Anatomy Chapter 17 And 18

Front 1

what is hematology?

Back 1

hematology is the study of blood

Front 2

what is blood? and what is it composed of?

Back 2

Blood is a fluid connective tissue composed of plasma, erythrocytes, Leukocytes, and Platelets

Front 3

what texture is blood?
what type of color is blood?
what is blood's ph level?
what is the temperature of blood?
blood accounts for ______of body weight
what is the average blood volume for males and females?

Back 3

.Blood is a sticky, opaque fluid
.blood can vary from scarlet red (oxygen rich) to dark red (oxygen poor)
.blood is slight alkaline, its pH is between 7.35 and 7.45
. the temperature of blood is 38.C
. blood accounts for 8% of total body weight
.the average amount of blood for males is 5-6 liters and for females it is 4-5 liters

Front 4

what are the functions of blood?

Back 4

1. distributing substances such as: delivering oxygen from the lungs and nutrients from cells to the digestive tract to all body cells, Transporting metabolic waste products from cells to elimination sites, and transporting hormones from the endocrine organs to their target organs.

2. Regulation. regulatory functions includes: maintaining appropriate body temperature, maintaining normal pH in body tissues, and maintaining adequate fluid volume in the circulatory system

3. Protection. Protective functions includes preventing blood loss and preventing infection

Front 5

what is plasma?

Back 5

is a straw-colored, sticky fluid that is about 90% water

Front 6

plasma contains over 100 different dissolved solutes including _________,___________, ___________,___________, __________, __________

Back 6

nutrients such as glucose, carbohydrates, amino acids and vitamins, gases, hormones, wastes and products of cell activity, proteins, and electrolytes

Front 7

Plasma electrolytes out number the other solutes. these electrolytes of plasma include: __________,_________,_______, ________, _________

Back 7

electrolytes of plasma includes sodium, potassium, calcium, chloride, and hydrogen carbonate

Front 8

the heavier plasma proteins are the most abundant plasma solutes by weight, accounting for __________ of plasma weight

Back 8

8%

Front 9

plasma proteins are produced by the liver except for ________ and _______.

Back 9

hormones and gamma globulins

Front 10

_________ accounts for some 60% of plasma proteins.

Back 10

albumin

Front 11

what does albumin do?

Back 11

acts as a carrier to shuttle certain molecules through the circulation, is an important buffer, and is the major blood protein contributing to the plasma osmotic pressure. (the pressure that helps to keep water in the bloodstream.)

Front 12

what does albumin creates?

Back 12

creates colloid osmotic pressure that draws H20 from interstitial fluid into capillaries to maintain blood volume and pressure

Front 13

What is COP?

Back 13

portion of osmotic pressure in fluid due to proteins

Front 14

What is OP?

Back 14

amount of pressure applied from one side to stop osmosis

Front 15

___________ is 36% of plasma proteins

Back 15

Globulins

Front 16

list the three types of globulins and what they are/do

Back 16

globulins carry lipids. There is Alpha that includes Haptoglobin, cerloplasmin, prothrombin other which are transporter of lipids, fat-soluble vitamins, and hormones.

Beta globulins include transferrin, complement proteins, and others which are lipid transports

then gamma globulins are antibodies

Front 17

what accounts for 4% of plasma proteins?
what which are cell fragments that help stop bleeding is it converted into?

Back 17

Fibrinogen accounts or 4% of plasma proteins. it is an inactive form for clotting blood . It is converted into fibrin at stage 3 of coagulation

Front 18

____________ is the product of amino acid metabolism, converted to UREA in the liver
___________ is the most abundant, product of amino acid catabolism
__________ is the products of nucleotide catabolism

Back 18

Ammonia
Urea
Uric Acid

Front 19

_________- is the product of creatine metabolism
_________- is the product of creatine phosphate metabolism
________ is the product of hemoglobin (heme) metabolism

Back 19

creatinine
Creatine
Bilirubin

Front 20

what is the buffy coat?

Back 20

It is a thin whitish layer that is present at the erythrocyte plasma junction. It contains leukocytes that act in various ways to protect the body and platelets

Front 21

what is hemaocrit?
Whats the hematocrit% of RBC for males and females?

Back 21

the percentage of blood volume occupied by erythrocytes. Male= 47% + 5 or -5%
female = 42% + 5 or-5%

Front 22

what is osmolarity?

Back 22

the number of solute particles dissolved in 1 kilogram of water. 280-296 m0sm/L

Front 23

what is viscosity?
whats the viscosity of whole blood and plasma

Back 23

fluid flow resistance.
whole blood= 4.5-5.5x of water
plasma= 2.0x

Front 24

what is hematopoiesis?
where does it occur?

Back 24

is formation of blood cells from stem cells in myeloid and lymphoid tissue. it occurs is the red bone marrow of the axial skeleton, girdles, and proximal epiphyses of humerus and femur

Front 25

____________is formation of Red Blood Cells
what is it stimulated by and where is it produced?

Back 25

Erythropoiesis. it is stimulated by eruthropoietin which is produced from the kidney

Front 26

____________ is the formation of White Blood Cells
what is it stimulated by?

Back 26

leukopoiesis and it is stimulated by variety of cytokines

Front 27

________ _______ are bound by a plasma membrane, but lack a nucleus and have essentially no organelles.

Back 27

Mature erythrocytes

Front 28

______ is the RBC protein that functions in gas transport?

Back 28

hemoglobin

Front 29

what network of proteins allows proteins to change shape as necessary to twist, turn, and become cup shaped as they are carried passively through capillaries with diameters smaller than themselves- and then to resume their biconcave shape

Back 29

spectrin

Front 30

the biconcave disc shape is ideally suited for _____ _____ because no point within the cytoplasm is far from the surface

Back 30

gas exchange

Front 31

discounting water content, an erythrocyte is over ____% hemoglobin.

Back 31

97%

Front 32

what is hemoglobin?

Back 32

is a molecule that binds to and transports respiratory gases

Front 33

erythrocytes lack mitochondria and generate ATP by anaerobic mechanisms this makes them.....

Back 33

this makes them very efficient oxygen transportes

Front 34

what is the major factor contributing to blood viscosity?

Back 34

erythrocytes

Front 35

what is the red blood count of male and women ?

Back 35

women= 4.2-4.5 million cells per microliter of blood
men= 4.7-6.1 million cells per microliter of clood

Front 36

when the number of red blood cells increase beyond the normal range, blood becomes more _________ and flows more ________

Back 36

viscous: slowly

Front 37

what protein makes red blood cells, binds easily and reversibly with oxygen?

Back 37

hemoglobin

Front 38

hemoglobin is made made up of the red _____ pigment bound to the protein ______.

Back 38

heme; globin

Front 39

Globin consists of four polypeptide chains. what are they?

Back 39

two alpha and two beta

Front 40

Each heme group bears an _____ ___ ______.

Back 40

atom of iron

Front 41

a hemoglobin molecule can transport how many molecules of what because each iron atom can combine reversibly with one molecule of oxygen?

Back 41

4 molecules of oxygen

Front 42

the fact that hemoglobin is contained in erythrocytes prevents is from (1)...(2)...

Back 42

1. from breaking into fragments that would leak out of the blood stream
2. from making blood more viscous and raising osmotic pressure

Front 43

_____ _____ occurs in the lungs, and the direction of transport is from _____ to _____ _____

Back 43

Oxygen loading; lungs to tissue cells

Front 44

when oxygen bind to iron the hemoglobin is now called _______, which assumes a new three dimensional shape and becomes ruby red.

