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162 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Homeostasis is the condition in which the body maintains ____.
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a relatively stable internal environment, within limits
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Place the following in correct sequence from simplest to most complex;
1. molecules 2. atoms 3. tissues 4. cells 5. organ A) 1-2-3-4-5 B) 2-1-4-3-5 C) 2-1-3-4-5 D) 1-2-4-3-5 |
2-1-4-3-5
atoms-molecules-cells-tissues-organs |
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Subdivisions of anatomy include which of the following?
A) gross, macroscopic, visual, and microscopic B) gross, regional, dissection, and surface C) regional, surface, visual, and microscopic D) gross, regional, systemic, and surface |
gross, regional, systemic, and surface
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Which of the following would not be a functional characteristic of life?
A) movement B) responsiveness to external stimuli C) maintenance of boundaries D) decay |
decay
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The numbers listed represent the number of electrons in the first, second, and third energy levels, respectively. On this basis, which of the following is an unstable or reactive atom?
A) 2, 8, 8 B) 2, 8 C) 2 D) 2, 8, 1 |
2,8,1
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A solution that has a pH of 2 could best be described as being ________.
A) acidic B) basic C) neutral D) slightly basic |
acidic
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Which of the following would be regarded as an organic molecule?
A) H2O B) NaCl C) NaOH D) CH4 |
CH4
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What is a chain of 10 amino acids called?
A) polypeptide B) nucleotide C) carbohydrate D) starch |
polypeptide
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Which of the following constitutes a long chain of simple sugars?
A) monosaccharide B) polysaccharide C) protein D) nucleic acid |
polysaccharide
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Which statement about enzymes is false?
A) Enzymes raise the activation energy needed to start a reaction. B) Enzymes are composed mostly of protein. C) Enzymes are organic catalysts. D) Enzymes may be damaged by high temperature. |
enzymes raise the activation energy needed to start a reaction
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Which of the following statements is false?
A) Chemical reactions proceed more quickly at higher temperatures. B) Chemical reactions progress at a faster rate when the reacting particles are present in higher numbers. C) Larger particles move faster than smaller ones and thus collide more frequently and more forcefully. D) Catalysts increase the rate of chemical reactions. |
larger particles move faster than smaller ones and thus collide more frequently and more forcefully
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What happens in redox reactions?
A) the electron accepter is reduced B) the electron acceptor is oxidized C) the electron donor is reduced D) the reaction is always easily reversible |
the electron acceptor is reduced
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Select the most correct statement regarding nucleic acids.
A) Three forms exist: DNA, RNA, and tDNA. B) DNA is a long, double-stranded molecule made up of A, T, G, and C bases. C) RNA is a long, single-stranded molecule made up of the bases A, T, G, and C. D) TDNA is considered a molecular slave of DNA |
RNA is a long, single-stranded molecule made up of the bases A,T,G, and G
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Select the correct statement about isotopes.
A) Isotopes of the same element have the same atomic number but differ in their atomic masses. B) All the isotopes of an element have the same number of neutrons. C) No isotopes of an element are radioactive. D) Isotopes occur only in the heavier elements |
no isotopes of an element are radioactive
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The four elements that make up about 96% of body matter are ________.
A) carbon, oxygen, phosphorus, calcium B) nitrogen, hydrogen, calcium, sodium C) carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen D) sodium, potassium, hydrogen, oxygen |
carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen
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Atom X has 17 protons. How many electrons are in its valence shell?
A) 3 B) 5 C) 7 D) 10 |
5
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If atom X has an atomic number of 74 it would have which of the following?
A) 37 protons and 37 neutrons B) 37 electrons C) 74 protons D) 37 protons and 37 electrons |
37 protons and 37 neutrons
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What does the formula C6H12O6 mean?
A) There are 6 calcium, 12 hydrogen, and 6 oxygen atoms. B) There are 12 hydrogen, 6 carbon, and 6 oxygen atoms. C) The molecular weight is 24. D) The substance is a colloid |
there are 12 hydrogen, 6 carbon, and 6 oxygen atoms
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Amino acids joining together to make a peptide is a good example of a(n) ________ reaction.
A) synthesis B) decomposition C) exchange D) reversible |
synthesis
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Sucrose is a ________.
A) monosaccharide B) disaccharide C) polysaccharide D) triglyceride |
disaccharide
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Which of the following is not true of proteins?
