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414 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What does pancreatic lipase break down and where does this happen |
Breaks down Triglycerides (fats) into absorb-able form in the small intestine |
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What activates Pancreatic lipase |
Bile salts |
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Where is insulin made |
pancreas |
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What does pancreatic amylase break down and where |
Hydrolizes starch to maltose in small intestine |
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What 3 things are proteins broken down to |
Amino acids, dipeptides, and tripeptides |
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What are fats broken down to |
fatty acids/triglycerides |
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What are starches/sugars broken down to |
glucose |
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What are hepatocytes |
Liver cells |
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3 functions of bile |
1. Bile buffers raise pH in duodenum 2. Bile salts and lecithin emulsify fats into small droplets (micelles) 3. Bile salts activate pancreatic lipase |
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The intestinal tract is highly vascular True or False |
True |
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What attaches the jejunem to the cecum |
the ileum |
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What is the main function of the jejunem |
Absorbing nutrients |
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Where SPECIFICALLY in the small intestine does digestion occur |
At the brush border of intestinal epithelium |
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What do oligopeptidases break down |
Polypeptide chains |
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What do maltase, sucrase, and lactase break down into |
Glucose |
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How many glucose molecules are gained when maltase hydrolizes maltose |
2 glucose molecules |
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What 3 things are broken down in the small intestine |
Proteins, fats, and sugars |
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Sodium is required to absorb amino acids True or False |
True |
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3 stages of fat digestion |
1. Bile salts microemulsify fatty acids into micelles 2. Fat micelles are water soluble and can be absorbed at the brush border 3. Fat micelles are either broken down further in the cell or stored as adipose |
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What type of digestion occurs in the large intestine |
Microbial digestion |
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What is the byproduct of microbial digestion |
VFA's (Volatile Fatty Acids) |
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Where are VFA's absorbed |
In the cecum |
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What percentage of energy is provided to horses from VFA's |
About 75%! |
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What is the main thing absorbed by the large intestine |
Water |
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How does a bird's esophagus differ from other mammals |
Larger diameter (no teeth) |
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What is the purpose of a bird's crop |
To store and moisten food for young |
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What is the true glandular stomach of a bird |
The proventriculus |
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Function of the gizzard (AKA Ventriculus) |
Mechanically grinds food with ingested pebbles, mixes food with enzymes |
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The term for the external opening of the cloaca |
The vent |
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What is the bursa of fabricus (birds) |
A diverticulum on dorsal wall of cloaca |
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What develops in the bursa of fabricus |
B lymphocytes |
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The first three stomach chambers in ruminants are glandular True or False |
False |
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The omasum in a ruminant is important for absorption of what 2 things |
Water and vitamins |
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In a hindgut fermentor the cecum and colon make up what percent of digestive tract |
about 60% |
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Signs of colic |
Rolling, Flank Gazing, Rubbing abdomen with leg, Increased TPR's, Anorexia, Pale/Tacky MM's |
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How many lobes does the liver have |
4 lobes |
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The function of hepatic stellate cells (liver) |
Storage and fatty acid regulation |
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The function of liver endothelial cells |
Structural cells that contain lysosomes |
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Function of the liver's Kupffer cells |
Liver macrophages |
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Define hepatitis |
Inflammation of the liver causing damage |
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Define cirrhosis |
Hepatic fibrosis due to necrosis |
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Define hepatic lipidosis (fatty liver dz) |
Fats in the bloodstream accumulate in the liver |
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What is bilirubin |
A waste product of RBC breakdown |
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How is bilirubin removed from the body |
Albumin carries bilirubin to liver, excreted in feces (gives it brown color) |
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The pituitary gland is located at the hypothalamus in the brain True or False |
True |
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What is the main function of hormones |
To regulate organs and cells |
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List the 5 glands |
Pituitary, Parathyroid, Thyroid, Pancreas, Adrenal |
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7 hormones produced/secreted by Anterior pituitary gland |
1. Growth Hormone (GH) 2. Prolactin 3. Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH) 4. Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH) 5. Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) 6. Leutenizing Hormone (LH) 7. Melanocyte Stimulating Hormone (MSH) |
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4 Functions of Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) |
1. Growth/development of follicles 2. Oocyst (egg) production 3. Estrogen production 4. Promotes spermatogenisis in males |
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3 Functions of Leutenizing Hormone (LH) |