Back 44

oxyhemoglobin

Front 45

In body tissues, oxygen detaches from iron, hemoglobin resumes its former shape, and results in ____________________________

Back 45

deoxyhemoglobin

Front 46

________ _________ loading occurs in the tissues, and the direction of transport is from ________ to ______, where carbon dioxide is eliminated from the body.

Back 46

carbon dioxide; tissues to lungs

Front 47

Carbon dioxide loading in the tissues produces _______________ which carries _________% of Carbon dioxide in the blood

Back 47

carbaminohemoglobin; 20%

Front 48

red bone marrow is composed largely of a soft network of reticular connective tissue bordering on wide blood capillaries called what?

Back 48

blood sinusoids

Front 49

erythropoiesis begins when a hematopietic stem cell descendant callled a _____ ____ _____ that transforms into a _____.

Back 49

myeloid stem cell; proerythroblast

Front 50

proerythroblast gives rise to _______ _______ that produce huge numbers of ribosomes

Back 50

basophilic erythroblasts

Front 51

during the first two phases the cells divide many times. hemoglobin is synthesized and iron accumulates as the basophilic erythroblast transforms into a ______ ______ and then an _____ ____.

Back 51

polychromatic erythroblast and then an orthochromatic erythroblast

Front 52

when an orthochromatic erythroblast has accumulated almost all of its hemoglobin its nucleus degenerates and is pinched off, allowing the cell to collapse inward and eventually assume the biconcave shape the result is ....

Back 52

reticulocyte

Front 53

the entire process from hematopoietic stem cell to reticulocyte takes about _____ days.

Back 53

15 days

Front 54

reticulocytes account for _______% of all erythrocytes in the blood of healthy people.

Back 54

1-2%

Front 55

Too few erythrocytes lead to____ _____(oxygen deprivation)

Back 55

tissue hypoxia

Front 56

to many erythrocytes makes the blood undesirably _________

Back 56

viscous

Front 57

what is the glycoprotein hormone that stimulates the formation of erythrocytes?

Back 57

erythropoietin

Front 58

what plays a major role is erythropoietin production, although the liver also produces some.

Back 58

kidneys

Front 59

when certain kidney cells become ______(oxygen deficient), oxygen-sensitive enzymes are unable to carry out their normal functions of degrading an intracellular signaling molecule called _____ _____ ____

Back 59

hypoxic; hypoxia inducible factor

Front 60

As HIF accumulates, it accelerates the synthesis and release of _____

Back 60

erythropoietin

Front 61

the drop in normal blood oxygen levels that triggers EPO formation can result from...(1) (2)(3)

Back 61

1.hemorrhage or increased RBC destruction reduces RBC numbers
2. insufficient hemglobin
3. reduced availability of oxygen

Front 62

the raw materials required for erythropoiesis include the usual nutrients and structural materials such as : _________, _______, ______

Back 62

amino acids, lipids, and carbohydrates

Front 63

_______ is essential for hemoglobin synthesis

Back 63

Iron

Front 64

approximately ___% of the body's ____ supply is in hemoglobin

Back 64

65%; iron

Front 65

Free iron ions are toxic, so iron is stored inside cells as protein-iron complexes such as _____, and ______.

Back 65

ferritin and hemosiderin

Front 66

In blood, iron is transported loosely bound to a transport protein called ______, and developing erythrocytes take up iron as needed to form hemoglobin.

Back 66

transferrin

Front 67

red blood cells have a useful life span of ____ to ____ days

Back 67

100 t0 120 days

Front 68

Red blood cells anucleate condition makes them unable to (1)...(2)...(3)

Back 68

1.unable to synthesize new proteins
2. unable to grow
3. unable to divide

Front 69

what engulfs and destroys dying erythrocytes?

Back 69

macrophages

Front 70

the balance of the erythrocyte heme group is degraded to ____, a yellow pigment that is released to the blood and binds to ____ for transport.

Back 70

bilirubin; albumin

Front 71

liver cells pick up bilirubin and in turn secrete it (in bile) into the ___, where it is metabolized to _____.

Back 71

intestine; urobilinogen

Front 72

Most of this degraded pigment leaves the body in feces, as a brown pigment called ______.

Back 72

stercobilin

Front 73

What t is anemia?
What causes it?

Back 73

is a condition in which the blood's oxygen-carrying capacity is to low to support normal metabolism... it is caused by blood loos or not enough red blood cells produced or too many of red blo0d cells are destoryed

Front 74

Slight but persistent blooded loss causes chronic _____ _____

Back 74

hemorrhagic anemia

Front 75

Iron deficiency anemia is the result of what?

Back 75

inadequate intake of iron-containing foods and impaired iron absorption

Front 76

What are the erythrocytes called that are produced from iron deficiency and how can they be treated?

Back 76

they are called microcytes and they can be treated by increasing iron intake in diet or through iron supplements

Front 77

_________ ________ is an autoimmune disease that most often effects the elderly. The immune system of these individuals destroys cells of their own stomach mucosa.

Back 77

Pernicious anemia

Front 78

The erythrocytes of pernicious anemia produce a substance called ____ _____ that must be present for vitamin B12 to be absorbed by intestinal cells. Without vitamin B12 the developing erythrocytes grow but cannot divide, and large, pale cells called _______result

Back 78

intrinsic factor; macrocytes

Front 79

What causes renal anemia?

Back 79

is caused by the lack of Erythropoietin , the hormone that controls red blood cell production

Front 80

Renal anemia frequently accompanies what? Why? And how can it be treated?

Back 80

renal disease because damaged or diseased kidneys cannot produce enough EPO. It can be treated with synthetic EPO

Front 81

Aplastic anemia results from what and how can it be treated?

Back 81

from destruction or inhibition of the red bone marrow by certain drugs and chemicals, ionizing radiation or viruses. Blood transfusions provide a stopgap treatment until stem cells are harvested from a donors blood, bone marrow, or unbilical cord blood can be transplanted

Front 82

In _____ ______ erythrocytes rupture, or Lyse, prematurely.

Back 82

hemolytic anemia

Front 83

What are possible causes of hemolytic anemia?

Back 83

hemoglobin abnormalities, transfusion of mismatched blood, and certain bacterial and parasitic infections are possible causes

Front 84

What typically occurs in people of Mediterranean ancestry such as Greeks and Italians?

Back 84

Thalassemias

Front 85

In thalassemia ......

Back 85

one of the globin chains are absent or faulty, and the erythrocytes are thin, delicate, and defeicient in hemoglobin

Front 86

In sickle cell anemia ....

Back 86

the havoc caused by the abnormal hemoglobin, hemoglobin s, results from a change in just one of 146 amino acids in a beta chain of the globin molecule

Front 87

the alteration of one of the 146 amino acids causes what?

Back 87

This alteration causes the beta chains to link together under low oxygen conditions, forming stiff rods so that hemoglobin S becomes spiky and sharp

Front 88

what treatment are available for sickle cell anemia?

Back 88

Blood transfusion is still the standard treatment for an acute sickle cell anemia crisis, but preliminary results using inhaled nitric oxde to dilate blood vessel are promising

Front 89

where does sickle cell anemia occur and how many does it effect in the U.s?

Back 89

it occurs chiefly among black people who live in the malaria belt of africa and among their descendants. It strikes nearly one of every 500 black new borns in the united ststaes

Front 90

what is polycythemia?

Back 90

is an abnormal excess of erythrocytes that increases blood viscosity, causing it to sludge, or flow sluggishly.

Front 91

what is polycythemia vera and how is it characterized?

Back 91

is a bone marrow cancer . it is characterized by dizziness and exceptionally high RBC count

Front 92

how is severe polycythemia treated?

