Anatomic Sciences

Front 1

Each of the following structures is found in the infratemporal fossae except one. Which one is this exception?
- Lingual nerve
- Medial pterygoid muscle
- Inferior alveolar nerve
- Pterygopalatine ganglion
- Pterygoid venous plexus

Back 1

Pterygopalatine ganglion

Front 2

Each of the following cranial nerves is associated with the cavernous sinus except one. Which one is this exception?
- Facial
- Abducens
- Trochlear
- Trigeminal
- Oculomotor

Back 2

Facial

Front 3

Each of the following muscles usually appears in the floor of the posterior triangle except one. Which one is this exception?
- Sternyohyoid
- Medius scalene
- Splenius capitis
- Levator scapulae
- Anterior belly of omohyoid

Back 3

Sternohyoid

Front 4

Mucosa of the anterior two-thirds of the tongue develops primarily from:
- Rathke's pouch
- tuberculum impar
- foregut endoderm
- hypobranchial eminence
- lateral lingual swellings

Back 4

lateral lingual swellings

Front 5

Which of the following muscles participates in flexion at the gleno-humeral and the humero-ulnar joints?
- Deltoid
- Bracialis
- Biceps brachii
- Triceps brachii
- Coracobrachialis

Back 5

Biceps brachii

Front 6

During fetal development, blood is shunted from the pulmonary artery to the aortic arch by means of:
- foramen ovale
- sinus venosus
- ductus venosus
- ductus arteriosis
- foramen secundum

Back 6

ductus arteriorus

Front 7

Blood from the cephalic vein drains into which of the following veins?
- Basilic
- Brachiocephalic
- Axillary
- Internal thoracic
- Superior vena cava

Back 7

Axillary

Front 8

The junction between the tooth surface and the crevicular epithelium is composed of which of the following?
- Cementoid
- Tight junction
- Intermediate filaments
- Basal lamina like structure
- Interstitial crevicular fluid

Back 8

Basal lamina like structure

Front 9

Which of the following shows a relative increase as the denral pulp ages?
- Number of fibroblasts
- Number of odontoblasts
- Number of blood vessels
- Size of the pulp chamber
- Amount of fibrous connective tissue

Back 9

Amount of fibrous connective tissue

Front 10

The major sensory nerve to the parietal pericardium branches from which of the following nerves?
- Vagus
- Musculophrenic
- Intercostal
- Phrenic
- Internal thoracic

Back 10

Phrenic

Front 11

Which of the following muscles is most concerned in quiet respiration?
- Rhomboid
- Diaphragm
- Subclavius
- Sacrospinalis
- Pectoralis major

Back 11

Diaphragm

Front 12

Which of the following groups of organs is retroperitoneal?
- Pancreas, transverse colon, and descending colon
- Pancreas, stomach, and ovary
- Kidney, transverse colon, and ovary
- Ureter, gallbladder, and transverse colon
- Kidney, adrenal, and rectum

Back 12

Kidney, adrenal, and rectum

Front 13

Each of the following derives from a pharyngeal pouch except one. Which one is this exception?
- Thymus
- Parathyroid
- Parotid gland
- Auditory tube
- Palatine tonsil

Back 13

Parotid gland

Front 14

The buccal mucosa typically has which of the following epithelia?
- Simple columnar
- Pseudostratified columnar
- Nonkeratinized, stratified squamous
- Parakeratinized, stratified squamous
- Orthokeratinized, stratified squamous

Back 14

Nonkeratinized, stratified squamous

Front 15

Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers that synapse in the pterygopalatine ganglion travel in which of the following nerves?
- Maxillary
- Lesser palatine
- Lesser petrosal
- Greater palatine
- Greater petrosal

Back 15

Greater petrosal

Front 16

Cell bodies of neurons mediating proprioception from the periodontal ligament of the maxillary first molar lie in the:
- semilunar ganglion
- motor nucleus of V
- spinal nucleus of V
- chief sensory nucleus of V
- mesencephalic nucleus of V

Back 16

mesencephalic nucleus of V

Front 17

Which of the following can be used to distinguish the palatine tonsil from the pharyngeal tonsil on the histologic level?
- General shape of the tonsil
- Number of lymphatic nodules
- Type of epithelium associated with it
- Type of lymphocytes present
- Presence or absence of Hassall's corpuscles

Back 17

Type of epithelium associated with it

Front 18

Which of the following parts of the hypophysis is the site of oxytocin release?
- Pars nervosa
- Infundibulum
- Pars distalis
- Pars tuberalis
- Pars intermedia

Back 18

Pars nervosa

Front 19

Following eruption and initial occlusal contact in the oral cavity, a tooh will continue to erupt in order to compensate for occlusal wear. In response to this continuous eruption, which of the following is deposited at the apex of the root?
- Primary dentin
- Secondary dentin
- Reparative dentin
- Cellular cementum
- Acellular cementum

Back 19

Cellular cementum

Front 20

Which of the following types of dentin is the most highly mineralized?
- Carious
- Predentin
- Intertubular
- Interglobular
- Intra(peri)tubular

Back 20

Intra(peri)tubular

Front 21

Which of the following predominates in steroid producing cells?
- Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
- Rough endoplasmic reticulum
- Golgi apparatus
- Phagosomes
- Nucleolus

Back 21

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

Front 22

In the oral region, the lingual artery usually is found between the:
- lingual and hypoglossal nerves
- mylohyoid and geniohyoid muscles
- hyoglossus and genioglossus muscles
- sublingual duct and hypoglossal nerve
- oral mucous membrane and the anterior belly of the digastric muscle

Back 22

hyoglossus and genioglossus muscles

Front 23

If the point of a needle enters the parotid gland during an inferior alveolar injection and solution is deposited in the gland, the most likely result is:
- paralysis of the buccinator muscle
- paralysis of the temporalis muscle
- paresthesia of the lingual nerve
- paralysis of temporal tympani
- a hematoma of the pterygoid venous plexus

Back 23

paralysis of the bucicnator muscle

Front 24

Which of the following is the cellular organelle that contains many types of hydrolytic enzymes?
- Lysosome
- Centrosome
- Mitochondrion
- Golgi apparatus
- Endoplasmic reticulum

Back 24

Lysosome

Front 25

Which of the following is the lobe of the cerebral hemisphere that lies in the middle cranial fossa?
- Frontal
- Temporal
- Occipital
- Parietal

Back 25

Temporal

Front 26

Which of the following epithelial types is normally associated with the internal lining of the majority of the tubular gastrointestinal tract?
- Simple columnar
- Simple cuboidal
- Simple squamous
- Stratified cuboidal
- Stratified squamous

Back 26

Simple columnar

Front 27

Which of the following oral tissues contains the least collagen?
- Bone
- Dentin
- Mucosa
- Enamel
- Cementum

Back 27

Enamel

Front 28

Each of the following statements describes a contributor to the initiation of mineralization of bone except one. Which one is this exception?
- Holes or pores in collagen fibers
- Release of matrix vesicles by osteoblasts
- Release of acid phosphatase by osteocytes trapped in lacunae
- Alkaline phosphatase activity in osteoblasts and matrix vesicles
- Degradation of matrix pyrophosphatase to release an inorganic phosphatase group

Back 28

Release of acid phosphatase by osteocytes trapped in lacunae

Front 29

The nasopalatine nerve reaches mucosa in the oral cavity via which of the following foramina?
- Incisive
- Infraorbital
- Lesser palatine
- Greater palatine
- Pterygopalatine

Back 29

Incisive

Front 30

Osteoblasts secrete the organic components of the dentin matrix. The fibrous matrix is mostly:
- keratin
- reticular fibers
- Type I collagen
- Type II collagen
- reabsorbed as the dentin matures

Back 30

Type I collagen

Front 31

Which of the following exhibits phagocytic activity in the central nervous system?
- Ependymal cell
- Microglial cell
- Oligodendrocyte
- Fibrous astrocyte
- Protoplasmic astrocyte

Back 31

Microglial cell

Front 32

Which of the following ligaments is most often damaged in an inferior alveolar nerve block?
- Lateral
- Capsular
- Stylohyoid
- Stylomandibular
- Sphenomandibular

Back 32

Sphenomandibular

Front 33

Each of the following structures increases the surface area of the small intestine except one. Which is the exception?
- Villi
- Rugae
- Microvilli
- Brush border
- Circular folds

Back 33

Rugae

Front 34

Submucosal glands are usually located in the:
- fundus of stomach
- duodenum
- appendix
- jejunum
- colon

Back 34

duodenum

Front 35

Which of the following represents the primary function of cementum?
- Attach Sharpey's fibers
- Protect the root from caries
- Repair traumatic injuries of the root
- Supply nutrition to the periodontal ligament
- Maintain the width of the periodontal ligament

Back 35

Attach Sharpey's fibers

Front 36

Which of the following nerves pierces the thyrohyoid membrane?
- Inferior laryngeal
- Recurrent laryngeal
- External branch of the superior laryngeal
- Internal branch of the superior laryngeal
- Pharyngeal branch of the vagus

Back 36

Internal branch of the superior laryngeal

Front 37

Atretic follicles are characteristic of which of the following?
- Integument of scalp
- Thyroid
- Pituitary
- Lymph gland
- Ovary

Back 37

Ovary

Front 38

Most plasma cells that form in the cervical lymph nodes will be found in which of the following areas?
- Paracortex
- Lymph nodules
- Medullary cords
- Germinal centers
- Trabecular sinuses

Back 38

Medullary cords

Front 39

Swelling at the angle of the mandible and the lateral nech most likely results from deflection of exudates by which of the following structures?
- Sublingual gland
- Mylohyoid muscle
- Hyoglossus muscle
- Buccopharyngeal fascia
- Pterygomandibular raphe

Back 39

Mylohyoid muscle

Front 40

If tooth #32 is infected, then the infection will typically spread to each of the following fascial spaces except one. Which one is this exception?
- Parotid
- Temporal
- Masseteric
- Buccopharyngeal

Back 40

Temporal

Front 41

Lymphatic fluid from the area of an infected tooth #32 will drain initially to which of the following nodes?
- Buccal
- Submental
- Deep cervical
- Submandibular
- Superficial cervical

Back 41

Deep cervical

Front 42

Laceration of a person's lips resulting in bleeding is from which of the following arteries?
- Nasopalatine
- Nasal branches of the facial
- Labial branches of the facial
- Buccal branch of the maxillary
- Incisive branches of the infraorbital

Back 42

Labial branches of the facial

Front 43

If there is a fracture of the maxillary bone adjacent to traumatized central incisors, then nociception terminated centrally within which of the following?
- Trigeminal ganglion
- Spinal tract of V
- Spinal subnucleus oralis of V
- Spinal subnucleus caudalis of V
- Main (chief) sensory nucleus of V

Back 43

Spinal subnucleus caudalis of V

Front 44

Which of the following cells found in the pancreas is responsible for secreting insulin?
- Alpha
- Beta
- Delta
- Acinar
- Centroacinar

Back 44

Beta

Front 45

A patient falls, strikes his chin and lacerates his tongue.The patient's tongue laceration will likely damage taste buds found on:
- filiform papilla
- fungiform papilla
- circumvallate papilla
- ventrum of the tongue

Back 45

fungiform papilla

Front 46

Pain impulses from the mandible are carried by which of the following nerves?
- Lingual
- Inferior alveolar
- Auriculotemporal
- Zygomaticotemporal
- Nerve to lateral pterygoid

Back 46

Auriculotemporal

Front 47

Each of the following events will occur during bone fracture repair except one. Which one is this exception?
- Blood clot forms
- Bridging callus forms
- Periosteal callus forms
- New endochondral bone forms
- New osteons grow across the callus

Back 47

New osteons grow across the callus

Front 48

Monosynaptic jaw closing reflexes might be disrupted in which of the following areas?
- Locus coenurus
- Globus pallidus
- Motor nucleus of V
- Mesencephalic nucleus of V
- Motor nucleus of VII

Back 48

Motor nucleus of V

Front 49

Which of the following areas is most likely for the condyle of the mandible to be displaced to?
- Oral cavity
- Maxillary sinus
- Temporal fossa
- Middle ear cavity
- Infratemporal fossa

Back 49

Infratemporal fossa

Front 50

Which of the following structures is most likely affected by a fracture running through the petrotympanic fissure?
- Chorda tympani
- Auriculotemporal nerve
- Mandibular branch of V
- Middle meningeal artery
- Accessory meningeal artery

Back 50

Chorda tympani

Front 51

Damage to the cribiform plate typically results in which of the following conditions?
- Tunnel vision
- Loss of sense of taste
- Loss of sense of smell
- Damage to optic chiasm
- Damage to speech areas

Back 51

Loss of sense of smell

Front 52

Examination of a skull shows a torn piece of muscle attached on the medial side near the angle of the mandible. This is which of the following muscles?
- Buccal
- Masseter
- Temporalis
- Medial pterygoid
- Inferior head of the pterygoid

Back 52

Medial pterygoid

Front 53

One piece of examinated soft tissue from a skull contains obvious glandular tissue. Histological examination reveals that it is composed of purely serous acini. This is most likely which of the following glands?
- Buccal
- Parotid
- Sublingual
- Submandibular
- Posterior palatal

Back 53

Parotid

Front 54

The posterior bell of the digastric is supplied by which of the following nerves?
- Vagus
- Facial
- Trigeminal
- Cervical spinal
- Inferior alveolar

Back 54

Facial

Front 55

Which of the following properties do mast cells and basophils have in common?
- Found in blood
- Develop from lymphocytes
- Secrete heparin and histamine
- Decrease during time of infection
- Migrate to line the inside of blood vessels

Back 55

Secrete heparin and histamine

Front 56

The parotid ducts crosses the:
- temporalis
- facial artery
- masseter muscle
- zygomaticus major
- lateral pterygoid

Back 56

masseter muscle

Front 57

Inorganic crystals in enamel have their long axes parallel to the rods in which of the following?
- Centers of the bodies of the rods only
- Periphery of the bodies of the rods only
- Bodies of the rods and deviating increasingly in the tails
- Tails of the rods and deviating increasingly from the centers of the bodies to the periphery
- Tails of the rods and deviating increasingly from the periphery of the bodies to the centers

Back 57

Bodies of the rods and deviating increasingly in the tails

Front 58

Each of the following venous channels has direct connections with the pterygoid venous plexus except one. Which one is this exception?
- Maxillary vein
- Vertebral vein
- Deep facial vein
- Infraorbital vein
- Posterior superior alveolar vein

Back 58

Vertebral vein

Front 59

In the upper limb, which of the following represents a hallmark of lymphatic vessels?
- Contain valves
- Follow the veins
- Always travel in pairs
- Only found on the anterior surface of the limb
- Contain fenestrations to allow passage of fluids into the interstitium

Back 59

Follow the veins

Front 60

Which of the following cranial nerves contains parasympathetic components?
- Facial
- Abducens
- Trigeminal
- Hypoglossal
- Spinal accessory

Back 60

Facial

Front 61

The thyrocervical trunk is comprised of the inferior thyroid, the transverse cervical artery, and the:
- vertebral
- suprascapular
- dorsal scapular
- superior thyroid
- ascending pharyngeal

Back 61

suprascapular

Front 62

Which of the following bones forms the roof of the orbit?
- Zygomatic
- Maxilla
- Palatine
- Sphenoid
- Frontal

Back 62

Frontal

Front 63

Which of the following describes sebaceous glands of the skin?
- They are associated with hair follicles and are derived from ectoderm
- They serve a secretory function in conjunction with Pacinian corpuscles
- They secrete a serous material by the merocrine method
- They yield a salty secretion and are derived from mesoderm

Back 63

They are associated with hair follicles and are derived from ectoderm

Front 64

Endochondral ossification occurs in the formation of:
- all bones
- flat bones
- long bones
- elastic cartilage
- mesenchymal sheets

Back 64

long bones

Front 65

Which of the following represents the anterior boundary of the mandibular fossa of the temporal bone?
- Styloid process
- Articular eminence
- Petrotympanic fissure
- External auditory meatus
- Mastoid process of temporal bone

Back 65

Articular eminence

Front 66

The osteoclast originates from which of the following?
- Monocyte
- Osteocyte
- Osteoblast
- Neutrophil
- Bone lining cell

Back 66

Monocyte

Front 67

The mylohyoid ridge (line) is found on which of the following portions of the mandible?
- Coronoid
- Neck
- Ramus
- Condyle
- Body

Back 67

Body

Front 68

Proteins for extracellular use can be synthesized in which of the following structures?
- Nucleolemma
- Mitochondria
- Heterochromatin
- Rough endoplasmic reticulum
- Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

Back 68

Rough endoplasmic reticulum

Front 69

Which of the following produces surfactant?
- Monocytes
- Clara cells
- Goblet cells
- Type I pneumocytes
- Type II pneumocytes

Back 69

Type II pneumocytes

Front 70

The primary function of the anterior portion of the temporalis muscle is to:
- elevate the mandible only
- protrude the mandible only
- elevate and retrude the mandible
- help stabilize the articular disc
- move the mandible to the contralateral side

Back 70

elevate the mandible only

Front 71

In which of the following structures are glycoproteins assembled for extracellular use?
- Nucleolemma
- Polyribosomes
- Golgi apparatus
- Rough endoplasmic reticulum
- Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

Back 71

Golgi apparatus

Front 72

Which of the following structures can be palpated by way of the external auditory (acoustic) meatus?
- Zygomatic arch
- Mandibular notch
- Lateral pterygoid muscle
- Coronoid process of the mandible
- Posterior aspect of the mandibular condyle

Back 72

Posterior aspect of the mandibular condyle

Front 73

Which of the following nerves travels from the carotid triangle into the submandibular triangle of the neck?
- Lingual
- Hypoglossal
- Great auricular
- Ansa cervicalis
- Recurrent laryngeal

Back 73

Hypoglossal

Front 74

Each of the following structures is found in the posterior mediastinum except one. Which one is this exception?
- Vagus nerve
- Phrenic nerve
- Thoracic duct
- Greater splanchnic nerve
- Sympathetic chain ganglia

Back 74

Phrenic nerve

Front 75

Intelligance and sensory-motor functions of a patient appear to be intact. However, the patient lacks self-discipline and has exhibited anti-social behavior. He is unable to plan for the future or to organize behaviors into logical sequences. A lesion in which of the following areas is likely?
- Frontal lobe
- Occipital lobe
- Internal capsule
- Temporal lobe
- Parietal lobe

Back 75

Frontal lobe

Front 76

Which of the following structures travels just posterior to the arch of the azygos vein?
- Hemiazygos vein
- Right vagus nerve
- Left vagus nerve
- Right lymphatic duct
- Greater splanchnic nerve

Back 76

Right vagus nerve

Front 77

An infection spreading by way of the lymphatic system from the veriform appendix first enters the blood stream at the:
- renal vein
- appendicular vein
- inferior vena cava
- brachiocephalic vein
- internal thoracic vein

Back 77

brachiocephalic vein

Front 78

An abnormal increase in blood pressure in a healthy person will result in an increased number of impulses traveling to the heart over which of the following nerves?
- Vagus nerves
- Sympathetic nerves
- Branches of thoracic nerves
- Branches of the trigeminal nerve
- Branches of the glossopharyngeal nerve

Back 78

Vagus nerves

Front 79

Which of the following represents the basis for the topical application of fluorides in dental caries prevention?
- Fluoride penetrates the enamel through lamellae
- Keratin content of the enamel is made more insoluble
- Fluoride coats the tooth forming a uniform protective barrier
- The primary cuticle, being less calcified, absorbs the fluoride
- Acid solubility of the surface enamel is reduced by the fluoride

Back 79

Acid solubility of the surface enamel is reduced by the fluoride

Front 80

There is a distinct change in the type of surface epithelium at the junction of the:
- ileum and colon
- fundus and pylorus
- duodenum and jejunum
- stomach and esophagus
- oropharynx and esophagus

