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336 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Which type of muscle is not striated
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smooth
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Which type of muscle is involved with automaticity?
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Cardiac
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Myocytes of cardiac muscle are functionally coupled via
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intercalated discs
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Functions of skeletal muscle
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movement, support and protect, heat generation, energy storage
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characteristics of the cells (fibers) of skeletal muscle
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large
cylindrical striations multiple peripheral nuclei |
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The connective tissue that surround skeletal muscles
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epimysium
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The connective tissue of skeletal muscle that is connected to fascia
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epimysium
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The connective tissue of skeletal muscle that surrounds fasicles
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perimysium
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The connective tissue of skeletal muscle that contains nerves and blood vessels
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perimysium
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The connective tissue of skeletal muscle that covers individual muscle fibers
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endomysium
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The connective tissue of skeletal muscle that contains nerves, capillaries and myosatellite cells
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endomysium
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what is the cell membrane of a muscle cell (fiber)
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sarcolemma
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what is the basic contractile unit of striated muscle
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sarcomere
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myofibrils are composed of repeating
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sarcomeres
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one sarcomere runs from ____ to _____
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z line to z line
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thick filaments are mainly
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myosin
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thin filaments are mainly
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actin
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actin attaches directly to the
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z-line
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myosin attaches to the z line via
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titan
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z-line is?
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filamentous network of protein that serves as an attachment for actin myofilaments
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I bands?
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from 2 disks to ends of thick filaments
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A bands?
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length of thick filaments
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H zone?
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region in A band where actin and myosin do not overlap
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M Line?
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middle of the H zone ; delicate filaments holding myosin in place
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Actin can be present as
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G actin or F actin
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F actin filament contains
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tropomyosin
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A pair of protein strands together forming chains of ______ filaments
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actin
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a helical array of ____ filaments
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myosin
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What is the actin-myosin interaction called
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cross bridge
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What is the sliding filament model
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filaments interact and slide past each there causing sarcomeres to shorten, shortening the muscle.
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What is the result of the sliding filament model
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tension that moves a bone via a skeletal muscle
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skeletal muscles always ______. They cannot ______.
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pull; push
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depolarization of muscle cells triggers
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Ca to be released from the SR
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motor unit
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motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates
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membrane potential
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the difference in electrical potential inside and outside of cell.
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Resting membrane potential (values)
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-70 to -90 mV
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during resting membrane potential the inside of the cell is more ____ than the outside
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negative
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during resting membrane potential the inside of the cell has more ____ and the outside of the cell has more
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K, Na
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Depolarization is when the inside of the plasma membrane becomes
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less negative (more positive)
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All or nothing
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If change reaches threshold, depolarization will occur. If it doesn't reach threshold, nothing will happen.
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During depolarization membrane potential goes from ____ to ____ mV
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-85 to 25 mV
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Repolarization is
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the return to resting membrane potential
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Steps in membrane potential/action potential
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1) resting membrane potential : Na channels closed and most K channels closed. Some K can move out of cell making inside of cell more negatively charged.
2) depolarization: Na channels open and Na moves into cell. Making inside of cell more positive (less negative). 3) Repolarization: Na channels close. More K channels open. K moves out of cell. Making plasma membrane more negatively charged. |
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Neuromuscular junction
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connects the nervous system to the muscular system via synapses b/w efferent nerve fibers and muscle fibers
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ACh is broken down by ___ in the synaptic cleft.
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AChE - acetylcholine esterase
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What is the length-tension relationship of skeletal muscle
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Maximum tension is related to an optimum length.
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What are the 3 sources of ATP/energy in muscles?
