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379 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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receptors that respond to specific chemical molecules dissolved in fluid
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chemoreceptors
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receptors that respond to changes in temperature
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thermoreceptors
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receptors located in the eye where they detect changes in light intensity, color, and movement
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photoreceptors
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receptors that respond to touch, pressure, vibration, and stretch
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mechanoreceptors
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receptors that detect changes in pressure within body structures
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baroreceptors
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receptors that respond to pain caused by either external or internal stimuli
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nociceptors
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brain's misidentification of pain
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referred pain
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sensation from a body part that is missing
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phantom pain
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sense of taste
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gustation
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taste receptors that are housed in taste buds on the tongue's surface
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Gustatory (taste) Cells
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What two cranial nerves are involved in gustation?
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CN VII - saliva
CN IX - interpret taste |
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name the 5 taste sensations
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sweet
salty sour bitter umami (meaty, chkn soup taste) |
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sense of smell
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olfaction
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cilia on olfactory receptor cells
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olfactory hairs
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what is the man cranial nerve for olfaction pathways?
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CN I
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axons of the olfactory neurons extend thru pores in the _________ _____
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cribiform plate
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olfactory bulbs project onto _________ ______
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olfactory tracts
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where is the primary olfactory cortex located?
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temporal lobe
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accessory structure of the eye that lines the eyelids and covers the eye when closed
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conjuctiva
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surface of the eye; contains all the small red blood vessels
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ocular conjuctiva
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internal surface of the eyelid
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palpebral conjuctiva
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most common nontraumatic eye injury; inflamed conjuctiva; aka pink eye; dilation of blood vessels; frequently results from bacteria or viral infection; chronic and contagious
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Conjuctivitis
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keeps perspiration from eyes, helps make facial expressions
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eyebrows
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prevent large foreign objects from entering the eye
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eyelashes
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eyelids
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palpebrae
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fibrous core of eyelid
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tarsal plate
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sebaceous glands that produce a secretion to prevent tear overflow and eyelids from sticking together; found in tarsal plate
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tarsal glands
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located in medial commisure; small redish body that houses ciliary glands; responsible for "sand" in eye
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lacrimal caruncle
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eye structure that produces, collects, and drains lacrimal fluid
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lacrimal apparatus
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gland that produces tears;
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lacrimal gland
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antibacterial enzyme that lubricates and cleanses the eye in tears
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lysozyme
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openings in the lacrimal caruncle
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lacrimal puncta
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what causes a runny nose when crying?
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tears passing thru the lacrimal canal and emptying into the nasal cavity
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outermost layer of eye wall and is composed of
the sclera and cornea |
Fibrous Tunic
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the white of
the eye, consists of dense collagenous CT |
sclera
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avascular,
clear window that admits light |
cornea
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• middle layer of eye wall
• consists of the darkly pigmented, highly vascular choroid where cilliary body is located |
Vascular tunic
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controls the diameter of the pupil
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iris
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muscle that constricts the pupil under control of the ANS
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Sphincter pupillae or pupillary constrictor
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dilates the pupil
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Dilator pupillae or pupillary dilator
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• inner layer of eye wall
• outer pigmented layer and inner neural layer • neural layer has photoreceptors |
Retina
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where does the retina connect?
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ora serrata and optic disc
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name the 3 cell layers of retina from front to back
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photoreceptors, bipolar cells, and ganglion cells
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function in dim light
and cannot distinguish colors |
rods
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used for day vision and perception of color; function in high-intensity light and in color vision
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cones
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Their axons form the optic nerve (II) through the optic disc - blind spot
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Ganglion Cells
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Pit inside inside macula lutea
Area of sharpest vision - almost all cones |
fovea centralis
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physical degeneration of the maculea lutea of the retina; leading cause of blindness in developed countries; two formes - dry or wet; 70% of cases are dry; symptoms include loss of visual acuity, cataracts, straight lines appearing wavy, etc. No cure
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Macular degeneration
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transparent structure made of flattened, compressed cells filled with crystallin; focuses incoming light into the retina
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lens
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ligaments attached to the lens capsule that allow the lens to change shape
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suspensory ligaments
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muscles that cause the tension in the suspensory ligaments to change
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ciliary muscles
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lens for distance vision-default position
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flat lens
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how do lens accomodate for near vision?