Back 80

stomach and esophagus

Front 81

Which of the following structures directly develops from the cells remaining in the remnants of the preovulatory follicle after ovulation?
- Theca interna
- Corpus luteum
- Corpus albicans
- Atretic follicle
- Interstitial gland

Back 81

Corpus luteum

Front 82

In which of the following are tonofibrils and desmosomes especially well-developed?
- Neurons
- Fibroblasts
- Ameloblasts
- Odontoblasts
- Keratinocytes

Back 82

Keratinocytes

Front 83

The dentin of the crown of a tooth and that of the root differ in which of the following ways?
- Root dentin contains lacunae
- Root dentin is more highly calcified
- Root dentin contains more tubules per given area
- Granular layer of Tomes is found primarily in the crown
- Primary curvatures of the tubules decrease in root dentin

Back 83

Primary curvatures of the tubules decrease in root dentin

Front 84

During the life span of a multirooted tooth, dentin continues to form most rapidly at which of the following locations?
- Within the root canals
- At the dentinoenamel junction
- Floor and roof of the pulp chamber
- Mesial and distal walls of the pulp chamber
- Facial and lingual walls of the pulp chamber

Back 84

Floor and roof of the pulp chamber

Front 85

The articular disc of the temporomandibular joint consists of:
- hyaline cartilage
- loose fibrous connective tissue
- an outer synovial layer and an inner fibrous layer
- dense fibrous connective tissue
- an outer layer of mesothelium and an inner core of hyaline cartilage

Back 85

dense fibrous connective tissue

Front 86

Ameloblasts will form enamel if which of the following cells are present?
- Stellate reticulum
- Stratum intermedium
- Langerhans and Merkel
- Outer enamel epithelium
- Reduced enamel epithelium

Back 86

Stratum intermedium

Front 87

The oldest enamel in a fully erupted first molar is located at the:
- cervix of the tooth
- oral surface of a cusp
- mesial and distal surfaces of the tooth
- dentinoenamel junction underlying a cusp
- dentinoenamel junction underlying a fissure

Back 87

dentinoenamel junction underlying a cusp

Front 88

The muscles of facial expression are derived from which of the following?
- Frontonasal process
- First arch
- Second arch
- Third arch
- Fifth arch

Back 88

Second arch

Front 89

Which of the following represents the primitive oral cavity?
- Glottis
- Foregut
- Stomodeum
- Sulcus limitans
- Buccopharyngeal membrane

Back 89

Stomodeum

Front 90

Examination of a patient reveals diminished salivation due to middle ear involvement. Which of the following nerves is most likely involved?
- Facial
- Lesser petrosal
- Greater petrosal
- Auriculotemporal
- Chorda tympani

Back 90

Lesser petrosal

Front 91

If a patient has a sensation of "clogged ears" due to pressure on the auditory tubes, then which of the following nerves is providing this sensory innervation?
- Glossopharyngeal
- Lesser occipital
- Vestibulocochlear
- Zygomatic temporal
- Posterior deep temporal

Back 91

Glossopharyngeal

Front 92

As supragingival plaque continues to form and move apically, it will first disrupt which of the following tissues?
- Principal fiber groups of the PDL
- Sharpey's fibers of the cementum
- Attachment of gingival epithelium
- Attachment of sulcular epithelium
- Attachment of junctional epithelium

Back 92

Attachment of junctional epithelium

Front 93

Which of the following best describes the new alveolar bone that is deposited during orthodontic treatment?
- Woven
- Compact
- Cementum
- Endochondral
- Intramembranous

Back 93

Intramembranous

Front 94

Which of the following best describes the results of continued abrasion of dentures on the underlying alveolar mucosa?
- Lining mucosa becoming gingival mucosa
- Lining mucosa becoming masticatory mucosa
- Gingival mucosa becoming orthkeratinized
- Masticatory mucosa becoming parakeratinized
- Orthokeratinized mucosa becoming parakeratinized

Back 94

Gingival mucosa becoming orthokeratinized

Front 95

A patient's mandibular denture is determined to be pressing too far inferiorly, so that contraction of the muscular floor renders the denture unusable. Which of the following muscles is responsible for this circumstance?
- Mentalis
- Mylohyoid
- Geniohyoid
- Genioglossus
- Medial pterygoid

Back 95

Mylohyoid

Front 96

Which of the following nerve fibers is primarily responsible for sharp pain in Tooth #30?
- A alpha
- A beta
- A delta
- B
- C

Back 96

A delta

Front 97

Which of the following does a human normally possess before birth but not after?
- Fossa ovalis
- Hepatic vein
- Ligamentum teres
- Ductus arteriosus
- Crista terminalis

Back 97

Ductus arteriosus

Front 98

The core of a microvillus consists of which of the following?
- 9 + 2 arrangment of microtubules
- 9 triplets of microtubules
- intermediate filaments
- Vimentin filaments
- Microfilaments

Back 98

Microfilaments

Front 99

Which of the following organelles is the site of protein synthesis?
- Rough endoplasmic reticulum
- Membrane bound vesicles
- Sarcoplasmic reticulum
- Mitochondrion
- Golgi complex

Back 99

Rough endoplasmic reticulum

Front 100

In adults, the thyroid gland's point of origin is seen as the:
- copula
- tuberculum impar
- sulcus terminalis
- palatine tonsil
- foramen cecum

Back 100

foramen cecum

Front 101

Which of the following triangles is formed by the superior belly of the omohyoid muscle, the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, and the posterior belly of the digastric muscle?
- Superclavicular
- Submandibular
- Digastric
- Muscular
- Carotid

Back 101

Carotid

Front 102

Sensations from the left face and teeth are interpreted in which of the following lobes?
- Left frontal
- Right frontal
- Left parietal
- Right parietal
- Right temporal

Back 102

Right parietal

Front 103

Submucosal glands are usually located in the:
- colon
- jejunum
- appendix
- duodenum
- fundus of the stomach

Back 103

duodenum

Front 104

The sensory innervation to the posterior third of the tongue reflects the embryonic origin of its covering epithelium from the:
- occipital somites
- first pharyngeal (branchial) arch
- second pharyngeal (branchial) arch
- third pharyngeal (branchial) arch
- fourth pharyngeal (branchial) arch

Back 104

third pharyngeal (branchial) arch

Front 105

After a right side radical mastoid operation, a patient has facial distortion and the mouth is drawn upward to the left. He is unable to close his right eye. Saliva tends to accumulate in his right cheek and dribble out of the corner of his mouth. Which of the following nerves most likely was damaged during the operation?
- Vagus
- Facial
- Trigeminal
- Hypoglossal
- Glossopharyngeal

Back 105

Facial

Front 106

The blood-testis barrier is maintained by:
- spermatogonia
- spermatocytes
- Sertoli cells
- Leydig cells
- myoepithelial cells

Back 106

Sertoli cells

Front 107

A patient's pain from the temporomandibular joint was referred to the skin over the parotid region and to the side of the head. This referral parretn is based on the distribution of which of the following nerves?
- Auriculotemporal
- Greater auricular
- Temporal branch of the facial
- Superior alveolar
- Inferior alveolar

Back 107

Auriculotemporal

Front 108

The temporomandibular joint capsule is supplied by several nerves. Two of these are the auriculotemporal and the:
- facial
- buccal
- maxillary
- masseteric
- inferior alveolar

Back 108

masseteric

Front 109

If the needle is advanced too far posteriorly during an inferior alveolar block injection, anesthesia of the mandibular teeth will not occur because the needle has entered the:
- parotid gland
- pterygoid space
- inferior alveolar canal
- medial pterygoid muscle
- superior pharyngeal constrictor muscle

Back 109

parotid gland

Front 110

Meiosis occurs in:
- ductus epididymis
- uniferous tubules
- seminiferous tubules
- stratum germinativum
- germinal epithelium of ovary

Back 110

seminiferous tubules

Front 111

The cell bodies of proprioceptive nerves carrying information from the periodontal ligaments are located in the:
- nucleus ambiguus
- trigeminal ganglion
- spinal nucleus of V
- main sensory nucleus of V
- mesencephalic nucleus of V

Back 111

mesencephalic nucleus of V

Front 112

Which of the following are two muscles that prevent food from entering the nasopharynx during swallowing?
- Mylohyoid and the palatoglossus
- Styloglossus and the palatoglossus
- Tensor tympani and the stylopharyngeus
- Tensor veli palatini and the levator veli palatini
- Musculus uvulae and the inferior pharyngeal constrictor

Back 112

Tensor veli palatini and the levator veli palatini

Front 113

Infections or neoplasms that spread by lymphatics from the skin of the angle of the mouth most likely pass to which of the following lymph nodes?
- Lingual
- Submental
- Submandibular
- Anterior cervical
- Superficial cervical

Back 113

Submandibular

Front 114

Preganglionic sympathetic fibers to the head have their cell bodies in the:
- paravertebral ganglia
- cervicothoracic ganglia
- superior cervical ganglia
- gray rami communicantes of the thoracic region
- intermediolateral horns of the thoracic spinal cord

Back 114

Intermediolateral horns of the thoracic spinal cord

Front 115

In the posterior mediastinum, the thoracic duct usually lies:
- anterior the the phrenic nerves
- posterior to the esophagus
- on the anterolateral surface of trachea

Back 115

posterior to the esophagus

Front 116

Which of the following veins is formed by the union of the internal jugular and subclavian veins?
- Superior vena cava
- Brachiocephalic
- Pulmonary
- Cephalic
- Azygos

Back 116

Brachiocephalic

Front 117

Which of the following is the most numerous cell type in the normal dental pulp?
- Adipocyte
- Mast cell
- Fibroblast
- Macrophage
- Odontoblast

Back 117

Fibroblast

Front 118

The middle meningeal artery enters the cranial vault through the:
- foramen ovale
- foramen lacerum
- foramen rotundum
- foramen spinosum
- superior orbital fissure

Back 118

foramen spinosum

Front 119

Which of the following structures is retroperitoneal?
- Spleen
- Kidney
- Stomach
- Sigmoid colon
- Transverse colon

Back 119

Kidney

Front 120

The hamular process is an extension of the:
- ethmoid bone
- palatine bone
- maxillary tuberosity
- medial pterygoid plate
- lateral pterygoid plate

Back 120

medial pterygoid plate

Front 121

The muscularis externa of the esophagus in the lower one third consists of:
- mostly skeletal muscle, but some smooth muscle
- equal amounts of smooth and skeletal muscles
- smooth muscle only
- skeletal muscle only

Back 121

smooth muscle only

Front 122

The dermis may be classified as which of the following types of connective tissue?
- Adipose
- Modified elastic
- Reticular connective
- Dense regular collagenous connective
- Dense irregular collagenous connective

Back 122

Dense irregular collagenous connective

Front 123

The hepatic triad consists of which of the following?
- Central vein, hepatic vein, and bile duct
- Portal vein, bile duct, and hepatic artery
- Portal vein, bile canaliculi, and hepatic vein
- Central vein, bile canaliculi, and hepatic artery
- Hepatic artery, hepatic vein, and bile duct

Back 123

Portal vein, bile duct, and hepatic artery

Front 124

Which of the following represents a popular theory for the force that is considered to be the most responsible for active tooth eruption?
- Cells and fibers in the developing PDL pull the tooth toward the oral cavity
- Dentin formation in the root pushes the tooth into the oral cavity
- Vascular pressure within the pulp pushes the tooth intraorally
- Apical fundal bone formation pushes the tooth
- Crestal bone formation pulls the tooth

Back 124

Cells and fibers in the developing PDL pull the tooth toward the oral cavity

Front 125

Which of the following ligaments helps resist posterior movement of the mandibular condyles?
- Pterygomandibular raphe
- Temporomandibular
- Anterior cruciate
- Sphenomandibular
- Stylomandibular

Back 125

Temporomandibular

Front 126

The most commonly accepted theory for pain reception in the dental pulp suggests that:
- nerves in the dentinal tubules have receptors for pain
- odontoblastic processes serve as the only receptors for pain
- there are numerous Meissner's corpuscles in the pulp that respond to pain stimuli
- nerve endings in the periodontal ligament enter the pulp through accessory canals to provide pain reception
- hydrodynamic phenomena involving fluid flux in the tubules result in stimuli that activate pain receptors within the pulp

Back 126

hydrodynamic phenomena involving fluid flux in tubules result in stimuli that activate pain receptors within the pulp

Front 127

The hyoid bone is attached by muscles or ligaments to the:
- palatine bone and the soft palate
- epiglottis and the cricoid cartilage
- mandible, the first rib, and the clavicle
- mandible, the styloid process, and the tongue

Back 127

mandible, the styloid process, and the tongue

Front 128

The pterygoid plexus is usually formed by veins that are tributaries of which of the following?
- Maxillary vein
- Angular vein
- Facial vein
- Occipital vein
- Anterior jugular vein

Back 128

Maxillary vein

Front 129

In a healthy temporomandibular joint the articular surfaces are covered with which of the following?
- Fat
- Bone
- Hyaline cartilage
- Synovial membrane
- Dense fibrous connective tissue

Back 129

Dense fibrous connective tissue

Front 130

Which of the following represents the primary supinator at the radio-ulnar joint?
- Supinator
- Brachialis
- Biceps brachii
- Brachioradialis
- Coracobrachialis

Back 130

Biceps brachii

Front 131

Which of the following veins are located within the bones of the calvarium?
- Carotid
- Diploic
- Meningeal
- Infrahyoid
- Subarachnoid

Back 131

Diploic

Front 132

Loss of the gag reflex suggests damage to which of the following cranial nerves?
- V
- VII
- IX
- XII

Back 132

IX

Front 133

Oxyphil cells are present in which of the following?
- Thymus
- Spleen
- Fundic stomach
- Neurohypophysis
- Parathyroid gland

Back 133

Parathyroid gland

Front 134

Which of the following represents the most vascular portion of the articular disc of the temporomandibular joint?
- Anterior thick zone (band)
- Posterior thick zone (band)
- Intermediate thin zone (band)
- Bilaminar zone

Back 134

Bilaminar zone

Front 135

The spleen, the thymus, and lymph nodes are similar in that each:
- filters blood
- contains lymphocytes
- has a medulla and a cortex
- serves as a filter for tissue fluid
- has afferent and efferent lymphatic vessels

Back 135

contains lymphocytes

Front 136

Which of the following represents the most common cartilage found in the embryo and in the adult?
- Fibrocartilage
- Hyaline cartilage
- Elastic cartilage
- Calcified cartilage

Back 136

Hyaline cartilage

Front 137

The ossicles of the ear are located in the:
- utricle
- labyrinth
- inner ear
- middle ear
- external auditory meatus

Back 137

middle ear

Front 138

A terminal branch of the mandibular nerve emerges through which of the following foramina?
- Supraorbital
- Infraorbital
- Stylomastoid
- Rotundum
- Mental

Back 138

Mental

Front 139

Bilateral contraction of which of the following muscles acts to protrude the mandible?
- Lateral pterygoid
- Digastric
- Buccinator
- Temporalis
- Mylohyoid

Back 139

Lateral pterygoid

Front 140

Which of the following organs is the nearest to the right kidney?
- Colon
- Spleen
- Stomach
- Pancreas
- Duodenum

Back 140

Colon

Front 141

Which of the following connective tissue types is primarily found in the fetus, but not in the adult?
- Loose
- Mesenchyme
- Areolar
- Dense regular
- Dense irregular

Back 141

Mesenchyme

Front 142

Antidiuretic hormone is produced by cells that reside in which of the following structures, cells or areas?
- Pars nervosa
- Pars intermedia
- Basophils of the pars distalis
- Acidophils of the pars distalis
- Supraoptic nucleus of the hypothalamus

Back 142

Supraoptic nucleus of the hypothalamus

Front 143

Which of the following structures directly develops from the cells remaining in the remnants of the preovulatory follicle after ovulation?
- Theca interna
- Corpus luteum
- Corpus albicans
- Atretic follicle
- Interstitial gland

Back 143

Corpus luteum

Front 144

The heart is contained in which mediastinum?
- Middle
- Superior
- Anterior
- Posterior

Back 144

Middle

Front 145

The thinnest portion of the bony orbit is located in the:
- roof
- floor
- medial wall
- lateral wall
- posterior wall

Back 145

medial wall

Front 146

The nerve of the pterygoid canal contains which of the following fibers?
- Taste and vision
- Pressure and touch sensation
- Pain and temperature sensation
- Sympathetic and parasympathetic
- Proprioception and touch sensation

Back 146

Sympathetic and parasympathetic

Front 147

If there is an organ that needs to stretch and return to its original shape, then which of the following epithelia would most likely be associated with it?
- Transitional
- Simple cuboidal
- Cimple columnar
- Simple squamous
- Pseudostratified columnar

Back 147

Transitional

Front 148

Each of the following laminae help to form a tooth except one. Which one is this exception?
- Vestibular
- Successional
- Dental

Back 148

Vestibular

Front 149

Which of the following anterior primary rami form the medial cord of the brachial plexus?
- C4 and C5
- C6 and C7
- C5, C6, and C7
- C8 and T1
- T2 and T3

Back 149

C8 and T1

Front 150

The only purely serous minor salivary gland is located in the lamina propria of the:
- tongue
- hard palate
- soft palate
- buccal mucosa
- attached gingiva

Back 150

tongue

Front 151

The maxillary artery is most often a branch of which of the following arteries?
- Facial
- External carotid
- Internal carotid
- Common carotid
- Superficial temporal

Back 151

External carotid

Front 152

Which of the following structures runs directly adjacent to, and parallel with, the median nerve in the arm?
- Ulnar artery
- Radial artery
- Cephalic artery
- Brachial artery
- Medial brachial cutaneous nerve

Back 152

Brachial artery

Front 153

Postganglionic fibers from the superior cervical ganglion innervate which of the following muscles?
- Ciliary
- Inferior oblique
- Dilator pupillae
- Sphincter pupillae
- Levator palpebre superioris

Back 153

Dilator pupillae

Front 154

Connective tissue proper is characterized as having:
- poor vascularization
- poor reparative ability
- sensitivity as its main function
- more intercellular material than cells
- mast cells as the predominant cell type

Back 154

more intercullular material than cells

Front 155

Which of the following represents a segment of the bronchial tree that is less than 1 mm in diameter and lined by simple columnar ciliated epithelium with no cartilage plates in the wall?
- Bronchiole
- Alveolus
- Bronchus
- Alveolar sac
- Bronchial septum

Back 155

Bronchiole

Front 156

Which of the following cells forms Howship's lacuna?
- Osteocyte
- Osteoblast
- Osteoclast
- Chondrocyte
- Chondroblast

Back 156

Osteoclast

Front 157

Which portion of dentin is the most highly mineralized?
- Intratubular (peritubular)
- Intertubular
- Interglobular
- Mantle

Back 157

Intratubular (peritubular)

Front 158

Which of the following is the posterior limit of the vestibular side of the cheek?
- Retromolar pad
- Sulcus terminalis
- Pterygomandibular raphe
- Stylomandibular ligament
- Sphenomandibular ligament

Back 158

Pterygomandibular raphe

Front 159

When a developing carious lesion reaches the dentinoenamel junction, this will often initiate the formation of which of the following at the pulp interface of the dentin?
- Mantle dentin
- Primary dentin
- False pulp stones
- Interglobular dentin
- Tertiary (reparative) dentin

Back 159

Tertiary (reparative) dentin

Front 160

Which nerve enters the pharynx in the gap between the superior and middle constrictors?
- Lingual
- Hypoglossal
- Glossopharyngeal
- Inferior laryngeal
- Superior laryngeal