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creatine phosphate, anaerobic respiration, aerobic respiration
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no change in length of muscle
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isometric
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Concentric muscle activation involves ____ of a muscle
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shortening
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Eccentric muscle activation involves ____ of a muscle
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lengthening
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What are the two types of fibers
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slow (Type I) and fast (type II)
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Which type of fiber is more fatigue resistant
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slow fibers
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Rank the types of fibers from smallest size to largest
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Type I, Type IIa, Type IIb
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Slow fibers contract (fast, slow)
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slow
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Which type of fibers has myoglobin and mitochondria
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Type I
Also Type IIa |
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Type IIb fibers get their energy from
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glycolysis (anaerobic)
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What are the effects of aging on skeletal muscle
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less stamina
less muscle mass less muscle fibers increase recovery time increase response time less density of capillaries |
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Functions of the nervous system
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senses input
integrates directs motor output maintains homeostasis controls mental activity |
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What are the divisions of the nervous system
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central NS
Peripheral NS |
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the peripheral nervous system consists of
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nerves outside the CNS: spinal and cranial nerves
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Peripheral nervous system function
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deliver sensory information to the CNS
Carry motor commands from the CNS to tissue |
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Divisions of the PNS
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somatic and autonomic
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The somatic NS function
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carries motor commands from CNS to PNS to Muscles
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the autonomic NS function
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carries motor commands from CNS to PNS to organs, controls subconscious actions
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Which division of the PNS is involved with involuntary actions
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autonomic NS
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The autonomic NS is further divided into
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sympathetic division
parasympathetic division |
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how many pairs of spinal nerves are there
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31
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WHat are the types of neural tissue
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neurons and neuroglial cells
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What are neuroglial cells functions
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insulate, support and protect neurons
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Neuroglial cells can reproduce via
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mitotic division
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Neuroglial cells originate from the _____ except for ______
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ectoderm
microglial cells |
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What are more numerous: neuroglial cells or neurons
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neuroglial cells
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neuroglial cells in the CNS are
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oligodendrocytes
astrocytes microglial cells ependymal cells |
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oligodendroctyes form
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forms the myelin sheath for insulating neurons of CNS
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Astrocytes function
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anchor, support, help form blood brain barrier
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Microglial cells are
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phagocytic
scavenger cells |
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Ependymal cells function
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produce CSF
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neuroglial cells in PNS
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schwann cells and satellite cells
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Schwann cells function
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forms the myelin sheath for insulating neurons of PNS
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What is the outermost layer of schwann cells enveloping axons
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neurolemma
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satellite cells functions
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surrounds neuro cell bodies and protect them
regulate the environment around neurons provide support and nutrition |
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Neurons require
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oxygen and glucose
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basic properties of neurons
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excitability, conductivity, secretory
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cell body of neuron contains
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nucleus and organelles
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cell body of neurons are in the CNS or PNS
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CNS
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collection of cell bodies of neurons are called
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ganglion
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what are the cytoplasmic extensions of neurons
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dendrites and axons
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What are dendrites
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receiving region of neuron. Conduct impulse toward soma.
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What is the axon of a neuron
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Carries electrical signal towards target
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At the distal end of axons is the
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synaptic terminals
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structural classifications of neurons
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multipolar, bipolar, pseudo-unipolar
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What is a multipolar neuron
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has many dendrites and 1 axon
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What is a bipolar neuron
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Has a dendrite and a axon
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What is a pseudo-unipolar neuron
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appears to have an axon and no dendrites
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What is the area where a neuron communicates with another cell
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synapse
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What is a presynaptic cell?
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neuron that sends the message
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What is a postsynaptic cell?
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Cell that receives the message
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The small gap that separates the presynaptic membrane and the postsynaptic membrane
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the synaptic cleft
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Synaptic knob is a
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presynaptic terminal. An expanded area of an axon of a presynaptic neuron
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The synaptic knob contains
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synaptic vesicles of neurotransmitters
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Where are neurotransmitters released
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presynaptic membrane
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Neurotransmitters affect receptors of
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postsynaptic membrane
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Where are neurotransmitters reassembled
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synaptic knob
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Resting membrane potential is ____ mV across cell membrane
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-70 mV
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Membrane is more permeable to K or Na
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K
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____ Na ions leave the cell and ___ K ions enter the cell in Na/K pump
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3 ; 2
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Types of gated channels
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chemically (ligand) gated channels
Mechanically gated channels Voltage-gated channels |
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Excitatory postsynaptic p (EPSP) is
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depolarizing
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IPSP is
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hyperpolarizing
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Actions potentials are called a
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spike
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Action potentials do not get weaker with distance. TF
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True
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What factors most affect the speed on a action potential
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myelination, diameter of axon (larger =faster) and heat
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What is the absolute refractory period of an action potential
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where no action potential can take place
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What is the relative refractory period of an action potential
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where an action potential is able to happen again if the stimulus is big enough
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Steps in action potential
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Na channels open - depolarization
Na channels close. K channels open - repolarization K gates stay open longer and close slowly. |
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in saltatory conduction of myelinated fiber, action potentials jump from ____ to _____
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node of ranvier to node of ranvier
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Saltatory conduction allows for fast _____ ________ between nodes
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Na diffusion
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Steps in saltatory conduction
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Na inflow at node generates AP
Na diffuses along inside of axolemma to next node Excitation of voltage regulated gates will generate next AP |
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Demyelination results in
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loss of sensation and motor control.
