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103 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What are the 6 major types of connective tissue?
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loose connective
adipose dense connective cartilage bone blood |
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dense connective tissue that connects 2 or more bones or cartilages
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ligaments
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dense CT that connects skeletal muscle to bone
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tendons
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type of cartilage that:
-resists compression providing cushion -found at low friction joint surfacs forms synchondrosis (primary) cartilaginous joints |
hyaline cartilage
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type of cartilage that:
-resists both compression and shearing mechanical stresses -acts as shock absorber -forms symphyses (secondary) cartilaginous joint |
fibrocartilage
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What degree of burn is limited to the epidermis?
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1st degree
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What degree of burning involves blistering and/or destructio of the epidermis
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2nd degree
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What degree of burn leads to massive loss of plasma resulting ing hypovolemic shock?
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3rd degree
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What is the orientation of incisions relative to lines of cleavage that minimize scarring anf help skin heal faster?
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incisions are preformed parallel to the lines of cleavage
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A very thin layer of serous-fluid secreting epithelial cells
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mesothelium
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the layer or region of the serous membrane that lines the inner walls of a body cavity
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parietal serious membrane
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the layer or region of the serous membrane that is the outermost layer of a visceral organ
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visceral serous membrane
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a single continuous serous membrane that lines the inner surface of the pulmonary cavity and ensheathes the lung
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pleura
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a single continuous serous membrane that lines the inner surface of the pericardial sac and ensheathes the heart
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pericardium
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separates the deep-superficial fascia from the underlying deep investing fascia allowing for the easy slippage
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fascial cleft (fascial plane)
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a pathological or surgeon-made separation of a fascial cleft exaggerating the distance between opposing layers
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cleavage cleft
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the deep fascia intimately related to skeletal muscle
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deep investing fascia or myofascia
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a dense CT layer that covers the surface of the bone except where it articulates with other bones
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periosteum
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a dense CT layer that covers the surface of hyaline cartilages or elastic cartilages
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perichondrium
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a fibrous sheet of flat, expanded tendon, giving attachment to muscular fibers and serving as the means of origin or insertion of a flat muscle
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aponerosis
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very thin, often broad and flat, dense CT extensions of the deep investing fascia from skeletal muscle (delicate)
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membranous tendons
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a type of ligament that retains or holds back other structures such as tendons, nerves, and vessels
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retinaculum
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pleural fascia in the thorax
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endothoracic fascia
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extraperitoneal fascia in the abdomen
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endoabdominal fascia
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facia in the pelvis
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endopelvic
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which nervous system skeletal muscle fibers?
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somatic nervous system
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which nervous system cardiac and smooth muscle fibers?
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autonomic nervous system
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the functional cells of an organ
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parenchyma
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What are the four basic tissue types?
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Muscle
Nervous Connective Epithelial |
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type of epithelium that makes up the innermost lining of blood vessels and heart chambers
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endothelium
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scaffolding, infrastructure, framework; functional cells attach here
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stroma
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cells who give organ its unique physiological (functional) properties
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parenchyma
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type of connective tissue that supports epithelial cells; "battleground" between pathogens and you immune system
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loose connective tissue
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type of connective tissue that can withstand multi axial stresses
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dense connective tissue
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type of membrane that lines all of the inside of all ventral body cavities
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serous membranes
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serous membrane found on the innermost surface of the body wall
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parietal
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serous membrane found on the outermost layer of an organ
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visceral
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list from outside to inside the layers of the body wall
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skin (epidermis, dermis), superficial superficial fascia, deep-superficial facia, deep (investing) fascia, internal facia (endothoracic, endoabdominal, endopelvic), parietal serosa, serous space (w/ serous fluid), visceral serosa, organ
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"tail bone" composed of 4 vertebra that fuse around age 30
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coccygeal
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the thoracic and sacral curvatures that develop during the fetal period (concave anterior)
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primary curvature
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the cervical (6mo) and lumbar (1yr) develop post natally (concave posterior)
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secondary curvature
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"hunch back" excessive thoracic curvature
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kyphosis
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"hollow back" excessive lumbar curvature
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lordosis
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"curved back" abnormal L-R curvature and/or long axis torsion
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scoliosis
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region of high stress in the vertebral column; most common site of fractured vertebra
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T12-L1 vertebral complex
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part of vertebra that support the body weight
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vertebral body
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trapezoidal shaped wedge that result from erosion and/or mechanical trauma of anterior body
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wedge fractures
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a common congenital body defect of the VC in which the laminae of L5 and/or S1 fail to develop and fuse along the midline
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spina bifida occulta
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the part of the vertebra arch on the line between the IAP and SAP
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pars interarticularis
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injury in which the neck (PI) of the "Scottie Dog" is broken
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spondylolysis
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hole formed from superior and inferior vertebral notch plus posterior-lateral margin of their intervertebral disks; contains DRG, spinal nerves, and their accompanying blood vessels
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intervertebral foramen
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concentric lamellae of fibrocartilage in the intervertebral disk joint
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annulus fibrosus
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jelly core; cartilage dissolved in water; found in the the intervetebral disk joint
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nucleus pulposus
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region of the vertebral column with the overall thickest IV disk
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lumbar
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region of the vertebral column with IV disks that are thickest relative to the thickness of their vertebral bodies
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cervical
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regions that experience the greatest compression stresses; most common site of herniation
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L4-L5 and L5-S1
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joint between unicate process of C3-C6 vertebra; site of bone spur formation (neck pain)
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uncovertebral joints
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ligament that limits extension and prevents hyperextension as occurs in "whip-lash" injuries
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anterior longitudinal ligament (ALL)
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ligament that prevents direct posterior herniation of the intervertebral disk
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posterior longitudinal ligament
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synovial joint b/t SAP and IAP; primary movement is SLIDING
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zygapophysial joint
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a bilateral ligament that does not cross the midline; joins the lamina of adjacent vertebra; more elastic CT; absorbs shock of abrupt forward bending providing elastic recoil to straighten VC
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ligamentum flava
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ligament that you have to puncture to take a lumbar puncture? between which vertebra?