Back 160

Glossopharyngeal

Front 161

Certain nerve trunks are composed of several fascicles. Which of the following entirely encloses these trunks?
- Epineurium
- Endoneurium
- Perineurium

Back 161

Epineurium

Front 162

Pain in the temporomandibular joint would be perceived by endings of the:
- auriculotemporal nerve in the capsule and periphery of the disc
- lateral pterygoid nerve in the capsule, disc and retrodiscal pad
- auriculotemporal nerve throughout the meniscus
- maxillary branch of the trigeminal in the retrodiscal pad and capsule
- inferior alveolar nerve

Back 162

auriculotemporal nerve in the capsule and periphery of the disc

Front 163

Which of the following lymphoid aggregations is (are) the most likely to be associated with pseudostratified columnar ciliated epithelium?
- Palatine tonsil
- Lingual tonsil
- Pharyngeal tonsil
- Peyer's patches

Back 163

Pharyngeal tonsil

Front 164

Which of the following intercellular junctions provides the greatest resistance to substances attempting to move between cells?
- Gap junction
- Zonula occludens
- Zonula adherens
- Macula adherens
- Fascia adherens

Back 164

Zonula occludens

Front 165

How is a large vein different from its companion artery? The vein has:
- a smaller lumen
- a less extensive vasa vasorum
- a more prominent tunica media
- an indistinct endothelial lining
- a more prominent tunica adventitia

Back 165

a more prominent tunica adventitia

Front 166

Fiber tracts passing from the thalamus to the cortex are found in which of the following?
- Corpus callosum
- Internal capsule
- Medial lemniscus
- Lateral lemniscus
- Anterior commissure

Back 166

Internal capsule

Front 167

Which of the following represents the main arterial supply to the brain?
- Internal jugular
- Internal carotid
- External carotid
- Middle meningeal

Back 167

Internal carotid

Front 168

Which of the following is the nerve that supplies the mimetic muscles?
- Vagus
- Facial
- Trigeminal
- Hypoglossal
- Spinal accessory

Back 168

Facial

Front 169

Which of the following is a pulpal change associated with increasing age?
- Increased cellularity
- Increased collagenous components
- Development of more extensive subodontoblastic nerve plexus
- Development of more extensive subodontic capillary plexus
- Development of more extensive lymphatic plexus

Back 169

Increased collagenous components

Front 170

The pyramids contain:
- pain fibers
- sensor fibers
- upper motor neuron fibers only
- lower motor neuron fibers only
- upper and lower motor neuron fibers

Back 170

upper motor neuron fibers only

Front 171

The prochordal plate consists of:
- embryonic endoderm, mesoderm, and ectoderm
- a circular area anterior to the notochord in which the endoderm is fused to the embryonic mesoderm
- the cloacal membrane and the overlying amnion
- endoderm of the roof of the yolk sac and embryonic ectoderm
- the cardiogenic mesoderm and the neurectoderm

Back 171

endoderm of the roof of the yolk sac and embryonic ectoderm

Front 172

Which of the following structures are found in the infratemporal fossa?
- Temporalis muscle and parotid gland
- Masseter and lateral pterygoid muscles
- Superficial temporal artery and parotid lymphatic nodes
- Mandibular division of V and chorda tympani branch of VII

Back 172

Mandibular division of V and chorda tympani branch of VII

Front 173

Which of the following glands is purely mucous?
- Parotid
- Palatine
- Sublingual
- von Ebner's
- Submandibular

Back 173

Palatine

Front 174

A patient bites the tip of his tongue. The pain that ensues is carried by way of which of the following cranial nerves?
- Vagus, X
- Facial, VII
- Trigeminal, V
- Hypoglossal, XII
- Glossopharyngeal, IX

Back 174

Trigeminal, V

Front 175

To expose the submandibular duct by an intraoral appraoch, one must cut through which of the following?
- Mucous membrane only
- Mucous membrane and the genioglossus muscle
- Mucous membrane and the mylohyoid muscle
- Mucous membrane and the geniohyoid muscle
- Mucous membrane and the anterior digastric muscle

Back 175

Mucous membrane only

Front 176

The submandibular ganglion is associated with which of the following nerves?
- Inferior alveolar
- Glossopharyngeal
- Maxillary
- Mylohyoid
- Lingual

Back 176

Lingual

Front 177

Accessory root canals can be formed by:
- a break in the epithelial diaphragm prior to dentin formation
- a break in the epithelial root sheath (Hertwig) prior to dentin formation
- adherence of the epithelial root sheath (Hertwig) to the dentinal surface
- an epithelial rest that lies in contact with the dentin of the root

Back 177

a break in the epithelial root sheath (Hertwig) prior to dentin formation

Front 178

In the mid-palatal raphe region of the hard palate, which of the following represents the layer of the epithelium of the oral mucosa which is deep to the stratum spinosum?

Back 178

Stratum basale

Front 179

Information from the hypothalamus is carried to the anterior pituitart (pars distalis) by the:
- gamma efferent system
- hypothalamic radation
- hypothalamo hypophyseal tract
- hypothalamic association fibers
- hypothalamo hypophyseal portal system

Back 179

hypothalamo hypophyseal portal system

Front 180

On its way to the brain, the vertebral artery passes through which of the following?
- Foramen magnum
- Foramen lacerum
- Jugular foramen
- Foramen spinosum

Back 180

Foramen magnum

Front 181

In addition to the common carotid arteries, which of the following blood vessels provides circulation to the brain?
- Vertebral artery
- Thyrocervical trunk
- Costacervical trunk
- Superior thyroid artery
- Internal thoracic artery

Back 181

Vertebral artery

Front 182

On a comparative basis, bone and cellular cementum are similar in that both:
- are difficult to resorb, heal well, and contain cement lines
- contain concentric patterns, have Volkmann's canals, and can be cancellous
- are deposited throughout life, acquire blood vessels during aging, and contain similar collagenous fibers
- contain cells in lacunae with canaliculi that extend primarily toward the nutritional source

Back 182

contain cells in lacunae with canaliculi that extend primarily toward the nutritional source

Front 183

Which of the following cranial nerves supplies the muscles derived from the first pair of branchial arches?
- Vagus
- Facial
- Trigeminal
- Hypoglossal
- Glossopharyngeal

Back 183

Trigeminal

Front 184

Cranial nerve V emerges from the:
- pons
- midbrain
- diencephalon
- medulla oblongata
- cerebral peduncles

Back 184

pons

Front 185

Which of the following structures may be found within the posterior mediastinum?
- Heart
- Phrenic nerve
- Thoracic duct
- Arch of the aorta
- Recurrent laryngeal nerve

Back 185

Thoracic duct

Front 186

Which group of fibers of the periodontal ligament offer the most resistance to movement of the tooth in an apical direction?
- Alveolar crest
- Interradicular
- Horizontal
- Oblique
- Apical

Back 186

Oblique

Front 187

Which of the following bones is formed primarily by intramembranous ossification?
- Femur
- Tibia
- Stapes
- Humerus
- Mandible

Back 187

Mandible

Front 188

Gnarled enamel is most frequently found:
- in cusps
- near the cervical line
- around pits and fissures
- adjacent to contact areas
- equally on all surfaces of the crown

Back 188

in cusps

Front 189

A patient bleeds from the anterior septal region of his nose. A break in the vessel walls has caused this bleeding. These vessels originate from which of the following arteries?
- Angular
- Posterior superior alveolar
- Sphenopalatine
- Greater palatine

Back 189

Sphenopalatine

Front 190

Maturation of enamel is characterized by a percentage increase in inorganic content and a percentage:
- increase in water
- increase in organic content
- decrease in water and decrease in organic content
- decrease in water and increase in organic content
- increase in water and decrease in organic content

Back 190

decrease in water and decrease in organic content

Front 191

Para-keratinized oral mucosa is often found on which of the following?
- Oral surface of the soft palate
- Ventral surface of the tongue
- Skin surface of the lips
- Floor of the mouth
- Attached gingiva

Back 191

Attached gingiva

Front 192

Which of the following represents the major fibrillar component of mature dentin?
- Elastin
- Reticulin
- Type I collagen
- Type II collagen
- Type III collagen

Back 192

Type I collagen

Front 193

Each of the following terms applies to a discussion of enamel structure except one. Which one is this exception?
- Prisms
- Perikymata
- Striae of Retzius
- Contour lines of Owen
- Interprismatic substance

Back 193

Contour lines of Owen

Front 194

In a photomicrograph of a ground secion of a tooth viewed by transmitted light, some dentinal tubules appear black because ther:
- are filled with blood
- are filled with minerals
- are filled with bacteria
- have become filled with air during sectioning
- contain deeply striated odontoblastic processes

Back 194

have become filled with air during sectioning

Front 195

Which of the following represents the secretory product of the parafollicular cells of the thyroid gland?
- Iodine
- Protease
- Thyroxine
- Calcitonin
- Thyroglobulin

Back 195

Calcitonin

Front 196

Parasympathetic innervation controlling salivation originates with which of the following cranial nerves?
- V, VII, IX, X, and XII
- V, VII, IX, and X
- V, IX, and X
- VII, IX, and XI
- VII and IX

Back 196

VII and IX

Front 197

Peripheral (lower motor neuron) lesions of cranial nerve VII will cause which of the following?
- A contralateral paralysis of the facial musculature
- An ipsilateral flaccid paralysis of the facial musculature
- A contralateral paralysis of only the lower facial muscles
- A contralateral paralysis of only the upper facial muscles
- An ipsilateral flaccid paralysis of only the lower facial muscles

Back 197

An ipsilateral flaccid paralysis of the facial musculature

Front 198

The temporalis muscle inserts into the:
- coronoid process
- condylar process
- fovea of the mandible
- lateral aspect of the mandibular angle
- articular disk of the temporomandibular joint

Back 198

coronoid process

Front 199

Which of the following is surrounded partly by connective tissue and epithelium, contains lymphoid follicles, has no sinuses, and is penetrated by a number of crypts?
- Spleen
- Thymus
- Lymph node
- Palatine tonsil
- Bursa of Fabricius

Back 199

Palatine tonsil

Front 200

Desmosomes function by serving as:
- a means for communication between cells
- a means for attachment of adjacent cells
- an outlet for secretory products of a cell
- a bridge for continuity of cytoplasm between adjacent cells
- a means by which tonofibrils can pass from one cell into another

Back 200

a means for attachment of adjacent cells

Front 201

The growth rate in cartilage of the epiphyseal plate of a long bone is markedly retarded when there is a lack of hormone from which of the following?
- Hypophysis
- Adrenals
- Testes
- Parathyroids
- Islets of Langerhans

Back 201

Hypophysis

Front 202

The dentist incises the mucous membrane of the floor of the mouth. This incision extends from the molar region to the sublingual caruncle (papilla). Which of the following structural groups will be exposed first?
- Sublingual gland, lingual nerves, and submandibular duct
- Hyoglossus and mylohyoid muscles, and hypoglossal nerve
- Lingual nerve, lingual artery, and anterior belly of the digastric muscle
- Lingual nerve, hypoglossal nerve, and submental branch of the facial artery
- Anterior belly of the digastric muscle, mylohyoid nerve, and submental branch of the facial artery

Back 202

Sublingual gland, lingual nerves, and submandibular duct

Front 203

The trigeminal nerve innervates exclusively which of the following muscles or muscle parts?
- Buccinator and masseter
- Mylohyoid and geniohyoid
- Medial and lateral pterygoid
- Tensor and levator veli palatini
- Anterior and posterior bellies of digastric

Back 203

Medial and lateral pterygoid

Front 204

As the subclavian vein crosses the first rib, it lies:
- anterior to the anterior scalene muscle
- posterior to the anterior scalene muscle
- posterior to the posterior scalene muscle
- between the anterior and the posterior scalene muscles
- between the scalene posterior and the levator scapulae muscles

Back 204

anterior to the anterior scalene muscle

Front 205

Which of the following best describes the passage of material through the hepatic sinusoids?
- Blood passes toward the central vein
- Bile passes peripherally toward the portal canal
- Lymph moves centrally to join the sublobular duct
- Lymph moves peripherally toward the space of Disse
- Blood passes peripherally away from the central vein

Back 205

Blood passes toward the central vein

Front 206

In the life cycle of an ameloblast, there are cells that contain Tomes' processes. These cells are in which of the following stages?
- Secretory
- Morphogenic
- Organizing
- Maturative
- Protective

Back 206

Secretory

Front 207

Histologically, the osteoclasts of bone resorption are typically:
- anuclear
- mononuclear
- multinuclear
- polymorphonuclear

Back 207

multinuclear

Front 208

During an intraoral injection to the mandibular foramen, the needle passes through the mucous membrane and the buccinator muscle. As it does so, the needle lies:
- inferior to the mandibular lingula
- superior to the auriculotemporal nerve
- lateral to the neck of the mandible
- lateral to the medial pterygoid muscle
- lateral to the stylomandibular ligament

Back 208

lateral to the medial pterygoid muscle

Front 209

Which of the following nerves is the most likely to become injured in fractures of the mid-humeral shaft?
- Ulnar
- Radial
- Median
- Axillary
- Musculocutaneous

Back 209

Radial

Front 210

Which of the following types of epithelium is well adapted for secretory or absorptive functions?
- Simple columnar
- Simple squamous
- Stratified cuboidal
- Stratified squamous
- Pseudostratified columnar

Back 210

Simple columnar

Front 211

It is possible to distinguish histologically between the stomach and the duodenum because of the presence of:
- mucosal glands in the stomach only
- submucosal glands in the duodenum only
- simple columnar epithelium lining the stomach only
- muscularis mucosa in the stomach only
- smooth muscle in the external musculature of the duodenum only

Back 211

submucosal glands in the duodenum only

Front 212

The superior and inferior ophthalmic veins drain directly or indirectly into the:
- frontal vein
- cavernous sinus
- anterior facial vein
- internal jugular vein
- superior petrosal sinus

Back 212

cavernous sinus

Front 213

Each of the following develops as an outpocketing of the gut tube except one. Which one is this exception?
- Lung
- Liver
- Spleen
- Pancreas
- Gallbladder

Back 213

Spleen

Front 214

Primary afferent neurons in the gag reflex are carried by which of the following cranial nerves?
- Vagus (X)
- Facial (VII)
- Trigeminal (V)
- Hypoglossal (XII)
- Glossopharyngeal (IX)

Back 214

Glossopharyngeal (IX)

Front 215

Which of the following nerves contributes to the motor innervation of intrinsic muscles of the tongue?
- V3
- VII
- IX
- XII

Back 215

XII

Front 216

Each of the following muscles receives motor innervation from the ansa cervicalis except one. Which one is this exception?
- Omohyoid
- Thyrohyoid
- Geniohyoid
- Sternohyoid
- Sternothyroid

Back 216

Geniohyoid

Front 217

The three divisions of the trigeminal nerve pass through openings in which of the following bones?
- Frontal
- Sphenoid
- Temporal
- Parietal
- Occipital

Back 217

Sphenoid

Front 218

Which of the following structures leaves an impression on the right lung?
- Azygos vein
- Right vagus nerve
- Right phrenic nerve
- Descending thoracic aorta
- Right common carotid artery

Back 218

Azygos vein

Front 219

Which of the following represents the main support of the wall of a bronchus?
- Smooth muscle
- Hyaline cartilage
- Elastic membranes
- Dense irregular connective tissue
- Elastic and collagenous connective tissue

Back 219

Hyaline cartilage

Front 220

The diploid number of chromosomes is maintained in proliferating somatic cells by which of the following processes?
- Meiosis
- Mitosis
- Budding
- Amitosis
- Cytokinesis

Back 220

Mitosis

Front 221

Tendons are comprised of which of the following types of collagenous connective tissue?
- Areolar
- Reticular
- Dense regular
- Dense irregular

Back 221

Dense regular

Front 222

Which of the following nerves innervates the trapezius muscle?
- Radial
- Axillary
- Accessory
- Thoracodorsal
- Long thoracic

Back 222

Accessory

Front 223

The lateral pterygoid muscle inserts into which of the following?
- Condylar process only
- Medial aspect of the mandibular ramus
- Articular disk of the temporomandibular joint and neck of the mandible
- Articular disk of the temporomandibular joint and coronoid process

Back 223

Articular disk of the temporomandibular joint and neck of the mandible

Front 224

If the facial nerve were to be cut just after it exited the stylomastoid foramen, it would cause loss of innervation to which of the following?
- Lacrimal gland
- Mylohyoid muscle
- Submandibular gland
- Orbicularis oculi muscle
- Anterior belly of the digastric muscle

Back 224

Orbicularis oculi muscle

Front 225

Each of the following structures is an opening into the pterygopalatine fossa except one. Which one is this exception?
- Facial canal
- Pterygoid canal
- Pharyngeal canal
- Sphenopalatine foramen
- Pterygomaxillary fissure

Back 225

Facial canal

Front 226

The hepatic veins drain blood from the liver into the:
- inferior vena cava
- superior vena cava
- azygos vein
- portal vein
- superior mesenteric vein

Back 226

inferior vena cava

Front 227

Calcium ions are sequestered by:
- T tubules
- sarcoplasm
- sarcosomes
- myofibrils
- sarcoplasmic reticulum

Back 227

sarcoplasmic reticulum

Front 228

Which of the following two muscles attach to the pterygomandibular raphe?
- Buccinator and palatopharyngeus
- Medial pterygoid and palatopharyngeus
- Levator veli palatini and palatopharyngeus
- Buccinator and superior pharyngeal constrictor

Back 228

Buccinator and superior pharyngeal constrictor

Front 229

Which of the following features distinguishes bone from osteoid?
- Bone is not resorbed
- Bone has a mineralized matrix
- Osteoid contains fewer lacunae per unit area
- Osteoid contains a different type of fiber in its matrix

Back 229

Bone has a mineralized matrix

Front 230

Which of the following explains why the Barr body found in certain epithelial cells is significant?
- It suggests mitotic activity
- It indicates protein synthesis
- It indicates a metaplasmic change
- It is a symptom of nuclear disintegration
- It assists in differentiating between the sexes

Back 230

It assists in differentiating between the sexes

Front 231

The vagus nerve supplies parasympathetic fibers to which of the following?
- Descending colon
- Ascending colon
- Sigmoid colon
- Rectum
- Anus

Back 231

Ascending colon

Front 232

The lymph vessels that drain both dental arches connect directly with which of the following nodes?
- Submandibular
- Deep cervical
- Sublingual
- Retropharyngeal
- Superficial cervical

Back 232

Submandibular

Front 233

Which of the following strata of the epidermis is the least cytodifferentiated?
- Basale
- Corneum
- Spinosum
- Granulosum

Back 233

Basale

Front 234

The roots of the brachial plexus are derived from the ventral rami of:
- the cervical plexus
- the spinal accessory nerve
- spinal nerves C3 through C5
- spinal nerves C3 through C7
- spinal nerves C5 through T1

Back 234

spinal nerves C5 through T1

Front 235

Some medications can be absorbed through the mucosa of the tongue's ventral surface and through the mucosa of the floor of the mouth. This absorption can take place in these areas because the mucosa is:
- covered by pseudostratified squamous epithelium
- covered by simple squamous epithelium with a vascular lamina propria
- covered by thin nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium with a thin lamina propria
- covered by keratinized stratified squamous epithelium that contains numerous capillaries
- pierced by the ducts of numerous minor salivary glands through which some types of medication are easily absorbed

Back 235

covered by thin nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium with a thin lamina propria

Front 236

Pain fibers from the posterior third of the tongue travel with which cranial nerve?
- Vagus
- Facial
- Trigeminal
- Glossopharyngeal
- Hypoglossal

Back 236

Glossopharyngeal

Front 237

A patient who has damage to the right hypoglossal nerve will protrude the tongue:
- upward
- downward
- straight forward
- toward the right side
- toward the left side