Back 92

diluting blood--removing some blood and replacing it with saline

Front 93

secondary plycythemia results from what?

Back 93

when loos oxygen is available or EPO production increases

Front 94

what is blood doping?

Back 94

is artificially induced polycythemia

Front 95

how is blood doping done?

Back 95

some of the red blood cells of athlete is drawn and stored and after the body replaces the amount of RBC drawn the athlete the inject the stored blood back into his body increasing the red blood cell count

Front 96

what are the effects of blood doping in the body?

Back 96

it improves the athletes endurance and speed

Front 97

what are the risks of blood doping?

Back 97

stroke and heart failure

Front 98

what are leukocytes?

Back 98

white blood cells, are the only formed elements that are complete cells, with nuclei and the usual organelles

Front 99

______ _____accounting for less than _____% of total blood volume, leukocytes are far less numerous than red blood cells

Back 99

white blood cells account for less than 1%

Front 100

on average there are _____ WBC of blood

Back 100

4,800 to 10,800

Front 101

the process that allows white blood cells to slip out of the capillary blood vessel is called what?

Back 101

diapedis

Front 102

what system is the WBC means of transport to areas of the body where they mount inflammatory or immune responses.

Back 102

circulatory system

Front 103

the signals that prompt white blood cells to leave the blood stream at specific locations are _____ _____ _____ by endothelial cells forming the capillary walls at sites of inflammation

Back 103

cell adhesion molecules

Front 104

what is the phenomenon called that allows white blood cells to pin point areas of tissue damage and infection and gather there in large numbers to destroy foreign substances and dead cells?

Back 104

positive chemotaxis

Front 105

A white blood cell count of over 11,000 cells is _______, this condition is a normal homeostatic response to an infection in the body.

Back 105

leukocytosis

Front 106

leukocytes are grouped into two major categories what are they?

Back 106

granulocytes and agranulocytes

Front 107

List the leukocytes in order from most abundant to least abundant

Back 107

neutrophils lymphocytes monocytes eosinophils basophils

Front 108

what do granulocytes included? describe their characteristics and what are granulocytes considered to be functionally?

Back 108

they include neutrophils eoisinophils and basophils. they are larger and much shorter lived than erythrocytes. they characteristically have lobed nuclei and their membrane bound cytoplasmic granules stain quite specifically with Wright's stain. all granulocytes are functionally phagocytes to a s degree

Front 109

what white blood cell is the most numerous? It accounts for ___to___% of the white blood cell population

Back 109

neutrophils: 50 to 70%

Front 110

smaller granules of neutrophils contain a potent "brew" of antimicrobial proteins called ______.

Back 110

defensins

Front 111

neutrophil nuclei consist of 3 to 6 lobes, because of this nuclear variability, they are often called _____. AKA many shapes of the nucleus

Back 111

polymorphonuclear leukocytes

Front 112

the neutrophil bacterial killing is promoted by a process called ____ _____.

Back 112

respiratory burst

Front 113

what happens is "respiratory burst?"

Back 113

the cells metabolize oxygen to produce potent germ-killer oxidizing substances such as bleach and hydrogen peroxide

Front 114

________ accounts for ____ to ____% of all leukocytes and are approximately the size of neutrophils

Back 114

Eosinophils accounts for 2 to 4%

Front 115

what is the most important role of eosinophils?

Back 115

is to lead the counter attack against parasitic worms, such as flat worms and round worms that are to large to be phaocytized

Front 116

Eosinophils have complex roles in many other diseases such as ____ and ____

Back 116

allergies and astham

Front 117

_____ are the rarest white blood cell accounting for only ___to___% of the leukocyte population

Back 117

basophils; 0.5 to 1%

Front 118

what is histamine?

Back 118

is an inflammatory chemical that acts as a vasodilator and attracts other white blood cells to the inflamed site

Front 119

what granulated cells are similar to basophils?

Back 119

mast cells which are found in connective tissue

Front 120

what are agranulocytes and what do they include?

Back 120

are white blood cells that lack visible cytoplasmic granules. they include lymphocytes and monocytes

Front 121

Is the second most numerous leukocyte and accounts for ___% or more of white blood cell population

Back 121

lymphocytes account for 25% or more

Front 122

what is the function of T lymphocytes?

Back 122

they function in the immune response by acting directly against virus-infected cells and tumor cells

Front 123

what is the function of B lymphocytes and what do they produce?

Back 123

they give rise to plasma cells, which produce antibodies that are released to the blood

Front 124

what cell is the largest leukocyte that accounts for ___ to ___ of white blood cells

Back 124

monocytes; accounts for 3 to 8%

Front 125

when circulating monocytes leave the bloodstream and enter the tissues, they differentiate into highly mobile____ with prodigious appetites.

Back 125

macrophages

Front 126

what are macrophages?

Back 126

are actively phagocytic, and they are crucial in the body's defense against viruses, certain intracellular bacterial parasites and chronic infections such as tuberculosis

Front 127

______, or the production of white blood cells, is stimulated by what?

Back 127

leukopoiesis; chemical messengers

Front 128

what are chemical messengers?

Back 128

they are glycoproteins and can act either as paracrines or hormones

Front 129

chemical messengers fall into what two families of hematopoietic factors?

Back 129

interleukins and colony-stimulating factors (CSF)

Front 130

what is the function of hematopoietic factors?

Back 130

to prompt the white blood cell precursors to divide and mature and also enhance the protective potency of mature leukocytes

Front 131

over production of abnormal leukocytes occur where?

Back 131

leukemia and infectious mononucleoisis

Front 132

what is leukopenia?

Back 132

is an abnormally low white blood cell count

Front 133

what does leukemia refer to?

Back 133

to a group of cancerous conditions involving over production of abnormal white blood cells

Front 134

If leukemia derives from stem cells it is _____.

Back 134

is acute (quickly advancing)

Front 135

If leukemia involves proliferation of later cell stages it is ______.

Back 135

it is chronic (slowly advancing)

Front 136

_____ and ____ drugs can destroy the rapidly dividing cells amd induce remission

Back 136

Irradiation and antileukemic

Front 137

mononucleosis is also called what?

Back 137

the kissing disease

Front 138

what is mononucleosis caused by?

Back 138

caused by the Epstein Barr virus, its hall mark is excessive number of agranulocytes, many of which are atypical

Front 139

_____ are not cells in the strict sense.

Back 139

platelets

Front 140

platelets are cytoplasmic fragments of extraordinarily large cells called ______.

Back 140

megakaryocytes

Front 141

platelets are essential for the ___ ___ that occurs in plasma when blood vessels are ruptures or their lining id injured.

Back 141

clotting process

Front 142

platelets form ________ _______ that helps seal the break

Back 142

a temporary plug

Front 143

when do platelets degenerate if they are not involved in clotting?

Back 143

in 10 days

Front 144

what is thrombopoietin and what does it do?

Back 144

s a hormone that regulates the formation of platelets

Front 145

what is a megakaryocyte?

Back 145

a bizarre cell with a huge multilobed nucleus and a large cytoplasmic mass

Front 146

each micro liter of blood contains _____ of tiny platelets

Back 146

150,000 to 400,000

Front 147

when are whole blood transfusions used?

Back 147

when blood loss is substantial

Front 148

what are packed red blood cells used for?

Back 148

to restore oxygen-carrying capacity

Front 149

transfusion of what type of blood can be fatal?

Back 149

incompatible blood

Front 150

what must be appropriately matched before transfusion?

Back 150

RBC

Front 151

RBC membranes bear 30 types of glycoprotein antigens that are what?