1. Increased levels stimulates ovulation 2. Development of corpus luteum 3. Stimulates cells that produce testosterone in males |
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Function of Melanocyte Stimulating Hormone |
Color change control in fish/reptiles/amphibians |
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What is the corpus luteum |
The glandular portion of the ovary, produces hormones that maintain pregnancy (progesterone) |
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Function of prolactin |
Secretion and production of milk |
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How are levels of prolactin maintained |
Nipple stimulation |
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3 Functions of Growth Hormone (GH) |
1. Promotion of bone/muscle 2. Regulation of proteins (anabolism) 3. Catabolism of fats |
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2 Functions of Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH) |
1. Stimulates growth and development of thyroid gland 2. Thyroid hormone production |
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2 Hormones secreted by Posterior Pituitary Gland |
1. Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) 2. Oxytocin |
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Function of Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) |
When they hypothalamus detects dehydration, this hormone is released, causing the kidneys to absorb more water |
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2 Functions of Oxytocin |
1. Uterine contractions for fertilization/parturition 2. Milk let-down |
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Where is the parathyroid gland located |
On the cranial portion of the thyroid gland |
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Main function of the parathyroid gland |
Calcium regulation |
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What organ does the parathyroid gland "talk to" to regulation calcium |
The kidneys: retain, or withdraw Ca+ from bones |
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Where is the adrenal gland located |
Cranial to the kidneys |
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2 Hormones secreted by Adrenal Gland Medulla |
Epinephrine and Norepinephrine (fight or flight) |
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3 Main functions of Adrenal Gland Cortex |
Glucose regulation, retention/absorption of minerals, sex hormones (estrogen - males, testosterone - females) |
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Main function of ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone) |
Growth, development, and stimulation of adrenal gland |
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Where is ACTH produced/secreted |
Anterior pituitary gland |
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3 Hormones secreted by the thyroid gland |
1. T3 2. T4 3. Calcitonin |
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Function of T3 and T4 hormones |
Heat/energy production and Anabolism and catabolism of proteins, carbs, and fats |
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Function of Calcitonin (hormone) |
Maintains blood Calcium levels |
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How does the liver know when to make or store glucose |
The pancreas tells it to |
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2 Hormones secreted by pancreas |
Insulin and Glucagon |
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What is the function of Insulin |
Helps glucose be absorbed into cells |
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What is the main function of Glucagon |
Increases BLOOD glucose levels (to help glucose get to the brain) |
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2 diseases caused by Adrenal Cortex dysfunction |
1. Hyperadrenocorticism 2. Hypoadrenocorticism |
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3 Liver Enzymes |
1. AST 2. ALT 3. Alkaline Phosphotase |
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Basic functions of liver enzymes |
Break down proteins, amino acids, and phosphates |
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6 functions of hepatocytes (liver cells) |
1. Regulates cholesterol levels 2. Synthesis of non essential amino acids 3. Blood clotting protein production 4. Bile production 5. Filtering toxins 6. Stores glucose in form of glycogen |
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4 Main Functions of the Liver |
Filtration, Bile production, Blood protein production, Glucose storage |
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What 4 things does bile contain |
1. Bile salts 2. Cholesterol 3. Lecithin 4. Electrolytes |
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Where are bile salts MADE |
Liver |
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Where are bile salts stored and secreted |
The gallbladder |
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Main function of the kidneys |
Filtration, reabsorption, secretion = homeostasis |
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Define diuresis |
The production of urine to remove excess water |
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Define oliguria |
Decrease in urine excretion |
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Define Anuria |
No urine production = emergency! |
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The fluid balance, or amount of urine produced in the kidneys is controlled by what 2 hormones |
ADH antidiuretic hormone, and Aldosterone (adrenal gland) |
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Where is Aldosterone produced |
Adrenal gland |
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What hormone is secreted by the kidneys |
Eyrythropoieten (for RBC production) |
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What is the renal capsule |
The membrane around the kidney (protection) |
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Renal cortex and medulla main function |
Filtration |
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What is the renal hilus |
The area of the kidney where ureters exit and other vessils enter/exit the kidney |
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What is the renal pelvis |
The funnel shaped cavity that receives the urine drained from the nephrons |
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What is the nephron |
The main functional unit (filter) of the kidney |
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List the 5 components of the nephron in ORDER |
1. Glomerulus 2. Bowman's Capsule 3. Proximal Convoluted tubule 4. Loop of Henle 5. Distal Convoluted tubule |
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Function of Glomerulus and Bowman's capsule |
Mechanically filters blood |
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Function of proximal convoluted tubule |
Reabsorbs 75% of water, salts, glucose, and amino acids |
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Function of the Loop of Henle |