Back 237

toward the right side

Front 238

In terms of wall thickness, the relative proportion of smooth muscle is greatest in which of the following?
- Veins
- Venules
- Arterioles
- Capillaries
- Large arteries

Back 238

Arterioles

Front 239

The superior laryngeal artery pierces the thyrohyoid membrane in company with which of the following laryngeal nerves?
- Inferior laryngeal
- Internal laryngeal
- External laryngeal
- Superior laryngeal
- Recurrent laryngeal

Back 239

Internal laryngeal

Front 240

The vertebral artery is a branch of the:
- brachiocephalic artery
- external carotid artery
- internal carotid artery
- subclavian artery
- thyrocervical trunk

Back 240

subclavian artery

Front 241

The muscle that is the prime mover in left lateral extrusion is the:
- right masseter
- left medial pterygoid
- right medial pterygoid
- left lateral pterygoid
- right lateral pterygoid

Back 241

right lateral pterygoid

Front 242

Each of the following structures lies between the hyoglossus and the mylohyoid muscles except one. Which one is this exception?
- Lingual nerve
- Lingual artery
- Sublingual gland
- Submandibular duct
- Hypoglossal nerve

Back 242

Lingual artery

Front 243

Which of the following represents the function of the interstitial cells (of Leydig) in the testis?
- Form the acrosome
- Secrete testosterone
- Inhibit spermatogenesis
- Supply nutrients to sex cells
- Support the germinal epithelium

Back 243

Secrete testosterone

Front 244

The buccinator muscle is supplied by which of the following nerves?
- Facial
- Lingual
- Spinal accessory
- Inferior alveolar
- Buccal nerve of the trigeminal

Back 244

Facial

Front 245

In which of the following are numerous afferent lymphatic channels found?
- Spleen
- Thymus
- Lymph nodes
- Palatine tonsils
- Pharyngeal tonsils

Back 245

Lymph nodes

Front 246

The submucosa is present in each of the following except one. Which one is this exception?
- Colon
- Stomach
- Jejunum
- Gallbladder
- Duodenum

Back 246

Gallbladder

Front 247

Each of the following structures is bound by a membrane except one. Which one is this exception?
- Nucleolus
- Lysosome
- Nucleus
- Mitochondrion
- Pinocytotic vesicle

Back 247

Nucleolus

Front 248

The hypophysis is situated in a fossa of which of the following bones?
- Ethmoid
- Frontal
- Temporal
- Sphenoid
- Palatine

Back 248

Sphenoid

Front 249

White matter of the spinal cord consists chiefly of which of the following?
- Perineurium
- Myelinated axons
- Unmyelinated axons
- Nerve cell bodies
- Loose connective tissue

Back 249

Myelinated axons

Front 250

The thoracic duct empties directly into the junction of the:
- superior vena cava and the azygos vein
- left jugular and brachiocephalic veins
- right jugular and brachiocephalic veins
- left internal jugular and subclavian veins
- right internal jugular and subclavian veins

Back 250

left internal jugular and subclavian veins

Front 251

Pain, touch, temperature and proprioceptive modalities for the temporomandibular joint are carried by way of which of the following nerves?
- Auriculotemporal
- Auditory
- Temporal
- Superior alveolar
- Inferior alveolar

Back 251

Auriculotemporal

Front 252

The left recurrent laryngeal nerve is closely related at its beginning to the:
- left subclavian artery
- arch of the aorta and the left pulmonary veins
- ligamentum arteriosum and the arch of the aorta
- pulmonary trunk and the left brachiocephalic vein
- ligamentum arteriosum and the left brachiocephalic vein

Back 252

ligamentum arteriosum and the arch of the aorta

Front 253

Which of the following cranial nerves contain parasympathetic preganglionic fibers?
- II, III, IV, and V
- III, IV, V, and VI
- III, V, VII, and IX
- III, VII, IX, and X
- VII, IX, X, and XI

Back 253

III, VII, IX, and X

Front 254

The core of a cilium is composed of:
- microvilli
- microtubules
- microfibrils
- tonofilaments
- microfilaments

Back 254

microtubules

Front 255

Each of the following enters the orbit by way of the superior orbital fissure except one. Which one is this exception?
- Abducens nerve
- Trochlear nerve
- Oculomotor nerve
- Ophthalmic artery
- Ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve

Back 255

Ophthalmic artery

Front 256

The capacity of the tongue for forceful movement depends on striated muscle supplied by which of the following cranial nerves?
- V
- VII
- IX
- X
- XII

Back 256

XII

Front 257

How many lobes does the right lung usually have?
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5

Back 257

3

Front 258

Enlargement of the third ventricle and both lateral ventricles is caused by obstruction of the:
- cerebral aqueduct
- foramen of Magendie
- foramina of Luschka
- interventricular foramina of Monro

Back 258

cerebral aqueduct

Front 259

Melanocytes are derived from which of the following?
- Ectoderm
- Endoderm
- Mesoderm
- Dermatomes
- Neural crest

Back 259

Neural crest

Front 260

Cementum differs from dentin in that cementum:
- contains more inorganic material than dentin
- is not formed following eruption of the tooth
- can contain cells, whereas dentin contains cells as well as cell processes
- is produced by cells of the periodontal ligament, but dentin is produced by pulp cells
- contains some elastic fibers, whereas dentin contains only collagenous fibers

Back 260

is produced by cells of the periodontal ligament, but dentin is produced by pulp cells

Front 261

A dentist will use screw-type implants to replace the maxillary incisors (Teeth #s 7, 8, 9, and 10). If these implants pass through the bone in this region, then which of the following regions will they be entering?
- Orbit
- Mental foramen
- Nasal cavity
- Maxillary sinus
- Pterygopalatine fossa

Back 261

Nasal cavity

Front 262

Highly skilled, discrete motor activity of the hand is dependent on which of the following cortical areas of the hemisphere?
- Transverse temporal gyrus
- Angular gyrus of the parietal lobe
- Precentral gyrus of the frontal lobe
- Paracentral lobule on the medial surface

Back 262

Precentral gyrus of the frontal lobe

Front 263

During swallowing, muscular contraction results in movements that seal off the oropharynx from the nasopharynx. Which of the following muscles cause movements that result in a fold in the posterior wall of the pharynx?
- Levator veli palatini
- Tensor veli palatini
- Palatopharyngeus
- Musculus Uvulae
- Palatoglossus

Back 263

Palatopharyngeus

Front 264

From which of the following is the periodontal ligament derived?
- Dental sac
- Enamel organ
- Dental papilla
- Epithelial root sheath
- Outer enamel epithelium

Back 264

Dental sac

Front 265

Compared with intertubular dentin, peritubular dentin is characterized by which of the following?
- Greater stainability
- Higher quantity of fluids
- Lesser content of inorganic salts
- Greater content of inorganic salts
- Greater content of large collagen fibers

Back 265

Greater content of inorganic salts

Front 266

Which of the following represent fan-shaped, hypocalcified areas that originate at the dentinoenamel junction and extend into enamel for part of its thickness?
- Tufts
- Spindles
- Lamellae
- Hunter Schreger bands
- Contour lines of Owen

Back 266

Tufts

Front 267

The calcified bodies sometimes found in the PDL are best described as which of the following?
- Cementicles
- Denticles
- Bone
- Enamel pearls
- Mineralized interstitial tissue

Back 267

Cementicles

Front 268

Cell bodies of the somatic motor system lie in which of the following locations?
- Dorsal horn
- Ventral horn
- Autonomic ganglia
- Dorsal root ganglia
- Intermediolateral horn

Back 268

Ventral horn

Front 269

Which of the following represents the location of the cell bodies of pain fibers in the glossopharyngeal nerve?
- Otic ganglion
- Nucleus ambiguus
- Trigeminal (semilunar) ganglion
- Spinal nucleus of cranial nerve V
- superior ganglion of cranial nerve IX

Back 269

Superior ganglion of cranial nerve IX

Front 270

Which of the following represents the cranial nerve that supplies derivatives of the third branchial arch?
- Facial
- Accessory
- Trigeminal
- Hypoglossal
- Glossopharyngeal

Back 270

Glossopharyngeal

Front 271

Optic nerve fibers from the nasal half of the retina cross the midline and enter the optic tract of the opposite side by way of the:
- optic chiasma
- lateral geniculate body
- bipolar cells of the retina
- branchium of the superior colliculus
- geniculocalcarine tract (optic radiations)

Back 271

optic chiasma

Front 272

The lingula of the mandible serves as an attachment for which of the following?
- Temporalis
- Stylomandibular ligament
- Sphenomandibular ligament
- Temporomandibular ligament
- Tendon of the digastric muscle

Back 272

Sphenomandibular ligament

Front 273

In the developing embryo the palate is separated from the lip by a shallow sulcus in the depths of which two epithelial laminae arise. The outer lamina is the:
- dental lamina for primary teeth
- dental lamina for permanent teeth
- primordium of the parotid gland
- primordium of the buccal frenula
- vestibular lamina

Back 273

vestibular lamina

Front 274

Which of the following is derived from ectomesenchyme?
- Ameloblast
- Odontoblasts
- Stellate reticulum
- Stratum intermedium
- Reduced enamel epithelium

Back 274

Odontoblasts

Front 275

In a newly erupted tooth, the junction between tooth surface and the crevicular epithelium consists of which of the following?
- Interstitial crevicular fluid
- Basal lamina like structure between enamel and epithelium
- Basal lamina like structure between cementum and epithelium
- Basal lamina like structure between dentin and epithelium
- Keratin fibers, running from the epithelium deeply into the enamel

Back 275

Basal lamina like structure between enamel and epithelium

Front 276

Which group of fibers of the periodontal ligament is the first to offer resistance to movement of the tooth in an occlusal direction?
- Alveolar crest
- Interradicular
- Horizontal
- Oblique
- Apical

Back 276

Apical

Front 277

Which of the following best characterizes the alveolar mucous membrane?
- Has no melanocytes
- Firmly bound to underlying bone
- Well developed epithelial ridges
- Separated from the gingiva by the free gingival groove
- Appears red due to high vascularity and thinness of epithelium

Back 277

Appears red due to high vascularity and thinness of epithelium

Front 278

As demonstrated by the pattern of sensory innervation, which of the following branchial arches are concerned in development of the tongue?
- First and second only
- First, second, and third
- Second and third only
- Second, third, and fourth
- Third and fourth only

Back 278

First, second, and third

Front 279

The apical cytoplasm of active serous glandular cells is typically filled with which of the following?
- Large amounts of DNA
- Abundance of ribosomes
- Abundance of mitochondria
- Abundance of lipid droplets
- Abundance of zymogen granules

Back 279

Abundance of zymogen granules

Front 280

EAch of the following embryologic structures is derived from the first branchial arch except one. Which one is this exception?
- Tuberculum impar
- Maxillary process
- Mandibular process
- Intermaxillary process
- Lateral lingual swelling

Back 280

Intermaxillary process

Front 281

Which of the following muscles inserts onto the neck of the condyle?
- Masseter
- Temporalis
- Lateral pterygoid
- Medial pterygoid

Back 281

Lateral pterygoid

Front 282

Salivary gland striated ducts are composed of which of the following types of epithelium?
- Simple squamous
- Simple cuboidal
- Stratified squamous
- Simple low columnar
- Pseudostratified ciliated columnar

Back 282

Simple low columnar

Front 283

Odontoblasts are characterized by:
- being located on external surfaces of roots
- being shed from the tooth at the time of eruption
- differentiating first at the cervical region of a forming tooth
- secreting a non fibrous matrix composed of chains of amino acids
- possessing long cytoplasmic processes which lie within dentinal tubules

Back 283

possessing long cytoplasmic processes which lie within dentinal tubules

Front 284

Which of the following are pure serous glands?
- Sublingual glands
- Glands of Brunner
- Submandibular glands
- Glands of von Ebner
- Glands of Blandin Nuhn

Back 284

Glands of von Ebner

Front 285

Which of the following structures contacts posteriorly with the isthmus of the thyroid gland?
- Larynx
- Pharynx
- Trachea
- Esophagus
- Carotid sheath

Back 285

Trachea

Front 286

The infrahyoid muscles receive their motor innervation from which of the following?
- Vagus nerve
- Supraclavicular nerves
- Brachial plexus
- Pharyngeal plexus
- Branches of the cervical plexus

Back 286

Branches of the cervical plexus

Front 287

Which of the following types of tissues can be demonstrated on the posterior slope of the articular eminence?
- Hyaline cartilage
- Fibrocartilage
- Fibrous connective tissue
- Articular cartilage
- Elastic cartilage

Back 287

Fibrous connective tissue

Front 288

Dentinal tubules are S-shaped in the crown of the tooth due to the:
- incremental pattern
- epithelial diphragm
- crowding of odontoblasts
- formation of peritubular dentin
- calcification pattern of maturing dentin

Back 288

crowding of odontoblasts

Front 289

Hertwig's epithelial root sheath is derived from which of the following?
- Inner dental epithelium and stellate reticulum
- Inner dental epithelium and stratum intermedium
- Outer dental epithelium and stellate reticulum
- Outer dental epithelium and stratum intermedium
- Inner dental epithelium and outer dental epithelium

Back 289

Inner dental epithelium and outer dental epithelium

Front 290

The crescents or demilunes of the mucous alveoli of the sublingual gland are composed of which of the following cells?
- Mucous
- Serous
- Neural
- Striated
- Myoepithelial

Back 290

Serous

Front 291

A fracture of the hamulus affects the action of which of the following muscles?
- Superior constrictor of the pharynx
- Levator veli palatini
- Tensor veli palatini
- Salpingopharyngeus
- Buccinator

Back 291

Tensor veli palatini

Front 292

Cell bodies of proprioceptive fibers in V are located in the:
- chief nucleus
- spinal nucleus
- semilunar ganglion
- geniculate ganglion
- mesencephalic nucleus

Back 292

mesencephalic nucleus

Front 293

Just prior to ovulation, the preovulatory follicle produces and secretes large amounts of which of the following hormones?
- Human chorionic gonadotropin
- Luteinizing hormone
- Progesterone
- Androgens
- Estrogen

Back 293

Estrogen

Front 294

Protrustion of the tip of the tongue beyond the opening of the oral cavity is accomplished primarily by which of the following muscles?
- Mylohyoid
- Hyoglossal
- Styloglossus
- Genioglossus
- Intrinsic tongue

Back 294

Genioglossus

Front 295

In a histological section through the epiphyseal plate of the femur of an 18-year-old male, which of the following is the zone in which cartilage lacunae appear swollen and the chondrocytes are large?
- Proliferation
- Bone deposition
- Reserve cartilage
- Cartilage calcification
- Hypertrophy and maturation

Back 295

Proliferation

Front 296

Each of the following is an ectomesenchymal derivative except one. Which one is this exception?
- Pulp
- Dentin
- Enamel
- Alveolar bone
- Periodontal ligament

Back 296

Enamel

Front 297

Sensations of pain and temperature are carried by which of the following tracts?
- Corticospinal
- Corticobulbar
- Lateral spinothalamic
- Ventral reticulospinal
- Dorsal spinocerebellar

Back 297

Lateral spinothalamic

Front 298

In a mature tooth, what is the location of the first dentin that was produced during crown formation?
- Adjacent to the pulp
- In the cervical area
- Part of secondary dentin
- Part of circumpulpal dentin
- Adjacent to the dentinoenamel junction

Back 298

Adjacent to the dentinoenamel junction

Front 299

Enamel spindles might represent which of the following?
- Areas of organic enamel matrix that are more highly mineralized than other areas
- Odontoblastic processes that extend across the DEJ into enamel
- Areas of more highly mineralized enamel prisms
- Characteristics of prismless enamel
- Nerve fibers

Back 299

Ondontoblastic processes that extend across the DEJ into enamel

Front 300

Which of the following types of epithelium are found in the colon?
- Transitional
- Simple columnar
- Stratified squamous
- Pseudostratified ciliated columnar

Back 300

Simple columnar

Front 301

Inability to move the diaphragm is consistent with a total section of the spinal cord at which of the following spinal levels?
- C2
- C6
- C7
- C8
- T2

Back 301

C2

Front 302

Which of the following suplies sensation to the interior of the larynx (above the vocal fold)?
- Recurrent laryngeal nerve
- Superior laryngeal nerve
- Glossopharyngeal nerve
- Pharyngeal plexus
- Mandibular nerve

Back 302

Superior laryngeal nerve

Front 303

Each of the following statements regarding the masseter muscle is correct except one. Which one is this exception?
- The masseter muscle possesses two heads of origin
- The masseteric nerve reaches the masseter muscle by passing through the mandibular foramen
- Interdigitations of the masseter and medial pterygoid muscles form the pterygomandibular sling
- The vascular supply to the masseter muscle arises from the pterygoid portion of the maxillary artery
- The parotid duct lies superficial to the masseter muscle

Back 303

The masseteric nerve reaches the masseter muscle by passing through the mandibular foramen

Front 304

Which of the following describes the origin and subsequent spread of the wave of depolarization in the normal human heart?
- Atria, sino atrial (SA) node, atrioventricular (AV) node, bundle branches, ventricles
- Sino atrial (SA) node, atrioventricular (AV) node, bundle branches, atria, ventricles
- Sino atrial (SA) node, atria, atrioventricular (AV) node, bundle branches, ventricles
- Atrioventricular (AV) node, atria, sino atrial (SA) node, bundle branches, ventricles
- Atrioventricular (AV) node, sino atrial (SA) node, bundle branches, atria, ventricles

Back 304

Sino atrial (SA) node, atrioventricular (AV) nove, bundle branches, atria, ventricles

Front 305

Intercalated disks connect which of the following cell types?
- Schwann
- Cardiac muscle
- Skeletal muscle
- Transitional epithelial
- Stratified squamous epithelial

Back 305

Cardiac muscle

Front 306

Which of the following nerves innervates the taste buds of the anterior two-thirds of the tongue?
- Vagus
- Facial
- Trigeminal
- Hypoglossal
- Glossopharyngeal

Back 306

Facial

Front 307

Which of the following is the major nerve of the posterior aspect of the arm and forearm?
- Ulnar
- Radial
- Median
- Axillary
- Musculocutaneous

Back 307

Radial

Front 308

A patient has muscle pain when moving the mandible to the left. Which of the following muscles is most likely causing the pain in this situation?
- Left masseter
- Left medial pterygoid
- Right medial pterygoid
- Left lateral pterygoid
- Right lateral pterygoid

Back 308

Right lateral pterygoid

Front 309

Which of the following is the only part of the gastrointestinal system that has villi, goblet cells, and mucous-secreting glands in the submucosa?
- Ileum
- Stomach
- Jejunum
- Duodenum
- Esophagus

Back 309

Duodenum

Front 310

The branches of the maxillary artery supply each of the following except one. Which one is this exception?
- Nasal septum
- Mandibular incisors
- Hard and soft palate
- Skin of the forehead
- Muscles of mastication

Back 310

Skin of the forehead

Front 311

Which of the following differentiates cementum from enamel?
- Presence of collagen fibers
- Presence of incremental lines
- Presence of hydroxyapatite crystals
- Derived from the dental papilla

Back 311

Presence of collagen fibers

Front 312

Each of the following bones contributes to the formation of the calvaria except one. Which one is this exception?
- Frontal
- Temporal
- Parietal
- Occipital
- Zygomatic

Back 312

Zygomatic

Front 313

Cutaneous innervation of the chin and lower lip is mediated by which of the following?
- Mental nerve
- Facial nerve
- Inferior alveolar nerve
- Buccal nerve of V
- Branches of the maxillary division of V

Back 313

Inferior alveolar nerve

Front 314

If the internal carotid arteries become occluded then blood can still reach the arterial circle primarily through which of the following arteries?
- Vertebral
- Middle cerebral
- Superior cerebellar
- Anterior inferior cerebellar
- Posterior inferior cerebellar