Back 151

1. perceived as foreign if transfused blood is mismatched
2. unique to each individual
3. promoters of agglutination and are called agglutinogens (antigens) that are bound by naturally produced agglutinins (antibodies)

Front 152

what is used to classify blood cells into different groups?

Back 152

the presence or absence of an antigen

Front 153

antigens of abo and rh blood groups cause what?

Back 153

vigorous transfusion reactions

Front 154

MNS, DUffy, kell and ewis blood groups are usually what?

Back 154

weak agglutinogens

Front 155

Blood types ABO are based on the presence or absence of what?

Back 155

of two agglutinogens (A and B)

Front 156

blood may contain ____ or ___ ___ that act against transfused RBCs with ABO antigens not normally present

Back 156

anti-A or anti-B antibodies

Front 157

what is an antigen?

Back 157

an large molecule capable of binding to an antibody and triggering an immune responce

Front 158

what is antibodies?

Back 158

a protein of the gamma globulin class that reacts with an antigen

Front 159

Type AB blood contains which agglutinogens?

Back 159

contains agglutinogens A and B

Front 160

Type A blood contains which agglutinogens?

Back 160

agglutinogens A

Front 161

Type B blood contains which agglutinogens?

Back 161

agglutinogens B

Front 162

Type O blood contains which agglutinogens?

Back 162

contains no agglutinogens

Front 163

Transfusion reactions occur if .....

Back 163

occur if mismatched blood is infused

Front 164

Transfusion reactions occur if donor cells are...

Back 164

are attacked by the recipient's plasma agglutinins.
agglutinate and clog small vessels
rupture and release free hemoglobin into the bloodstream

Front 165

transfusion reactions result in ...

Back 165

diminished oxygen-carrying capacity
hemoglobin in kidney tubules and renal failure; protein in urine

Front 166

determining blood type

Back 166

when a serum containing anti-A or anti-B agglutinins is added to blood, agglutination will occur between the agglutinin and the corresponding agglutinogens.

positive reactions indicate agglutination

Front 167

there are how many different types of Rh agglutinogens?

Back 167

there are 45

Front 168

what antigens are most common?

Back 168

C,D, and E

Front 169

Rh+ indicates the presence of what?

Back 169

D agglutinogen

Front 170

Anti-Rh antibodies are _____ _____ formed in Rh- individulas

Back 170

not spontaneously

Front 171

Anti-Rh antibodies form if an ___ ___ receives Rh+ blood

Back 171

-Rh individual

Front 172

why will a second exposure to Rh+ blood result in a typical transfusion reaction?

Back 172

it takes time to mount an agglutinin (antibody) responce to the D antigen

Front 173

homeostatic imbalance leads to what?

Back 173

Hemolytic Disease of the New born

Front 174

HDN is also known as?

Back 174

erythroblastosis fetalis

Front 175

when a RH- mother becomes sensitized to RH+ what happens to her body

Back 175

it causes her body to synthesize anti-Rh antibodies

Front 176

_____ _____ cross the placenta and destroys the RBC of an RH+ baby

Back 176

Anti-Rh antibodies

Front 177

How can a baby with HDN be treated?

Back 177

it can be treated with prebirth transfusions and exchange transfusions after birth

Front 178

what does RhoGAM serum contain and what does it prevent?

Back 178

it contains anti-Rh and prevents the Rh- mother from becoming sensitized

Front 179

where do all leukocytes originate from?

Back 179

hemocytoblasts

Front 180

________ fine granules that take up acidic and basic dyes

Back 180

neutrophils

Front 181

_______ gives they cytoplasm a lilac color

Back 181

neutophils

Front 182

what cell has granules that contain hydrolytic enzymes or defensins

Back 182

neutrophils

Front 183

what cell is very phagocytic and what does phagocytic mean?

Back 183

neutrophils. phagocytic means bacteria slayer

Front 184

_______= red staining, bi-lobed nuclei

Back 184

eosinophils

Front 185

__________, large purplish-black granules that contain histamine.t

Back 185

Baosphils

Front 186

_______, large, dark-purple, circular nuclei with a thin rim of blue cytoplasm

Back 186

lymphocytes

Front 187

_______, dark purple-staining, U or kidney shaped nuclei

Back 187

monocytes

Front 188

what is hairy cell leukemia?

Back 188

is a rare cancer of the blood . It affects B cells, at ype of white blood cell (lymphocytes)

Front 189

_________, are modulators of the immune responce

Back 189

eoisinophils

Front 190

platelets secret what?

Back 190

serotonin (vasoconstrictors)
Thromboxane A2- promotes platelet aggregation, degranulation, and vasoconstriction

Front 191

platelets do not stick to intact endothelium because presence of ______ and_____ ______

Back 191

prostacyclin; nitric oxide

Front 192

what keeps clots from forming?

Back 192

vasodilators

Front 193

what is the function of the von williebrand factor?

Back 193

increases bond by binding to both collagen and platelets

Front 194

platelets stick to collagen and release _____,_____,____

Back 194

ADP, serotinin, Thromboxane A2

Front 195

together serotonin and thromboxane A2 do what?

Back 195

stimulate vasoconstriction

Front 196

together ADP and Thromboxane A2 causes what?

Back 196

cause other platelets to become sticky& attach& undergo platelet release reaction

Front 197

what is hemostasis?

Back 197

stoppage of bleeding

Front 198

what are the three steps of hemostasis?

Back 198

vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, coagulation

Front 199

fibrinogen is what factor of hemostasis and what is its function?

Back 199

fibrinogen is factor # 1 and it gets coverted to fibrin

Front 200

prothrombin is what factor of hemostasis and what is its functions?

Back 200

prothrombin is factor #2 and it gets converted to thrombin

Front 201

Tissue factor is what factor of hemostasis and what is its function?

Back 201

Tissue factor is factor #3 and it activates extrinsic pathway

Front 202

calcium ion is what factor of hemostasis and what is its function?

Back 202

calcium ion is factor #4 and it is needed for essentially for all stages of coagulation

Front 203

proaecelerin is what factor of hemostasis

Back 203

proaecelerin is factor #5

Front 204

proconvertin is what factor of hemostasis

Back 204

proconvertin is factor #7

Front 205

antihemophilic is what factor of hemostasis and what is its function?

Back 205

antihemophilic is factor #8 and it deficiency results in hemophilia A

Front 206

plasma thromboplastin component is what factor of hemostasis and what is its function

Back 206

plasma thromboplastin component is factor number 9 and deficiency results in hemophilia B

Front 207

stuart factor is what factor of hemostasis

Back 207

stuart factor is factor # 10

Front 208

plasma thromboplastin antacedant is what factor of hemostasis and what is its function?

Back 208

plasma thromboplastin anatacedant is factor #11 and deficiency results in hemophilia C

Front 209

hagerman factor is what factor of hemostasis and what is its function?

Back 209

hagerman factor is factor # 12 and it activates plasmin; initiates clotting in vitro; activation initiates inflammation

Front 210

fibrin stabling factor is what factor of hemostasis and what is its function?

Back 210

fibrin stabilizing factor is factor #13 and it cross links fibrin forming a strong stable clot

Front 211

what is vascular spasm and what triggers it?

Back 211

it is vasoconstriction of damaged blood vessel and it gets triggered by direct injury, chemicals released by endothelial cells and platelets, and pain reflexes

Front 212

at the site of blood vessel injury platelets stick to exposed collagen fibers with the help of ___ ___ ___, a plasma protein

Back 212

von willebrand factor

Front 213

at the site of blood vessel injury, platelets swell, become spiked and sticky, and release ____ ____ ____ causes more platelets tos tick ad release their contents

Back 213

release chemical messengers

Front 214

_____&_____ enhance vascular spasm and more platelet aggregation.

Back 214

serotonin and thromboxane A2

Front 215

what is coagulation? what does it do?