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lens must become
more spherical; aka accommodation |
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age-related change where lens become less able to be spherical creating difficulty to read words close up
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presbyopia
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separates the posterior and anterior cavities
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lens
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separates the anterior cavity into anterior and posterior cavities
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iris
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• fluid secreted by ciliary body into posterior
chamber of anterior cavity • flows through pupil to anterior chamber |
Aqueous humor
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vascular space where aqueous humor is reabsorbed across the covering epithelium; drains excess aqueous humor
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scleral venous sinus
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eye disease that is characterized by increased intraocular pressure;
symptoms: reduced field of vision dim vision halos around light possible loss of vision |
glaucoma
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• transparent, jelly-like substance fills the posterior
cavity |
Vitreous body (vitreous humor)
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describe The Visual Pathways
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• Light stimulates photoreceptors
• bipolar cells pass it onto ganglion • Ganglion axons form the optic nerve • nerve impulse is generated |
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a flattened structure that is the location of decussation of optic nerve axons
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optic chiasm
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rearrangement of the fibres of the optic nerves found in the optic chiasm where about half of them from each optic nerve pass on to the contralateral optic tract
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hemidecussation
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far-sighted;
Short eye is corrected by flat lens |
hyperopia
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near-sighted;
Long eye is corrected by curved lens |
myopia
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causes unequal focusing and blurred images due to unequal curvatures along different meridians in one or more of the refractive surfaces; vision is distorted at all distances
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astigmatism
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treats all forms of distorted vision by using a laser to change the shape of the cornea which is done by removing deep layers of the cornea
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LASIK
(laser assisted in situ keratomileusis) |
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• The auricle (pinna)
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external ear
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bony tube which receive sound waves directed from the auricle; aka auditory canal
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external auditory meatus
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wax-like secretion which combines with dead sloughed skin cells to form earwax
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cerumen
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eardrum; vibrates when sound waves hit them
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tympanic membrane
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• begins with the tympanic membrane
• The cavity is filled with air |
middle ear
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tube located in the middle ear that connects to the upper throat; air movement is due to chewing, yawning, and swallowing
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eustachian tube / auditory tube
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the three smallest bones of the body
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auditory ossicles
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auditory ossicle resembling a bulb hammer
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malleus
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middle auditory ossicle resembling an anvil
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incus
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auditory ossicle resembling a stirrup on a sadle
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stapes
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where is the footplate of the stapes located?
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in the oval window
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infection of middle ear;
symptoms: fever holding the infected ear general irritability |
otitis media
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surgical procedure where a ventilation tube is inserted into the tympanic membrane because of repeated ear infections
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myringotomy
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aka swimmers ear; an infection of the skin that covers the external acoustic meatus due to excessive water exposure.
symptoms: pain or itching in the outer part of the ear swelling of the meatus and auricle decreased or muffled hearing pus draining from the infected ear |
otitis externa
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spaces or cavities of the inner ear
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bony labyrinth
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where is the inner ear located?
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within the petrous part of the temporal bone
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membrane-lined fluid filled tubes and spaces within the bony labyrinth
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membranous labyrinth
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fluid that fills the space between the outer walls of the bony labyrinth and the membranous labyrinth
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perilymph
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low sodium, high potassium concentration fluid; found within the membranous labyrinth
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endolymph
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Receptors for equilibrium, coordination and balance
• made of the upper utricle and lower saccule; perceive linear acceleration and the orientation of the head |
Vestibule
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membranous labyrinth within the semicircular canals of the vestibular complex
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semicircular ducts
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dialated end of The Semicircular Ducts
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ampulla
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sensory receptors of the equilibrium
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hair cells
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microvilli on surface of hair cell
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Stereocilia
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name for One long cilium of each hair cell
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kinocilium
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calcium carbonate crystals found within the equilibrium
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otholiths
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combo of the gelatinous layer and otoliths
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otolith membrane
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when the head is erect, is there stimulation of hair cells?
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no
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what bends sterocilia?
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tilting the head
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Overlying gelatinous dome of the equilibrium
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cupula
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sense of nausea, mild disorientation, and dizziness due to flying or riding in an automobile; the eyes tell the brain we are standing still but the inner ear says the opposite
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motion sickness
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cranial nerve that receives all sensory stimuli from the inner ear. two branches: vestibular and cochlear
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CN VIII (Vestibulocochlear)
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CN VIII branch that receives equil. stimuli
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vestibular branch
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CN VII branch that receives sound stimuli
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cochlear branch
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snail shaped spiral chamber in the bone of the inner ear that houses the spiral organ
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cochlea
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organ housed by the membranous labyrinth in the cochlea; responsible for hearing
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spiral organ
aka organ of corti |
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the middle duct with the spiral organ in it, filled with endolymph
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cochlear duct
aka scala media |
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rests on basilar membrane that separates cochlear duct from scala tympani; sound waves cause pressure waves and the basilar membrane ‘bounces
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Spiral Organ
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Describe the process of hearing
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1. Sound waves go through the auditory canal and
vibrate the eardrum, causing the ossicles to move. 2. footplate of the stapes moves the fluid of inner ear by pushing on the oval window 3. Pressure waves move through the scala vestibuli 4. Vestibular membrane vibrates passing on pressure waves to cochlear duct and basilar membrane vibrates 5. Hair cells of the spiral organ get bent up against tectorial membrane, stimulates CN VIII 6. Pressure wave transmitted to scala tympani and exit the ear at round window, which bulges |
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the # of waves; aka pitch
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frequency
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what is frequency measured in?