Multiple sclerosis, heavy metal poisoning, diphtheria |
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Type C neurons
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small, unmeylinated fibers, slow
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Type B neurons
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small, myelinated fibers, mid speed
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Type A fibers
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large, myelinated fibers, Fast
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Spinal cord extends from ____ to ___
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medulla to L1 or L2
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The spinal cord is covered by
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3 meninges
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What is the fat filled space next to the vertebrae
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epidural space
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What space contains CSF
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subarachnoid space
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What are the enlargements of the spinal cord
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Cervical enlargement and lumbosacral enlargement
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What happens at the enlargements of the spinal cord
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Where nerve fibers that supply the upper and lower limbs enter and leave the spinal cord
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What is at the inferior end of the spinal cord
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conelike region called medullary cone
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the medullary cone extends to about
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L1/L2
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define cauda equina
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numerous roots (origins) of spinal nerves at the inferior-most part of the spinal cord
Nerve roots L2-S5 |
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The caudal equina consists of nerve roots ___ - ____
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L2 - S5
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What is filium terminale
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connective tissue that anchors the medullary cone and theca sac to the 1st coccygeal vertebrae
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What are meninges
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connective tissue membranes the surround the brain and spinal cord
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What are the 3 layers of the meninges
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Dura mater
Arachnoid mater Pia mater |
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Which layer of the meninges is the outer layer
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dura mater
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Which layer of the meninges is continuous with the epineurium of the spinal nerves
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dura mater
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Which layer of the meninges is the middle layer
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arachnoid mater
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Which layer of the meninges is thin and wispy
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arachnoid mater
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Which layer of the meninges is the deepest layer
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pia mater
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Which layer of the meninges is bound tightly to the spinal cord and brain
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pia mater
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Which layer of the meninges forms the filium terminal and the denticulate ligaments that attach the spinal cord to the dura mater
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pia mater
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What are the spaces created by the meninges
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epidural space
subdural space subarachnoid space |
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Which spaces created by the meninges contains blood vessels, areolar connective tissue and fat
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epidural space
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Which spaces created by the meninges is where anesthesia is injected
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epidural space
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Which spaces created by the meninges contains serious fluid
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subdural space
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Which spaces created by the meninges is between the dura mater and arachnoid mater
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subdural space
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Which spaces created by the meninges is between the arachnoid mater and pia mater
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subarachnoid space
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Which spaces created by the meninges contains CSF and blood vessels w/in weblike strands of arachnoid tissue
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subarachnoid space
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The outside part of the spinal cord is the ____ matter
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white
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Which matter contains myelin
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White matter
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What is the white column
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bundles of myelinated axons that carry signals up and down to and from the brainstem
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There are 3 pairs of white columns called _____ and they are subdivide into tracts called _____.
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funiculi
fasciculi |
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The inside of the spinal cord is composed of ____ matter
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gray
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Which part of the spinal cord has a butterfly shape
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gray matter
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Which matter includes neuron cell bodies, dendrites and axons
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gray matter
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Ventral root of spinal cord involves ____ fibers, dorsal root involves _____ fibers.
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Motor, sensory
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anterior horns also called ventral horns includes
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axons of motor neurons
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posterior-dorsal horn includes
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axons of sensory neurons
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lateral horn is associated with
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autonomic NS
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what does the gray commissure do
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connects 2 halves of spinal cord
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spinal reflexes have no ascending tracts TF
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True
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What are the 5 components of a reflex
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sensory receptor
sensory neuron interneuron motor neuron effector |
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monosynaptic reflex
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direct communication between sensory and motor neuron, no interneuron
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polysynaptic reflex
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interneuron facilitates sensory - motor communication
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What is the simplest reflex
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stretch reflex
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what is the function of the stretch reflex
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muscles contract in response to a stretching force applied to them
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What is the receptor in the stretch reflex
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muscle spindles
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What are the steps in the stretch relfex
|
muscle spindle detects stretch
sensory neurons conduct AP to spinal cord sensory neurons synapse on motor neurons motor neurons innervate the muscle that was stretched and muscle contracts. |
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muscle spindles are innervated by ____ motor neurons which
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gamma
control sensitivity of muscle spindle |
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what is the function of the golgi tendon relfex
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prevents damage to tendons by preventing contracting muscles from applying excessive tension to tendons
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what is the golgi tendon organ
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encapsulated nerve endings located in tendor near muscle.