Slows things down (concentration gradient) to allow distal tubule to sort through what needs to be excreted |
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Function of distal convoluted tubule |
Secretion of H ions, potassium, and drugs (gets rid of wastes) |
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Plasma from the blood in the glomerulus is forced where |
Bowman's capsule |
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What is glomular filtrate |
plasma with the proteins filtered out |
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2 Signs of glomerular problems |
Increased protein levels in the urine, and RBC's in the urine |
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Urea is what |
Nitrogenous wastes |
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What part of the nephron removes/secretes wastes |
The distal convoluted tubule |
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Name the 3 layers of the ureters |
Fibrous (outer, protective), Muscular, and Epithelial (inner layer) |
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How does urine move through the ureters to the bladder |
By peristalsis (smooth muscle contractions in ONE direction only) |
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How do we know we have to urinate |
Stretch receptors in the bladder send signal to spinal cord and impulse is sent for bladder muscles to contract |
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What 2 things does a refractometer measure in the urine |
Total proteins and Specific gravity |
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Urination AKA |
Micturition |
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Define polyuria |
Increase in urine frequency and Increase in urine volume |
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Define Pollakiuria |
Increase in urine frequency and Decrease in urine volume (think UTI) |
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Define Dysuria |
Difficult or painful urination |
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Define hematuria |
Blood in the urine |
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Normal urine should contain bilirubin and proteins True or False |
False |
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4 things to look for in gross exam of urine |
1. Color 2. Odor 3. Amount 4. Turbidity (clear/cloudy, chunks) |
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Nitrates in urine are a product of what |
protein metabolism |
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List 3 VFA's (Volatile Fatty Acids) |
1. Acetic acid 2. Propionic acid 3. Butyric acid |
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What causes Diabetes Insipidus |
Deficiency of Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) |
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Sign of Diabetes Insipidus |
Pu/PD (Polyuria/Polydypsia) |
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Hyperthyroidism is more common in cats than dogs True or False |
True |
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Hypothyroidism is more common in cats than dogs True or False |
False (more common in dogs) |
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5 possible causes of PU/PD (Polyuria/Polydypsia) |
1. UTI 2. Diabetes Insipidus 3. Diabetes Mellitus 4. Kidney stones (cats) 5. Kidney failure |
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Where in the kidney are the renal pyramids located |
Within the medulla |
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What part of the uterus is made up of smooth muscle |
Myometrium |
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When are animals most at risk for hypocalcemia |
During lactation |
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What is Addison's disease |
Condition caused by a deficiency of Adrenocortical hormones |
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What does BUN stand for |
Blood Urea Nitrogen Test |
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How is a BUN Measured |
Urea concentration in serum |
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How are concentrations of BUN expressed (measurement used) |
mg/dL (milligrams per decoliter) |
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What does a BUN test tell us |
About glomerulus function and filtration rate |
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Approximately how much filtered urea is reabsorbed in the blood |
40% |
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What does protein in the urine mean |
Leaky glomerulus (large holes in the filter) |
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What does increased BUN level mean |
Clogged glomerulus |
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Where are the ovaries located |
Caudal to the kidneys |
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How are the ovaries suspended to the dorsal wall |
Broad ligament |
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Ovaries are considered reproductive and endocrine organs True or False |
True |
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What 2 things do follicles consist of |
Gamete and granulosa cells |
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What do granulosa cells do |
produce hormones |
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How are granulosa cells produced (where) |
By the outer, germinal layer of ovary |
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Where does fertilization take place |
The oviduct |
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How does the oviduct carry ova to the uterus |
Ciliated epithelial cells create a microcurrent |
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What creates the "environment" for fertilization |
Epithelial cell secretions |
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Name the 3 layers of the uterine wall |
Endometrium, Myometrium, Mesometrium |
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What layer of the uterine wall does the placenta attach |
Endometrium |
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The smooth muscle layer of the uterine wall that expells the fetus |
Myometrium |
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Serosal surface of the uterine wall that continues as the broad ligament |
Mesometrium |
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Which animals have a Discoid placental attachment |
Primates |
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Which animals have a Cotyledonary placental attachment |
Ruminants |
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Which animals have a Zonary placental placement |
Dogs/cats |
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What type of animals have a Diffuse placental attachment |
Horses/pigs |
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3 External structures of female reproductive system |
Vulva, labia, clitoris |