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ligamentum flava; L4-L5
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three joints between the atlas and axis that allow the head to rotate right and left indicating "no"; GLIDING motion
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atlanto-axial joint
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arterial supply of the cervical VC (branches from the subclavian a.)
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vertebral a.
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arterial supply of the thoracic VC (branches from the descending aorta)
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segmental posterior intercoastal aa.; spinal branches (spinal cord)
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arterial supply of the lumbar VC
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lumbar segmental lumbar aa.; spinal branches (spinal cord)
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arterial supply of the sacral VC
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iliolumbar aa.; lateral and medial sacral aa.
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venous drainage of the VC that communicates with prostatic venous plexus (hematogenous spread of cancer)
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vertebral venous plexus (of Batson)
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ribs 8-10; attach indirectly to sternum via superior rib's costal cartilage
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false ribs
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ribs 11 and 12; no sternal attachment embed within posterior abdominal wall muscles
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floating ribs
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attachment of the anterior scalene muscle with the subclavian v. passing anteriorly and the subclavian a passes posteriorly
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scalene tubercle
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small elevation on superior surface of rib 2 for 'its' muscle attachment
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tuberosity for serratus anterior
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horizontal plane containing T4/T5 IVD and sternal angle
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transverse thoracic plane
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synchondrosis- hyaline cartilage junction b/t sternal tip of rib and lateral edge of costal cartilage; no movement
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costochondral JUNCTION
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site of rib dislocations
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sternocostal JOINT
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site of rib separation
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costochondral junction
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deep fascia that extends from posterior pelvis to thorax and continues into neck; covers intrinsic back muscles
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thoracolumbar fascia
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specialized thickening of endothoracic fascia w/in superior thoracic aperatures
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suprapleural membrane
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innervate the extrinsic (superficial) back muscles
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anterior primary rami
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innervate the intrinsic (deep) back muscles
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posterior primary rami
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ligament of the diaphragm over the psoas major
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medial acruate ligament
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crura that forms the esophageal hiatus and right-superior margin of aortic hiatus
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Right crus
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midline fibrous band of CT uniting the left and right crus
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median arcruate ligament
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What effect does the major inspiratory muscle have on the intrathoracic pressure? intraabdominal pressure?
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-decreases intrathoracic pressure
-increases intraabdominal pressure |
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At what vetebral level do you find the caval foramen?
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T8
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At what vetebral level do you find the esophageal hiatus?
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T10
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At what vetebral level do you find the aortic hiatus?
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T12
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What structures pass through the caval foramen?
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IVC, some branches of the right phrenic nerve
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What structures pass through the esophageal hiatus?
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-esophagus
-esophageal branches of left gastric artery -esophageal tributaries of left gastric vein |
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What stuctures pass through the aortic hiatus?
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aorta
thoracic duct azygous vein |
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B/t which ribs are the nipples found in males and nulliparous females?
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4th and 5th rib
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supernumerary (extra) breast
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polymastia
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supernumerary (extra) nipple
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polythelia
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sebaceus glands on the areola that enlarge and secrete an oily substance that facilitates suckling
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Montgomery's tubercles
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a direct of indirect communication between two blood vessels; a surgical procedure in which 2 tubular structures are conjoined
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anastomosis
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arterial supply of the medial breast quadrants
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internal thoracic artery
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arterial blood supply of the lateral breast quadrants
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lateral thoracic artery
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What two blood vessels make up the veous angle?
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internal jugular vein and subclavian vein
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>75% of the total lymphatic drainage of the breast evetually enters...
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Axillary Lymph Node Group
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<25% of the total lyphatic drainage of the breast (mostly from medial and breast quadrants) enters the R/L...
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parasternal lymph nodes
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Which dermatome are the nipples found in?
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T4 dermatome
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What dermatome is the umbilical dermatome?
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T10
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the sensory neurons of the breast tissue carry information to which spinal cord segments?
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T4-T6
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