Back 314

Vertebral

Front 315

A laceration of the palatal mucosa in the area of the first molar is most likely to damage which of the following arteries?
- Posterior superior alveolar
- Greater palatine
- Lesser palatine
- Pterygopalatine
- Nasopalatine

Back 315

Greater palatine

Front 316

Which of the following lingual papillae have the thickest layer of keratin on their surfaces?
- Foliate
- Filiform
- Fungiform
- Circumvallate

Back 316

Filiform

Front 317

Each of the following muscles elevates the hyoid bone except one. Which one is this exception?
- Thyrohyoid
- Hyoglossus
- Geniohyoid
- Anterior belly of the digastric
- Posterior belly of the digastric

Back 317

Thyrohyoid

Front 318

The sella turcica lies directly superior to which of the following sinuses?
- Frontal
- Mastoid
- Ethmoid
- Sphenoid
- Maxillary

Back 318

Sphenoid

Front 319

The lingual artery represents a branch of which of the following arteries?
- Facial
- Occipital
- Maxillary
- External carotid
- Internal carotid

Back 319

External carotid

Front 320

Sensory nerve supply to the facial mucosa and gingiva of the mandibular molars travels in which of the following nerves?
- Mental
- Ligual
- Inferior alveolar
- Buccal nerve of V
- Posterior superior alveolar

Back 320

Buccal nerve of V

Front 321

Which of the following contains cells that secrete trypsinogen?
- Ileum
- Liver
- Duodenum
- Pancreas
- Gallbladder

Back 321

Pancreas

Front 322

The reticular portion of the dermis is classified as which of the following types of connective tissue?
- Loose
- Adipose
- Modified elastic
- Dense regular
- Dense irregular

Back 322

Dense irregular

Front 323

As a tooth undergoes attrition, it maintains contact with opposing dentition. This results from the aposition of:
- secondary dentin
- apical cementum
- coronal enamel
- alveolar bone
- fundal bone

Back 323

apical cementum

Front 324

The buccal mucosa typically has which of the following epithelia?
- Simple columnar
- Pseudostratified columnar
- Non keratinized, stratified squamous
- Parakeratinized, stratified squamous
- Orthokeratinized, stratified squamous

Back 324

Non keratinized, stratified squamous

Front 325

Ulcers of recurrent herpes occur on masticatory mucosa. Herpetic ulcers could occur in which of the following locations?
- Buccal mucosa
- Labial mucosa
- Hard palatal mucosa
- Mucosa of the soft palate
- Mucosa of the floor of the mouth

Back 325

Labial mucosa

Front 326

During active eruption, the initial epithelial attachment (junctional epithelium) to the enamel surface of the tooth results from the fusion of oral epithelium with which of the following?
- Periodontal ligament fibers
- Reduced enamel epithelium
- Stratum intermedium
- Stellate reticulum
- Gingival fibers

Back 326

Reduced enamel epithelium

Front 327

A blow that shatters the coracoid process will have a direct effect on which of the following pairs of muscles?
- Serratus anterior and pectoralis major
- Subscapularis and pectoralis major
- Biceps brachii and pectoralis minor
- Subscapularis and subclavius
- Deltoid and subclavius

Back 327

Biceps brachii and pectoralis minor

Front 328

A patient's tongue markedly deviates to the left during protrusion. Which of the following muscles is unable to contract?
- Right hyoglossus
- Right geniohyoid
- Left genioglossus
- Left palatoglossus
- Left lateral pterygoid

Back 328

Left genioglossus

Front 329

In a normal adult, which of the following is the location of presistent epithelial rests (of Malassez)?
- Cementum
- Dental pulp
- Mantle dentin
- Stellate reticulum
- Periodontal ligament

Back 329

Periodontal ligament

Front 330

One terminal branch of the maxillary nerve emerges through which of the following foramina?
- Mental
- Spinosum
- Supraorbital
- Infraorbital
- Stylomastoid

Back 330

Infraorbital

Front 331

Which of the following are included in the mononuclear phagocytic system?
- Fibroblasts
- Osteoblasts
- Kupffer cells
- Hassall's corpuscles
- Sheathed arteries of the spleen

Back 331

Kupffer cells

Front 332

What volume of fully mineralized enamel is comprised of organic matrix?
- 2%
- 7%
- 10%
- 20%
- 50%

Back 332

2%

Front 333

The sympathetic innervation to structures of the head and neck is distributed via the:
- blood vessels
- fascial planes
- lymphatic vessels
- hyoid musculature
- cranial nerves III, VII, IX, and X

Back 333

cranial nerves III, VII, IX, and X

Front 334

The spleen is in closest relation to which of the following?
- Duodenum
- Right kidney
- Ascending colon
- Right lobe of the liver
- Inferior surface of the diaphragm

Back 334

Inferior surface of the diaphragm

Front 335

Which of the following cells is multinucleated?
- Osteocyte
- Osteoblast
- Osteoclast
- Chondrocyte
- Chondroblast

Back 335

Osteoclast

Front 336

Calcitonin is produced by which of the following cells?
- Thyroid follicular
- Thyroid parafollicular
- Oxyphil of the parathyroid
- Principal of the parathyroid
- Pars intermedia of the pituitary

Back 336

Thyroid parafollicular

Front 337

A stab wound creating a pneumothorax on the left side will usually result in collapse of which of the following?
- The left lung only
- The right lung only
- Both lungs
- The rib cage on the left side
- The left lung and pericardial sac

Back 337

The left lung only

Front 338

The nucleoplasm is continuous with the cytoplasm by way of which of the following?
- Nucleolus
- Microtubules
- Nuclear pores
- Rought endoplasmic reticulum
- Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

Back 338

Nuclear pores

Front 339

Which of the following can be used, on a histologic level, to distinguish between a section of the arch of the aorta and a section of the brachial artery?
- Type of endothelium
- Width of tunica intima
- Type of tissue in the tunica adventitia
- Composition of tissue in the tunica media
- Type of tissue directly underlying the endothelium

Back 339

Composition of tissue in the tunica media

Front 340

Which of the following ligaments is most often damaged in an inferior alveolar nerve block?
- Lateral
- Capsular
- Stylohyoid
- Stylomandibular
- Sphenomandibular

Back 340

Sphenomandibular

Front 341

Which of the following arteries is usually the most inferior branch arising from the external carotid artery?
- Superficial temporal
- Posterior auricular
- Superior thyroid
- Maxillary
- Lingual

Back 341

Superior thyroid

Front 342

Bone tissue increases in size by which of the following means?
- Action of osteoclasts
- Mitotic division of osteocytes
- Appositional growth by osteoblasts
- Interstitial growth by osteoblasts

Back 342

Appositional growth by osteoblasts

Front 343

Usually, a periapical abscess of a mandibular first premolar drains lingually into which of the following spaces?
- Sublingual
- Submandibular
- Parapharyngeal
- Retropharyngeal
- Pterygomandibular

Back 343

Submandibular

Front 344

Melanocytes migrate to the lamina propria of the oral mucosa from which of the following?
- Myotome
- Dermatome
- Scheratome
- Neural crest
- Rathke's pouch

Back 344

Neural crest

Front 345

If local anesthetic solution were deposited in the pterygopalatine fossa, then which of the following would be anesthetized?
- V1
- V2
- V3
- Facial nerve
- Vagus nerve

Back 345

Facial nerve

Front 346

The common hepatic artery is a branch of which vessel?
- Celiac
- Splenic
- Gastric
- Proper hepatic
- Superior mesenteric

Back 346

Celiac

Front 347

Which of the following is the motor nerve innervating most thenar muscles?
- Ulnar
- Median
- Radial
- Axillary
- Musculocutanous

Back 347

Radial

Front 348

Which of the following is a unique characteristic of a mixed serous and mucous gland?
- Demilunes
- Striated ducts
- Intercalated ducts
- Myoepithelial cells
- Excessive fat throughout the stroma

Back 348

Demilunes

Front 349

The mature dental pulp is composed primarily of which of the following connective tissues?
- Dense
- Loose
- Mucoid
- Adipose
- Elastic

Back 349

Dense

Front 350

The internal thoracic artery gives rise to the:
- costocervical trunk
- posterior intercostal arteries
- bronchial and esophageal arteries
- superior epigastric and musculophrenic arteries

Back 350

superior epigastric and musculophrenic arteries

Front 351

A tendon consists mainly of:
- reticular fibers
- elastic fiber bundles
- loose collagenous bundles
- dense, regular, collagenous bundles
- dense, irregular, collagenous bundles

Back 351

reticular fibers

Front 352

Lymphatic drainage from maxillary teeth initally passes into which of the following lymph node groups?
- Parotid
- Submental
- Submandibular
- Jugulodigastric
- Jugulo omohyoid

Back 352

Submandibular

Front 353

Cell bodies of sympathetic fibers in the nerve of the pterygoid canal come from which of the following?
- Facial nerve
- Superior cervical ganglio
- Greater petrosal nerve
- Glossopharyngeal nerve
- Otic ganglion

Back 353

Greater petrosal nerve

Front 354

Which of the following correctly matches a part of the urinary system with its characteristic type of epithelium?
- Large collecting tubule: stratified columnar
- Thin limb of Henle: simple columnar
- Urinary bladder: stratified squamous
- Thick limb of Henle: stratified cuboidal
- Bowman's capsule: simple squamous

Back 354

Bowman's capsule: simple squamous

Front 355

Which of the following papillae of the tongue are the largest, are the least numerous, have many taste buds, and are associated with the ducts of von Ebner's glands?
- Foliate
- Filiform
- Fungiform
- Circumvallate

Back 355

Circumvallate

Front 356

Uniform growth in the infolding portion of an epithelial root sheath (Hertwig) results in formation of a:
- single rooted tooth
- double rooted tooth
- three rooted tooth
- tooth without a root

Back 356

single rooted tooth

Front 357

Variation of the size of the lumen of the bronchiole during inspiration and expiration is caused primarily by:
- striated muscle and cartilage
- smooth muscle and elastic fibers
- the basement membrane and collagen fibers
- areolar connective tissue and cartilage

Back 357

smooth muscle and elastic fibers

Front 358

Which of the following nerves innervates the capsule of the temporomandibular joint?
- Facial
- Buccal
- Maxillary
- Mylohyoid
- Auriculotemporal

Back 358

Auriculotemporal

Front 359

The foramen ovale is located in the:
- interatrial septum of the adult
- interatrial septum of embryo and fetus
- interventricular septum of the adult
- interventricular septum of embryo and fetus

Back 359

interatrial septum of embryo and fetus

Front 360

The temporalis muscle originates on the lateral surface of the skull and passes:
- medial to the zygomatic arch and inserts into the coronoid process of the mandible
- lateral to the zygomatic arch and inserts into the coronoid process of the mandible
- medial to the zygomatic arch and inserts into the medial side of the angle of the ramus
- lateral to the zygomatic arch and inserts into the medial side of the angle of the ramus

Back 360

medial to the zygomatic arch and inserts into the coronoid process of the mandible

Front 361

The area at which calcification of a tooth begins is the:
- root
- enamel matrix
- cementoenamel junction
- dentinoenamel junction

Back 361

dentinoenamel junction

Front 362

Which of the following is located at the opening between the small and the large intestines?
- The cardiac sphincter
- The pyloric sphincter
- The ileocecal valve
- The tricuspid valve

Back 362

The ileocecal valve

Front 363

Cell bodies of primary sensory neurons of mechanoreceptors in the periodontal ligament are found in which of the following brainstem nuclei?
- Nucleus solitarius
- Reticular formation
- Descending nucleus of V
- Chief sensory nucleus of V
- Mesencephalic nucleus of V

Back 363

Mesencephalic nucleus of V

Front 364

Salivary glands of the hard palate are located in the:
- median raphe
- gingival zone
- anterolateral zone
- posterolateral zone

Back 364

posterolateral zone

Front 365

The mandible, except for the condyle, is principally formed by:
- endochondral ossification
- intramembranous ossification
- expansion of the dental lamina
- the conversion of Meckel's cartilage directly into bone

Back 365

intramembranous ossification

Front 366

As a tooth undergoes attrition with age and with use, it maintains contact with its antagonist. Which of the following describes how this phenomenon occurs?
- The tooth forms additional apical dentin
- There is continual apposition of bone at the fundus of the tooth socket
- There is continual apposition of cementum in the tooth's apical region
- None of these

Back 366

There is continual apposition of cementum in the tooth's apical region

Front 367

Fordyce spots appearing on the mucous membrane of the cheek result from the presence of:
- aberrant sweat glands
- aberrant sebaceous glands
- superficial salivary glands
- aberrant fatty accumulations
- none of these

Back 367

aberrant sebaceous glands

Front 368

The cellular organelle that binds and releases calcium during relaxation and contraction of skeletal muscle is the:
- nucleus
- lysosome
- mitochondrion
- transverse tubule
- sarcoplasmic reticulum

Back 368

sarcoplasmic reticulum

Front 369

The most vascular portion of the temporomandibular joint's articular disk is usually found on the disk's:
- periphery
- superior surface
- inferior surface

Back 369

peiphery

Front 370

Acidophils (alpha cells) of the hypophysis secrete:
- insulin
- thyroxin
- sex hormone
- growth hormone

Back 370

growth hormone

Front 371

A child falls on a nail that penetrates the submental region in the midline. What is the first muscle to be impaled?
- Mylohyoid
- Thyrohyoid
- Hyoglossus
- Genioglossus
- Posterior digastric

Back 371

Mylohyoid

Front 372

Salivary, sweat, sebaceous, and von Ebner's glands all have in common the characteristic of being:
- simple
- compound
- exocrine
- holocrine
- merocrine

Back 372

exocrine

Front 373

An active fibroblast is characterized by:
- multiple nucleoli
- a bloated appearance
- a thick plasma membrane
- an unusually large nucleus
- abundant endoplasmic reticulum

Back 373

abundant endoplasmic reticulum

Front 374

As a result of a mandibular block injection, a patient has developed a paralysis of the muscles of facial expression. Where was the anesthetic solution most likely deposited?
- Into the parotid gland
- Near the chorda tympani
- Into the pterygoid plexus
- Through the mandibular notch

Back 374

Into the parotid gland

Front 375

The nerves in dental pulp are:
- afferent only
- sympathetic only
- parasympathetic only
- afferent and sympathetic
- afferent and parasympathetic

Back 375

afferent and sympathetic

Front 376

The white pulp of the spleen is composed primarily of:
- sinusoids
- macrophages
- lymphocytes
- connective tissue

Back 376

lymphocytes

Front 377

Which of the following characterizes the alveolar bone proper of a tooth socket?
- It consists of compact bone, shows dark on a radiograph, and contains Sharpey's fibers
- It resorbs when subjected to pressure, and contains numerous openings through which vessels pass
- It contains haversian systems, has collagen fibers in its matrix, and is about 96% inorganic salts
- It serves to attach free gingival periodontal ligament fibers, and is a part of the total tooth attachment apparatus

Back 377

It resorbs when subjected to pressure, and contains numerous openings through which vessels pass

Front 378

Serotonin is thought to be produced by:
- chief cells
- Paneth's cells
- mucous neck cells
- enteroendocrine (argentaffin) cells

Back 378

enteroendocrine (argentaffin) cells

Front 379

Most of the postganglionic sympathetic nerve fibers of the head are derived from the:
- superior cervical ganglion alone
- superior cervical ganglion and the vagus nerve
- superior cervical ganglion and the glossopharyngeal nerve
- inferior, middle, and superior cervical ganglia

Back 379

superior cervical ganglion

Front 380

Production of bile takes place in:
- Kupffer cells
- the gallbladder
- the hepatic duct
- the common bile duct
- none of these

Back 380

none of these

Front 381

Which of the following branches of the axillary artery usually supplies the latissimus dorsi muscle?
- Thoracodorsal
- Thoracoacromial
- Lateral thoracic
- Circumflex scapular
- Posterior humeral circumflex

Back 381

Thoracodorsal

Front 382

The esophagus is subdivided into three portions on the basis of a transition in the:
- submucosa
- adventitia
- mucosal layer
- muscularis externa

Back 382

muscularis externa

Front 383

Basket (myoepithelial) cells are located in the:
- periodontal ligament
- lumen of secretory acini
- lamina propria of gingiva
- lumen of intercalated ducts
- spaces between the basal lamina and the secretory cell membrane

Back 383

spaces between the basal lamina and the secretory cell membrane

Front 384

Most of the fibers ascending to or descending from the cerebral cortex traverse the:
- pyramids
- internal capsule
- medial lemniscus
- cerebral peduncles

Back 384

internal capsule

Front 385

Which of the following represents the organelle that is typically composed of vesicles and of cureved, flattened cisternae that are parallel to one another?
- Centriole
- Mitochondrion
- Golgi complex
- Rought endoplasmic reticulum
- Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

Back 385

Golgi complex

Front 386

Long bones of the skeleton increase in length because of the:
- mitotic division os osteocytes
- mitotic division of osteoblasts
- resorption of primary bone by osteoclasts
- appositional growth on the cartilagenous epiphyseal plate
- interstitial growth in the cartilagenous epiphyseal plate

Back 386

interstitial growth in the cartilagenous epiphyseal plate

Front 387

The thoracic splanchnic nerves to the celiac ganglion consist predominantly of:
- parasympathetic fibers
- preganglionic visceral efferents
- postganglionic visceral efferents

Back 387

preganglionic visceral efferents

Front 388

The motor division of the trigeminal nerve leaves the skull through the:
- foramen ovale
- foramen rotundum
- inferior orbital fissure
- superior orbital fissure

Back 388

foramen ovale

Front 389

The presence of valves characterizes:
- veins only
- blood sinusoids only
- lymphatic vessels only
- veins and lymphatic vessels
- blood sinusoids and blood capillaries

Back 389

veins and lymphatic vessels

Front 390

The visceral and parietal pericardia are continuous at the:
- pulmonary artery only
- inferior vena cava only
- veins and arteries entering and leaving the heart

Back 390

veins and arteries entering and leaving the heart

Front 391

In addition to the bronchis, which other major structures form the root of the lung?
- The pulmonary artery and veins
- The pulmonary artery and azygos vein
- The bronchial arteries and veins
- The bronchial arteries and veins, and the phrenic nerve

Back 391

The pulmonary artery and veins

Front 392

The unpaired vessels contributinf to the arterial circle of the brain include the:
- internal carotid and vertebral arteries
- posterior and anterior cerebral arteries
- anterior cerebral and anterior communicating arteries
- anterior cerebral and posterior communicating arteries
- anterior communicating and basilar arteries

Back 392

anterior communicating and basilar arteries

Front 393

Which of the following layers is totally lacking in thin skin?
- Stratum corneum
- Stratum lucidum
- Stratum spinosum
- Stratum germinativum

Back 393

Stratum lucidum

Front 394

The anterior interventricular (descending) artery is accompanied by the:
- small cardiac vein
- middle cardiac vein
- great cardiac vein
- coronary sinus

Back 394

great cardiac vein

Front 395

In the circulating blood of an adult, which of the following leukocytes normally appears in the highest numbers?
- Basophils
- Monocytes
- Eosinophils
- Neutrophils
- Lymphocytes

Back 395

Neutrophils

Front 396

The jugular foramen transmits which cranial nerves?
- VII, IX, and XII
- IX, X, and XI
- IX, XI, and XII
- X, XI, and XII

Back 396

IX, X, and XI

Front 397

Which of the following supplies oxygenated blood to the capillary plexus of tissues surrounding a secondary bronchus?
- The pulmonary vein
- The pulmonary artery
- The bronchial artery
- None of these