A) They may be denatured by heat or acidity. B) Some types are called enzymes. C) They appear to be the molecular carriers of the coded hereditary information. D) Their function depends on the three-dimensional shape. |
some types are called enzymes
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A bond in which electrons are shared unequally
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ionic bond
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a bond in which electrons are completely lost or gained by the atoms involved
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nonpolar covalent bond
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a bond in which electrons are shared equally
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hydrogen bond
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a type of bond important in holding polar molecules together
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polar nonconvalent bond
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electrically charged particle due to loss of an electron
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cation
T IS POSITIVE |
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neutral subatomic particle
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neutron
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what is the smallest particle of an element that retains its properties?
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molecule
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smallest particle of a compound that still retains its properties
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atom
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The genetic information is coded in DNA by the ________.
A) regular alteration of sugar and phosphate molecules B) sequence of the nitrogen bases in the nucleotides C) three-dimensional structure of the double helix D) arrangement of the histones |
sequences of the nitrogen bases in the nucleotides
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Salts are always ________.
A) ionic compounds B) single covalent compounds C) double covalent compounds D) hydrogen bonded |
ionic compounds
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What level of protein structure is represented by the coiling of the protein chain backbone into a simple helix?
A) primary structure B) secondary structure C) tertiary structure D) quaternary structure |
secondary structure
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Carbohydrates and proteins are built up from their basic building blocks by the ________.
A) addition of a water molecule between each two units B) addition of a carbon atom between each two units C) removal of a water molecule between each two units D) removal of a nitrogen atom between each two units |
removal of a water molecule between each two units
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The chemical symbol C=C means ________.
A) C equals C B) both atoms are bonded and have zero electrons in the outer orbit C) the atoms are double bonded D) this is an ionic bond with two shared electrons |
the atoms are double bonded
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Keratin and silk are examples of ________, whereas glucose and maltose are examples of ________.
A) proteins; lipids B) proteins; carbohydrates C) carbohydrates; proteins D) nucleic acids; lipids |
proteins; carbohydrates
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A denatured protein differs from a normal protein because it:
A) does not contain amino acids. B) has lost its usual shape. C) is composed of nucleotides. D) contains many disulfide bonds |
has lost its usual shape
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A nucleotide is made of a:
A) phospholipid, sugar, and nitrogen base. B) phosphate, protein, and nitrogen base. C) phosphate, sugar, and nitrogen base. D) phospholipid, sugar, and protein |
phosphate, sugar, and nitrogen base
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Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is an example of a(n):
A) carbohydrate. B) protein. C) lipid. D) nucleotide. E) inorganic molecule |
nucleotide
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Which of the following correctly matches an organic polymer with its monomers, respectively?
A) protein, amino acids B) carbohydrate, polysaccharides C) hydrocarbon, monosaccharides D) lipid, steroids E) DNA, ATP |
protein, amino acids
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An atom's nucleus is composed of:
A) protons only. B) neutrons only. C) protons and electrons. D) protons and neutrons. E) neutrons and electrons |
protons and neutrons
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The formation of ions involves the:
A) sharing of electrons. B) gain or loss of electrons. C) gain or loss of protons. D) sharing of protons. E) gain or loss of neutrons |
gain or loss of electrons
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The hydrogen bond between two water molecules forms because water is:
A) polar. B) nonpolar. C) a liquid. D) a small molecule. E) hydrophobic. |
polar
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If a substance measures 7 on the pH scale, that substance:
A) has equal concentrations of H+ and OH- ions. B) may be lemon juice. C) has a higher concentration of OH- than H+ ions. D) probably lacks OH- ions. E) is basic. |
has equal concentrations of H+ and OH- ions
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The carbohydrate in DNA is:
A) ribose. B) cellulose. C) glucose. D) deoxyribose. E) phosphate. |
deoxyribose
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Which of the following is insoluble in water?
A) olive oil B) glucose C) sucrose D) salt E) amino acids |
olive oil
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The RNA responsible for bringing the amino acids to the "factory" site for protein formation is ________.
A) rRNA B) mRNA C) tRNA D) ssRNA |
tRNA
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Which of the following describes the plasma membrane?
A) a single-layered membrane that surrounds the nucleus of the cell B) a double layer of protein enclosing the plasma C) the phospholipid bilayer surrounding the cell D) a membrane composed of tiny shelves or cristae |
the phospholipid bilayer surrounding the cell
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Which structures are fingerlike projections that greatly increase the absorbing surface of cells?