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Hertz
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what is the intensity/loudness of sound measured in?
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decibels
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what decides what noises we pay attention to?
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thalamus
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Describe How sound waves are transferred to the brain
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1. When basilar membrane ‘bounces’ and stereocilia on
spiral organ hair cells bend against tectorial membrane, a nerve impulse is produced 2. Nerve impulse travels through cochlear branch of CN VIII 3. Axons go through inferior colliculus and thalamus 4. Axons terminate in primary auditory cortex 5. Auditory association area allows us to understand what we hear |
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The scientific study and medical treatment of the digestive system
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gastroenterology.
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what is the primary purpose of the digestive system?
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break food into useful forms to be
used by cells and to absorb nutrients for distribution to tissues |
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what is the job(s) of the organs of the digestive system?
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ingest; transport; digest and expel waste
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the digestive organs collectively make up the _________ _____
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digestive tract
aka alimentary canal or GI Tract |
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are the accessory digestive organs part of the GI tract?
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NO
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digestion is broken down into what two types of food breakdown?
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chemical and mechanical
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the intake of food
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ingestion
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moving things along in the stomach
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propulsion
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name the 6 main functons of the digestive system
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1. Ingestion
2. Digestion 3. Propulsion 4. Secretion 5. Absorption 6. Elimination |
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process of muscular contraction that forms ripples along part of the GI tract to force them along
(like squeezing out toothpaste) |
Peristalsis
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churn/mixing movements in the small intestine that help disperse the material being digested and combine it with digestive organ secretions
like a blender |
Segmentation
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releasing mucous and fluids like acids and digestive enzymes into lumen
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secretion
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the uptake of nutrients into blood and lymph
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Absorption
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defecation, the elimination of feces
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elimination
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oral cavity
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mouth
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name the 4 jobs of the oral cavity
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ingestion, taste, chemical and mechanical
digestion |
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compress the cheeks against the teeth to hold food in place for chewing
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buccinator muscles
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the space between the cheeks or lips
and the teeth |
vestibule
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lips are held on by ______ ________
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labial frenulum (bridle for lips)
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gingivae
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gums
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separates the oral cavity from the nasal
cavity and makes it possible to breathe and chew food at the same time; roof of the mouth |
palate
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anterior portion of the palate, composed of
the palatine processes of the maxillae and the smaller palatine bones. |
hard palate
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posterior portion of the palate, skeletal muscle
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soft palate
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punching bag in the back
of the throat—gag reflex |
uvula
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opening between oral cavity and
oropharynx |
fauces
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maneuvers food between teeth for mastication; is important for swallowing and speech
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Tongue
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line under the tongue that holds it in place
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Lingual frenulum
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what is the avg volume of saliva secreted daily?
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1-1.5 liters
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enzyme in saliva that begins starch digestion
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amylase
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an enzyme in saliva that kills bacteria
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lysozyme
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the largest salivary gland located just anterior to the ear
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parotid gland
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salivary gland inferior to the body of the mandible
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submandibular
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salivary glands inferior to the tongue
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sublingual glands
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dentition
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teeth
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front teeth that chisel and bite
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incisors
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teeth that are more pointed for tearing
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canines (cuspids)
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teeth with cusps used to crush and grind
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premolars
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the socket of the tooth held by peridontal ligaments
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alveolus
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visible portion of the tooth and consists of
a hard tissue called dentin covered by enamel |
crown
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located in the alveolus below the gum-line;
dentin covered with cementum |
root
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are connective tissues with
living cells enamel is a non-cellular secretion produced before the teeth erupt. |
Dentin and cementum
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cavity in the crown
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pulp cavity
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canal in the root for blood vessels and nerves
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root canal
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opening in the bottom of root for
blood and nerve to come into the tooth |
apical foramen
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how many deciduous teeth will an infant have in its life from 30 months to 6 years?
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20
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what do molars in kids become in adults?