Back 397

The bronchial artery

Front 398

Which of the following structures contacts the thyroid gland?
- Lingual nerve
- Phrenic nerve
- Thoracic duct
- Thyroarytenoid muscle
- Recurrent laryngeal nerve

Back 398

Recurrent laryngeal nerve

Front 399

Metastasizing cells that originate in the tip of the tongue follow the paths of the tongue's lymphatic vessels and arrive first in which of the following nodes?
- Submental
- Submandibular
- Supraclavicular
- Superficial parotid
- Superior deep cervical

Back 399

Submental

Front 400

The ribonucleic acid involved in protein synthesis is found primarily in the:
- nucleolus
- mitochondria
- Golgi apparatus
- fluid ground substance
- granular endoplasmic reticulum

Back 400

granular endoplasmic reticulum

Front 401

Whih of the following nerves descends anteriorly to the root of the right lung and between the mediastinal pleura and the pericardium?
- The right vagus nerve
- The right greater splanchnic nerve
- The nerve that supplies the right half of the diaphragm
- The nerve that supplies pain fibers to alveoli of the right lung

Back 401

The nerve that supplies the right half of the diaphragm

Front 402

The superficial head of the medial pterygoid muscle originates on the tuberosity of the maxilla and on the:
- pterygoid fossa
- pyramidal process of the palatine bone
- crest of the greater wing of the sphenoid bone
- lateral surface of the lateral pterygoid plate

Back 402

pyramidal process of the palatine bone

Front 403

In the fetus, the ductus venosus permits blood to flow from the:
- pulmonary vein to the aorta
- pulmonary artery to the aorta
- right atrium to the left atrium
- umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava

Back 403

umblicial vein to the inferior vena cava

Front 404

The posterior cord of the brachial plexus gives rise to which of the following nerves?
- Radial
- Long thoracic
- Thoracoacromial
- Medial pectoral
- Lateral pectoral

Back 404

Radial

Front 405

The postcentral gyrus is located in the:
- insula
- frontal lobe
- temporal lobe
- parietal lobe
- occipital lobe

Back 405

parietal lobe

Front 406

The cell body of the efferent (motor) neuron of a spinal reflex arc is located in:
- an autonomic ganglion
- the dorsal root ganglion (spinal ganglion)
- the anterior gray column (ventral horn) of the spinal cord
- the posterior gray column (dorsal horn) of the spinal cord

Back 406

The anterior gray column (ventral horn) of the spinal cord

Front 407

The most important organelle or component of a cell for oxidative processes is the:
- nucleus
- nucleolus
- mitochondrion
- Golgi complex
- endoplasmic reticulum

Back 407

mitochondrion

Front 408

The primary sensory neurons' nucleus of termination involved in pain from the maxillary second molar is the:
- thalamic nucleus
- nucleus ambiguus
- nucleus of tractus solitarius
- spinal nucleus of the trigeminal nerve
- mesencephalic nucleus of the trigeminal nerve

Back 408

spinal nucleus of the trigeminal nerve

Front 409

Lymph from lungs, bronchi, and trachea drains chiefly into:
- mediastinal lymph nodes
- depp cervical lymph nodes and vessels
- superficial cervical lymph nodes and vessels
- lymph nodes and the vessels paralleling internal mammary blood vessels

Back 409

mediastinal lymph nodes

Front 410

In a faciolingual section through a tooth and its related gingiva, the demarcation line between free gingiva and attached gingiva extends between the:
- alveolar crest and the free gingival groove
- bottom of the gingival sulcus and the free gingival groove
- apical margin of the epithelial attachment and the alveolar crest
- apical margin of the epithelial attachment and the free gingival groove

Back 410

bottom of the gingival sulcus and the free gingival groove

Front 411

Which of the following empty into the right atrium?
- The pulmonary and bronchial veins
- The coronary sinus and pulmonary veins
- The superior and inferior venae cavae and coronary sinus
- The superior vena cava, coronary sinus, and hemiazygos vein

Back 411

The superior and inferior vena cavae and coronary sinus

Front 412

The connective tissue sheath that surrounds a muscle as a while and is synonymous with the gross anatomic deep fascia is the:
- epimysium
- endomysium
- perimysium
- periosteum
- perichondrium

Back 412

epimysium

Front 413

The external carotid artery contributes to the blood supply of the nasal cavity by way of the:
- facial artery, the superior labial artery, and angular artery
- lingual artery, the deep lingual artery, and internal nasal arteries
- occipital artery, the ascending palatine artery, and posterior nasal arteries
- maxillary artery, the sphenopalatine artery, and posterior lateral nasal arteries
- superficial temporal artery, the transverse facial artery, and external nasal arteries

Back 413

maxillary artery, the sphenopalatine artery, and posterior lateral nasal arteries

Front 414

The branch of the ophthalmic artery that pierces the optic nerve is the:
- supraorbital
- anterior ciliary
- anterior ethmoidal
- central artery of the retina

Back 414

central artery of the retina

Front 415

Cell bodies of taste fibers from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue are located in which of the following ganglia?
- Otic
- Geniculate
- Trigeminal
- Pterygopalatine

Back 415

Geniculate

Front 416

Which of the following is the major change in bone matrix during its mineralization?
- Osteons enlarge
- Cells develop processes
- Water content decreases
- Collagenous fibrils form
- Ground substance aggregates

Back 416

Water content decreases

Front 417

Which of the following characterizes a lymph node?
- It contains medullary cords
- It lacks afferent lymphatics
- It has crypts lined with stratified squamous epithelium
- It has efferent lymphatics leaving at multiple sites from the capsule

Back 417

It contains medullary cords

Front 418

The initial epithelial attachment joining the gingiva to the tooth arises directly from:
- oral mucosa
- cervical loop epithelium
- reduced enamel epithelium
- the epithelial root sheath (Hertwig)

Back 418

reduced enamel epithelium

Front 419

Which region of dentin is the most highly mineralized?
- The peritubular
- The intertubular
- The interglobular

Back 419

The peritubular

Front 420

Which of the following branches of the external carotid artery originates just below the level of the hyoid bone's greater cornu?
- The facial artery
- The occipital artery
- The maxillary artery
- The superior thyroid artery
- The posterior auricular artery

Back 420

The superior thyroid artery

Front 421

The zona pellucida is associated with which of the following?
- Corpus luteum
- Corpus albicans
- Oocyte in a mature follicle
- Oocyte in an early primary follicle

Back 421

Oocyte in a mature follicle

Front 422

Which of the following muscles serves as the forearm's principal extensor?
- Pronator teres
- Brachioradialis
- Triceps brachii
- Coracobrachialis
- Extensor carpi radialis longus

Back 422

Triceps brachii

Front 423

The middle pharyngeal constrictor muscle originates from the:
- hyoid bone
- thyroid cartilage
- pterygoid hamulus
- pterygomandibular raphe

Back 423

hyoid bone

Front 424

Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers pass through which of the following structures?
- Foramen ovale
- Stylomastoid foramen
- Foramen magnum and hypoglossal canal
- Superior orbital fissure and petrotympanic fissure

Back 424

Superior orbital fissure and petrotympanic fissure

Front 425

The tendon of the tensor veli palatini muscle curves around the:
- angular spine
- styloid process
- pterygoid hamulus
- lateral pterygoid plate
- spine of the sphenoid

Back 425

pterygoid hamulus

Front 426

The zona reticularis is the inner layer of the:
- cortex of the thymus
- medulla of the thymus
- cortex of the suprarenal (adrenal)
- medullas of the suprarenal (adrenal)

Back 426

cortex of the suprarenal (adrenal)

Front 427

In the temporomandibular joint of an older person, the articulating surface of the temporal bone is covered by:
- hyaline cartilage
- elastic cartilage
- highly cellular fibrous connective tissue
- fibrous connective tissue containing chondrocytes

Back 427

fibrous connective tissue containing chondrocytes

Front 428

A tumor of the maxillary sinus may cause an overflow of tears by exerting pressure on the:
- lacrimal gland
- lacrimal puncta
- conjunctival sac
- nasolacrimal duct

Back 428

nasolacrimal duct

Front 429

Which of the following differentiates cementum from enamel?
(a) The presence of collagen fibers
(b) The absence of incremental lines
(c) The cellular component in the mature tissue
(d) The derivation from the epithelial root sheath (Hertwig)
- a and b only
- a and c only
- a and d only
- b and c only
- b and d only
- c and d only
- a, b, c, and d

Back 429

a and c only

Front 430

Which of the following abdominal viscera are retroperitoneal?
(a) Aorta
(b) Liver
(c) Kidney
(d) Stomach
(e) Pancreas
(f) Suprarenal (adrenal)
- a, b, c, and d
- a, b, c, and e
- a, b, d, and f
- a, c, e, and f
- b, d, e, and f
- c, d, e, and f

Back 430

a, c, e, and f

Front 431

Which of the following veins are normally concerned with drainage of the stomach?
(a) Portal
(b) Azygos
(c) Splenic
(d) Internal iliac
- a and b
- a and c only
- a, c, and d
- b and c only
- b, c, and d
- b and d only

Back 431

a and c only

Front 432

The facial processes that contribute directly to the formation of the lips are the:
(a) maxillary and mandibular processes
(b) maxillary and lateral nasal processes
(c) maxillary and medial nasal processes
(d) medial and lateral nasal processes
(e) lateral and medial palatine processes
- a and b
- a and c
- a and e
- b and c
- b and d

Back 432

a and c

Front 433

The periodontal ligament space is vital to the functional life of a tooth because it:
(a) contains nervous and vascular elements
(b) allows for physiologic movement of the tooth
(c) provides a cellular source for new cementum and bone
- a only
- a and b only
- a and c only
- b only
- b and c only
- c only
- a, b, and c

Back 433

a, b. and c

Front 434

Nutrients and oxygen reach the cells of compact bone by passing through:
(a) lamellae
(b) canaliculi
(c) capillaries
(d) osseous matrix
(e) Volkmann's canals
- a, b, and e only
- a, c, and e only
- a, d, and e only
- b, c, and d only
- b, c, and e only
- a, b, c, d, and e

Back 434

b, c, and e only

Front 435

Which of the following events may take place during active inspiration?
(a) The diaphragm descends
(b) The epiglottis closes
(c) The uvula swings superiorly
(d) Rotation occurs at costo vertebral articulations
(e) The lateral diameter of the thorax increases
- a, b, and d
- a, d, and e
- a and e only
- b and c only
- b, c, and d
- d and e only

Back 435

a, d, and e

Front 436

Which of the following is not a branch of the maxillary artery?
- Deep temporal
- Middle meningeal
- Inferior alveolar
- Superficial temporal
- Posterior superior alveolar

Back 436

Superficial temporal

Front 437

Which of the following artery-foramen/fissure pairings is not correct?
- Accessory meningeal: foramen ovale
- Middle meningeal: foramen spinosum
- Inferior alveolar: mandibular foramen
- Anterior tympanic: petrotympanic fissure
- Posterior superior alveolar: sphenopalatine foramen

Back 437

Posterior superior alveolar: sphenopalatine foramen

Front 438

Which of the following laryngeal muscles is not innervated by the recurrent laryngeal nerve?
- Cricothyroid
- Aryepiglottic
- Transverse arytenoid
- Lateral cricoarytenoid
- Posterior cricoarytenoid

Back 438

Cricothyroid

Front 439

Proprioceptors are found in each of the following except:
- gingiva
- skeletal muscle
- the pulp of a tooth
- the periodontal ligament
- the temporomandibular joint

Back 439

the pulp of a tooth

Front 440

Which of the following is not contained in the posterior mediastinum?
- The thoracic duct
- The descending aorta
- The splanchnic nerve
- The hemiazygos vein
- The right recurrent laryngeal nerve

Back 440

The right recurrent laryngeal nerve

Front 441

Which of the following nerves is not located in the wall of the cavernous sinus?
- Abducens
- Maxillary
- Trochlear
- Ophthalmic
- Oculomotor

Back 441

Abducens

Front 442

Which of the following arteries is not derived from the celiac trunk or its branches?
- Left gastric
- Short gastric
- Gastroduodenal
- Left gastroepiploic
- Inferior pancreaticoduodenal

Back 442

Left gastroepiploic

Front 443

Which of the following is nerve found at the outer surface of enamel?
- Perikymata
- Enamel tuft
- Enamel matrix
- Enamel lamella

Back 443

Enamel tuft

Front 444

All of the following structures lie superficial to the hyoglossus muscle except the:
- lingual nerve
- lingual artery
- hypoglossal nerve
- submandibular duct

Back 444

lingual artery

Front 445

Which of the following may cause dead tracts in dentin?
- Caries
- Erosion
- Cavity preparation
- Odontoblastic crowding
- Any of the above

Back 445

Any of the above

Front 446

The component of bone tissue that gives bone tensile strength is the:
- elastic fibers
- calcified ground substance
- interconnecting canaliculi
- periosteal connective tissue
- collagenous fibrils of matrix

Back 446

collagenous fibrils of matrix

Front 447

The cerebellar cortex is characterized histologically by which of the following types of cells?
- Basket
- Purkinje
- Pyramidal
- Martinotti
- Horizontal

Back 447

Purkinje

Front 448

If the spinal tract of the fifth cranial nerve were sectioned at the level of the caudal medulla, which of the following modalities would be most affected?
- Taste
- Proprioception
- Pain from the ipsilateral side of the face
- Light touch from the contralateral side of the face

Back 448

Pain from the ipsilateral side of the face

Front 449

The junction between primary and secondary dentin is characterized by a:
- resting line
- reversal line
- sharp reduction in number of dentinal tubules
- sharp change in direction of dentinal tubules
- resting line and sharp reduction in number of dentinal tubules

Back 449

sharp change in direction of dentinal tubules

Front 450

The postganglionic sympathetic fibers to the vessels of the submandibular salivary gland arise from cells in the:
- otic ganglion
- submandibular ganglion
- pterygopalatine ganglion
- superior cervical ganglion

Back 450

superior cervical ganglion

Front 451

Skeletal muscle enlarges with prolonged activity as a consequence of:
- differentiation of myoblasts
- mitotic division of muscle fibers
- an increase in endomysial connective tissue
- an increase in sarcoplasm and in the number of myofibrils of existing muscle fibers

Back 451

an increase in sarcoplasm and in the number of myofibrils of existing muscle fibers

Front 452

Enamel spindles are formed by:
- cracks
- ameloblasts
- odontoblasts
- hypoplastic rods
- hypocalcified rods

Back 452

odontoblasts

Front 453

The structure first formed by the tooth bud that remains in evidence in the formed tooth is the:
- primary cuticle
- secondary cuticle
- inner enamel epithelium
- cementoenamel junction
- dentinoenamel junction

Back 453

dentinoenamel junction

Front 454

The thick myofilaments observed in transmission electron microscopic preparations of skeletal muscle are:
- composed mainly of actin
- present only in the A band
- present in both A and I bands
- traversed or crossed by the Z band

Back 454

present only in the A band

Front 455

From an anatomic standpoint an emergency airway may be established most readily by opening into the trachea:
- between thyroid cartilages
- at the level of the jugular notch
- through the thyrohyoid membrane
- through the median cricothyroid ligament

Back 455

through the median cricothyroid ligament

Front 456

Right subclavian and right common carotid arteries arise from the:
- thoracic aorta
- ascending aorta
- arch of the aorta
- pulmonary artery
- brachiocephalic artery

Back 456

brachiocephalic artery

Front 457

The common bile ducts, the hepatic artery and the portal vein are found grouped in the:
- mesocolon
- lesser omentum
- greater omentum
- gastrosplenic ligament

Back 457

lesser omentum

Front 458

The greater peritoneal sac communicates with the lesser peritoneal sac by means of the:
- aortic hiatus
- inguinal canal
- epiploic foramen
- lesser pelvic aperture
- superior pelvic aperture

Back 458

epiploic foramen

Front 459

When a tooth first erupts into the oral cavity, the attachment epithelium is derived from:
- oral mucosa
- reduced enamel epithelium
- epithelial rests of Malassez
- the epithelial root sheath (Hertwig)

Back 459

reduced enamel epithelium

Front 460

The number of roots that are formed is determined by the:
- thickness of the cervical loop
- number of root sheaths developed by the enamel organ
- number of discontinuities developed in the root sheath
- number of medial ingrowths of the cervical loop

Back 460

number of medial ingrowths of the cervical loop

Front 461

In a routine demineralized histologic section of an adult tooth, the area representing enamel is generally optically clear because:
- enamel is very poor in organic matrix
- enamel is very brittle and breaks off during sectioning
- ordinary stains do not stain the organic matrix of enamel
- the mounting medium has the same refractive index as enamel

Back 461

enamel is very poor in organic matrix

Front 462

The posterior cervical triangle is bounded partly by:
- trapezius and subclavius muscles
- splenius capitis and trapezius muscles
- trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles
- the clavicle and the longus colli muscle

Back 462

trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles

Front 463

The primary histologic characteristic of the pancreas is:
- follicles filled with secretion
- groups of special cells scattered among glandular alveoli
- small groups of cells scattered between follicles
- cells arranged in layers among which are special cells

Back 463

groups of special cells scattered among glandular alveoli

Front 464

Pharyngotympanic (eustachian) tubes connect the nasopharynx with the:
- outer ear
- middle ear
- semicircular canals
- vestibule of the inner ear

Back 464

middle ear

Front 465

Bacteria are frequently ingested by:
- mast cells
- fibrocytes
- small lymphocytes
- basophilic leukocytes
- neutrophilic leukocytes

Back 465

neutrophilic leukocytes

Front 466

Considering number and location, the parathyroid glands are usually:
- single and dorsal to the thyroid gland
- single and embedded in the dorsum of the thyroid gland
- multiple and embedded in the dorsum of the thyroid gland
- multiple and just superior to the thyroid gland
- not related to the thyroid gland

Back 466

multiple and embedded in the dorsum of the thyroid gland

Front 467

A portion of which of the following muscles has fibers inserting into the articular disk of the temporomandibular joint?
- Upper head of the lateral pterygoid
- Lower head of the lateral pterygoid
- Deep head of the medial pterygoid
- Superficial head of the medial pterygoid

Back 467

Upper head of the lateral pterygoid

Front 468

The arterial supply of the submandibular gland is from which branch of the external carotid artery?
- Ascending pharyngeal
- Superior thyroid
- Maxillary
- Facial

Back 468

Facial

Front 469

Which of the following blood elements is a fragment of megakaryocytic cytoplasm?
- Platelet
- Normoblast
- Eryhtrocyte
- Promyelocyte
- Proerythroblast

Back 469

Platelet

Front 470

The lateral boundary of the retropharyngeal space at the level of the oropharynx is the:
- carotid sheath
- pterygomandibular raphe
- medial pterygoid muscle and its fascia
- stylopharyngeus muscle and its fascia

Back 470

carotid sheath

Front 471

The common hepatic artery is a branch of the:
- gastric artery
- splenic artery
- celiac artery (trunk)
- superior mesenteric artery

Back 471

celiac artery (trunk)

Front 472

Most of the antibodies in the body that act against antigens are produced by:
- T lymphocytes
- B lymphocytes
- macrophages
- plasma cells

Back 472

plasma cells

Front 473

In the fetus, blood enters the common carotid arteries by means of the:
- aorta
- pulmonary vein
- pulmonary artery
- ductus arteriosus
- thebesian veins (venae cordis minimae)

Back 473

aorta

Front 474

The parotid duct pierces the buccinator muscle opposite the:
- mandibular first premolar
- maxillary first premolar
- maxillary first molar
- maxillary second molar
- maxillary third molar

Back 474

maxillary second molar

Front 475

Which of the lymphoid tissues in the body are considered subepithelial and nonencapsulated?
- Thymus gland and lymph nodes
- Lymph nodes and aggregated nodules
- Pharyngeal tonsils and thymus gland
- Peyer's patches and pharyngeal tonsils

