back 545

plantar fascia/aponeurosis

Front 546

what compartment of the lower leg contains the deep fibular nerve?

Back 546

anterior compartment

Front 547

what compartment of the lower leg contains the anterior tibial artery and vein?

Back 547

anterior

Front 548

what compartment of the lower leg is considered the extensor compartment?

Back 548

anterior

Front 549

what four muscles are contained in the anterior compartment of the lower leg?

Back 549

(1) tibialis anterior
(2) EHL
(3) EDL
(4) Fibularis tertius

Front 550

what retinaculum is contained within the anterior compartment?

Back 550

superior and inferior extensor retinaculum

Front 551

what two vascular structures are located within the anterior compartment of the lower leg?

Back 551

anterior tibial artery and vein

Front 552

what nerve is located in the lateral compartment of the lower leg?

Back 552

superficial fibular nerve

Front 553

what two muscles are located in the lateral compartment?

Back 553

fibularis longus and brevis

Front 554

what retinaculum is located in the lateral compartment?

Back 554

superior and inferior fibular retinaculum

Front 555

what three muscles are located in the superficial posterior compartment of the lower leg?

Back 555

(1) gastrocnemius
(2) soleus
(3) plantaris

Front 556

what three muscles are located in the deep posterior compartment of the lower leg?

Back 556

(1) tibialis posterior
(2) FDL
(3) FHL

Front 557

what vasculature is located in the deep posterior compartment of the lower leg?

Back 557

fibular artery and vein, posterior tibial artery and vein (possibly)

Front 558

what nerve is located in the deep posterior compartment of the lower leg?

Back 558

tibial nerve

Front 559

what nerve innervates the dorsal intrinsic muscles of the foot?

Back 559

deep fibular nerve

Front 560

what are the two dorsal intrinsic muscles of the foot?

Back 560

(1) EDB
(2) EHB

Front 561

what three muscles are located in the 1st layer of the plantar surface of the foot?

Back 561

(1) abductor hallucis
(2) flexor digitorum brevis
(3) abductor digiti minimi

Front 562

what two muscles are located in the second layer of the plantar surface of the foot?

Back 562

(1) quadratus plantae
(2) lumbricales

Front 563

what three muscles are located in the third layer of the plantar surface of the foot?

Back 563

(1) flexor hallucis brevis
(2) adductor hallucis
(3) flexor digiti minimi brevis

Front 564

what two groups of muscles are located in the fourth layer of the plantar surface of the foot?

Back 564

dorsal and palmar interossei

Front 565

which plantar nerve innervates toes 1-3 and the medial side of the 4th?

Back 565

medial plantar

Front 566

which plantar nerve innervates the lateral side of the fourth toe and the fifth?

Back 566

lateral plantar

Front 567

the most common neuroma of the foot lies between what two toes?

Back 567

3rd and 4th

Front 568

what four muscles are innervated by the medial plantar nerve?

Back 568

(1) abductor hallucis
(2) flexor digitorum brevis
(3) flexor hallucis brevis
(4) first (medial) lumbrical

Front 569

what 6 muscles are innervated by the lateral plantar nerve?

Back 569

(1) 3 lateral lumbricales
(2) flexor digiti minimi brevis
(3) adductor hallucis
(4) abductor digiti minimi
(5) quadratus plantae
(6) interossei