A) stereocilia B) microvilli C) cilia D) flagella |
microvilli
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Which of the following statements is correct regarding diffusion?
A) The rate of diffusion is independent of temperature. B) The greater the concentration of gradient, the faster the rate of diffusion. C) Molecular weight of a substance does not affect the rate of diffusion. D) The lower the temperature, the faster the diffusion rate |
the greater the concentration of gradient, the faster the rate of diffusion
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If cells are placed in a hypertonic solution containing a solute to which the membrane is impermeable, what could happen?
A) The cells will swell and ultimately burst. B) The cells will lose water and shrink. C) The cells will shrink at first, but will later reach equilibrium with the surrounding solution and return to their original condition. D) The cells will show no change due to diffusion of both solute and solvent. |
the cells will swell and ultimately burst
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Which of the following is a function of a plasma membrane protein?
A) circulating antibody B) molecular transport through the membrane C) forms a lipid bilayer D) oxygen transport |
molecular transport through the membrane
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Which of the following statements is correct regarding RNA?
A) Messenger RNA, transfer RNA, and ribosomal RNA play a role in protein synthesis. B) If the base sequence of DNA is ATTGCA, the messenger RNA template will be UCCAGU. C) There is exactly one specific type of mRNA for each amino acid. D) rRNA is always attached to the rough ER. |
messenger RNA, transfer RNA, and ribosomal RNA play a role in protein synthesis
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. If the nucleotide or base sequence of the DNA strand used as a template for messenger RNA synthesis is ACGTT, then what would be the sequence of bases in the corresponding mRNA?
A) TGCAA B) ACGTT C) UGCAA D) GUACC |
UGCAA
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Passive membrane transport processes include ________.
A) movement of a substance down its concentration gradient B) movement of a substance from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration C) consumption of ATP D) the use of transport proteins when moving substances from areas of low to high concentration |
movement of a substance down its concentration gradient
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Mitochondria ________.
A) are always the same shape B) are single-membrane structures involved in the breakdown of ATP C) contain some of the DNA and RNA code necessary for their own function D) synthesize proteins for use outside the cell |
contains some of the DNA and RNA code necessary for their own finctions
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DNA replication ________.
A) can also be called mitosis B) is spontaneous, not requiring enzyme action C) takes place during interphase of the cell cycle D) occurs only in translationally active areas |
takes place during interphase of the cell cycle
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Which of the following is a concept of the cell theory?
A) Simple cells can arise spontaneously from rotting vegetation. B) A cell is the basic structural and functional unit of living organisms. C) The subcellular organelle is the basic unit of life. D) Only higher organisms are composed of cells. |
a cell is the basic structural and functional unit of living organisms
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The main component of the cytosol is ________.
A) proteins B) sugars C) salts D) water |
water
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A codon can best be defined as ________.
A) a three-base triplet that specifies a particular amino acid B) noncoding segments of DNA up to 100,000 nucleotides long C) a segment of DNA that carries the instructions for one polypeptide chain D) an RNA messenger that codes for a particular polypeptide |
a three-base triplet that specifies a particular amino acid
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If a tRNA had an AGC anticodon, it could attach to a(n) ________ mRNA codon.
A) AUG B) UCG C) TCG D) UGA |
UCG
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Which of the following would not be a constituent of a plasma membrane?
A) glycolipids B) messenger RNA C) glycoproteins D) phospholipids |
messenger RNA
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Which statement is the most correct regarding transcription/translation?
A) The nucleotide sequence in a mRNA codon is an exact copy of the DNA triplet that coded for it. B) The nucleotide sequence in a mRNA codon is an exact copy of the DNA triplet that coded for it except that uracil is substituted for thymine. C) The nucleotide sequence in a tRNA anticodon is an exact copy of the DNA triplet that coded for it. D) The nucleotide sequence in a tRNA anticodon is an exact copy of the DNA triplet that coded for it except that uracil is substituted for thymine. |
the nucleotide sequence in a tRNA anticodon is an exact copy of the DNA triplet that coded for it except that uracil is substituted for thymine
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In the maintenance of the cell resting membrane potential ________.
