Anatomy Exam 1

Front 1

what types of neuron in motor? what types in sensory? (uni/bi/multi)

Back 1

motor - multipolar
sensory - bipolar (special) unipolar (general)

Front 2

the stretch reflex is segmental and ______

Back 2

ipsilateral

Front 3

the flexor withdrawal reflex uses several synapses, is multisegmental, and _____

Back 3

bilateral

Front 4

what are different names for the neuron cell body

Back 4

soma, cyton, perikaryon

Front 5

what is nissl substance and where is it located?

Back 5

RER in the neuron cell body. responsible for protein synthesis. not found at axon hillock.

Front 6

what is lipofuscin?

Back 6

age pigment in older neuron cell bodies

Front 7

what is the conductive part of the neuron?

Back 7

axon

Front 8

what is the site on the neuron that receives IPSPs?

Back 8

axon hillock

Front 9

what is the site of storage of neurotransmitters in secretory veiscles?

Back 9

terminal end bulbs

Front 10

special senses are __lateral and general senses are __lateral

Back 10

special - bilateral
general - unilateral (it decussates)

Front 11

the primary motor cortex is in the ______

Back 11

pre-central gyrus

Front 12

personality is coded in the _____

Back 12

pre-frontal cortex

Front 13

T/F lobotomy is removal of part of the brain

Back 13

false. thats a lobectomy. lobotomy is just disconnecting the pre-frontal cortex

Front 14

white or gray matter of the cerebrum is responsible for hemispheric dominance (handedness)?

Back 14

white

Front 15

basal nuclei are centers for ______

Back 15

coordination of muscle activity, and for control of muscle tone

Front 16

Basal nuclei include

Back 16

globus pallidus, putamen, caudate, subthalamus, substantia nigra. (bowel nuclei: good poops cause some satisfaction)

Front 17

main NT in the basal ganglia is

Back 17

dopamine

Front 18

parkinson's and chorea are diseases associated with the

Back 18

basal ganglia

Front 19

the function of the cerebellar peduncles is to ______

Back 19

attach the cerebelum to the brain stem. Superior (midbrain) middle (pons) inferior (medulla)

Front 20

this part of the brain is affected by alcohol and psychotropic drugs

Back 20

cerebellum

Front 21

what are the parts of the developing neural tube, and what pieces of the brain do they give rise to.

Back 21

telencephalon - cerebrum, cortex, white matter, basal nuclei
diencephalon - thalamic structures, retina
mesencephalon - midbrain
metencephalon - pons, cerebellum
myencephalon - medulla

Front 22

interneurons synapse in the ___ nucleus of the thalamus with thalamic neurons

Back 22

VPL

Front 23

What are pyramidal neurons?

Back 23

descending efferents of the somatic motor system. travel through white matter, decussate in the medulla, and and synapse on LMN in the ventral horn of SC

Front 24

____ is programming area for initiation of activity and postural adjustments. _____ is control of programmed movement once initiated

Back 24

basal nuclei, cerebellum

Front 25

what five areas must be intact and functional for proper somatic motor activity?

Back 25

lower motor, pyramidal, basal nuclei, cerebellar and brainstem

Front 26

upper motor neuron poliomyolitis attacks ____ neurons and causes ____ paralysis

Back 26

upper motor neurons, spastic

Front 27

lower motor neuron poliomyolitis attacks ____ neurons and causes ____ paralysis

Back 27

lower motor neurons, flaccid

Front 28

what motor fibers are known as the Final Common Pathway

Back 28

alpha-motor

Front 29

All efferents of the ANS originate in the ____

Back 29

hypothalamus

Front 30

Otic Ganglia

Back 30

parasymptheti. connects CN IX to parotid gland

Front 31

Pterygopalatine ganglia

Back 31

connects CN VII to lacrimal gland and nasal/palatine mucosa

Front 32

Ciliary ganglia

Back 32

connects CN III to pupil and ciliary body

Front 33

submandibular ganglia

Back 33

connects CN VII to submandibular and sublingual glands

Front 34

Terminal Ganglia

Back 34

most common parasympathetic ganglia. Found in the walls of most viscera. Connect CNX, and spinal nerves to the viscera

Front 35

what are the three layers of arteries?

Back 35

tunica intima (epithelia), tunica media (smooth muscle), tunica adventitia (outer sheath)

Front 36

Which blood vessels are primarily responsible for regulating blood pressure?

Back 36

Arterioles

Front 37

what is the purpose of a metarteriole?

Back 37

capillary bypass

Front 38

Capillary sphincters are controlled by _______.

Back 38

paracrine signalling from the organs. ORGANS DETERMINE BLOOD FLOW

Front 39

what kind of capillaries are found in the kidneys?