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premolars
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aka wisdom teeth
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third molars
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name the 3 regions of the pharynx from top to bottom
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nasopharynx, oropharynx, and laryngopharynx
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support the abdominal organs of the GI tract
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serous membranes
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lines the inside surface of the body wall
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parietal peritoneum
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covers surface of internal organs
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visceral peritoneum
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located between parietal peritoneum and visceral peritoneum; fluid filled allows for free movement and reduces friction during movement
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peritoneal cavity
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organs that lie directly against posterior abdominal wall, so only anterior surfaces are covered with visceral peritoneum
ex. Most of duodenum, pancreas, ascending and descending colon and rectum |
retroperitoneal organs
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mesentery that extends from liver to lesser curvature
of the stomach |
lesser omentum
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mesentery that extends from greater curvature of
stomach loosely covers the intestines like an apron fatty apron |
greater omentum
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mesentery that holds the small intestine
together and anchors it to posterior wall |
mesentery proper
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mesentery that anchors the colon to the dorsal
abdominal wall and holds colon together |
mesocolon
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name the 4 layers of the walls of GI organs from inside to outside
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1. Mucosa
2. Submucosa 3. muscularis externa 4. adventitia or serosa |
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layer that lines the lumen of the wall of the GI Tract
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mucosa
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what is different about the muscularis externa in the stomach?
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it has 3 layers of smooth muscle instead of two
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nerve fibers and ganglia located between the two layers of smooth muscle that control contractions
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myenteric plexus
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ascending colon is _______________ so has adventitia
stomach is _______________ so has serosa |
retroperitoneal
intraperitoneal |
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blood is routed to the _____ before general
circulation |
liver
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processes nutrients and cleanse it of bacteria
and toxins |
liver
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contains that lacteals absorb lipids and lipid soluble vitamins and Send this material through lymph nodes and eventually into thoracic duct
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Lymphatic capillaries
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what does MALT stand for?
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mucosa
Affiliated Lymph Tissue |
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Most nerves associated with the GI tract are controlled by the ______
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ANS
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______________ input promotes digestion
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parasympathetic
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___________ system inhibits digestion
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sympathetic
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The digestive Tract's own nervous system; controls peristalsis, contractions of the muscularis externa, and glandular secretions of the mucosa
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Enteric Nervous System (ENS)
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straight tube 10 inches long dorsal to trachea from the pharynx to the stomach pierces the diaphragm at the esophageal hiatus
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Esophagus
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where is the center for swallowing located in the brain?
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medulla oblongata
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swallowing involves muscles in what organs?
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the mouth, pharynx, and esophagus
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left abdominal cavity just inferior to the diaphragm;
stores food, mechanically breaks it down, and chemically digests it; J shaped, secretes gastric juices |
Stomach
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small region of the stomach near the esophagus
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cardia
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dome shaped region of the stomach
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fundus
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main portion of the stomach interior to the cardiac region
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body
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region of stomach that is a passageway to the duodenum; terminates at the pylorus
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pyloric region
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opening of the pyloric region and duodenum of the small intestine; regulates passage into small intestine
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pyloric sphincter
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name the 3 cell types found in gastric juice and what they secrete
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mucous - mucus
parietal - hydrochloric acid chief - pepsinogen |
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finishes chemical digestion
absorbs 90% of nutrients and water ingested nutrients spend about 12 hours in intestines |
Small Intestine
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first part of the small intestine, is about 10 inches
(shortest segment) |
duodenum
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circular folds of the small intestine that increase surface area and slow down food, act like ‘speed bumps’
|
plicae circulares
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Bile and pancreatic ducts open into the ________
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duodenum
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____ emulsifies and physically breaks down fat; yellow-green fluid
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Bile
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Most of nutrient absorption occurs here;
second part of the small intestine (7.5 feet long) |
jejunum
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(~11 feet long)
joins the large intestine at the ileocecal valve |
ileum
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finger-like projections that increase surface area for absorption and secretion in the small intestine;
velvety texture (suede-like) lymphatic capillary; lacteal |
Villi
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_____ ___________ absorb most nutrients but _______
absorbs most dietary lipids |
blood capillaries
lacteal |
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possesses enzymes carry out the final stages
of chemical digestion in the small intestine; fuzzy |
brush border
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glands found between the bases of the villi
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intestinal crypts
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receives indigestible food (fiber) , absorbs water and
salts, and eliminates feces by defecation |
Large Intestine
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pouch in the large intestine where the appendix hangs
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cecum
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part of the large intestine that extends from the cecum to the rectum;
it does not include the cecum, rectum or anal canal |
colon
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climbs right side of abdomen,
then makes a 90 degree turn toward the left side of the abdominal cavity |
ascending colon
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bend in the colon where the ascending colon meets the transverse colon
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right colic (hepatic) flexure
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another 90 degree turn in the large intestine; drops down left side of abdomen as descending colon, and turns medially and downward into pelvic inlet as the sigmoid colon
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left colic (splenic) flexure
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In the pelvic cavity, the colon continues as the ______
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rectum
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final few centimeters of large intestine is the ____ _____ that passes through pelvic floor
|
anal
canal |
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where does the large intestine terminate?
|
the anus
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voluntary anal sphincter
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internal anal sphincter
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involuntary anal sphincter
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external anal sphincter
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runs lengthwise, shortens the colon, and
causes bulgy pouches called haustra |
teniae coli
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outgrowths from the colon mucosa that give rise to most colorectal cancers
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polyps
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a condition that develops when pouches form in the wall of the colon
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diverticulosis
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when small, bulging sacs or pouches of the inner lining of the intestine (diverticulosis) that become inflamed or infected. Most often, these pouches are in the large intestine
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diverticulitis
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the largest gland in the body; large organ under diaphragm that takes up most of the right upper abdominal area; only direct contribution to digestion is bile
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liver
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the liver is divided into what 4 sections?