A) extracellular sodium levels are high B) cells are more permeable to Na+ than K+ C) the steady state involves only passive processes in all cells D) the inside of the cell is positive relative to its outside |
extracellular sodium levels are high
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Which statement most accurately describes the interactions among ER, ribosomes, and Golgi bodies in exporting protein from the cell?
A) Golgi bodies manufacture proteins, which travel through the ER to be packaged by the ribosomes for export. B) ER manufactures proteins, which are carried by ribosomes to the Golgi bodies for export. C) ER manufactures proteins, which are carried by the Golgi bodies to the ribosomes for export. D) Ribosomes manufacture proteins, which travel through the ER and are packaged by the Golgi bodies for export. E) Ribosomes make proteins that travel through the Golgi bodies to the ER, which exports them. |
ribosomes manufacture proteins, which travel through the ER and are packaged by the Golgi bodies for export
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plays a role in the synthesis of steroid-based hormones and proteins
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endoplasmic reticulum
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the actual site of protein sythesis
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ribosomes
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hollow cytoskeletal elements that act as organizers for the cytoskeleton
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microtubules
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dense spherical bodies in the nucleus that are the sythesis site for ribosomal RNA
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nucleoli
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Houses DNA and RNA
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nucleus
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. The urinary bladder is protected from leaking due to cell-to-cell junctions called:
A) desmosomes. B) tight junctions. C) gap junctions. D) plasmodesmata |
tight junctions
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All the following are important functions of the cytoskeleton EXCEPT:
A) storage of food molecules. B) assistance during cell division. C) movement of organelles. D) maintenance of shape. E) maintenance of organization in the cell |
storage of food molecules
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Which of the following types of membrane proteins are responsible for conveying external messages such as those sent by a hormone signal?
A) transport proteins B) recognition proteins C) enzymes D) receptor proteins E) attachment proteins |
receptor proteins
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What is active transport?
A) diffusion of molecules within a cell B) movement of molecules into or out of a cell against a concentration gradient C) movement of molecules into or out of a cell down a concentration gradient D) movement of molecules into or out of a cell using special proteins and not requiring an expenditure of energy E) rapid movement of molecules in a solution |
a movement of molecules into or out of a cell against a concentration gradient
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Replication of DNA
A) produces RNA molecules B) produces new proteins C) produces two molecules, each of which is “half-new” and “half-old” DNA D) generates excessive DNA, which eventually causes the nucleus to divide E) is too complex to characterize |
produces two molecules, each of which is "half-new" and "half-old" DNA
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In mitosis, chromosomes are aligned at the cell equator during
A) anaphase B) telophase C) interphase D) prophase E) metaphase |
metaphase
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. DNA is duplicated during what portion of the cell cycle?
A) S B) M C) D D) G1 E) G2 |
S
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What is the function of the histones that are found in a chromosome?
A) They bind nucleotides together to form a single strand of DNA. B) They contain the genes that code for various traits. C) They bind the DNA into a supercoiled structure. D) They hold the DNA strands together in a form called the double helix. |
they bind the DNA into a supercoiled structure
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Which of the following is an energy-requiring mode of transport that brings substances into a cell?
A) facilitated diffusion B) osmosis C) receptor-mediated endocytosis D) simple diffusion |
receptor-mediated endocytosis
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. In reference to diffusion, "passive" really means:
A) without a membrane. B) in the air. C) no gradient. D) very slowly. E) no energy required |
no energy required
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Organized groups of cells (plus their intercellular substances) that have a common purpose form a(n) ________.
A) organ B) tissue C) organism D) organ system |
tissue
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A multilayered epithelium with flat cells at its surface would be classified as ________.
A) simple cuboidal B) simple squamous C) transitional D) stratified squamous |
stratified squamous
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Which of these is not considered connective tissue?
A) cartilage B) adipose C) muscle D) blood |
muscle
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The first step in tissue repair involves ________.
A) replacement of destroyed tissue by the same kind of cells B) proliferation of fibrous connective tissue C) inflammation D) formation of scar tissue |
inflammation
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What are the three main components of connective tissue?
A) ground substance, fibers, and cells B) alveoli, fibrous capsule, and secretory cells C) collagen, elastin, and reticular fibers D) fibroblasts, chondroblasts, and osteoblasts |
ground substance, fibers, and cells
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Mesenchymal cells are most commonly found in ________ connective tissue.