Back 475

Peyer's patches and pharyngeal tonsils

Front 476

Most of the lymph is returned to the blood at which of the following sites?
- Right brachiocephalic vein
- Left external jugular vein
- Junction of left internal jugular and subclavian veins
- Junction of right internal jugular and subclavian veins

Back 476

Junction of left internal jugular and subclavian veins

Front 477

In the fetal heart, the foramen ovale connects the:
- pulmonary artery and the aorta
- right and left atria, permitting the flow of blood from right to left
- right and left atria, permitting the flow of blood from left to right
- right and left ventricles, permitting the flow of blood from right to left
- right and left ventricles, permitting the flow of blood from left to right

Back 477

right and left atria, permitting the flow of blood from right to left

Front 478

Which of the following muscles receives its motor supply from the facial nerve?
- Masseter
- Temporal
- Buccinator
- Lateral pterygoid
- Tensor veli palatini

Back 478

Buccinator

Front 479

Second, third and fourth right posterior intercostal veins drain from the right superior intercostal vein into the:
- azygos vein
- hemiazygos vein
- accessory hemiazygos vein
- left brachiocephalic vein
- left internal jugular vein

Back 479

azygos vein

Front 480

At the muscle-tendon junction, the union is made by:
- myofibrils connecting with collagenous fibrils of the tendon
- an abundance of reticular fibers in the area of the junction
- a continuity of connective tissue sheaths of the muscle with those of the tendon
- a special thickening of sarcoplasm that unites with collagenous fibrils of the tendon

Back 480

a continuity of connective tissue sheaths of the muscle with those of the tendon

Front 481

Apical abscesses on certain teeth have a marked tendenct to produce cervical spread of infection that occurs most rapidly in abscesses of:
- mandibular incisors
- mandibular canines
- maxillary premolars
- mandibular second and third molars

Back 481

mandibular second and third molars

Front 482

In the sulcular epithelium, small spaces between cells in the stratum spinosum (prickle cell layer) are normally filled by:
- keratin
- a small amount of tissue fluid
- capillaries that course between cells to approach the free surface
- none of the above

Back 482

a small amount of tissue fluid

Front 483

Normally, the free gingiva can be distinguished from the epithelial attachment because the:
- underlying connective tissue of the gingiva does not contain lymphoid cells
- epithelium of the epithelial attachment does not have rete pegs
- epithelium of the gingiva is not keratinized
- underlying connective tissue of the epithelial attachment is less vascular

Back 483

epithelium of the epithelial attachment does not have rete pegs

Front 484

The bony floor of the nasal cavity is formed by the:
- palatine process of the maxilla and the vertical part of the palatine
- palatine process of the temporal and the horizontal part of the palatine
- vomer and the vertical part of the palatine
- palatine process of the maxilla and the horizontal part of the palatine

Back 484

palatine process of the maxilla and the horizontal part of the palatine

Front 485

Cells of the stratum granulosum of thick stratified squamous epithelium characteristically contain:
- melanin granules
- keratin granules
- keratohyalin granules
- granules that are organelles

Back 485

keratohyalin granules

Front 486

A major sensory innervation of the temporomandibular joint is derived from the:
- great auricular nerve
- auriculotemporal nerve
- inferior alveolar nerve
- temporal branches of the facial nerve

Back 486

auriculotemporal nerve

Front 487

The middle nasal concha is part of which of the following bones?
- Nasal
- Vomer
- Ethmoid
- Palatine
- Sphenoid

Back 487

Ethmoid

Front 488

The external carotid artery contributes to the blood supply of the nasal cavity by way of the:
- facial artery, the superior labial artery and angular arteries
- lingual artery, the deep lingual artery and internal nasal arteries
- occipital artery, the ascending palatine artery and posterior nasal arteries
- maxillary artery, the sphenopalatine artery and posterior lateral nasal arteries
- superficial temporal artery, the transverse facial artery and external nasal arteries

Back 488

maxillary artery, the sphenopalatine artery and posterior lateral nasal arteries

Front 489

The impulse-conducting mechanism in the heart is composed of:
- autonomic nerve fibers
- bundles of collagenous fibers
- reticuloendothelial components
- modified cardiac muscle fibers

Back 489

modified cardiac muscle fibers

Front 490

Movement of the head about its vertical axis (rotation to right or left) occurs chiefly at which of the following joints?
- Atlanto axial
- Spheno occipital
- Atlanto occipital
- Third to seventh cervical vertebrae

Back 490

Atlanto axial

Front 491

Which of the following structures is formed from the first branchial (visceral) arch?
- Hyoid bone
- Buccinator muscle
- Stylopharyngeus muscle
- Lateral pterygoid muscle
- Superior parathyroid gland

Back 491

Lateral pterygoid muscle

Front 492

Lateral clefting of the lip results from the failure of merging of:
- maxillary with mandibular processes
- maxillary processes with each other
- maxillary and medial nasal processes
- medial and lateral nasal processes
- palatine processes with the nasal septum

Back 492

maxillary and medial nasal processes

Front 493

Which of the following cells is most likely to have an abundant amount of rough-surfaced endoplasmic reticulum?
- Osteocyte
- Macrophage
- Osteoblast
- Mesothelial cell
- Small lymphocyte

Back 493

Osteoblast

Front 494

The ground substance of hyaline cartilage is basophilic because it contains:
- phosphatases
- polypeptides
- orthophosphoric esters
- sulfated proteoglycans

Back 494

sulfated proteoglycans

Front 495

Tropocollagen is a protein molecule found in:
- collagen and elastic fibers only
- elastic and reticular fibers only
- collagen and reticular fibers only
- collagen, elastic and reticular fibers

Back 495

collagen and reticular fibers only

Front 496

Hyaline cartilage differs from bone in that hyaline cartilage:
- cells lie in lacunae
- may grow interstitially
- may grow appositionally
- can become more highly calcified

Back 496

may grow interstitially

Front 497

The most prominent functional component in the tunica media of small arteries is:
- elastic fibers
- smooth muscle
- striated muscle
- reticular fibers
- collagenous fibers

Back 497

smooth muscle

Front 498

The nucleolus produces:
- DNA
- transfer RNA
- ribosomal RNA
- messenger RNA
- both DNA and transfer RNA

Back 498

ribosomal RNA

Front 499

An organ with a retroperitoneal location that can be approached surgically without violating the continuity of the peritoneum is the:
- ovary
- kidney
- spleen
- gallbladder

Back 499

kidney

Front 500

Which of the following are mobilized when a cell produces an excessive amount of protein?
- Lysosomes
- Mitochondria
- Lipofuscin granules
- Rough endoplasmic reticula
- All of the above

Back 500

Lysosomes

Front 501

During endochondral ossification of a long bone of an extremity, the function of hyaline cartilage is to:
- increase strength of the developing bone
- provide a region where bone can grow in length
- provide undifferentiated cells that will become osteoblasts
- form cores of trabeculae that compose most compact bone of the diaphysis

Back 501

provide a region where bone can grow in length

Front 502

Most intrinsic muscles of the larynx receive their motor innervation from:
- the laryngeal plexus
- the inferior (recurrent) laryngeal nerve
- the external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve
- the internal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve
- both external and internal branches of the superior laryngeal nerve

Back 502

the inferior (recurrent) laryngeal nerve

Front 503

In the human embryo, during the third week of development, the first branchial arch divides to form the mandibular process and the:
- hyoid arch
- thyrohyoid arch
- branchial pouch
- maxillary process
- frontonasal process

Back 503

maxillary process

Front 504

In a relaxed state, transitional epithelium can be distinguished from stratified squamous epithelium because transitional epithelium contains:
- stratum corneum
- flattened superficial cells
- dome shaped superficial cells
- more visible ground substance

Back 504

dome shaped superficial cells

Front 505

Circular fibers are present in the:
- free gingiva and encircle the tooth
- free gingiva and encircle alveolar bone
- attached gingiva and encircle alveolar bone
- periodontal ligament and encircle the tooth

Back 505

free gingiva and encircle the tooth

Front 506

Which of the following groups of periodontal ligament fibers has a cementum-to-cementum attachment?
- Oblique
- Transseptal
- Free gingival
- Interradicular
- Dentoalveolar crest

Back 506

Transseptal

Front 507

Which of the following is necessary for cementum to be deposited during tooth development?
- The tooth must be erupting
- A bony socket must develop
- An apical vascular plexus must be present
- The continuity of the root sheath (Hertwig) must be broken

Back 507

The continuity of the rooth sheath (Hertwig) must be broken

Front 508

The disturbance in cartilage formation in a fetus results in deformities of the:
- sphenoid and zygomatic bones
- axial skeleton and the base of the skull
- axial skeleton and the flat bones of the skull
- petrous portion of the temporal bones and the parietal bones

Back 508

axial skeleton and the base of the skull

Front 509

The long axes of mandibular condyles intersect at the foramen magnum indicating that these axes are directed:
- transversely
- anteroposteriorly
- anteromedially
- posteromedially
- None of the above

Back 509

posteromedially

Front 510

Cell bodies of taste fibers from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue are located in which of the following ganglia?
- Otic
- Geniculate
- Submandibular
- Pterygopalatine
- Trigeminal (semilunar)

Back 510

Geniculate

Front 511

The alveolar bone proper (cribiform plate) usually consists of:
- woven bone
- bundle bone only
- lamellar bone
- bundle bone and lamellar bone

Back 511

bundle bone and lamellar bone

Front 512

The optic tracts consist of axons from which of the following cells?
- Rod
- Bipolar
- Ganglion
- Horizontal
- All of the above

Back 512

Ganglion

Front 513

Gingiva is different from alveolar mucosa in that gingiva has:
- elastic fibers
- simple epithelium
- muscularis mucosa
- stratified epithelium
- high connective tissue papillae

Back 513

high connective tissue papillae

Front 514

The large mass of gray matter that bulges into the floor and the lateral aspect of the lateral ventricle is the:
- hypothalamus
- caudate nucleus
- substantia nigra
- amygdaloid complex

Back 514

caudate nucleus

Front 515

The large ascending bundle of fibers in the medulla that is comprised of second order neuron fibers conveying proprioception and discriminatory touch sensations to conscious levels is the:
- medial lemniscus
- reticular formation
- spinal trigeminal tract
- inferior cerebellar peduncle

Back 515

medial lemniscus

Front 516

Which of the following forms of connective tissues has a preponderance of amorphous ground substance over fibers?
- Loose
- Cartilage
- Reticular
- Dense, regularly arranged
- Dense, irregularly arranged

Back 516

Cartilage

Front 517

In salivary glands, folds of the basal portion of the cell membrane containing mitochondria are characteristic of the:
- cells comprising demilunes
- cells of the striated ducts
- cells of the intercalated ducts
- serous cells of the parotid gland

Back 517

cells of striated ducts

Front 518

The lamina papyacea is located in the orbital:
- roof
- floor
- lateral wall
- medial wall

Back 518

medial wall

Front 519

Which of the following increase with age in dental pulp?
(a) Vascularity
(b) Size of the pulp chamber
(c) Number of collagen fibers
(d) Calcification within the pulp
- a and b only
- a, b and c
- a and c only
- a and d
- b and c only
- b and d
- c and d

Back 519

c and d

Front 520

The epithelial root sheath (Hertwig) is characterized by:
(a) the formation of cell rests in the periodontal ligament when the sheath's functions have been accomplished
(b) progressive involution, thereby aiding in actual tooth movement during eruption
(c) the absence of a stellate reticulum and a stratum intermedium
(d) the absence of mitotic ability and, thus, stretching as the root grows
- a and c
- a and d
- b and c
- b and d

Back 520

a and c

Front 521

Obstruction of the cerebral aqueduct causes enlargement of the:
(a) third ventricle
(b) fourth ventricle
(c) lateral ventricle
- a only
- a and b
- a and c
- b only
- b and c
- c only

Back 521

a and c

Front 522

What is the usual sequence of events in the histogenesis of a tooth?
(a) Deposition of the first layer of enamel
(b) Deposition of the first layer of dentin
(c) Elongation of inner enamel epithelial cells
(d) Differentiation of odontoblasts
- a, b, c, d
- c, d, a, b
- c, d, b, a
- d, a, b, c
- d, c, b, a

Back 522

c, d, b, a

Front 523

Which of the following muscles or muscle fibers are elevators of the mandible?
(a) Medial pterygoid muscle
(b) Lateral pterygoid muscle
(c) Anterior fibers of the temporal muscle
(d) Posterior fibers of the temporal muscle
- a and c only
- a, c and d
- b, c and d
- b and d only
- All of the above

Back 523

a, c and d

Front 524

Which of the following articulate directly with the body of the sternum?
(a) Clavicle
(b) Eleventh rib
(c) Manubrium
(d) First rib
(e) Xiphoid process
- a, b and d
- b, d and e
- c, d and e
- c and e only
- All of the above

Back 524

c and e only

Front 525

Which of the following structures may be found in the infratemporal fossa?
(a) Sphenomandibular ligament
(b) Medial pterygoid muscle
(c) Middle meningeal artery
(d) Ophthalmuc nerve
(e) Internal jugular vein
- a, b and c
- a, b and d
- a, c and e
- b, d and e
- c, d and e
- All of the above

Back 525

a, b and c

Front 526

Which of the following cell types may be found in the periodontal ligament?
(a) Fibroclasts
(b) Osteoblasts
(c) Macrophages
(d) Cementoblasts
- a, b and c
- a and c only
- b and d
- d only
- All of the above

Back 526

All of the above

Front 527

Each of the following secretes the substance with which it is paired except:
- Sertoli's cells: testosterone
- corpus luteum: progesterone
- alpha cells of the pancreas: glucagon
- chromaffin cells of the suprarenal: catecholamine

Back 527

Sertoli's cells: testosterone

Front 528

All of the following structures can be seen in a histologic examination of the adult parotid gland except:
- striated ducts
- serous demilunes
- intercalated ducts
- myoepithelial cells
- granular serous cells

Back 528

serous demilunes

Front 529

Which of the following arteries does not accompany the corresponding nerve throughout its course?
- Lingual
- Infraorbital
- Inferior alveolar
- Posterior superior alveolar

Back 529

Lingual

Front 530

Which of the following structural changes is not encountered in passing along the respiratory system from the trachea to a respiratory bronchiole?
- Decrease in goblet cells
- Decrease in ciliated cells
- Total loss of cartilage from the wall
- Progressive change from stratified squamous to cuboidal epithelial lining

Back 530

Progressive change from stratified squamous to cuboidal epithelial lining

Front 531

All of the ofllowing structures are concerned with development of the tongue except the:
- copula
- macula
- tuberculum impar
- second branchial arch
- third branchial arch

Back 531

macula

Front 532

Which of the following tissues would be least affected if the anterior lobe of the hypophysis were destroyed?
- Thyroid epithelium
- Medulla of the adrenal gland
- Interstitial cells of the testis
- Zona fasciculata of the adrenal gland
- Spermatogenic epithelium of the testis

Back 532

Medulla of the adrenal gland

Front 533

The secretion of which of the following endocrine glands is not essential to life?
- Parathyroids
- Adrenal cortex
- Adrenal medulla
- Anterior pituitary
- Pancreatic islets of Langerhans

Back 533

Adrenal medulla

Front 534

A section of the posterior lobe of the hypophysis contains mainly:
- follicles
- alpha and beta cells
- chromophobes and chromophils
- unmyelinated nerve fibers

Back 534

unmyelinated nerve fibers

Front 535

The artery most commonly involved in stroke is the:
- lenticuldstriate
- anterior cerebral
- posterior cerebral
- middle meningeal

Back 535

lenticuldstriate

Front 536

The fiber group in the periodontal ligament that constitutes the main support of the tooth against masticatory forces is the:
- apical
- oblique
- transverse
- horizontal
- transseptal

Back 536

oblique

Front 537

Nonarticular surfaces of the temporomandibular joint are covered with:
- periosteum
- fibrocartilage
- elastic cartilage
- hyaline cartilage

Back 537

periosteum

Front 538

Which of the following elements are present during development and growth of the alveolar process?
- Osteoblasts, osteoclasts, osteoid
- Osteoblasts, osteoid, megakaryocytes
- Perichondrium, osteoblasts, periosteal bud
- Periosteum, epiphyseal ossification centers, osteoblasts

Back 538

Osteoblasts, osteoclasts, osteoid

Front 539

The epitheliam root sheat (Hertwig) is essential to development of the root of a tooth because it:
- remains as an essential constituent of the periodontal ligament
- gives rise to cementoblasts that produce cementum of the root
- gives rise to odontoblasts that lay down dentin of the root
- molds the shape of the root and stimulates differentiation of odontoblasts

Back 539

molds the shape of the root and stimulates differentiation of odontoblasts

Front 540

In skeletal muscle, a triad consists of:
- a "T" tubule and associated mitochondria
- a "T" tubule and invagination of the sarcolemma
- a zone of attachment between adjacent cells
- terminal cisternae and sarcoplasmic reticulum
- terminal cisternae and a fingerlike invagination of the sarcolemma

Back 540

terminal cisternae and a fingerlike invagination of the sarcolemma

Front 541

The cytoplasm of odontoblasts stains intensely with basic dyes. This is caused by the:
- high ribonucleic acid content
- high content of potassium ions
- increased number of mitochondria
- presence of acidophilic substances

Back 541

high ribonucleic acid content

Front 542

Which of the following structures crosses the masseter muscle and pierces the buccinator muscle?
- Parotid duct
- Masseteric nerve
- Transverse facial artery
- Zygomatic muscle branch of the facial nerve

Back 542

Parotid duct

Front 543

In the Pain Gate Theory, a controller system modulates sensory input so that there is a selective and integrative action occuring before impulses each the first synapse for onward transmission. The gate controller in this system is the:
- T cell
- large A fiber
- small C fiber
- central control
- substantia gelatinosa

Back 543

substantia gelatinosa

Front 544

Which of the following adult salivary glands are entirely serous?
- Ebner's and palatal
- Ebner's and parotid
- Ebner's and sublingual
- Parotid and submandibular

Back 544

Ebner's and parotid

Front 545

Which of the following arteries is most concerned with the blood supply to the upper lip?
- Facial
- Maxillary
- External nasal
- Greater palatine
- Anterior superior alveolar

Back 545

Facial

Front 546

The alternate loosening and tightening of a primary tooth that is about to be shed results from:
- lack of a developing permanent successor
- labial movement of the developing permanent tooth
- alternate resorption and apposition of cementum and bone
- alternate softening and hardening of alveolar bone proper

Back 546

alternate resorption and apposition of cementum and bone

Front 547

Of the structures seen on a ground section of a permanent lateral incisor, which of the following was formed first?
- Perikymata
- Enamel spindle
- Gnarled enamel
- Granular layer of Tomes

Back 547

Enamel spindle

Front 548

Colloid in the usualy thyroid follicle stains:
- basophilic
- acidophilic
- positive for DNA
- positive for steroids

Back 548

acidophilic

Front 549

The middle cranial fossa is separated from the posterior cranial fossa primarily by the:
- crista galli
- groove for the transverse sinus
- lesser wing of the sphenoid bone
- petrous part of the temporal bone

Back 549

petrous part of the temporal bone

Front 550

The normoblast is a developmental stage of the:
- monocyte
- lymphocyte
- eosinophil
- erythrocyte

Back 550

erythrocyte

Front 551

When a tendon or a ligament is attached to bone, the attaching fibers are:
- Tomes' fibers
- principal fibers
- haversian fibers
- Sharpey's fibers
- interstitial fibers

Back 551

Sharpey's fibers

Front 552

The middle cerebral artery is distributed on the:
- ventral surface of the brain stem
- ventral surface of the cerebral hemisphere
- lateral surface of the central hemisphere
- anterior region of the medial surface of the cerebral hemisphere
- posterior region of the medial surface of the cerebral hemisphere