Back 215

coagulation is a set of reactions in which blood is transformed from a liquid to a gel. It reinforces the platelet plug with fibrin threads

Front 216

although ___ ___ is not directly involved in coagulation, this fast-soluble vitamin is required for synthesizing four of the clotting factors

Back 216

vitamin K

Front 217

what are the three phases of coagulation?

Back 217

vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, coagulation

Front 218

what does phase 1 of coagulation end with?

Back 218

phase one of coagulation ends with the formation of a complex substance called prothrombin activator

Front 219

prothrombin activator catalyzes the conversion of a plasma protein called ____ into the active enzyme ____ in phase 2 of coagulation.

Back 219

prothrombin; thrombin

Front 220

what is the end point of coagulation at phase 3?

Back 220

the end point of phase 3 is a fibrin mesh that traps blood cells and effectively seals the hole until the blood vessel can be permanently repaired

Front 221

Factors that inhibit clotting are called _______.

Back 221

anticoagulants

Front 222

In phase 1 of coagulation the intrinsic pathway is triggered by what?

Back 222

negatively charged surfaces such as activated platelets, collagen or glass

Front 223

in phase 1 of coagulation the extrinsic pathway is triggered by what?

Back 223

exposing blood to a factor found in tissues underneath the damaged endothelium

Front 224

In phase 3 thrombin converts soluble fibrinogen into what?

Back 224

fibrin

Front 225

In clot retraction,platelets contain contractile proteins ___ and ____ contract within ____ to ___-_ minutes

Back 225

actin and myosin; 30 to 60 mins

Front 226

platelets pull on the fibrin strands squeezing _____ from the clot.

Back 226

serum

Front 227

what is serum?what is fibrinolysis and when does it start?

Back 227

plasma minus the clotting proteins. fribrinolysis is a process that removes needed clots when healing has occured. It begins within 2 days and continues slowly until the clot has dissolved

Front 228

what is the critical natural "clot buster" called?

Back 228

plasmin

Front 229

when is plasmin produced?

Back 229

when the plasma protein plasminogen is activated

Front 230

the presence of a clot and and around the blood vessel causes the endothelial cells to secrete ____ ___ ___.

Back 230

tissue plasminogen activator

Front 231

what are the two homeostatic mechanisms that prevent clots from becoming unnecessarily large?

Back 231

1. swift removal of clotting factors
2. inhibiton of activated clotting factors

Front 232

what is antithrombin III?

Back 232

a protein in plasma that quickly inactivates any thrombin not bound to fibrin

Front 233

what is protein c?

Back 233

another protein produced in the liver, athat lso inhibit the activity of other intrinsic pathway clotting factors

Front 234

what is heparin?

Back 234

the natural anticoagulant contained in basophil and mast cell granules

Front 235

____,____,____, inactivate thrombin and other procoagulants.

Back 235

antithrombin III, protein C, heparin

Front 236

platelet adhesion is prevented by what?

Back 236

1. smooth endothelial lining of blood vessels
2. antithrombic substances nitric oxide and prostacyclin secreted by endothelial cells
3. Vitamin E quinine, which acts as a potent anticoagulant

Front 237

the two major disorders of hemostasis are called what and what do they do?

Back 237

thromboembolytic and bleeding disorders

Front 238

what is a thrombus?

Back 238

a clot that develops and persists in an unbroken blood vessel

Front 239

If the thrombus breaks away from the vessel wall and floats freely in the bloodstream, it becomes an ____.

Back 239

embolus

Front 240

what is an embolism?

Back 240

a thrombus that is too big to float freely in the blood stream

Front 241

what does pulmonary emboli do?

Back 241

impair the ability of the body to obtain oxygen

Front 242

what can cerebral emboli cause?

Back 242

can cause strokes

Front 243

thromboembolytic conconditions are prevented by?

Back 243

aspirin
heparin
and warfarin

Front 244

what does aspririn do?

Back 244

it acts as a antiprostaglandin that inhibits thromboxane A2

Front 245

what does heparin do?

Back 245

it is a anticoagulant used clinically fro pre- and postoperative cardiac care

Front 246

what does warfarin do?

Back 246

it is used for those prone to atrial fibrillation

Front 247

what is thrombocytopenia??

Back 247

a deficient number of circulating platelets

Front 248

petechiae ( purple or red spot, broken vessel) is due to what?

Back 248

due to spontaneous, widespread hemorrhage

Front 249

thrombocytopenia is due to what?

Back 249

is due to suppression or destruction of bone marrow

Front 250

what is the platelet count of thrombocytopenia?

Back 250

a platelet count of under 50,000 is diagnostic

Front 251

how is thrombocytopenia treated?

Back 251

treated with transfusion of concentrated platelets

Front 252

impaired liver function?

Back 252

1. inability to synthesize pro coagulants
2. causes include vitamin k deficiency, hepatitis, and cirrhosis

Front 253

_____ ___ cal also prevent the liver from producing bile , impairing fat and vitamin k absorption

Back 253

liver disease

Front 254

hemophilia A results from what?

Back 254

deficiency factor of VIII

Front 255

hemophilia b results from what?

Back 255

deficiency factor of IX

Front 256

hemophilia c results from what?

Back 256

deficiency factor of XI

Front 257

how is hemophilia treated?

Back 257

treated with plasma transfusions and injection of missing factors

Front 258

what is dessiminated Intravascular coagulation?

Back 258

is a situation in which widespread clotting occurs in intact blood vessels and the residual blood becomes unable to clot

Front 259

what can a diagnostic test determine?

Back 259

. hematocrit
. blood glucose levels
.differential WBC count
. complete blood count
. SMAC a blood chemistry profile
. indication of anemia

Front 260

Blood cells develope from mesenchymal cells called what?

Back 260

blood islands

Front 261

what are the blood disease of aging and what causes them?

Back 261

. chronic leukemias, anemias, clotting disorders
., usua;lly precipitated by disorders of the heart, blood vessels, and immune system

Front 262

the heart is no more than what?

Back 262

a transport system

Front 263

the hollow blood vessels serve as ?

Back 263

delivery routes

Front 264

which side the hearts receives oxygen poor blood from body tissues and then pumps this blood to the lungs to pick up oxygen and dispel carbon dioxide?

Back 264

the right side of the heart

Front 265

the blood vessels that carry blood to and from the lungs form the?

Back 265

pulmonary circuit

Front 266

which side of the heart receives the oxygenated blood returning from the lungs and pumps this blood through out the body to supply oxygen and nutrients to body tissues?

Back 266

the left side of the heart

Front 267

the blood vessels that carry blood to and from all body tissues from the ?

Back 267

systematic circuit

Front 268

the heart has two main receiving chambers that receive blood returning from the systematic and pulmonary circuits. what are these chambers called?

Back 268

the right and left atrium

Front 269

the heart has two main pumping chambers that pump blood around the two circuits, pulmonary and systematic. what are these two pumping chambers called?

Back 269

right and left ventricle

Front 270

the heart is snugly enclosed with the mediastinum. what is the mediastinum?

Back 270

the medial cavity of the thorax

Front 271

approximately _____ of the heart mass lies to the left of the midsternal line; the blance projects to the right

Back 271

two thirds

Front 272

the hearts broad, flat_____, or posterior surface is about 9cm wide and directed toward the right shoulder

Back 272

base

Front 273

the hearts ______ points inferiorly toward the left hip

Back 273

apex

Front 274

what causes the apical impulse?