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right, left, quadrate, and caudate lobes
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functional units of the liver; Each has a central vein and sheets of cuboidal cells called hepatocytes
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hepatic lobules
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located at the periphery of each lobe of the liver
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portal triads
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veins in the liver that empty blood into the inferior vena cava
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hepatic veins
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absorb nutrients from sinusoids and
produce bile in the liver |
hepatocytes
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carries nutrients from intestine to the
liver where they are processed before being emptied into general circulation |
hepatic portal vein
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chronic injury to the liver; results when hepatocytes have been killed and replaced by fibrous scar tissue
symptoms: fatigue weight loss nausea |
cirrhosis
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stores and concentrates bile;
inferior to liver; opens into cystic duct, through which bile both enters and leaves |
the gallbladder
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formed from high concentrations of certain materials in the bile; more common in women; caused by obesity, aging, fem sex hormones, being white, and lack of exercise
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gallstones
|
|
|
refers to the presence of gallstones in either the gallbladder or the biliary apparatus
symptoms: severe pain nausea vomiting indigestion bloating |
cholelithiasis
|
|
|
Most chemical digestion is carried out by __________
enzymes |
pancreatic
|
|
|
spongy organ dorsal to stomach;
head is encircled by the c- loop of duodenum; tail stretches to the spleen; both endocrine and exocrine; mixed gland |
pancreas
|
|
|
portion of the pancreas that contains pancreatic islets that secrete insulin and
glucagon |
The endocrine duct
|
|
|
clusters of acinar cells that secrete mucin and digestive enzymes of the pancreatic juice
|
acini
|
|
|
formed from right and left hepatic ducts and carry bile from liver
|
common hepatic duct
|
|
|
condition of young adults characterized by intermittent and relapsing episodes of intense abdominal cramping and diarrhea
|
Crohn's Disease
|
|
|
similar to Crohn's disease but involves only the large intestine
|
Ulcerative Colitis
|
|
|
name the organs of the urinary system
|
the kidneys, ureters,
bladder, and urethra |
|
|
name the functions of the urinary system
|
Filter blood plasma, eliminating wastes and
returning useful molecules to the blood 1. Regulate blood volume and BP by eliminating or conserving water 2. Secrete the hormone erythropoietin, EPO, that stimulates rbc production if O2 is low 3. Help regulate acid-base and electrolyte balance of blood |
|
|
what is unique about the right kidney?
|
it is lower due to the liver
|
|
|
protects the kidneys from trauma and infection
|
renal
capsule |
|
|
drips urine into a minor calyx in the kidneys
|
papilla
|
|
|
receive about ___ - ___% of cardiac output, despite
their relatively small size |
20-25%
|
|
|
Each kidney is supplied by _____ ______ from abdominal
aorta |
renal artery
|
|
|
functional unit of the kidney; combination of renal corpuscle and renal tubule; millions in kidneys, helps make urine
|
nephron
|
|
|
fluid that contains water and dissolved solutes
|
glomerular filtrate`
|
|
|
name the 3 steps of urine formation
|
1. Filtration
glomerular filtrate passes from bloodstream to the nephron at renal corpuscle 2. Tubular Reabsorption useful substances are reabsorbed and returned to blood; ex. glucose 3. Tubular Secretion Toxins are extracted from blood and excreted |
|
|
consists of the glomerulus and glomerular capsule
|
Renal Corpuscle
|
|
|
process where blood flows through glomerulus
plasma are pushed into capsular space excludes blood cells and large particles |
Glomerular filtration
|
|
|
major region of renal tubule;
• Comes off glomerular capsule • lined with microvilli; absorption • About 65% of the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed in the PCT |
PCT
|
|
|
major region of renal tubule;
• U-shaped portion • found mostly in the medulla • descending limb; U-turn; ascending limb |
Nephron Loop
|
|
|
what % of all nephrons are cortical? juxtamedullary?