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When does ovarian activity and mammary development begin |
puberty |
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What is milk producing tissue called |
Alveoli |
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Which hormone stimulates formation of milk duct system |
Estrogen |
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Which hormone stimulates production of milk production tissue |
Progesterone |
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What is the milk production tissue called |
alveoli |
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Onset of puberty dogs/cats |
6 months |
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Onset of puberty equine |
1 - 1 1/2 years |
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Onset of Ruminant puberty |
Around 1 year |
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What is PMSG |
Pregnant Mare Serum Gonadotropin (pregnancy testing in mares) |
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2 ways to diagnose pregnancy in Bovine |
Ultrasound and Rectal palpation |
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Bovine pregnancy ULTRASOUND diagnosis, how many days |
after 22 days |
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Bovine pregnancy RECTAL PALPATION diagnosis, how many days |
after 30 days |
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Equine pregnancy can be diagnosed by rectal palpation after 3 weeks True or False |
True |
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Equine pregnancy diagnosis TRANSRECTAL ULTRASOUND diagnosis, how many days |
At 2 weeks (confirm at 26 days) |
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How can we diagnose a pregnancy in ovine, porcine, and caprine |
Ultrasound |
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2 ways to diagnose dog/cat pregnancy |
palpation or radiograph |
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Dog/cat radiograph to diagnose pregnancy after how many days |
After 45 days |
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How long approximately is gestation period for dogs/cats |
About 2 months (60 days) |
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Mare gestation period |
11 months |
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Cow gestation period |
9 months |
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Ewe gestation period |
5 months |
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Sow gestation period |
3 months, 3 weeks, 3 days (or about 4 months!) |
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Biggest sign of impending parturition in animals |
Restlessness |
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Other signs of impending parturition |
Swelling of vulva, relaxation of ligaments in pelvic area |
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Dog/cat/pig sign of impending parturition |
nesting |
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Mare sign of impending parturition |
waxing of teats |
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Which ovary/oviduct in avian female is fully developed |
The left side only |
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An immature follicle consists of |
Oocyte and granulosa cells |
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A mature follicle consists of |
Oocyte and yolk |
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When is yolk added to the oocyte |
During the last week before ovulation |
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What is the yolk produced by |
The liver |
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How is the yolk carried to the ovary |
via bloodstream |
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List 4 things the yolk contains |
Fats, proteins, vitamins, minerals |
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This is wrapped around the ovary and "catches" the ovulated oocyte - FERTILIZATION (avian) |
Infundibulum |
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What is the function of the Magnum, the longest section of the oviduct (avian) |
It secretes the Albumin |
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What is the purpose of albumin in the egg (avian) |
Cushioning |
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What secretes the inner and outer shell membranes of the egg (avian) |
The Isthmus |
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This organ is AKA the "shell gland" in avians |
The uterus |
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3 Functions of the Avian uterus |
1. Adds fluid to egg 2. Secretes egg shell 3. Secretes cuticle (prevents water loss, prevents bacteria penetration) |
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Where are sperm host cells stored in the avian female |
Vagina and cloaca |
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How long can chicken sperm live in the vagina and cloaca |
up to 2 weeks |
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How long can turkey sperm live in the vagina and cloaca |
up to 50 days! |
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The act of laying an egg is called |
Oviposition |
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What does "Egg bound" mean |
A large egg stuck in the uterus or cloaca, can be fatal |
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2 ways an egg could become "egg bound" |
Improper development, not enough Calcium in diet |
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Ovulation cycle of chickens |
lay an egg every day |
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What age do laying hens start laying eggs |
22 months |
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How long do laying hens lay eggs |
Approximately 1 year |
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What part of the egg is where the chick will develop |
The germinal disc |
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The term for when a hen stops laying and sits on nest |
Broodiness |
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What are laid eggs called |
A clutch |
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What can cause a chicken to go broody with unfertilized eggs |
Not collecting the eggs regularly/frequently enough |
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This is considered the hormone of estrus |
Estrogens |
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This hormone maintains pregnancy |
Progesterone |
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What produces progesterone (3) |
1. Corpus luteum of ovary 2. Placenta 3. Adrenal cortex (pituitary gland) |
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Estrogens are primarily released to get ready for breeding True or False |
True |
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Estrogen is involved in bone development True or False |
True |
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6 Functions of Estrogen |
