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159 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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carrier protein
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These proteins are similar to channels except they have no pore and are able to change shape to force substances into or out of the cell
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Responsiveness
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The ability to sense changes and respond to them is known as?
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compound
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Two or more atoms of different elements held together by chemical bonds are known as?
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Carbohydrates
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Simple sugars belong to what major classification of compounds?
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ion
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A charged atom or group of atoms is known as?
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moves with the concentration gradient
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Which of the following applies to diffusion?
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combination of multiple choice, fill-in-the-blank, short answer, and essay, definition, lists
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What is the format for the Early version tests?
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Lipophilic
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Lipid soluble compounds most closely associated with which of the following?
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Lysosomes
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Orgnanelles containing hydrolytic or digestive enzymes?
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Prostaglandins
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Specialized fatty acids able to induce the type of pain often associated with the headaches
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tritium
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Which isotope of hydrogen contains two neutrons?
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metabolic acidosis
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A condition resulting in elevated hydrogen ions due to the build up of metabolic by-products such as ketones or lactic acid or due to the loss of bicarbonate ions or kidney failure?
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the octet rule
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The concept that an atom if large enough is most stable with 8 electrons in the outermost shell is known as?
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liver
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All of the plasma proteins except for one group are made by which of the following?
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lipophobic
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Compounds that DO NOT easily cross cell membranes are most closely associated with which of the following?
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Chloride ions
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Patients with Cystic Fibrosis are unable to transport which of the following across cell membranes?
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hypertonic
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Solution A contains 17% NaCl. Solution B contains 12% NaCl. Solution A is said to be?
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smooth endoplasmic reticulum
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A type of transport organelle which does NOT have the protein producing organelles on its membrane?
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peroxidase
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Which enzyme is capable of changing hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen?
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3 billion
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How many nucleotide base pairs the rungs of the DNA ladder are found in the nuclei of most of our cells?
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The sodium-potassium-ATPase pump
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What keeps more Na outside and more K+ inside the cell?
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Cholesterol
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From which molecule is cortisol derived?
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alkalosis
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Which of the following conditions may be caused by hyperventilation?
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mitochondria
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Which organelle is predominantly associated with the production of ATP?
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O, N, and S
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In hydrogen bonds what elements does hydrogen most often bond with?
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polyer
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Any long chain molecule composed of several similar, simpler molecules chemically bonded together?
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carbonic acid
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H2CO3 is known as?
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9 kal
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Give the closest energy yield for lipid?
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Computerized axial tomography
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A type of X ray with computerized analysis is known as?
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solution
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What is another name for a homogenous mixture in which one substance is dissolved in another?
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Low solute to high solute
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During osmosis, water moves from
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Prostaglandins
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Specialized fatty acids able to induce the type of pain often associated with the endometriosis
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low density lipoproteins
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Specialized compounds which transport cholesterol to the body's cells which may become overburdened by the lipid?
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excretion
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The removal of waste products such as feces, urea, and carbon dioxide is known as?
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protons
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The atomic number is associated with the number of?
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Desmosomes
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A type of cell-to-cell connections that glues cells together while allowing materials to pass through?
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familial hypercholesterolemia
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A genetic condition in which there is a mutation in the gene that codes for the low density lipoprotein receptor
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cell membrane
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A selectively semipermeable boundary that separates the inside of a cell from the outside?
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organ system
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cell is tissue as organ is to:
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negative feedback
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A process in which the products or results of a reaction actually react to turn the process off?
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energy of activation
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What is the energy barrier which must be overcome before a reaction can proceed?
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Zygote
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A fertilized oocyte is known as the?
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stratum basale
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Which layer of the skin consists of a single layer of mitotically active, cuboidal cells?
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Meningocele
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A posterior neural tube closure defect in which the dura mater (not the spinal cord) is forced out of its normal position often resulting in a very large, fluid-filled sac on the baby's spine?
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U C G A G U
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The following is a strand of DNA, A G C T C A - Match this strand with its complementary strand of mRNA?
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Statum basale
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Which layer of the epidermis produces keratinocytes?
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polypeptide
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A long chain molecule composed of many amino acids chemically bonded together is known as?
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signal transduction
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The transmission of chemical messages from the cell membrane to the nucleus in order to turn ON or OFF various genes by way of several chemical steps or reactions?
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Reticular layer
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Which layer of the dermis is the thickest?
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antigens
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Foreign proteins, or organisms that cause an immune response?
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normal growth gene
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What is protooncogene?
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hypotonic blood
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Loss of plasma proteins will result in?