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what is the receptor in the golgi tendon reflex
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golgi tendon organ
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Golgi tendon reflex produces
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sudden relaxation of muscles
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steps of golgi tendon reflex
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intense stretch of muscle
golgi tendon organs detect tension sensory neurons send AP to spinal cord sensory neurons synapse with inhibitory interneurons that synapse with motor neurons inhibitory motor neurons cause muscle to relax |
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what is the function of the withdrawal reflex
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to remove a body part away from a painful stimulus
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steps in withdrawal reflex
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pain receptors detect painful stimulus
sensory neurons send AP to spinal cord Sensory neurons synapse with excitatory interneurons that synapse with motor neurons excitation of motor neurons flexor muscles and withdrawal of limb from painful stimulus |
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What is reciprocal innervation and what reflex is it associated with
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causes relaxation of antagonist muscle
mostly withdrawal reflex but also stretch reflex |
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How does reciprocal innervation work
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During the withdrawal reflex, sensory neurons also synapse with inhibitory interneurons which synapse with motor neurons causing the extensor muscles to relax.
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What is the crossed extensor reflex
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when a withdrawal reflex is initiated in one lower limb, the CER causes extension of the opposite lower limb
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How does the crossed extensor reflex work
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During the withdrawal reflex, the sensory neurons also synapse with excitatory interneurons that cross to the opposite side and synapse with motor neurons supplying the extensor muscles in opposite limb, causing them to contract and support the body weight during withdrawal reflex.
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what is paralysis
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loss of function inferior to lesion
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what is quadriplegia
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paralysis. lesion at C1-C4
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what is paraplegia
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paralysis. Lesion at T1-L1
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How many spinal nerves are in each section of the spinal cord
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8 cervical
12 thoracic 5 lumbar 5 sacral 1 coccygeal |
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what is plexus
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converging/diverging network of ventral rami of spinal nerves
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What is the endoneurium
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surrounds individual neurons in spinal nerves
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What is the perineurium
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surrounds axon groups to form fascicles in spinal nerves
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What is the epineurium
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surrounds the entire nerve (spinal nerves)
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First pair of spinal nerves exit the vertebral column between the ____ and ____
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skull and atlas
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The last 4 pairs of spinal nerves exit the vertebral column via the
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sacral foramina
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What is Ramus
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spinal nerve splits into ventral and dorsal ramus
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ventral rami innervate ____ and form ____
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anterior muscles, forms plexus
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Dorsal rami innervate
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posterior muscles
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Rami emerge through the intervertebral foramen , ______ the vertebra for which it is named. Except in the ____ area.