1. Causes growth of endometrial glands 2. Stimulates mammary gland development and duct system growth 3. Increases secretions of uterine tubes 4. Increases sexual receptivity of female 5. Increases Leutenizing Hormone secretion 6. Sensitizes uterus to oxytocin |
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Estrogen is a steroid True or False |
True |
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Progesterone is a steroid True or False |
True |
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4 Functions of Progesterone |
1. Promotes growth of endometrial glands 2. Stimulates mammary gland development and alveoli (milk) 3. Increases oviduct and endometrial gland secretions 4. Inhibits myometrial contractions during pregnancy |
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Function of Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) |
Stimulates growth of follicles (duh) |
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Which gland releases the follicle stimulating hormone |
Anterior pituitary |
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High estrogen levels increase FSH release True or False |
True |
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High progesterone levels increase FSH release True or False |
False, high progesterone will decrease FSH |
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Leutenizing Hormone (LH) is not important for follicular growth True or False |
False, very important! |
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What triggers ovulation |
Surge of Leutenizing Hormone (LH) |
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Which hormone stimulates formation of Corpus Luteum |
Leutenizing Hormone (LH) |
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Do Estrogen and Progesterone have a direct effect on release of LH like they do on FSH |
Yes! The same effect |
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GnRH Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone is released by what |
hypophysis (pituitary gland) |
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The sac of skin containing testis and associated structures |
The scrotum |
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The scrotum regulates the temperature of the testes T or F |
T |
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This hormone lyses (breaks down) corpus luteum if animal is not pregnant |
Prostaglandin F2 alpha (PGF2) |
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Which animal can receive prostaglandin to "reset" their repro cycle |
Cows |
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Which hormone stimulates uterine contractions |
Oxytocin |
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Males - the cells responsible for androgen production |
Leydig cells |
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Main function of testes |
Spermatogenesis |
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Male gametes are called |
Spermatozoa |
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What hormone stimulates spermatogenesis |
Testosterone |
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3 functions of testosterone |
1. Development of secondary sex characteristics in males 2. Stimulates/maintains libido 3. Fetal development of male sex organs |
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What is spermatogenesis |
The transformation of spermatogonia into mature sperm cells |
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Spermatogenesis involves mitosis and meiosis cell division TRUE or FALSE |
TRUE |
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Where are sperm cells stored |
In the epididymis |
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What gains motility and mature in the epididymis |
Spermatozoa |
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This part of the male anatomy carries sperm from the tail of the epididymus to the urethra via the spermatic cord |
Ductus deferens |
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The spermatic cord contains what 2 things |
1. The tunics 2. External cremaster muscle |
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Which part of the male anatomy is the "spermatogenesis thermostat" and will draw testicle toward body when cold |
The External Cremaster Muscle |
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Secretions of accessory sex glands are called |
Seminal plasma |
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What two things make up semen |
Seminal plasma and Spermatozoa |
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4 important functions of seminal plasma |
1. Provides transport medium for sperm 2. Protects sperm 3. Contains prostaglandins to stimulate uterine contractions 4. Provides nutrients for sperm |
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Which animals do not have a prominent prostate (2) |
Ruminants and pigs |
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Where is the prostate gland located |
surrounding urethra in pelvis |
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Horses, dogs, and cats have a prominent prostate with how many lobes |
2 lobes |
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The prostate gland is rectally palpable in horses, dogs, and cats True or False |
True |
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These male repro glands are present in bulls, rams, boars, and stallions and absent in cats and dogs.Located caudal to neck of bladder
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Vesicular glands
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This gland is absent in dog's and is AKA Cowper's glands |
Bulbourethral glands |
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This is gland prominent in stallions, bulls, rams, small in dogs, and absent in cats |
Ampullae |
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List the 3 semen producing glands |
1. Vesicular glands 2. Bulbourethral glands 3. Ampullae |
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This is the free end of the penis |
The glans |
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The erectile tissue of the penis is called |
Cavernous tissue |
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This causes the "tie" during copulation due to it's enlargement |
The Bulbus glandis |
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4 animals that have a sigmoid flexure (S shape of non-erect penis) |
Bulls, Rams, Bucks, Boars (cow, goat, sheep, pig) |
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The skin pouch that surrounds retracted penis |
Prepuce |
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This animal has a preputial diverticulum in the prepuce |
Boars (pigs) |
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Hard bits of smegma wedged in urethral process are called |
Beans |
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Which muscles contract to constrict veins and maintain erection |