|
85%
15% |
|
|
major region of renal tubule;
• located in the cortex • primary function is to secrete ions K+ and H+ into tubule • reabsorption of H2O occurs too, due to ADH and aldosterone |
Distal Convoluted Tubule DCT
|
|
|
describe How tubular fluid becomes urine
|
• tubular fluid leaves the DCT, then collecting tubules and
then collecting duct • collecting ducts receive fluid from several nephrons • antidiuretic hormone (ADH) to reabsorb water to ↓urine volume • aldosterone increases Na+ reabsorption • both are secreted to avoid dehydration • By the end of the collecting duct the fluid has become urine |
|
|
Juxtaglomerular (JG) cells + macula densa
|
Juxtaglomerular Apparatus, JGA
|
|
|
smooth muscle cells that constrict the arterioles,
especially the afferent arteriole, decreasing blood flow to glomerulus decreased filtration rate |
JG cells
|
|
|
secretion of JG cells for regulation of blood presssure
|
renin
|
|
|
sensory cells that monitor flow or composition and
communicate with JG cells |
Macula densa (part of DCT)
|
|
|
Gallons of water flow through the kidneys each
day, and most of it is reabsorbed in the _____ ______ and __________ ____ |
renal tubule and collecting duct
|
|
|
• muscular tube from renal pelvis to urinary bladder
• about 25 cm (10 inches) in length • dorsal to the bladder and enter at an angle, when the urinary bladder is full hydrostatic pressure prevents urine from going up them |
Ureters
|
|
|
aka a kidney stone
formed from from crystalline minerals that build up in the kidney; symptoms: severe cramping pain along groin region and possibly nausea and vomiting; ureter becomes inflamed |
renal calculus
|
|
|
• muscular sac on the floor of the pelvic cavity for
urine storage • detrusor (to drive away) muscle surrounds it; incontinence meds work here • isvery stretchy or distensible • responsible for micturition- expulsion of urine |
Urinary Bladder
|
|
|
expulsion of urine
|
micturition
|
|
|
• transports urine out of the body
• in women it is ~1 inch long bound to anterior wall of vagina more UTI in females, shorter path for bacteria • is much longer in males and has 3 sections |
Urethra
|
|
|
name the 3 sections of the male urethra
|
1) the prostatic urethra - bladder to prostate
2) the membranous urethra - thin, short wall; passes to pelvic floor 3) the spongy (penile) urethra - passes through penis |
|
|
sex organs that produce sex cells like gametes and sex hormones
|
gonads
|
|
|
when do reproductive organs become functional?
|
puberty
|
|
|
what does the hypothalamus secrete during puberty?
(it Stimulates release of FSH and LH) |
GnRH
|
|
|
• In both sexes, diamond shaped are between thighs
between pubic symphysis and coccyx • Divided into 2 triangles; |
Perineum
|
|
|
perineum triangle anterior to the anus
|
urogenital triangle
|
|
|
perineum triangle that surrounds the anus
|
anal triangle
|
|
|
Name The female organs of reproduction
|
ovaries, uterine tubes, uterus, and the vagina.
|
|
|
• female gonads; produce egg cells and
hormones • about size of almond primary sex organs in women |
the ovaries
|
|
|
• An oocyte surrounded by follicle cells
• Primary oocyte is arrested in prophase I (1=1) • Secondary oocyte is arrested in metaphase II (2=2) |
Ovarian Follicles
|
|
|
the production of female gametes
|
Oogenesis
|
|
|
primordial germ cells; multiply until the 5th
month of development in fetus |
Oogonia
|
|
|
what the oogonia become after prophase I
|
oocytes
|
|
|
During reproductive years, how many oocytes begin to
develop each month? |
20 to 25
|
|
|
how many oocytes reach maturity and ovulate each month during reproductive years?
|
only one
|
|
|
stimulates several
primordial follicles to develop into primary follicles |
FSH (follicle stimulating hormone)
|
|
|
cells that produce estrogens.
|
follicular cells
|
|
|
a fluid-filled cavity containing estrogen-rich follicular fluid secreted by follicular cells
|
antrum
|
|
|
once the antrum is formed, what is the follicle now called?
|
secondary follicle
|
|
|
follicles that degenerate by day 10 of the ovarian cycle
|
atretic follicles
|
|
|
By day 10 of the ovarian cycle, how many developing follicles remain and do not regenerate?
|
one
|
|
|
In a ______ ________ the oocyte completes
meiosis I And begins _______ __, and stops at _________ __ but the division is arrested until after ovulation |
mature (Graafian) follicle
meiosis II metaphase II |
|
|
If fertilized, the egg will immediately complete _______ __
|
meiosis II
|
|
|
• Ovulation occurs on day __of the __ day ovarian cycle
|
14
28 |
|
|
After ovulation, the follicle collapses and is transformed
into ______ _______ |
corpus luteum
|
|
|
corpus luteum secretion that prepares the uterus for pregnancy
|
progesterone
|
|
|
If pregnancy does not occur, levels of progesterone
drop and menstruation begins leaving a white scar called ______ ________ |
corpus albicans
|
|
|
what does the corpus luteum do if the egg is fertilized?