A) areolar B) dense regular C) embryonic D) reticular |
embryonic
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These membranes line body cavities that are open to the exterior, such as the digestive and respiratory tracts.
A) ciliaous membranes B) cutaneous membranes C) peristalsis membranes D) serous membranes E) mucous membranes |
mucous membranes
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A single layer epithelium with “box” shaped cells would be classified as
A) pseudostratified columnar B) simple cuboidal C) simple squamous D) stratified squamous E) pseudostratified squamous |
simple cuboidal
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Which of the following relationships is FALSE?
A) cell membrane-boundary between extracellular and intracellular B) lysosome-chief site of lipid synthesis C) nucleus-genetic information D) ribosomes-site of protein synthesis E) mitochondria-formation of ATP |
lysomsome-chief site of lipid sythesis
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The bacterium Vibrio cholerae releases a toxin that blocks a channel protein in the membranes of cells that line the intestine. This toxin prevents the movement of positively charged sodium ions out of the intestine and into these cells. If the sodium ions could not move into the cells and build up in the intestines, how would this affect the movement of water?
A) Water would leave the intestines and enter the cells by diffusion. B) Water would leave the intestines and enter the cells by osmosis. C) Water would leave the cells and enter the intestines by diffusion. D) Water would leave the cells and enter the intestines by osmosis. E) The movement of water would not be affected. |
water would leave the cells and enter the intestines by osmosis
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___________ is the process of making polypeptide chains from the “instructions” of RNA. This takes place in the ___________
A) transcription, cytoplasm B) replication, ribosomes C) translation, nucleus D) translation, cytoplasm E) replication, nucleus |
translation, cytoplasm
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The nitrogenous base found in DNA but not in RNA is
A) adenine B) cytosine C) guanine D) uracil E) thymine |
thymine
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Which of these is NOT a mechanism by which molecules cross plasma membranes?
A) diffusion B) glycolysis C) active transport D) osmosis E) endocytosis |
glycolysis
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Peroxisomes ________.
A) are also called microbodies, and contain acid hydrolases B) are able to detoxify substances by enzymatic action C) function to digest particles ingested by endocytosis D) sometimes function as secretory vesicles |
are able to detoxify substances by enzymatic action
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Some hormones enter cells via ________.
A) exocytosis B) endocytosis C) pinocytosis D) receptor-mediated endocytosis |
receptor-mediated endocytosis
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the most abundant cells of the epidermis
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keratinocytes
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the protein found in the epidermis that is responsible for toughening the skin is ____.
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keratin
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cells plus a disc-like sensory nerve ending that functions as a sensory receptor for touch
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merkel disc
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skin macrophages that help activate the immune system
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epidermal dendritic cells
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cells remnants of the stratum corneum are _____.
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cornified keratinocytes
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Select the most correct statement concerning skin cancer.
A) Most tumors that arise on the skin are malignant. B) Squamous cell carcinomas arise from the stratum corneum. C) Basal cell carcinomas are the least common but most malignant. D) Melanomas are rare but must be removed quickly to prevent them from metastasizing. |
melanomas are rare but must be removed quickly to prevent them from metastasizing
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A needle would pierce the epidermal layers of the forearm in which order?
A) basale, spinosum, granulosum, corneum B) basale, spinosum, granulosum, lucidum, corneum C) granulosum, basale, spinosum, corneum D) corneum, granulosum, spinosum, basale |
corneum, granulosum, spinosum, basale
BOY SCOUTS GROW LIKE CORN |
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The ________ gland is a modified sudoriferous gland that secretes wax.
A) eccrine B) apocrine C) ceruminous D) mammary |
ceruminous
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The composition of the secretions of the eccrine glands is ________.
A) primarily uric acid B) 99% water, sodium chloride, trace amounts of wastes, and vitamin C C) fatty substances, proteins, antibodies, and trace amounts of minerals and vitamins D) metabolic wastes |
fatty substances, proteins, antibodies, and trace amounts of minerals and vitamins
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. Keratinocytes are an important epidermal cell because they ________.
A) produce a fibrous protein that gives the skin much of its protective properties B) are able to transform from living cells to plasma membranes and still function C) are able to reproduce sporadically as needed D) are a powerful defense against damaging UV rays |
produce a fibrous protein that gives the skin much of its protective properties
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The epidermis consists of five layers of cells, each layer with a distinct role to play in the health, well-being, and functioning of the skin. Which of the following layers is responsible for rapid cell division and replacement?