The Ischiocavernosus muscles |
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Erection consists of vasodilation of arteries as well as constriction of veins TrUe or FaLsE |
TrUe |
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What is the number one cause of a male unwilling to mount |
Hind limb lameness/pain |
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Define phimosis |
Constriction of penis, unable to emerge (smegma, injury, inflammation) |
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Define Paraphimosis |
Penis cannot be retracted (no protection!) |
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Who has a longer urethra males or females |
males |
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Define emission |
emptying of ductus deferens and accessory sex glands into urethra |
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Define ejaculation |
Forceful ejection of semen from urethra |
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Where are avian male testes located |
Cranial to kidneys |
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Where is male avian sperm stored |
In the vas deferens |
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Male avian - vans deferens empties into what structure |
Cloaca |
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Which animals do NOT have a prominent prostate? |
Ruminants and pigs |
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Boulbourethral glands AKA |
Cowper's glands |
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The free end of the penis |
The glans |
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Avian testicles located where |
Cranial to the kidneys |
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Define emission |
Emptying of ductus deferens and accessory sex glands into urethra |
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Define ejaculation |
Semen ejected from the urethra |
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Another term for induced ovulators |
Reflex ovulators |
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Name 4 reflex ovulators |
Cats, Minks, Ferrets, Rabbits |
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How long into pregnancy can dogs/cats pregnancy be diagnosed with radiograph |
45 days (bones) |
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Where is the shell produced in avians |
Uterus (aka shell gland) |
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This hormone stimulates uterine contractions |
Oxytocin |
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This hormone inhibits uterine contracitons |
Progesterone |
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Where are estrogen/progesterone produced |
Pituitary gland (anterior) |
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The cells responsible for androgen production (males) |
Leydig cells |
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Mature sperm cells are stored here |
Epididymus |
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(Equine) Galvayne's groove typically appears at what age and what tooth |
Around 10 years; upper 3rd incisors |
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What is ampicillan |
An antibiotic |
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What is buprenex (buprenorphine) used for |
Pain management |
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What is cefazolin |
An antibiotic |
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What is diphenhydramine used for? What is the brand name? |
An antihistamine; Benadryl |
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Define pyelonephritis |
A bacterial infection of the kidneys |
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What is the name brand of Enrofloxacin? What is it? Toxicity in felines? |
Baytril; A broad-spectrum antibiotic; causes retinal degeneration in cats leading to blindness |
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What is dextrose used to treat |
Hypocalcemia |
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Canines start cutting teeth at what age |
3 weeks |
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Canines have adult teeth at what age |
6 months |
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At what age do dogs begin losing teeth (incisors, followed by canines) |
16 years |
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FORL stands for |
Feline Oral Resorptive Lesions |
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7 dental problems to look for in dogs/cats |
Bad breath, FORL, caries, retained deciduous teeth, abscesses, fractures, bone resorption |
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What is amylase |
An enzyme present in the saliva of omnivores to break down starches into maltose |
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What is saliva made of and what are the 3 functions of it |
Made of water and mucus, it lubricates, moisturizes, and buffers |
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What cells produce mucus |
Goblet cells |
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2 functions of mucus |
Lubrication and protection |
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What is the pH of the stomach |
1.8 - 4 |
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2 secretions in the stomach used to digest/break down food |
Hydrochloric acid and pepsin (activated pepsinogen) |
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What does pepsin break down |
Proteins |
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This digestive hormone is released by the parasympathetic system |
Gastrin |
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What does gastrin stimulate |
Production of HCl and Pepsinogen |
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What happens when stomach pH drops below 2 |
The duodenum inhibits HCl production |
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How does the duodenum inhibit HCl production |
By sending a signal to the brain |
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What does the duodenum secrete to inhibit production of HCl |
Cholecystokinin and Secretin |
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The word gastric refers to what |
The stomach |
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What does the Intrinsic Factor (of gastric secretion) do? |
Binds with Vitamin B12, to help with absorption ih the ileum |
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This enzyme is only present in young ruminants abomasum to clot milk and slow down its passage for better digestion |
Rennin |
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How do pancreatic secretions enter the duodenum |
Via the common bile duct |
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Where is bile made? Where is it stored? |
Made by the liver, stored in the gallbladder |
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Where is insulin made |