Back 274

the apical impulse is caused by your beating hearts apex where it touches the chest wall

Front 275

the heart is enclosed in a double wall sac called the?

Back 275

pericardium

Front 276

the loosely fitting superficial part of the pericardium sac is the?

Back 276

fibrous pericardium

Front 277

what are the functions of the fibrous pericardium?

Back 277

1. protects the heart
2. anchors it to surrounding structures
3. prevents overfilling of the heart with blood

Front 278

deep to the fibrous pericardium is the?

Back 278

serous pericardium

Front 279

what is the serous pericardium?

Back 279

a thin, slippery, two-layer serous membrane that forms a closed sac around the heart.

Front 280

what does the parietal layer of the serous pericardium do?

Back 280

it lines the internal surface of the fibrous pericardium.

Front 281

At the superior margin of the heart, the parietal layer attaches to the large arteries exiting the heart, and then turns inferiorly and continues over the external heart surface as the ?

Back 281

visceral layer

Front 282

the visceral layer is also know as? and what is it ?

Back 282

epicardium and it is an integral part of the heart wall

Front 283

between the parietal and visceral layers is the slit like ______. ______.

Back 283

pericardial cavity

Front 284

what does the pericardial cavity contain?

Back 284

a film of serous fluid

Front 285

what is the purpose of the serous fluid?

Back 285

its purpose is to allow serous membrane which are lubricated by the fluid to glide smoothly past one another, allowing the mobile heart to work in a relatively friction free enviroment

Front 286

the hearts wall is compose of what?

Back 286

is composed of three layer: the epicardium, myocardium, and endocardium

Front 287

what layer is the myocardium? what is it composed of?what does it form? and what does it do?

Back 287

the myocardium is the middle layer of the heart wall, it is composed mainly of cardiac muscle and forms the bulk of the heart. this layer of the heat contracts.

Front 288

what is the purpose of the circular or spinal bundles of the myocardium?

Back 288

theses bundles effectively link all parts of the heart together

Front 289

the connective tissue fivers of the myocardium form a dense network called the ?

Back 289

fibrous cardiac skeleton

Front 290

which layer is the endocardium? what is it? where is located and what does it do?

Back 290

the endocardium is the third layer of the heart wall. It is a glistening white sheet of endothelium resting on a thin connective tissue layer.It is located in the inner myocardiam surface, and it lines the heart chambers and covers the fibrous skeleton of the valves

Front 291

the heart has four chambers-two superior_____ and two inferior ______

Back 291

atria: ventricles

Front 292

the internal partition that divides the heart longitudinally is called the? what does it do? and the _______ _______? what does it do?

Back 292

interatrial septum- separates the atria; interventricular septum- separates the ventricles.

Front 293

The _______ _______ forms most of the anterior surface of the heart and the ____ __-__ dominates the inferoposterior aspect of the heart and forms the heart apex.

Back 293

right ventricle; left ventricle

Front 294

_______ _____ visible on the heart surface indicates the boundaries of its four chambers and carry the blood vessels supplying the myocardium

Back 294

two grooves

Front 295

what are the two grooves called and what does each do?

Back 295

the coronary sulcus, or atrioventricular groove, encircles the junction of the atria and ventricles like a crown.

the anterior interventricular sulcus, marks the anterior position of the septum separating the right and left ventricles

Front 296

what does the anterior interventricular sulcus continue as and what is its function?

Back 296

the anterior interventricular sulcus continue as the posterior interventricular sulcus and it provides a land mark on the heart's posteroinferior surface

Front 297

internally the right atrium has two basic parts.....what are they?

Back 297

1. a smooth wall posterior part
2. an anterior portion in which bundles of muscle tissue form ridges in the walls.

Front 298

the muscle bundles of the right atrium are called?

Back 298

pectinate muscles

Front 299

the posterior and anterior regions of the right atrium are separated by a c-shaped ridge called?

Back 299

crista terminalis

Front 300

the interatrial septum of the left atrium bears a shallow depression called? which does what?

Back 300

fossa ovalis, it marks the spot where an opening, specifically the foramen ovale, existed in the fetal heart

Front 301

what are the atrias functionally?

Back 301

are receiving chambers for blood returning to the heart from the circulation

Front 302

blood enters the right atrium via three veins:

Back 302

the superior vena cava which returns blood from body regions superior to the diaphragm

the inferior vena cava returns blood from body areas below the diaphragm

the coronary sinus collects blood draining from the myocardiun

Front 303

Four ____ ____, enter the left atrium, which makes up most of the hearts's base

Back 303

pulmonary veins

Front 304

ventricles irregular ridges of muscle are called? what do they do?

Back 304

trabeculae carnae which mark the internal walls of the ventricular chambers

Front 305

_____ _____ play a role in valve function, project into the ventricular cavity.

Back 305

papilary muscles

Front 306

what are the actual pumps of the heart?

Back 306

the ventricles

Front 307

the right ventricle pumps blood into the ____ ____, which routes the blood to the lungs, where gas exchange occurs

Back 307

pulmonary trunk

Front 308

the left ventricle ejects blood into the ____, which is what?

Back 308

aorta, the largest artery in the body

Front 309

how many atrioventricular valves are there? where are they located? what is their function?

Back 309

there are two atrioventricular valves, one located at each atrial-ventricular junction, prevent backflow into the atria whe the ventricles contract.

Front 310

the right av valve is called? and why?

Back 310

tricuspid valve because it has three flexible cusp

Front 311

the left av valve, with two cusps is called? sometimes called?

Back 311

mitral valve; bicuspid valve

Front 312

what are cusps?

Back 312

flaps of endocardium reinforced by connective tissue

Front 313

what is attached to each av valve? what are they called? what is their function?

Back 313

tiny white collagen cords called chordae tendinae. they anchor cusps to the papillary muscles protruding from the ventricular walls

Front 314

the chordae tendinae and papillary muscles serve as? that do what?

Back 314

they serve as guy wires that anchor the valve flaps in their closed position.

Front 315

blood is carried in a ___ ___ ___ ___ that begins and ends at the heart

Back 315

closed system of vessels

Front 316

the three major types of vessels are?

Back 316

arteries
capillaries
veins

Front 317

arteries carry blood ____ from the heart, veins carry blood _____ the heart

Back 317

away
toward

Front 318

_______ contact tissue cells and directly serve cellular needs

Back 318

capillaries

Front 319

Trace a drop of blood

Back 319

right atrium to tricuspid valve to right ventricle to pulmonary semilunar valve to pulmonary arteries to lungs to pulmonary veins to left atrium to bicuspid valve to left ventricle to aortic semilunar valve to aorta to systematiccirculation

Front 320

the walls of the _____ _ ______ are 3x thicker than that of the opposite side of the heart

Back 320

left ventricle

Front 321

which is a more powerful pump, the left or right ventricle

Back 321

left ventricle

Front 322

_____ ______ is straited and contracts by the sliding filament mechanism

Back 322

cardiac muscle

Front 323

intercalated discs contain anchoring ____ and ___ ____

Back 323

desmosomes and gap junctions

Front 324

what do desmosomes prevent?

Back 324

prevent cells from separating during contraction

Front 325

what do gap junctions allow?

Back 325

ions to pass; electrically couple adjacent cells

Front 326

________ accounts for 25-30% of the volume of cardiac cells. the remaining volume is occupied by myofibrils composed of sacromeres such as ?