A) stratum corneum B) stratum granulosum C) stratum basale D) stratum lucidum |
stratum basale
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The dermis has two major layers; which of the following constitutes 80% of the dermis and is responsible for the tension lines in the skin?
A) the reticular layer B) the subcutaneous layer C) the hypodermal layer D) the papillary layer |
reticular layer
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Apocrine glands, which begin to function at puberty under hormonal influence, seem to play little role in thermoregulation. Where would we find these glands in the human body?
A) in all body regions and buried deep in the dermis B) beneath the flexure lines in the body C) in the axillary and anogenital area D) in the palms of the hands and soles of the feet |
in the axillary and anogenital area
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The papillary layer of the dermis is connective tissue heavily invested with blood vessels. The superficial surface has structures called:
A) dermal papillae. B) hair follicles. C) ceruminous glands. D) reticular papillae |
dermal papillae
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An epidermal dendritic cell is a specialized ________.
A) squamous epithelial cell B) phagocytic cell C) nerve cell D) melanocyte |
phagocytic cell
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Which of the following statements best describes what fingernails actually are?
A) Fingernails are a modification of the epidermis. B) Fingernails are derived from osseous tissue. C) Fingernails are extensions of the carpal bones. D) Fingernails are a separate tissue from the skin, formed from a different embryonic layer. |
fingernails are a modification of the epidermis
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Sudoriferous (sweat) glands are categorized as two distinct types. Which of the following are the two types of sweat glands?
A) sebaceous and merocrine B) mammary and ceruminous C) eccrine and apocrine D) holocrine and mammary |
eccrine and apocrine
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Which cells are not part of the integumentary system?
A) melanocytes B) keratinocytes C) merkel D) osteoblasts |
osteoblasts
OSTEO= BONE |
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Burns are devastating and debilitating because of loss of fluids and electrolytes from the body. How do physicians estimate the extent of burn damage associated with such dangerous fluid loss?
A) by measuring urinary output and fluid intake B) by observing the tissues that are usually moist C) through blood analysis D) by using the "rule of nines" |
by using the "rule of nines"
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The sebaceous glands are simple alveolar glands that secrete a substance known as sebum. The secretion of sebum is stimulated ________.
A) by high temperatures B) when the air temperature drops C) by hormones, especially androgens D) as a protective coating when one is swimming |
by hormones, especially androgens
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Which of the following statements indicates the way in which the body's natural defenses protect the skin from the effects of UV damage?
A) The skin is protected by the synthesis of three pigments that contribute to the skin's color. B) Carotene, which accumulates in the stratum corneum and hypodermal adipose tissue, is synthesized in large amounts in the presence of sunlight. C) The skin is protected by increasing the number of epidermal dendritic cells, which help to activate the immune system. D) Prolonged exposure to the sun induces melanin production and dispersion, which in turn acts as a natural sunscreen |
prolonged exposure to the sun induces melanin production and dispersion, which in turn acts as a natural sunscreen
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The design of a person's epidermal ridges is determined by the manner in which the papillae rest upon the dermal ridges to produce the specific pattern known as handprints, footprints, and fingerprints. Which of the following statements is true regarding these prints or ridges?
A) Every human being has the same pattern of ridges. B) They are genetically determined, therefore unique to each person. C) Because we are constantly shedding epithelial cells, these ridges are changing daily. D) Identical twins never have the same pattern of ridges. |
they are genetically determined, therefore unique to each person
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________ burns injure the epidermis and the upper regions of the dermis.
A) second degree B) first degree C) fourth degree D) third degree |
second degree
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. During this period, skin epidermal replacement slows and skin drys.
A) fetal B) old age C) young adult D) adolescence |
old age
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The integumentary system is protected by the action of cells that arise from bone marrow and migrate to the epidermis. Which of the following cells serve this function?
A) cells found in the stratum spinosum B) macrophages called epidermal dendritic cells C) keratinocytes, because they are so versatile D) tactile cells |
macrophages called epidermal dendritic cells
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The cell responsible for secreting the matrix of bone is the ________.
A) osteocyte B) osteoblast C) osteoclast D) chondrocyte |
osteocytes
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A fracture in the shaft of a bone would be a break in the ________.
A) epiphysis B) metaphysis C) diaphysis D) articular cartilage |
dyaphisis
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The term diploë refers to the ________.