The pancreas |
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List 4 pancreatic secretions |
Pancreatic lipase, Pancreatic amylase, Proteolytic enzymes, Buffers |
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What do pancreatic buffers do |
Raise pH |
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What do Proteolytic enzymes do |
Break down proteins |
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What does Pancreatic lipase do |
Breaks down fats/lipids |
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What does Pancreatic amylase do |
Breaks down sugars and starches |
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What is chyme |
Liquidated food |
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What raises the pH of chyme when it enters the small intestine |
Bicarbonate and other buffers |
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What waste product is converted into bicarbonate |
CO2 |
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pH of small intestine |
approx. 8 |
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What is enterokinase |
An enzyme secreted by small intestinal epithelium. Activates trypsinogen to trypsin, trypsin then activates other proteases |
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B cells are found where in the lymph nodes |
Outer cortex |
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T cells are found where in the lymph nodes |
Inner cortex |
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What is alveolar bone |
More porous/spongy than compact bone |
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In the tooth, what attaches cementum to the bone |
Periodontal ligament |
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By what age do 99% of dogs/cats have some form of gingivitis |
6 weeks! |
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An infection or injury taking place in hospital setting, caused by vet or techs is called what |
Iatrogenic |
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The bulk of teeth is made up of what |
Dentin |
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The hard, outer part of the tooth |
Enamel |
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The entry point for nerves and blood vessels in the tooth |
Apical foramen |
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The part of the tooth that contains the blood vessels and nerves |
Pulp cavity |
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Canine P4 (tooth) AKA |
Carnassial |
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How does CO2 affect respiration |
Increased CO2 will cause increased rpm's, Decreased CO2 will cause decreased rpm's
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Is CO2 acidic or alkaline? |
Acidic |
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What can "overbagging" a patient cause |
Apnea! |
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Define respiratory clearance |
Removal of foreign material from respiratory system |
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Where is the mucociliary apparatus located |
From the upper airways to the alveoli |
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"Ends" of tertiary branches are lined with what |
Simple columnar ciliated epithelium |
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How does the mucociliary apparatus work? (4 steps) |
Goblet cells create mucus; Cilia "beat" moving mucus toward pharynx; Mucus coughed/swallowed; IgA immune response then stimulated in the gut |
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What is different about avian trachea |
The cartilage rings are complete/closed |
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Avian larynx -? |
No larynx, a Syrinx |
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Avian primary bronchi called what |
Mesobronchi |
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How many air sacs, avian |
9 |
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Function of avian air sacs |
No diaphragm, air sacs take up this job by expanding and contracting |
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Where does gas exchange occur in birds (2) |
Air capillaries, parabronchi |
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Function of white pulp of spleen |
Lymphoid tissue with B and T cell functions and macrophages |
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Function of red pulp of spleen |
Destruction/recycling of old RBC's; RBC/platelet/iron storage; Blood vessels present |
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What handles the job of the spleen after a spleenectomy |
Macrophages and lymph tissue handle white pulp functions; Liver handles red pulp functions |
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Thymus - Location, function |
Cranial to the base of heart; PRE-T cell maturation, macrophages eat undesired T-cells, epithelial cells select correct T cells, the Thymus shrinks with age |
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What is GALT |
Gut Associated Lymphoid Tissue |
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Name an example of GALT |
Peyer's patches on small intestinal walls |
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Lining of thoracic organs called |
Visceral pleura |
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Lining of thoracic cavity called |
Parietal pleura |
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What is the mediastinum |
The space between the lungs containing the heart, trachea, esophagus, nerves, lymph structures, thoracic duct |
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Function of the nasal septum |
To separate the nostrils |
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Functions of the nasal conchae |
Filters, warms, and humidifies air breathed in |
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Location of nasopharynx |
Dorsally located/soft palate |
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Location of oropharynx |
Ventrally located (digestive) |
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Define laryngeal hemiplegia and AKA |
AKA "roaring" in horses. Vocal cords on one side of larynx are paralyzed |
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What causes laryngeal hemiplegia (roaring) |
Usually an infection |
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A collapsing trachea (break down/flattening of tracheal cartilage) is common in who? |
Toy breeds and older or obese dogs; can be caused by trauma |
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How many lung lobes dogs/cats |
2 Left (cranial, caudal) 4 Right (cranial, caudal, middle, accessory) |
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How many lung lobes in equine |
1 Left, 1 Right (accessory) |
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Location of gas exchange/tissue type and cell types |
Alveoli - Simple squamous epithelium; clara cells and ciliated cells |