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carcinoma
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A type of cancer that is derived from epithelial tissue?
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erbB2
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Mutations on this gene are causes for breast and ovarian cancer?
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sister chromatid
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Each copy of a duplicated chromosome is known as?
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tertiary
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Which protein structure is described as a complex coiling of the coils or folding of the folds in an amino acid chain?
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1953
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In what year was the three dimensional architecture of DNA discovered?
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5 days
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Approximately how old is a human embryo when it becomes a hollow ball of cells?
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promotor
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The very beginning of a gene that indicates exactly where the coding part of the gene begins and which side of the open chromosome (gene) to transcribe?
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holoenzyme
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The apoenzyme plus the cofactor are known as?
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pyrimadines
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Which of the nucleotide bases are single-ringed molecules?
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production of enzymes
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Which of the following occurs during the "G2" phase of the cell cycle?
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30
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What percentage of the chromatin is composed of DNA?
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melanin
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The major pigment found in the skin is
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p53
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This gene is mutated in over 50% of human cancer:
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terminal
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A type of adult hair that continues to grow as on the scalp, eyebrows, eyelashes, and beard of males?
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centromeres line up on the metaphase plate
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Which of the following best describes metaphase of mitosis?
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spindle fibers
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Special protein fibers that connect the poles (centrioles) to the sister chromatids
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chromosomes become visible as individuals
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Which of the following occurs during prophase of mitosis?
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malignant
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Generally, a type of tumor that is usually NOT covered by connective tissue and spreads easily is referred to as:
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Transfer
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On what type of RNA are the anticodons found?
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ascites
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Massive abdominal edema as seen with liver failure is known as?
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pyrimadines
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Cytosine belongs to which class of bases?
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meiosis
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A type of cell/nuclear division that produces "germ" cells?
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every 25-45 days
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How long does it take for epidermal cells to be exfoliated (to renew the epidermis)?
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codon
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A sequence of 3 nucleotide bases on the messenger RNA which matches a complementary strand on the transfer RNA?
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basal cell carcinoma
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This type of cancer that demonstrates a relatively successful cure/treatment rate and does not typically spread to other parts of the body?
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centromere
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The structure that binds the two halves of a duplicated chromosome together?
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placenta
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In a blastocyst, the outer most cells GIVE RISE TO?
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nucleus pulposus
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The central or inner part of an intervertebral disc is called?
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tearing a tendon or ligament
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Which of the following best describes a sprain?
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gout or gouty arthritis
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A condition caused by the deposition of uric acid within joint capsule?
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resorption
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The process by which bone tissue is digested or removed?
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lacuna
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A space or cavity in which bone cells are found?
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stimulates bone resorption
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Which of the following best describes the actions of parathyroid hormone?
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skin
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Where do the first two reactions in the production of vitamin D take place?
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Vitamin D3
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Which of the following causes an increased absorption of calcium and phosphate by the small intestines?
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demineralization of bone in children
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Which of the following is a symptom of rickets?
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osteoporosis
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A condition in which bone is demineralized due to an increase in osteoclastic activity?
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osteomyelitis
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A term of any bacterial infection in the bone marrow?
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osteogenic sarcoma
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What is the most common form of bone cancer in pediatric cases?
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fibrous
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The interosseous membranes are examples of which type of joint?
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sex steroids (hormones)
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Which of the following compounds induce ossification or closure of the growth plate of a long bone?
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hydroxyapatite
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The most abundant crystalline or inorganic material in bone is?
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medullary cavity
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The bone marrow cavity is also known as?
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ground substance
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Which of the following contribute to the organic component of the bone matrix?
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synovial capsule
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The capsule that surrounds a freely moveable joint is known as the?
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yolk sac
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In what structure are blood cells first formed in humans?
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osteoblast
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These cells make or deposit bone?
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intramembranous mesenchymal
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In this type of ossification embryonic connective tissue develops directly into the bone?
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extramedullary
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A type of hemopoiesis that occurs in the spleen in the adult is known as?
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calcitrol
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Another name for Vitamin D is?
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calcitonin
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A hormone made in the thyroid gland that predominately stimulates bone deposition or build up?
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increase in plasma calcium levels reduces vitamin D release
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Hyperparathyroidism results in which of the following?
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extension
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A type of movement that increases the angle of a joint or straightens a joint is known as?
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elevation
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A type of movement described as raising a bone vertically?
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atlantoaxial joint
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Which of the following is an example of a pivot joint?
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hinge
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The interphalangeal joint is an example of?
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gout or gouty arthritis
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Which of the following is caused by the overproduction or over metabolism of purines?