Back 326

large mitochondria

Front 327

In cardiac muscle the action potential lasts _____ ms or more, and tension development persists for _____ ms or more, providing the sustained contraction needed to eject blood from the heart

Back 327

200 msecs; 200 msecs

Front 328

cardiac contraction is also know as ?

Back 328

systole

Front 329

relaxation of the heart is also known as?

Back 329

diastole

Front 330

normal heart beat is triggered by the and is called the ?

Back 330

Sinoatrial node; Sinus Rhythm

Front 331

what is the normal range for heart beats?

Back 331

70-80

Front 332

how long does it take for the heart to beat in the cardiac cycle?

Back 332

0.8 secs

Front 333

how is the cardiac rhythm maintained?

Back 333

every 0.8 secs

Front 334

what is the SA node electrophysiology?

Back 334

is the study of the electrical properties of biological cells and tissues

Front 335

auto rhythmic cells included?

Back 335

SA node
AV node
AV Bundle
Bundle branches
Purkinje fibers

Front 336

what does resting cell mean?

Back 336

more anions inside the cell

Front 337

In a resting cell excess of ____ is outside the cell in extracellular fluid

Back 337

Na+, sodium

Front 338

in a resting cell excess___ is inside the cells is in Intracellular fluid

Back 338

k+, potassium

Front 339

how is the resting membrane potential maintained?

Back 339

maintained by the sodium potassium pump

Front 340

resting membrane potential=

Back 340

-60 mVolts

Front 341

what is action potential

Back 341

rapid up and down voltage shift

Front 342

what is depolarization? what is repolarization?

Back 342

loss of polarity ( becomes more +)

membrane polarity (-) regained

Front 343

what do auto rhythmic cells initiate?

Back 343

action potentials

Front 344

autorhythmic cells have unstable resting potentials called ?

Back 344

pacemaker potentials

Front 345

autorhythmic cells use ___ ___ for rising phase of the action potential

Back 345

calcium influx

Front 346

in autorrhythmic cells ions move innto and out of cells by?

Back 346

voltage regulated ion channels in cardiomyocyte membrane

Front 347

SA node to AV node=

Back 347

50msec

Front 348

In AV node the signal slows to 0.05 secs because what? cause delay signal for 100 msec

Back 348

because of thinner myocytes an fewer gap junctions which .....

Front 349

ventricular myocardium speed is?

Back 349

0.3-0.5 msec

Front 350

signals reach what type of muscle before reaching the rest of myocardium?

Back 350

pappillary muscle

Front 351

what is a electrocardiogram?

Back 351

a composite of all the action potentials generated by nodal and contractile cells at a given time

Front 352

what are the three wave s of an electrocardiogram? what causes each wave?

Back 352

P Wave : depolarization of SA node
QRS complex:ventricular depolarization
T wave: ventricular repolarization

Front 353

Timing of events:
heart beats:
cardiac cycle:
atrial systole:
ventricular systole:
Quiescent period:

Back 353

75
0.8 secs
0.1 sec
0.3 sec
0.4 sec

Front 354

what does the p,and T wave correspond to and what does the QRS complex correspond to?

Back 354

P wave corresponds to depolarization of the SA node
T wave corresponds to ventricular re polarization
QRS complex corresponds to ventricular depolarization

Front 355

atrial repolarization is masked by?

Back 355

the larger QRS complex

Front 356

what is arrhythmias?

Back 356

are abnormal heart rhythms

Front 357

what is a slow heart beat called?

Back 357

bradycardia

Front 358

what is a fast heart beat called?

Back 358

tachycardia

Front 359

in _______ coordinated contraction rates can be 200 to 300 per min. the person can survive

Back 359

flutter

Front 360

in ________ contraction of myocardial cells is uncoordinated and pumping is ineffective

Back 360

fibrillation

Front 361

what type of fibrillation is life threatning?

Back 361

ventricular fibrillation

Front 362

what does electrical defibrillation do?

Back 362

re synchronizes heart by depolarizing all cells at same time

Front 363

No SA activity is known as?

Back 363

Nodal rhythm

Front 364

when does Av node block occur?

Back 364

when node is damahed

Front 365

what is first degree av node block?

Back 365

is when conduction through AV node > 0.2 sec.
causes long P-R interval

Front 366

In third degree or complete AV node block has?

Back 366

no atrial activity passes to ventricles

Front 367

second degree AV node block?
what does it cause?

Back 367

is when only 1 out of 2-4 atrail APs can pass to ventricles
causes P waves with no QRS

Front 368

the ventricles of the third degree AV block is driven slowly by?

Back 368

bundles of His or Purkinjes

Front 369

what are ectopic pacemakers?

Back 369

are other tissue in the heart that are spntaneously active.
but are slower than the SA node
are stimulated to produce APs by SA nod before spontaneously depolarize to threshold

Front 370

what is the pause between heart sound called?

Back 370

quiescent period

Front 371

what happens in sound 1 of heart beats? what happens in sound 2 of heart beats?

Back 371

av valve closes; ventricular pressure rises above atrial pressure

sl valves snap shut but at the beginning of ventricular elaxation

Front 372

the first hearts sound comes immediately after ?
the 2nd hearts sound comes as ?

Back 372

QRS wave as AV valves close; T waves begins and semilunar valves close

Front 373

what are murmurs and what can they be caused by?

Back 373

are abnormal sounds produced by abnormal patterns of blood flow in heart. many are caused by defective heart valves

Front 374

in _____ ____ damage can be from antibodies made in responce to strep infection

Back 374

rheumatic fever

Front 375

what happens in mitral stenosis?

Back 375

mitral valve becomes thickened and calcified, impairing blood flow from left atrium to left ventricle

Front 376

accumulation of blood in the left ventricle can cause?

Back 376

pulmonary hypertension

Front 377

valves are _____ when they dont close properly this can be from damage to papillary muscles

Back 377

incompetent

Front 378

murmurs caused by _____ _____ are usually congenital

Back 378

septal defects

Front 379

septal defect ares due to what? the pressure from septal defects causes blood to?

Back 379

septal defects are due to holes in septum between left and right sides of heart. septal defects causes blood to pass from left to right

Front 380

what are the three phases of the cardiac cycle?

Back 380

ventricular filling; ventricular systole; ventricular diastole

Front 381

In phase 1 of the cardiac cycle the blood pressure ____as blood enters ____ and flows into the _________.

Back 381

is low; atria; ventricles

Front 382

approximately ____% of ventricular filling is due to pressure from flow through _____ _____. The other _____% is due to _________ ______

Back 382

80%; vena cava; 20%; atrial contraction

Front 383

AV valves are open , then ____ ____ (P waves) occur; ventricles fill up to ____ ml of blood.
the amount _____ ml of blood is known as EDV: _____ ______. after this the ____ relaxes and ventricles begin to _____

Back 383

atrial systol; 120 ml;End diastolic volume; atria; depolarize

Front 384

phase two of the cardiac cycle is known as?I

Back 384

ventricular systole

Front 385

in phase two of the cardiac cycle , the rising ventricular pressure results in ______ ____ ____ _____ (S1) for a split second which is known as _______ _____ _____

Back 385

closing of AV valves; isovolumetric contraction phase

Front 386

in the phase two of the cardiac phase ventricular ejection phase opens?

Back 386

semilunar valves

Front 387

in phase two of the cardiac cycle the pressure in the aorta reaches about?

Back 387

120 mm Hg

Front 388

what is a sphygmomanometer?

Back 388

an instrument that measures arterial blood pressure

Front 389

phase 3 of the cardiac cycle is known as what?

Back 389

isovolumetric relaxation

Front 390

in phase three of the cardiac cycle the isovolumetric relaxation takes place. this is also known as _____ _____.
what does it cause?