Back 39

fenestrated

Front 40

Where is most of systemic blood located?

Back 40

Veins. 70%

Front 41

Venae Comitantes are

Back 41

deep veins that accompany arteries. one per artery

Front 42

in what layer would you find the superficial veins?

Back 42

superficial fascia

Front 43

vericosity

Back 43

distension due to pooling of blood

Front 44

what is a major possible complication of phlebitis?

Back 44

suffocation. phlebitis can cause clotting. thrombosis forms, breaks off to become embolis, moves to lung, blocks respiratory function, suffocation

Front 45

what is the function of the hepatic portal vein

Back 45

carry blood from GI tract capillaries to liver capillaries

Front 46

From where does the right lymphatic duct collect lymph? Where does it drain?

Back 46

Right thorax, right upper limb, right side of head. (1/4 of body) It drains into right venous angle (Junction of right IJV right subclavian)

Front 47

The Thoracic Duct drains into the _______

Back 47

left subclavian vein

Front 48

Most common drainage trunk for most of the systems lymphatics

Back 48

Cysterna Chyli

Front 49

afferent lymphatics enter the node through the ______ while efferent lymphatics leave through the ______

Back 49

convex outer surface, hillus

Front 50

The unit of response to antigens is the ______

Back 50

lymph nodule (found in nodes and other lymphatic organs)

Front 51

what are the major sites of lymph node clustering

Back 51

popliteal, inguinal, cubital and axillary, along major blood vessels, in the mesentery, mediastinum, along IJV in neck, superficial to mandible, deep in face

Front 52

what causes lymphedema?

Back 52

a constricted/occluded vessel or removal of a node. causes backup and swelling

Front 53

how does HIV affect immunity?

Back 53

attacks T-cells

Front 54

what makes up the myofilaments?

Back 54

actin/myosin, arranged in sarcomeres

Front 55

Timeframe for embryonic period. What happens here.

Back 55

0-9 weeks. DEVELOPMENT OF FORM

Front 56

Fetal period. Time period/function

Back 56

9 weeks onward, development of function

Front 57

Neonatal period. Time period/function

Back 57

Just after birth. Systems are tested, life becomes independent.

Front 58

When is the immune system developed?

Back 58

3 weeks

Front 59

define stereognosis

Back 59

ability to hold an object and determine what it is

Front 60

how many somites do we have

Back 60

48

Front 61

What does the papillary layer of the skin contain?

Back 61

receptors for touch, pressure, temperature and pain. also capillaries to supply blood to skin and transmit heat. heat receptors are here, but cold are deeper

Front 62

what is found in high levels in the hard keratin of air?

Back 62

Sulfur

Front 63

sweat glands. which is all the time, which is developed at puberty.

Back 63

eccrine all the time, apocrine at puberty

Front 64

which glands are found on the palms/soles?

Back 64

sudoriferous (eccrine). NOT sebaceous

Front 65

what gives deep fascia its strength?

Back 65

collagenous fibers

Front 66

bregma

Back 66

anterior fontanel, at crown of head

Front 67

lambda

Back 67

posterior fontanel. back of head on lambdoid suture

Front 68

pteryion

Back 68

anterior lateral fontanel, or sphenoidal fontanel. this is the temple. very thin, has middle meningeal arteries behind it

Front 69

asterion

Back 69

posterior lateral fontanel

Front 70

in which cranial fossa do the olfactory nerves originate?

Back 70

anterior

Front 71

what cranial fossa lies posterior to the superior orbital fissure?

Back 71

middle

Front 72

what passes through the optic foramen

Back 72

CN II, ophthalmic artery

Front 73

what passes through the jugular foramen?

Back 73

IJV, CN IX, X, XI

Front 74

what passes through the posterior condylar canal

Back 74

emissary veins

Front 75

where does the atlas articulate with the skull?

Back 75

occipital condyles

Front 76

what would be the result of rupture of the middle meningeal artery behind the pterion?

Back 76

eipdural hematoma

Front 77

what is the risk of resection of tumor from parotid gland?

Back 77

damage to CN VII. decreased aliva, tears. lose of taste in anterior 2/3 of tongue.

Front 78

what is an acoustic neuroma?

Back 78

grownth on vestibulocochlear nerve. could cause hearing/balance problems. could also affect facial nerve, cause symptoms similar to parotid tumor

Front 79

what is the function of the gala aponeurotica

Back 79

fascia that connects frontalis to occipitalis

Front 80

what is a synostosis

Back 80

fusion of bone to bone. like the hip

Front 81

what is an amphiarthrosis?

Back 81

fibrous cartilage joint. like intervertebral joints. some mobility necessary but must be strong

Front 82

what is the primary factor keeping bones in apposition?

Back 82

muscle tone