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What is ventilation |
Movement of air in and out of lungs |
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What is intrapulmonic pressure |
The pressure in the lungs |
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What is intrapleural pressure |
Pressure in the space between pleura - NEGATIVE pressure |
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Define pneumothorax |
An abnormal opening in the chest wall increasing intrapleural presure; lung's cannot fill, may collapse due to increased positive intrapleural pressure |
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In a resting animal, should we see more abdominal breathing or costal breathing? |
Costal breathing |
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What does SAID stand for |
Small Airway Inflammatory Disease AKA asthma |
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Which two animals are prone to asthma |
Horses and cats |
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What does asthma cause in horses |
Heaves and a heave line from excessive abdominal breathing |
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2 types of heart/cardiac cells |
Autorhythmic and contractile |
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What is the SA node? |
The sinoatral node. A "bunch" of autorhythmic cells - special muscle tissue with fastest intrinsic rhythm. The heart's "pacemaker." |
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Where is the SA node located? |
The right atrium at the base of the cranial vena cava |
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SA node signal order (5) |
SA node; AV nodes (both atriums); AV bundle (bundle of His); Left and right bundle branches; Perkinjie fibers |
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AV bundle AKA |
Bundle of His |
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Networks of cardiac muscle fibers that contract together |
Syncytium |
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What does syncytium allow? |
Allows the atria to contract before the ventricles |
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Bundle of His (AV bundle), Bundle branches, and perkinjie fibers located where |
In the ventricles |
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In the heart, intercalated discs connecting cells do what? |
Helps speed the spread of the impulse |
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What depolarizes ventricles for contraction |
Speed of impulse and influx of sodium (Na+) |
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Cardiac depolarization (5) |
Sodium influx; Depolarizes cells (positive charge); Ca released; Ca binds with tropomyecin; Site now open for Action Potential |
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When does the heart repolarize |
When sodium and potassium leave the cardiac muscle cells |
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Define fibrillation |
Unsynchronized contraction and relaxation of cardiac muscle cells (heart is spazzing) |
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What does atrial fibrillation cause |
Irregular heartbeat, affects cardiac output |
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What does ventricular fibrillation cause |
death |
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What does defibrillation do? |
It's an electrical shock to heart muscle to re-synchronize depolarization and repolarization; hopefully resetting the SA node to take back over and control synchronization |
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What is sinus rhythym? |
Regular/normal heartbeat |
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What does an ECG actually measure |
Repolarization and Depolarization |
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*ECG* P wave represents... QRS wave represents... T wave represents... |
P wave - atrial contraction QRS - ventricular contraction/atrial relaxation T wave - SA node resetting/firing and ventricular relaxation |
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Where do ECG leads (electrodes) go? |
Stifles/elbows/chest |
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ECG placement (individual locations) |
Right foreleg - White Left foreleg - Black Right rear leg - Green Left rear leg - Red Chest - Brown |
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*ECG time measurements* P-Q... QRS... S-T... Q-T... |
P-Q...AV bundle QRS... Ventricular contraction S-T... Ventricular contraction-relaxation Q-T... Ventricular contraction-relaxation |
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*ECG* Wide P wave indicates... |
Left atrial enlargement |
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*ECG* Tall R wave or Wide QRS wave indicates... |
Left ventricular enlargement |
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*ECG* Deep S wave indicates... |
Right ventricle enlargement |
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*ECG* Time measurement- which wave is best for getting bpm |
R wave |
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On an ECG, atrial fibrillation looks like... |
Irregular isoelectric line; No P waves; Irregular QRS waves |
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What does PVC stand for |
Premature Ventricular Contraction |
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What does PVC look like on an ECG? |
Missing P wave |
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What can PVC lead to? |
Ventricular fibrillation - death! |
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Lub heart sound... Dub heart sound... |
Lub - AV valves closing Dub - Semilunar valves closing |
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2 things causing murmurs |
Leaky valves or stenosis (narrowing of vessel) |
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Strange ECG readout... animal or machine? What to do? |
Check animal vitals. Try adjusting lead clips, or add rubbing alcohol to clips |
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Respiratory sinus arrhythmia normal in who? What is it? |
Normal in dogs, change in heart rhythm concurrent with respiration (inspiration) |
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Define arrhythmia |
Abnormal heart rhythm |
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Parasympathetic response associated with... |
Resting and Restoring |
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Define shock |
Lack of oxygen perfusion to the tissues |
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What is Starling's law of the heart? |
The heart will pump out what comes into the right atrium |
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What do baroreceptors do? |
Measure Blood pressure |
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Purpose of lymphatic system (4) |
Removes excess interstitial fluid; Waste material transport; filtration of lymph; Protein transport to circulatory system |