|
the corpus luteum produces
progesterone for the first three months of pregnancy until placenta forms |
|
|
aka the oviduct or fallopian tube;
a canal that leads to the uterus for when the egg is ovulated; tube is smooth muscle lined with cilia; |
uterine tube
|
|
|
feathery projections on the uterine tubes
|
fimbriae
|
|
|
in a ______ _________ the fertilized oocyte implants in the uterine tube rather than traveling to the uterus for implantation; leads to severe cramping and rupture of the uterine tube.
|
Tubal Pregnancy
|
|
|
a muscular chamber that usually tilts
forward over the bladder; • It nourishes, carries, and protects the fetus and then can expel it at the end of pregnancy |
Uterus
|
|
|
broad superior portion of the uterus; a dome
|
fundus
|
|
|
narrow inferior end of the uterus
|
cervix
|
|
|
external serosa of the uterine wall
|
perimetrium
|
|
|
middle muscular layer of the uterine wall; a thick layer
of muscle that produces contractions during labor |
myometrium
|
|
|
lining of the uterus; superficial layer is shed during menstruation
|
endometrium
|
|
|
one of the most common malignancies of the female rep. system; 4000 die annually; Most important risk factor is HPV human papillomavirus which is sexually transmitted
|
Cervical Cancer
|
|
|
what is the most effective method of determining cervical cancer?
|
pap smear/papanicolaou
|
|
|
ligament from ovaries to peritoneal fold
|
Broad ligament
|
|
|
ligament that goes forward to labia
|
round ligament
|
|
|
ligament that anchors ovaries to the uterus
|
ovarian ligament
|
|
|
ligament that extends from the ovary to the abdominal wall
|
suspensory ligament
|
|
|
The _________ phase is about five days long and is the
first part of the menstrual cycle |
menstrual phase
|
|
|
During the _____________ phase the endometrium is
rebuilt; lasts from day 6 to 14 of the menstrual cycle under the influence of estrogen |
proliferative phase
|
|
|
process that occurs on day of the menstrual cycle
|
ovulation
|
|
|
DAY 15-28 of the menstrual cycle;
The third phase is the _________ phase; endometrium continues to thicken and is stimulated by progesterone from the corpus luteum |
secretory phase
|
|
|
what happens at the end of the secretory phase of menstruation?
|
the endometrium
provides a nutritious environment ready for the embryo |
|
|
• muscular tube with rugae that provides for birth of a
baby and reception of the penis • lies between the urethra and the rectum |
Vagina
|
|
|
an anterior mound of adipose tissue over
the pubic symphysis |
mons pubis
|
|
|
center of erotic stimulation and its function is sensory;
similar in structure to the penis but has no urinary role corpora cavernosa-like |
clitoris
|
|
|
• skin-covered, 2 pocket pouch, that hangs down from
the abdomen • holds testes, 1 per pocket • function is to regulate the temperature of the testes |
Scrotum
|
|
|
muscles that contract and draws the scrotum up toward the body when it is cold and relaxes when it is warm so that the pouch drops
|
dartos and cremaster muscle
|
|
|
a network of veins that surrounds the testicular artery in the spermatic cord and acts as a countercurrent heat exchanger
|
pampiniform plexus
|
|
|
• endocrine and exocrine glands that produce sex
hormones and sperm • divided into lobules the primary sex organs |
testes
|
|
|
small ducts where sperm are produced; found in each lobule of the testes
|
seminiferous tubules
|
|
|
support cells of the seminiferous tubules
|
sustentacular cells
|
|
|
cells of the seminiferous tubules that continuously produce sperm
|
germ cells
|
|
|
tight junctions that secure the sustentacular cells and protects them from materials in the bloodstream
|
blood testis barrier
|
|
|
cells that
produce androgens |
interstitial (Leydig) cells
|
|
|
most common
androgen |
testosterone
|
|
|
male hormones
|
androgens
|
|
|
when do testes develop?
|
7th month of development
|
|
|
the process of sperm production
that occurs in the seminiferous tubules; large germ cell is transformed to a small motile cell with half the usual number of chromosomes 2n to n |
Spermatogenesis
|
|
|
a process of cell division that produces four
daughter cells that will become sperm |
Meiosis
|
|
|
list the steps of spermatogenesis
|
1. production of stem cells called spermatogonia
2. Meiosis 3. Spermatids lose excess cytoplasm and grow a tail called spermatozoa (sperm) |
|
|
how many chromosomes do spermatogonia have?
|
46 (23 pairs)
|
|
|
stage of meiosis where spermatocytes divide and become spermatids
|
meiosis II
|
|
|
stage of meiosis where spermatocytes are produced
|
meiosis I
|
|
|
how many days does it take for spermatogonia to become speratozoa?
|
74 days
|
|
|
how many sperm are produced every day?
|
400 million
|
|
|
why do we need diversity?