A) double-layered nature of the connective tissue covering the bone B) fact that most bones are formed of two types of bone tissue C) internal layer of spongy bone in flat bones D) two types of marrow found within most bones |
internal layer of spongy bone in flat bone
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Factors in preventing (or delaying) osteoporosis include ________.
A) drinking soda B) increase weight-bearing exercise C) increasing dietary vitamin C D) decreasing exposure to the sun |
increasing weight-bearing exercise
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Which structure allows the diaphysis of the bone to increase in length until early childhood, as well as shaping the articular surfaces?
A) lacunae B) Haversian system C) epiphyseal plate D) epiphyseal line |
epiphyseal plate
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The most abundant skeletal cartilage type is ________.
A) hyaline B) elastic C) fibrocartilage D) epiphyseal |
hyaline
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The periosteum is secured to the underlying bone by dense connective tissue called ________.
A) Volkmann's canals B) a bony matrix with hyaline cartilage C) perforating (Sharpey's) fibers D) the struts of bone known as spicules |
perforating (sharpey's) fibers
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For intramembranous ossification to take place, which of the following is necessary?
A) A bone collar forms around the cartilage model. B) An ossification center forms in the fibrous connective tissue. C) The cartilage matrix begins to deteriorate. D) A medullary cavity forms |
an ossification center forms in the fibrous connective tissue
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Bones are constantly undergoing resorption for various reasons. Which of the following cells accomplishes this process?
A) osteoclast B) osteocyte C) osteoblast D) stem cell |
osteoclast
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Wolff's law is concerned with ________.
A) vertical growth of bones being dependent on age B) the thickness and shape of a bone being dependent on stresses placed upon it C) the function of bone being dependent on shape D) the diameter of the bone being dependent on the ratio of osteoblasts to osteoclasts |
the thickness and shape of a bone being dependent on stresses placed upon it
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Which hormone increases osteoclast activity to release more calcium ions into the bloodstream?
A) calcitonin B) thyroxine C) parathyroid hormone D) estrogen |
parathyroid hormone
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Spongy bones are made up of a framework called ________.
A) osteons B) lamellar bone C) trabeculae D) osseous lamellae |
trabeculae
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Osteogenesis is the process of ________.
A) making a cartilage model of the fetal bone B) bone destruction to liberate calcium C) bone formation D) making collagen fibers for calcified cartilage |
bone destruction to liberate calcium
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A central (Haversian) canal may contain arteries, veins, capillaries, lymph vessels, and ________ fibers.
A) collagen B) calcium C) trabeculae D) osteon E) nerve |
nerve
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. Muscle tissue has all of the following properties except ________.
A) secretion B) contractility C) extensibility D) excitability |
secretion
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serves as an actual "trigger" for muscle contraction by removing the inhibition of the troponin molecules
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calcium ions
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a neurotransmitter released at motor end plates by the axon terminals
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acetylcholine (ACh)
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activate synaptic vesicles in axon terminals
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calcium ions
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used to convert ADP to ATP by transfer of a high-energy phosphate group. A reserve high-energy compound.
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creatine phosphate
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drestroys ACh
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acetylcholinesterase
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What is the role of tropomyosin in skeletal muscles?
A) Tropomyosin is the name of a contracting unit. B) Tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the myosin binding sites on the actin molecules. C) Tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the actin binding sites on the myosin molecules. D) Tropomyosin is the receptor for the motor neuron neurotransmitter. |
tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the myosin binding sites on the actin molecules
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The strongest muscle contractions are normally achieved by ________.
A) increasing stimulus above the threshold B) increasing stimulus above the treppe stimulus C) increasing the stimulation up to the maximal stimulus D) recruiting small and medium muscle fibers |
increasing the stimulation up to the maximal stimulus
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Excitation-contraction coupling requires which of the following substances?
A) Ca2+ and ATP B) Ca2+ only C) ATP only D) ATP and glucose |
Ca2+ and ATP
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Myoglobin ________.
A) breaks down glycogen B) is a protein involved in the direct phosphorylation of ADP C) stores oxygen in muscle cells D) produces the end plate potential |
stores oxygen in muscle cells
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What structure in skeletal muscle cells functions in calcium storage?