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below, cervical
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advantage of plexuses
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multiple segment innervation to an area
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cervical plexus consists of ___ - ____
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Cl - C4
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Cervical plexus cutaneous branch involves what kind of information
|
sensory and autonomic
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Cutaneous branches of the cervical plexus supply
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skin of neck, throat and shoulder, posterolateral head and upper chest
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Cutaneous branches of the cervical plexus nerves include
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lesser occipital
great auricular transverse cervical supraclavicular nerves ansa cervicalis |
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Muscular branches of the cervical plexus involve what type of information
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sensory, motor, autonomic
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Muscular branches of the cervical plexus supply
|
trapezius muscle
SCM infrahyoid mucles via ansa cervicalis deep flexors of the neck diaphragm via phrenic nerve |
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Brachial plexus from __ to __
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C5-T1
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Brachial plexus innervates
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upper limbs, some muscles of neck and shoulder
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C5 and C6 innervate ____
C7 innervates ____ C8 and T1 innervate ____ |
upper trunk
middle trunk lower trunk |
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Small nerves innervating the muscles of the scapula and arm
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pectoral
thoracodorsal long thoracic subscapular suprascapular |
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Axillary nerve motor function
|
laterally rotates arm via teres minor
abducts arm via deltoid |
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Axillary nerve sensory function
|
sensory info to inferior lateral shoulder
|
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What plexus is the axillary nerve involved in
|
brachial plexus
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What are the main nerves in the brachial plexus involved with the arm, forearm and hand
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musculocutaneous
radial ulnar median |
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The musculocutaneous nerve innervates the
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posterior arm
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The musculocutaneous nerve is involved in what movements via what muscles
|
elbow flexion via biceps brachii and brachialis
|
|
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The radial nerve innervates
|
posterior arm and forearm
|
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Which nerve is vulnerable to injury via humeral fracture
|
radial nerve
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What movements is the radial nerve involved in
|
elbow extension via triceps brachii and wrist extension
|
|
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If radial nerve is injured, what happens to the wrist
|
drops
|
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The median nerve innervates
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anterior forearm
|
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What movements is the median nerve involved in
|
pronation, wrist flexion, thumb movement via pronator teres, palmaris longus (all flexors of forearm)
|
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Which nerve passes through the carpal tunnel
|
median nerve
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The ulnar nerves is involved in
|
wrist, finger flexion, finger ab/adduction and thumb adduction
|
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Which nerve is associated with the "funny bone"
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ulnar nerve
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The lateral cord of the brachial plexus is responsible for
|
All of musculocutaneous nerve
Some of median nerve |
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The posterior cord of the brachial plexus is responsible for
|
All of radial nerve
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The medial cord of the brachial plexus is responsible for
|
All of ulnar nerve
Some of median nerve |
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Dermatomes
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sections of skin innervated by a particular spinal segment
|
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Myotomes
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like cutaneous innervation for muscles
|
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Which nerves include dermatomes and myotomes
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thoracic nerves
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Thoracic nerves go from ___ to ___
|
T1-T2
|
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What are the thoracic nerve groups
|
intercostal nerves
thoracoabdominal nerves lower thoracic nerves |
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The lumbar plexus goes from ___ to ____
|
T12 - L4
|
|
|
Nerves of the lumbar plexus
|
T12 subcostal nerve (not usually considered)
Iliohypogastric n. - ab muscles ilioinguinal n. - ab muscles genitofemoral n. - sensory skin of genitals lateral femoral cutaneous n. - sensory of thigh Femoral n. - muscles of ant thigh Obturator n. - muscles of medial thigh |
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What does the femoral nerve to - motor
|
flexes hip via psoas major, iliacus, pectineus
Flexes hip and knee via sartorius Extends knee via vast us group Extends knee and flexes hip via rectus femoris |
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What does the femoral nerve to - cutaneous
|
anterior and lateral branches supply anterior and lateral thigh.
Saphenous branch supplies medial leg and foot |
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What does the obturator nerve do - motor
|
rotates thigh laterally via obturator externus
adducts thigh via adducture magnus, longus, brevus Adducts thing and flexes knee via gracilis |
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What does the obturator nerve do - cutaneous
|
superior medial side of thigh
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The sacral plexus goes from __ to ___
|
L4 - S4
|
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|
The sacral plexus provides sensory and motor nerves for
|
posterior thigh, most of lower leg, the entire foot, and some of the pelvis
|
|
|
the nerves forming the sacral plexus converge and unite to form a band. The band is continued as the
|
sciatic nerve
|
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The branches of the sciatic nerve are
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tibial nerve and common fibular nerve
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What does the tibial nerve do - motor
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Extends hip and flexes knee via biceps femoris, semitendinous, semimembranous
Extends hip and adducts thigh via adductor magnus Plantarflexes foot Flexes knee via popliteus flexes toes |
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What does the obturator nerve do - cutaneous
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none
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Tibial nerve consists of
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medial and lateral plantar nerves and sural nerves
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Medial and lateral plantar nerves function
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flex and adduct toes, sensory info at sole of foot
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Sural nerve function
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no movement, cutaneous innervation of lateral and posterior 1/3 of leg and lateral foot
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Function of commun fibular nerve
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extends hip and flexes knee via biceps femoris
Cutaneous innervation of lateral surface of knee |
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Common fibular nerve consists of
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deep fibular nerve and superficial fibular nerve
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Deep fibular nerve function
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dorsiflexes foot and extends toes, sensory of great and 2nd toe
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Superficial fibular nerve function
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plantarflexes and everts foot, sensory of dorsal anterior 1/3 of leg and dorsal foot
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Other sacral plexus nerves
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superior gluteal nerve, inferior gluteal nerve, pudendal nerve.