Back 390

early diastole and it causes ventricles to relax; backflow of blood in aorta and pulmonary trunck closes semilunar valves

Front 391

dsicrotic notch is the brief rise in aortic pressure caused by what?

Back 391

backflow of blood rebounding off semilunar valves

Front 392

what is CO and what is Co the product of ?

Back 392

is the amount of blood pumped by each ventricle especially the left ventricle in one minute, it is the product of heart rate and stroke volume

Front 393

what is SV?

Back 393

is the amount of blood pumped out by a ventricle with each beat- about 70 ml/beat

Front 394

what is cardiac reserve?w

Back 394

it is the difference between resting and maximal CO

Front 395

what is the meaning SV for the regulation of stroke volume?

Back 395

end diastolic volume minus end systolic volume

Front 396

what is the meaning of EDV for the regulation of stroke volume?

Back 396

amount of blood collected in a ventricle during diastole

Front 397

what is the meaning of ESV for the regulation of stroke volume?

Back 397

amount of blood remaining in a ventricle after contraction

Front 398

what is preload?

Back 398

is the amount of ventricles that are stretched by contained blood

Front 399

how does contractility affect stroke volume?

Back 399

cardiac cell contractile force due to factors other than EDV

Front 400

how does afterload affect stroke volume?

Back 400

is the back pressure exerted by blood in the large arteries leaving the heart

Front 401

_______ is proportional to the amount of ventricular myocardial fiber stretch before systole

Back 401

preload

Front 402

_______ is the pressure that the ventricles must overcome to force open the aortic and pulmonary veins

Back 402

afterload

Front 403

Before they contract what tyope of cardiac muscle cells are the crtical factor controlling stroke volume

Back 403

preload of cardiac muscle celss

Front 404

what happens in the Frank-Starling law of the heart?

Back 404

SV increases with increased EDV

Front 405

slow heart beat and exercise increase venous return to the heart?

Back 405

increased SV

Front 406

blood loss and extremely rapid heart beat?

Back 406

decrease SV

Front 407

contractility is the increase in ?

Back 407

contractile strength, independent of stretch and EDV

Front 408

increase in contractility comes from?

Back 408

increased sympathetic stimuli by noreoinephrine

Front 409

what hormones are called positive inotropic agents?

Back 409

epinephrine; glucagon; thyroxine; calcium and some drugs

Front 410

what are beta 1 receptors and where are they located?

Back 410

they are adrenergic receptors and are located in the heart and the kidneys

Front 411

In the heart ,beta 1 receptors , positive ____ and _____ effect the increase of cardiac conduction velocity and automaticity

Back 411

chronotropic and inotropc

Front 412

In the kidney, beta 1 receptors stimulates?

Back 412

Renin release

Front 413

what do Beta-1 receptor blockers do

Back 413

they inhibit the action of epinephrine and sympathetic action

Front 414

beta-1 receptor blockers have _______ ____ which reduce the effects of excitements and physical exertion

Back 414

antihypertensive effects

Front 415

what are beta-2 receptors? what doe they include? what do they do and what do they cause?

Back 415

are adrenergic receptors that includes vascular smooth muscle, skeletal muscle, lung, GI tract, Liver, Uterus. They induces smooth muscle relaxation and increases glycogenolysis which is the break down of glycogen. they also cause tremors in skeletal muscle

Front 416

what are beta-3 receptors and what do they do?

Back 416

adrenergic receptors and they induce lipolysis

Front 417

agents/factors that decrease contractility include? these are also known as _____ ____ ______

Back 417

acidosis
increased extracellular K+
calcium channel blockers


these are also known as negative inotropic agents

Front 418

how is the sympathetic nervous system stimulated?

Back 418

is activated by stress, anxiety, excitement, or exercise

Front 419

how is the parasympathetic nervous system stimulated?

Back 419

it is mediated by acetylcholine and opposes the SNS

Front 420

________ dominates the autonomic stimulation, slowing heart and rate and causing _____ _____

Back 420

PNS; vagal tone

Front 421

sympathetic fibers T1-T4 produce norepinephrine which stimulates?

Back 421

SA Node

Front 422

para-sympathetic fiber, vagus nerve secretes acetylcholine that slows?

Back 422

SA node firing

Front 423

heart is stimulated by the ________ ________ center

Back 423

sympathetic cardioacceleratory center

Front 424

heart is inhibited by the ____ ____

Back 424

parasympathetic cardioinhibitory center

Front 425

without vagal innervation the heart?

Back 425

the heart rate will be faster

Front 426

________ _____ a sympathetic reflex inititated by increased blood in the atria

Back 426

atrial reflex

Front 427

atrial reflex causes what? and stimulates what? where is it found?

Back 427

it causes stimulation of the SA node; it stimulates baroreceptor in the atria causing increased SNS stimulation and it occurs in dogs

Front 428

the hormones ____ and ____ increase heart rate

Back 428

epinephrine and thyroxine

Front 429

______ and _______ ______ ______ must be maintained for normal heart funcion

Back 429

intra and extracellular ion concentrations

Front 430

what is CHF? and what is caused by?

Back 430

congestive heart failure; it is caused by coronary atherosclerosis which is clogging of the arteries, persistent high blood pressure,multiple myocardial infarcts, dilated cardiomyopathy

Front 431

what happens to the heart if the left side fails?

Back 431

-pulmonary congestion
-poor systemic circulation
blood vessels in lungs becomes engorged
fluid leaks into lung tissue causing pulmonary edema

Front 432

what will happen to the heart is the right side fails?

Back 432

peripheral congestion:
-blood stagnates in body organs
-Edema, particularly in extremities
buildup of toxic wastes

Front 433

sclerosis and thickening of valve flaps makes?

Back 433

heart murmurs more prominent

Front 434

decline in cardiac reserves causes ?

Back 434

sympathetic control to become less efficient

Front 435

Fibrosis of cardiac muscle causes?

Back 435

reduced sv

Front 436

atherosclerosis is caused by and increases like ability of what?

Back 436

is caused by inactivity, smoking and stress; diet. It increases the chance of heart attacks and strokes

Front 437

________ is the most common of arteriosclerosis (hardening of the arteries) It accounts for ___% of deaths in the U.S.

Back 437

atherosclerosis; 50% of detahs

Front 438

localized _____ ( atheromas) reduce flow in artery and acts as sites for?

Back 438

plaque acts as sites fro thrombus aka blood clots

Front 439

high blood cholesterol is associated with the risk of ________

Back 439

atheroscleosis

Front 440

Lipids including cholesterol are carried in blood attached to ____ and ____

Back 440

low density lipoproteins and high density lipoproteins

Front 441

_____ and _____ are produced in the liver and taken into cells by receptor-mediated endocytosis

Back 441

LDL and HDL

Front 442

what can oxidized LDL do?

Back 442

oxidized LDL can injure endothelial cells facilitating plaque formation

Front 443

arteries have receptors for ____ but not ___

Back 443

LDL but not HDL

Front 444

______ is most commonly due to atherosclerosis in coronary arteries

Back 444

ischemia

Front 445

When does Ischemia occur?

Back 445

when blood supply to tissue is deficient

Front 446

what does Ischemia caused by ? by what is Ischemia often accompanied by

Back 446

ischemia is often accompanied by angina pectoris aka chest pains and it is caused by increased lactic acid from anaerobic metabolism

Front 447

what is a myocardial infarction? how is it diagnosed?

Back 447

myocardial infection is a heart attack and it is diagnosed byb high levels of creatine phophate and lactate dehydrogenase