A) sarcoplasmic reticulum B) mitochondria C) intermediate filament network D) myofibrillar network |
sarcoplasmic reticulum
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Immediately following the arrival of the stimulus at a skeletal muscle cell there is a short period called the ________ period during which the events of excitation-contraction coupling occur.
A) contraction B) relaxation C) latent D) refractory |
latent
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Creatine phosphate functions in the muscle cell by ________.
A) forming a temporary chemical compound with myosin B) forming a chemical compound with actin C) inducing a conformational change in the myofilaments D) storing energy that will be transferred to ADP to resynthesize ATP |
storing energy that will be transferred to ADP to resynthesize ATP
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The major function of the sarcoplasmic reticulum in muscle contraction is to ________.
A) make and store phosphocreatine B) synthesize actin and myosin myofilaments C) provide a source of myosin for the contraction process D) regulate intracellular calcium concentration |
regulate intercellular calcium concentration
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Which of the following are composed of myosin?
A) thick filaments B) thin filaments C) all myofilaments D) Z discs |
thick filaments
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Which of the following surrounds the individual muscle cell?
A) perimysium B) endomysium C) epimysium D) fascicle |
endomysium
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. During muscle contraction, myosin cross bridges attach to which active sites?
A) myosin filaments B) actin filaments C) Z discs D) thick filaments |
actin filaments
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What is the functional unit of a skeletal muscle called?
A) a sarcomere B) a myofilament C) a myofibril D) the sarcoplasmic reticulum |
a sarcomere
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What is the role of calcium ions in muscle contraction?
A) form hydroxyapatite crystals B) reestablish glycogen stores C) bind to regulatory sites on troponin to remove contraction inhibition D) increase levels of myoglobin |
bind to regulatory sites on troponin to remove contraction inhibition
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During vigorous exercise, there may be insufficient oxygen available to completely break down pyruvic acid for energy. As a result, the pyruvic acid is converted to ________.
A) a strong base B) stearic acid C) hydrochloric acid D) lactic acid |
lactic acid
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In an isotonic contraction, the muscle ________.
A) changes in length and moves the "load" B) does not change in length but increases tension C) never converts pyruvate to lactate D) rapidly resynthesizes creatine phosphate and ATP |
changes in length and moves the 'load"
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The muscle cell membrane is called the ________.
A) endomysium B) sarcolemma C) perimysium D) epimysium |
sarcolemma
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Which of the following is the correct sequence of events for muscle contractions?
A) motor neuron action potential, neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, ATP-driven power stroke, sliding of myofilaments B) neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, motor neuron action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, sliding of myofilaments, ATP-driven power stroke C) muscle cell action potential, neurotransmitter release, ATP-driven power stroke, calcium ion release from SR, sliding of myofilaments D) neurotransmitter release, motor neuron action potential, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, ATP-driven power stroke |
motor neuron action potential, neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, ATP- driven power stroke, sliding of myofilaments
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The mechanism of contraction in smooth muscle is different from skeletal muscle in that ________.
A) actin and myosin interact by the sliding filament mechanism B) the trigger for contraction is a rise in intracellular calcium C) the site of calcium regulation differs D) ATP is involved |
the site of calcium regulation differs
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An anaerobic metabolic pathway that results in the production of two net ATPs per glucose plus two pyruvic acid molecules is ________.
A) the citric acid cycle B) glycolysis C) hydrolysis D) the electron transport chain |
glycolysis
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The sliding filament model of contraction involves ________.
A) actin and myosin sliding past each other and partially overlapping B) the shortening of thick filaments so that thin filaments slide past C) actin and myosin shortening but not sliding past each other D) the Z discs sliding over the myofilaments |
actin and myosin sliding past each other and partially overlapping
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After nervous stimulation stops, what prevents ACh in the synaptic cleft from continuing to stimulate contraction?
A) calcium ions returning to the terminal cisternae B) the tropomyosin blocking the myosin once full contraction is achieved C) acetylcholinesterase destroying the ACh D) the action potential stops going down the overloaded T tubules |
acetylcholinesterase destroying the ACh
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In smooth muscle contraction, calcium ions directly activate ________.
A) calmodulin B) myosin C) light chain kinase D) ATP E) SR |
calmodulin
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ACh binds to gated proteins in the membrane of skeletal muscle cells. The gate opens and allows the flow of
A) potassium ions B) calcium ions C) sodium ions D) sodium and calcium ions E) potassium and sodium ions |
potassium and sodium ions
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