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Functions of cerebrum
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conscious mind
aware of ourselves initiate, control voluntary movements plan, communicate, remember and understand |
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Corpus callosum
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divides the left and right hemisphere of the brain
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gyri (gyrus) means
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ridges
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sulc (sulcus) means
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shallow groves
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What defines the lobes of the brain
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sulcus
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fissue means
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deep grove
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longitudinal fissure
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separates the cerebral hemispheres
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cortex
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surface layer of gray matter
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central sulcus location
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between frontal and parietal lobe
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precentral gyrus location
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between frontal and parietal lobes (closer to frontal)
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Precentral gyrus is the ____ cortex
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motor
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postcentral gyrus is the ____ cortex
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somatosensory
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postcentral gyrus is located
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between frontal and parietal lobe (closer to parietal)
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Frontal lobe function
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voluntary motor functions, planning, mood, smell and social judgement, thinking
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Parietal lobe function
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receives and integrates sensory information. Left - language
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Occipital lobe function
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vision
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Temporal lobe function
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hearing, smell, learning, memory, emotional behavior, language
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Insula function
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taste and emotions
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diencephalon consists of
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thalamus and hypothalamus
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Thalamus function
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relay signals from cerebellum to motor cortex, relays subcortical info to cerebral cortex
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Hypothalamus functions
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hormone secretion, control pituitary gland, ANS control, thermoregulation, food and water intake, sleep rhythm, emotional behavior, sexual behavior
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Cerebellum functions
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regulates movements, maintains balance and posture
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Cerebellum inputs? outputs?
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spinal cord, brainstem and cerebral cortex
thalamus, brainstem |
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midbrain function
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relay center; connects to cerebellum, fine motor control. Contains visual, auditory reflex centers, consciousness
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Key nuclei of midbrain
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substantia nigra
superior colliculus Inferior colliculus |
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Substansia nigra function
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transmits info that controls movement
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Midbrain is origin of CN
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3 and 4
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Pons function
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respiration, swallowing, posture, sleep, arousal
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Pons is origin of CN
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5, 6, 7, 8,
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medulla function
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HR, respiration and BP. Reflexes coughing, sneezing, vomitting
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Medulla is origin of CN
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9, 10, 11, 12
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Important nuclei in medulla
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cuneate and gracile nuclei
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cuneate and gracile nuclei function
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relay somatosensory info from spinal cord to thalamus
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what is the meningeal layer of the dura mater
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Inner layer near arachnoid. Forms the specialized dural fold
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What is the dural venous sinuses
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in between periosteal and meningeal layer. Major veins. Brings cerebral venus blood to general circulation.
Important for CSF resbsorption |
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What is Important for CSF resbsorption
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dural venous sinuses
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epidural hematoma
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artery between skull and dura mater
High pressure -> rapid bleed Lucid interval |
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subdural hematoma
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vein between dura and arachnoid
low pressure, slower progression Most lethal of head injuries result from tear in veins headache and confusion |
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What is the most lethal head injury
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subdural hematoma
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Blood is supplies to the brain via
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circle of Willis
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Blood brain barrier is selectively permeable to
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lipid soluble substances
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Where is there a break in the blood brain barrier
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at 3rd and 4th ventricles
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interventriucular foramen connects
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lateral ventricle to 3rd
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lateral ventricles location
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cerebrum
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3rd ventricle location
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around thalamus
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cerebral aqueduct connects
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3rd and 4th ventricles
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4th ventricle location
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anterior to cerebellum, posterior to pons
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Choroid plexus is made of ____ cells and is where:
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ependymal
CSF is created |
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Ventricles function to
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circulate CSF
protection, nutrition, waste removal |
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Path of CSF
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secreted by choroid plexus in lateral ventricles
flows through interventricular foramen to 3rd ventricle choroid plexus adds more CSF flows down cerebral aqueduct to 4th ventricle choroid plexus adds more CSF flows out two lateral apertures and 1 medial aperture CSF fills subarachnoid space At arachnoid granulations, CSF is reabsorbed into venous blood of dural venous sinuses |
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association fibers in medualla
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communicate with in the same hemisphere, connects all of cortex together
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commissural fibers in meduall
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cross b/w hemispheres
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List cranial nerves
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olfactory
optic occulomotor trochlear trigeminal abducens facial vestibulocochlear glossopharyngeal spinal accessory hypoglossal |
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Which CNs do not arise from brainstem
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optic and olfactory
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All CNs innervate head and neck except
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vagus nerve
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Inputs and outputs of CNs are ipsilateral or contralateral? except?