|
to increase our chances of survival
|
|
|
Mature sperm 2 parts—a head and a tail
|
Spermatozoa
|
|
|
part of the spermatozoa containing the nucleus with chromosomes and an acrosome
|
head
|
|
|
thin cap with enzymes that help sperm penetrate the egg; found in spermatozoa
|
acrosome
|
|
|
large mitochondria in spermatozoa that provides energy
|
tail
|
|
|
where sperm go after they mature
|
epididymis
|
|
|
where are sperms stored until ejaculation?
|
epididymis
|
|
|
epididymis becomes the ___ ________, which
passes into pelvic cavity through inguinal canal behind the bladder joins with seminal vesicle |
vas deferens
|
|
|
site of vasectomy
|
vas deferens
|
|
|
where does the ampulla empty into?
|
urethra
|
|
|
shared by both the reproductive and urinary
systems; cannot pass semen and urine at the same time |
urethra
|
|
|
empty secretions into ejaculatory duct;
contribute about 60% of the semen; secretes a viscous, whitish-yellow fluid with fructose |
Seminal Vesicles
|
|
|
surrounds the urethra, inferior to the bladder
• size of walnut • about 30% of the semen, milky • contains PSA, prostate- specific antigen to liquefy semen after ejaculation |
Prostate Gland
|
|
|
what is a sign of a overgrown prostate?
|
change in urinary habits
|
|
|
• proximal end of the penis
• produce clear lubricating mucus fluid that neutralizes the acidity of residual urine in the urethra prior to ejaculation |
Bulbourethral Glands
|
|
|
• milky viscous fluid
• mixture of sperm (<1%) and glandular secretions |
Semen
|
|
|
how many sperm in an average ejaculation of sperm? semen?
|
2-500 million
3 to 5 mL |
|
|
Internal ½ is root ; external ½ is shaft
|
Penis
|
|
|
an expanded head with the external urinary meatus at the tip
|
glans penis
|
|
|
continues over the glans as the prepuce
|
foreskin
|
|
|
cylindrical bodies that are filled with blood during sexual arousal and cause an erection
|
erectile tissue
|
|
|
first cell type to receive a light ray as it travels through the retina
|
ganglion cells
|
|
|
1st cell type to respond to a ray of light
|
photoreceptor cell
|
|
|
makes aqueous humor
|
ciliary body
|
|
|
stereocilia contact with _________ _______ to initiate the stimulation of the cochlear nerve
|
tectorial membrane
|
|
|
responsible for detecting angular acceleration
|
vestibule
|
|
|
put the following structures in order from anterior to posterior:
1. lens 2. iris 3. cornea 4. vitreous body 5. optic nerve 6. aqueous humor |
3. cornea
6. aqueous humor 2. iris 1. lens 4. vitreous body 5. optic nerve |
|
|
membrane that lines the eyelids
|
palpebrae conjuctivae
|
|
|
cells responsible for attacking bacteria in the stomach
|
chief cells
|
|
|
the hepatopancreatic amulla is formed by the joining of the ______ ____ ____ and the __________ ____
|
common bile duct
pancreatic duct |
|
|
molars in deciduous teeth become _________ in the permanent teeth
|
premolars
|
|
|
pouches of the large intestine that give it a puckered appearance
|
haustra
|
|
|
which of the following structures is not a portion of the nephron?
a. vasa recta b. nephron loop c. distal convoluted tubule d. proximal convoluted tubule e. renal corpuscle |
a. vasa recta
|
|
|
when does descent of the testes into the scrotum normally occur?
|
in the 7th month of development
|
|
|
the midventral mass of erectile tissue in the penis that surrounds the penile urethra
|
corpus spongiosum
|
|
|
prevent an immune response against developing spermatozoa
|
sustentacular cells
|
|
|
name the 3 layers of the uterus
|
an inner endometrium
middle myometrium outer perimetrium |
|
|
calcified CT that forms most of a tooth and surrounds the pulp cavity, giving it shape and rigidity
|
dentin
|
|
|
attaches the ovary to the uterus
|
ovarian ligament
|
|
|
the structure that distinguishes a primary follicle from a secondary follicle
|
antrum
|
|
|
what is the lowest tooth number the mandible can have if there are no wisdom teeth?
|
16
|
|
|
name the two parts that make up the renal corpuscle
|
glomerulus
glomerular capsule |
|
|
cells that secrete testosterone in the testes
|
interstitial (leydig) cells
|
|
|
when portions of one chromosome are exchanged with portions of another homologous chromosome
|
crossing over
|
|
|
when the oval window bulges in due to air waves pushing on the tympanic membrane and the ossicles, the _____ ______ bulges out
|
round window
|
|
|
secretes alkaline mucus into the small intestine to help counteract the acidity of the stomach
|
submucosal cells
|