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monaxial
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Which of the following describes the movement of a pivot joint?
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long-term respiratory diseases
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Under which of the following conditions would you require elevated levels of erythropoietin?
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emphysema
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Under which of the following conditions would you require elevated levels of erythropoietin?
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long
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The radius belongs to which classification of bones?
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sesamoid
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A type of bone that develops within a tendon belongs to which classification of bones?
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yellow
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A type of bone marrow that consists of adipose tissue?
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articular cartilage
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A smooth, slick cartilage that coats the surfaces where two bones meet?
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periosteum
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The OUTER connective tissue covering of a bone?
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amphiarthrosis
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Based on the functional classification, joints that are slightly movable are known as?
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amphiarthrosis
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Which of the following is an example of a cartilaginous joint?
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cardiac
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A muscle type that is typified as being striated?
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troponin changes shape and pulls tropomyosin away from active sites
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Once the calcium binds to troponin, which of the following is the next process?
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insertion
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Which end of a muscle moves the greatest distance during contraction and tends to be located at the distal region of the muscle?
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altered electrochemical gradient due to sodium pump disruption
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Which of these is a major cause of muscular fatigue?
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Glycolysis-lactic acid system
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Once the creatine phosphate system is depleted during extreme exercise, which is the next energy system to activate?
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to allow the myosin head to release the active site on actin
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Which of the following processes directly requires ATP?
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none of these responses
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Give one diagnostic feature (what is unique about its appearance) for smooth muscle?
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smooth
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Which type of muscle is found in the wall of arteries?
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intercalated discs
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Tiny structures within cardiac muscle that contain holes through which an impulse can pass with limited resistance?
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smooth
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A muscle type that uses extracellular calcium?
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microfilaments
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In the architecture of a muscle, the smallest, fibrous structures, represented by actin and myosin are known as?
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perimysium
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A connective tissue covering of the fascicle?
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agonists
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The individual members of the hamstrings are related to each other as?
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myoglobin
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A red pigment within muscle cells which transport oxygen?
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F actin
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Which of the following represent the thin microfilaments?
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G actin
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A single molecule of actin, several of which combine to construct long actin chains is known as?
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proteins
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To which of the major groups of organic molecules do actin and myosin belong?
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troponin T (TnT)
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Which of the following binds to tropomyosin?
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muscular dystrophy
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Which of the following diseases is caused by a mutation in one of the proteins that connect the thin filament to the integral proteins?
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sarcoplasmic reticulum
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The endoplasmic reticulum of a muscle cell is known as?
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none of these responses
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Which of the following best describes the function of the sarcoplasmic reticulum?
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synaptic cleft
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The gap between synaptic knob and motor end plate?
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acetylcholine
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Which neurotransmitter is released from the neuron at the neuromuscular junction?
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nerve action potential reaches terminal
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What process causes the calcium channels to open on the distal end of the motor neuron's axon?
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sodium influx through the sarcolemma at the neuromuscular junction
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What directly causes the action potential at the neuromuscular junction?
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acetylcholinesterase
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Which of the following inhibits the activity of the neurotransmitter at the neuromuscular junction?
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inability to pump calcium ions OUT of the sarcoplasm
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Which of the following is a cause of rigor mortis?
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organophosphate insecticides
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Which of the following inhibit the activity of the enzyme that inhibits the activity of the neurotransmitter of the neuromuscular junction?
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period of contraction
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Name the phase of a muscle twitch for which the cross-bridges are active, tension in muscle builds to maximum
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aerobic
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A type of respiration that DOES require oxygen to take place?
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stored ATP
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Which of the following is the predominant source of energy for short bursts of energy?
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increased lactic acid
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Which of these is a major cause of muscular fatigue?
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fatigue easily
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Which of the following describes the fast glycolytic muscles?
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calmodulin
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A protein the binds to calcium in smooth muscles during the process of contraction?
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another ATP must be broken into ADP + P + Energy
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After the myosin binds to the actin in smooth muscle, what must happen in order to allow the POWER STROKE to occur?
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tetanus
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A bacterial disease in which inhibitory interneurons are attacked resulting in spastic paralysis?
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bacteria
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The organism that causes tetanus belongs to which group of organisms?
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saxitoxin
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A toxin from a micro-organism which blocks the neurotransmitter receptors at the neuromuscular junction and may result in paralytic shellfish poisoning?
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flaccid paralysis
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Which of the following is a symptom of tetrodotoxin poisoning?
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glycine
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What neurotransmitter is inhibited by strychnine?
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