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ipsilateral
optic nerve |
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occulomotor nerve function
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eye movement and opening eyelid
Constriction of pupil, focusing |
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trochlear nerve function
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eye movement of 1 muscle (sup oblique)
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Damage to trochlear nerve causes
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double vision, eye deviates medially and cannot rotate inferolaterally
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3 divisions of trigeminal nerve
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V1 opthalamic - sensory to upper face
V2 - maxillary - sensory to middle face, teeth, gums V3 - mandibular - sensory and motor to lower face and muscles of mastication |
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abducens function
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eye movement to 1 muscle (lateral rectus muscle)
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5 branches of facial nerve
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temporal, zygomatic, buccal, mandibular, cervical
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facial nerve function
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sensory - taste anterior 2/3 of tongue
motor - facial expression parasympathetic - tear, nasal, spit |
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glossopharyngeal nerve function
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taste poster 1/3 of tongue, Bp and respiration
Swallowing Salivation |
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somatic motor neurons innervate
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skeletal muscle
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autonomic motor neurons innervate
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smooth and cardiac muscle, and glands
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Autonomic motor neurons have __ synapse(s) and somatic motor neurons have ____.
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2, 1
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receptor molecules in somatic motor neurons
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nicotinic
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receptor molecules in autonomic motor neurons
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for ACh: nicotinic on postganglionic neurons and muscarinic on target organ
For norep: alpha or beta adrenergic |
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Autonomic nervous system divided into
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sympathetic division, parasympathetic division, enteric
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enteric nervous system
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nerve plexuses w/in the wall of the digestive tract
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sympathetic division function
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emergency
flight or fight |
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parasympathetic division function
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conserve, store energy. rest and digest
SLUDD( salivation, lacrimation, urination, digestion, defecation) |
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origin or sympathetic division. parasympathetic?
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thoracolumbar; craniosarcral
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neurotransmitters of sympathetic division. parasympathetic?
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ACh and norep; ACh
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ganglia location in sympathetic division. parasympathetic?
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close to CNS ; near target organs
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Organs that aren't dually innervated - purely sympathetic innervation
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blood vessels
sweat glands adrenal glands |
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Response of sympathetic and parasympathetic division s on:
heart lungs sweating intestinal/stomach motility pupils blood vessels to skeletal m and heart blood vessels to skin and viscera Salivary glands |
heart - HR inc, HR dec
lungs - Bronchodilate, brochoconstriction sweating - inc, dec intestinal/stomach motility - dec, inc pupils - dilate, constrict blood vessels to skeletal m and heart- contract of dilate, none blood vessels to skin and viscera - contract of dilate, none Salivary glands - mucous, thin watery secretions |
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vasomotor tone
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provides resting level of contraction to smooth muscle and blood vessel walls. sympathetic division prioritizes blood to skeletal muscles and heart in times of emergency.
blood vessels in skin vasocontrict to minimize bleeding if injury occurs |
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strong vs weak asomotor tone
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smooth muscle contracts, vasocontriction
smooth muscle relaxes, vasodilation |
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ACh is released by ____ neurons
Norepinephrine is released be _____ neurons |
cholinergic
adrenergic |
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2 forms of cholinergic receptors
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nicotinic and muscarinic
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Nicotinic receptors are (excitatory, inhibitory, both)?
Muscarinic? |
excitatory
both |
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2 forms of adrenergic receptors
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alpha and beta
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Alpha 1 and 2 adrenergic receptors are (excitatory, inhibitory, both)?
Beta 1 and 2? |
excite
inhibit, except for B1 in heart inc HR |
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Autonomic reflex activity is influenced by
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hypothalamus
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sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions influence activités of enteric N.S through
|
autonomic relfexes
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