Back 552

lateral surface of the cerebral hemisphere

Front 553

The fate of Meckel's cartilage is believe to be:
- dissolution without contribution to any definitive structure
- dissolution with minor contributions to ossification
- an active role in ossification of the mandibular body
- an active role in ossification of the alveolar process

Back 553

dissolution with minor contribution to ossification

Front 554

Which of the following has no lymph sinuses and is surrounded partly by connective tissue and partly by epithelium, the latter forming deep infoldings?
- Thymus
- Peyer's patch
- Lingual tonsil
- Palatine tonsil
- Pharyngeal tonsil

Back 554

Pharyngeal tonsil

Front 555

The free gingival groove is related to the:
- alveolar crest
- probe depth measurement
- base of the histologic sulcus
- degree of periodontal health
- arrangement of supraalveolar fibers

Back 555

arrangement of supraalveolar fibers

Front 556

The sphenomandibular ligament is attached to the:
- lesser wing of the sphenoid bone and the neck of the mandible
- spine of the sphenoid bone and lingula of the mandible
- spine of the sphenoid bone and the angle of the mandible
- None of the above

Back 556

spine of the sphenoid bone and lingula of the mandible

Front 557

After exertion, an athlete is puffing. Which of the following paired muscles helps maintain a wide airway through the larynx?
- Cricothyroid
- Aryepiglottic
- Thyroarytenoid
- Posterior cricoarytenoid

Back 557

Posterior cricoarytenoid

Front 558

Accessory root canals can be formed by:
- retention of the stellate reticulum
- adherence of the root sheath to the dentinal surface
- a break in the root sheath before formation of dentin
- an epithelial rest that lies in contact with the dentin of the root

Back 558

a break in the root sheath before formation of dentin

Front 559

Cyclic DNA has been found in or assocated with which of the following organelles?
- Centriole
- Mitochondrion
- Goldi apparatus
- Rough endoplasmic reticulum
- Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

Back 559

Mitochondrion

Front 560

Bifid tongue is a result of lack of fusion of the:
- copula
- vallerculae
- tuberculum impar
- lateral swellings
- None of the above

Back 560

lateral swellings

Front 561

Which of the following is the embryonic precursor of cementoblasts?
- Dental sac
- Dental papilla
- Inner enamel epithelium
- Outer enamel epithelium
- Epithelial root sheath (Hertwig)

Back 561

Dental sac

Front 562

The medial (internal) pterygoid muscle is attached to the:
- pterygoid hamulus
- lateral surface of the lateral pterygoid plate
- medial surface of the lateral pterygoid plate
- medial surface of the medial pterygoid plate
- lateral surface of the greater wing of the sphenoid

Back 562

medial surface of the lateral pterygoid plate

Front 563

Schwann's cells arise from:
- glial cells
- spongioblasts
- neural crest cells
- neuroepithelial cells of the ependymal zone

Back 563

neural crest cells

Front 564

Which of the following describes the manner in which tissue fluid reaches the epithelium of skin?
- Arterioles are directly involved in tissue fluid exchange with the epithelium
- Capillaries are directly involved in tissue fluid exchange with the epithelium
- Tissue fluid is obtained through the ground substance of connective tissue from arterioles
- Tissue fluid is obtained through the ground substance of connective tissue from capillaries

Back 564

Tissue fluid is obtained through the ground substance of connective tissue from capillaries

Front 565

In the condition of hypersecretion of growth hormone, which of the following determines whethe gigantism or acromegaly results?
- The genetic makeup of the individual
- The nutritional state of the individual
- Whether epiphyses of the long bones are fused
- Whether there is a concomitant excess of thyroxine

Back 565

Whether epiphyses of the long bones are fused

Front 566

The circulatory system of a near-term fetus differs from that of an adult in that, in the fetus, the:
- ductus venosus carries unoxygenated blood
- ductus arteriosus carries fully oxygenated blood
- foramen ovale allows blood to pass primarily from the right atrium to the left atrium

Back 566

foramen ovale allows blood to pass primarily from the right atrium to the left atrium

Front 567

Inorganic crystals in enamel have their long axes parallel to the rods in the:
- centers of the bodies of the rods only
- periphery of the bodies of the rods only
- bodies of the rods and deviating increasingly in the tails
- tails of the rods and deviating increasingly from the centers of the bodies to the periphery
- tails of the rods and deviating increasingly from the periphery of the bodies to the centers

Back 567

bodies of the rods and deviating increasingly from the centers of the bodies to the periphery

Front 568

During deep inspiration, the diaphragm behaves in which of the following ways?
- It relaxes
- It moves inferiorly
- It moves superiorly
- It does not change position
- It compresses thoracic viscera

Back 568

It moves inferiorly

Front 569

Which of the following structures passes through the foramen rotundum?
- Maxillary nerve
- Zygomatic nerve
- Lacrimal artery
- Maxillary artery

Back 569

Maxillary nerve

Front 570

Peripherally located nuclei are found in which of the following types of adult muscle cells?
- Smooth only
- Cardiac only
- Skeletal only
- Smooth and cardiac
- Cardiac and skeletal

Back 570

Skeletal only

Front 571

The spheno-occipital synchondrosis in the midline of the cranial base of a newborn consists of:
- hyaline cartilage
- elastic cartilage
- fibrous cartilage
- fibrous connective tissue

Back 571

hyaline cartilage

Front 572

The papillary layer of the dermis differs from the reticular layer in that the papillary later:
- contains larger blood vessels than the reticular layer
- has a few elastic fibers, whereas the reticular layer has no elastic fibers
- is composed of coarse collagenous fibers, whereas the reticular layer is composed of predominantly fine collagenous fibers
- is more finely constructed, whereas the reticular layer contains coarser collagenous fibers as a component

Back 572

is more finely constructed, whereas the reticular layer contains coarser collagenous fibers as a component

Front 573

In an adult, cerebrospinal fluid can be aspirated most safely by inserting the needle between the third and fourth lumbar vertebrae because:
- the spinal cord does not extend below lumbar 2
- the subarachnoid space does not extend below lumbar 4
- there is more space between laminae of these vertebrae
- there are no important nerves in this part of the vertebral canal
- there is little danger of entering the internal vertebral plexus at this level

Back 573

the spinal cord does not extend below lumbar 2

Front 574

Ependymal cells constitute the tissue that:
- lines the ventricles of the brain
- lines the ventricles of the heart
- forms a part of the peripheral neuroglia
- covers nerve cell bodies in a ganglion

Back 574

lines the ventricles of the brain

Front 575

The oral mucosa of the cheek differs from the skin covering the outer surface of the lip by possessing:
- sweat glands in the submucosa
- groups of sebaceous glands associated with hair follicles
- dense, collagenous fibers that immovably fix it to the orbicularis oris muscle
- a stratified, squamous, keratinized epithelium with a thicker lamina propria

Back 575

a stratified, squamous, nonkeratinized epithelium with a thinner lamina propria

Front 576

Which of the following cells aid in the immunologic defense of the body?
- Mast cells
- Giant cells
- Neutrophils
- Plasma cells

Back 576

Plasma cells

Front 577

The upper five or six anterior intercostal arteries are branches of the:
- thoracic aorta
- musculophrenic arteries
- pericardiacophrenic arteries
- internal thoracic arteries
- superior epigastric arteries

Back 577

internal thoracic arteries

Front 578

Which of the following cells contains a large amount of rough-surfaced endoplasmic reticulum?
- Lymphocyte
- Eosinophil
- Plasma cell
- Skeletal muscle cell
- Reticuloendothelial cell

Back 578

Plasma cell

Front 579

Polymerization of amino acids to form procollagen filaments occurs:
- on ribosomes
- in the golgi apparatus
- on the fibroblast surface
- in rough, endoplasmic reticulum
- after cleavage of the registration peptide

Back 579

in the golgi apparatus

Front 580

The cell body of a somatic afferent neuron is found in the:
- dorsal horn of the spinal cord
- ventral horn of the spinal cord
- dorsal root ganglion of a spinal nerve
- ventral root ganglion of a spinal nerve
- ganglion of the autonomic nervous system

Back 580

dorsal root ganglion of a spinal nerve

Front 581

The cores of intestinal villi consist of:
- loose connective tissue and folds of muscularis externa
- folds of submucosa that contain blood vessels and Meissner's plexus
- a lamina propria that contains blood vessels, nerves and lacteals
- connective tissue and two fairly substantial layers of smooth muscle

Back 581

a lamina propria that contains blood vessels, nerves and lacteals

Front 582

During growth of the mandible, resting lines are seen in the cortical bone. This phenomenon is a result of:
- bone apposition
- internal stress in bone
- calcification of cartilage
- eruption of permanent teeth
- endochondral bone resorption

Back 582

bone apposition

Front 583

The mylohyoid muscle functions to:
- depress the hyoid bone
- raise the floor of the mouth
- approximate faucial pillars
- close the opening to the nasopharynx
- prevent food from entering the larynx

Back 583

raise the floor of the mouth

Front 584

Infections or neoplasms that spread by lymphatics from the skin of the angle of the mouth pass to the:
- parotid nodes
- cavernous sinus
- pterygoid plexus
- submandibular nodes
- anterior auricular nodes

Back 584

submandibular nodes

Front 585

Multiple root formation in a tooth follows unequal proliferation of the:
- dental sac
- dental papilla
- epithelial rests
- epithelial diaphragm

Back 585

epithelial diaphragm

Front 586

In which of the following glands is the blood supply most isolated from the parenchyma?
- Thymus
- Spleen
- Lymph node
- Peyer's patch
- Pharyngeal tonsil

Back 586

Thymus

Front 587

The pterygoid plexus and its tributaries are the venous paralel of the:
- facial artery
- maxillary artery
- internal carotid artery
- superficial temporal artery

Back 587

maxillary artery

Front 588

Eversion of valves of atrioventricular orifices of the heart is prevented by papillary muscles and:
- the terminal crest
- the ligamentum teres
- the ligamentum venosum
- chordae tendinate cordis
- trabeculae carneae cordis

Back 588

chordae tendinae cordis

Front 589

Which of the following epithelial surface variations serve primarily to increase the functional surface area?
- Cilia
- Flagella
- Microvilli
- All of the above

Back 589

Microvilli

Front 590

Articular surfaces of most diarthrodial joints are covered by:
- fibrocartilage
- hyaline cartilage
- elastic cartilage
- articular disks

Back 590

hyaline cartilage

Front 591

Blood vessels in interdental papillae anastomose freely with:
- periodontal vessels only
- interalveolar vessels only
- both periodontal and interalveolar vessels
- none of the above

Back 591

both periodontal and interalveolar vessels

Front 592

A major tract connecting right and left cerebral hemispheres is the:
- cingulim
- corpus callosum
- internal capsule
- superior occipitofrontal bundle

Back 592

corpus callosum

Front 593

Which of the following is found in the curve of the duodenum?
- Spleen
- Cystic duct
- Left kidney
- Head of the pancreas
- Fundus of the stomach

Back 593

Head of the pancreas

Front 594

Maxillary teeth are developed from which of the following embryonic structures?
(a) Arch I
(b) Arch II
(c) Globular process
(d) Lateral nasal process
- a and b
- a and c
- b and c
- b and d
- c and d

Back 594

a and c

Front 595

A sinusoid arrangement of blood vessels is found in the:
(a) hypophysis
(b) spleen
(c) kidney
(d) liver
- a and b only
- a, b and d
- a and c
- b, c and d

Back 595

a, b and d

Front 596

Which of the following organs have the closest anatomic relationship to the right kidney?
(a) Colon
(b) Liver
(c) Spleen
(d) Stomach
(e) Duodenum
(f) Pancreas
- a, b and c
- a, b and e
- a, c and d
- b, d and f
- c, e and f
- d, e and f

Back 596

a, b and e

Front 597

Which of the following organelles have a double-unit membrane?
(a) Nucleus
(b) Lysosome
(c) Golgi complex
(d) Mitochondrion
(e) Rought endoplasmic reticulum
- a, b and c
- a and c only
- a and d only
- a, d and e
- b, c and d
- b and e

Back 597

a and d only

Front 598

The fate of the epithelial rests of Malassez is that they may:
(a) undergo calcification
(b) form into cementicles
(c) become fibrous
(d) form cartilagenous nodules
- a and b only
- a, b and c
- b and c only
- b, c and d
- c and d only

Back 598

a and b only

Front 599

Neonatal lines are found in which of the following?
(a) Enamel of primary incisors
(b) Enamel of permanent canines
(c) Enamel of permanent first molars
(d) Dentin of permanent mandibular incisors
(e) Dentin of permanent first molars
- a, b and c
- a, b and d only
- a, b, d and e
- a, c and d
- b, d and e only
- All of the above

Back 599

All of the above

Front 600

Ligamentous remnants of the fetal circulatory system persisting in the adult include:
(a) ligamentum nuchae
(b) ligamentum venosum
(c) ligamentum arteriosum
(d) ligamentum teres of the liver
(e) ligamentum teres of the uterus
- a, b and c
- a, b and e
- a, d and e
- b, c and d
- c, d and e

Back 600

b, c and d

Front 601

Which of the following structures of the infratemporal fossa is not found between medial and lateral pterygoid muscles?
- Lingual nerve
- Inferior alveolar nerve
- Inferior alveolar artery
- Nerve to the masseter muscle

Back 601

Nerve to the masseter muscle

Front 602

All of the following structures may be found in dentin except:
- globular dentin
- the neonatal line
- striae of Retzius
- contour lines of Owen
- odontoblastic processes

Back 602

striae of Retzius

Front 603

Epithelium of which of the following structures of the respiratory system does not normally have cilia?
- Trachea
- Bronchioles
- Alveolar ducts
- Primary bronchus

Back 603

Alveolar ducts

Front 604

Which of the following is not a "principal" collagenous fiber gorup of the periodontal ligament?
- Apical
- Oblique
- Horizontal
- Gingivodental

Back 604

Gingivodental

Front 605

Which of the following structures is not found in the substance of the parotid gland?
- Facial vein
- Facial nerve
- External carotid artery
- Superficial temporal artery
- A branch of the great auricular nerve

Back 605

Facial vein

Front 606

Submental lymph nodes recieve lymphatic vessels from all of the following except:
- mandibular molars
- the tip of the tongue
- the middle of the lower lip
- mandibular lateral incisors
- mandibular central incisors

Back 606

mandibular molars

Front 607

Which of the following groups of cells in the adrenal gland secretes epinephrine?
- Medullary cells
- Zona fasciculata cells
- Zona glomerulosa cells
- Zona reticularis cells

Back 607

Medullary cells

Front 608

Surgical excision of the parotid gland endangers which of the following structures in addition to the facial nerve?
- Hypoglossal nerve
- Motor nerves to the muscles of mastication
- External carotid artery and auriculotemporal nerve
- Lesser occipital nerve and spinal accessory nerve

Back 608

External carotid artery and auriculotemporal nerve

Front 609

Which of the following connective tissue cells is most concerned with defense against bacterial invasion?
- Basophil
- Eosinophil
- Mast cell
- Macrophage
- Erythrocyte

Back 609

Macrophage

Front 610

Which of the following are particularly well developed in cells synthesizing proteins for secretion?
- Lysosomes
- Mtichondria
- Lipofuscin granules
- Rough endoplasmic reticulum
- All of the above

Back 610

Rough endoplasmic reticulum

Front 611

A needle for an inferior alveolar nerve injection mistakenly passes posteriorly at the level of the mandibular foramen. Which of the following structures is it likely to contact?
- Parotid gland
- Lingual nerve
- Internal carotid artery
- Pterygomandibular raphe
- Tendon of the temporalis muscle

Back 611

Parotid gland

Front 612

Which of the following correctly describes the activity of tooth-forming cells during the last part of active eruption?
- Ameloblasts are functioning actively
- Odontoblasts are functioning actively
- The secondary enamel cuticle is being formed
- Cementoblasts have completed their work and are no longer functional

Back 612

Odontoblasts are functioning actively

Front 613

Motor fibers from the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve are distributed to which of the following muscles?
- Stylopharyngeus
- Intrinsic muscles of the tongue
- Muscles of mastication and anterior belly of digastric only
- Muscles of facial expression and posterior belly of digastric
- Muscles of mastication, anterior belly of digastric, tensor tympani, tensor veli palatini and mylohyoid

Back 613

Muscles of mastication, anterior belly of digastric, tensor tympani, tensor veli palatini and mylohyoid

Front 614

Which of the following areas of the cerebral cortex is concerned with the recognition of painful stimuli from the teeth?
- Precentral gyrus
- Superior temporal gyrus
- Postcentral gyrus
- Cortex along the lips of the calcarine fissure

Back 614

Postcentral gyrus

Front 615

Which of the following occurs during the early stage of the eruption of a tooth?
- Maturation of enamel
- Formation of the dental sac
- Formation of stellate reticulum
- Differentiation of the stratum intermedium

Back 615

Maturation of enamel

Front 616

Which of the following is correct concerning the structure of the palatal submucosa?
- A network of vascular spaces acts as a hydrostatic cushion
- The entire submucosa consists of loose connective tissue containing compressible ground substance
- The anterior zone contains spaces filled with fat while the posterior zone contains nests of mucous glands
- The anterior zone consists of a dense collagenous network while the posterior zone contains compressible vascular spaces

Back 616

The anterior zone contains spaces filled with fat while the posterior zone contains nests of mucous glands

Front 617

Which of the following cartilages will be cut twice in a sagittal section through the neck?
- Cricoid
- Thyroid
- Arytenoid
- Epiglottis
- Second tracheal cartilage

Back 617

Cricoid

Front 618

Which of the following contains the hypothalamo-hypophyseal tract?
- Pars nervosa
- Pars intermedia
- Infundibular stalk
- Pars distalis of the hypophysis
- None of the above

Back 618

Infundibular stalk

Front 619

The adult parotid gland can be distinguished by which of the following features?
(a) Mucous acini only
(b) Relatively long secretory ducts
(c) Mucous acini with serous demilunes
(d) Serous acini only
(e) Long intercalated ducts
- a, b and c
- b, c and d
- b, d and e
- c, d and e

Back 619

b, d and e

Front 620

Which of the following are attached to the cell membrane?
(a) Cell coat
(b) Microfilaments
(c) Reticular fibers
(d) Golgi complex
(e) Sharpey's fibers
- a and b
- a and e
- b and c
- c and d
- d and e

Back 620

a and b

Front 621

The greater petrosal nerve contains which of the following components?
(a) Sympathetic fibers
(b) General visceral afferent fibers
(c) General somatic efferent fibers
(d) Parasympathetic fibers
(e) Special visceral efferent fibers
- a and e
- b and d
- c and e
- All of the above

Back 621

b and d

Front 622

The noncellular components in osseous tissue include:
(a) lacunae
(b) canaliculi
(c) osteocytes
(d) osteoblasts
(e) matrix substance
(f) hematopoietic elements
- a, b and e
- a, b and f
- a, c and e
- b, d and f
- c, d and e
- c, d and f

Back 622

a, b and e

Front 623

Mineral-poor ectodermal structures in enamel include:
(a) tufts
(b) lamellae
(c) spindles
(d) odontoblastic processes
- a and b
- b and c only
- b, c and d
- c and d only
- All of the above

Back 623

a and b

Front 624

The submental lymph nodes receive drainage from the:
(a) upper lip
(b) tip of the tongue
(c) mandibular incisors
(d) anterior floor of the mouth
(e) middle portion of the lower lip
(f) lateral portion of the lower lip
- a, b, c and d
- a, b, c and f
- a, b, e and f
- a, d, e and f
- b, c, d and e
- c, d, e and f

Back 624

b, c, d and e

Front 625

The cellcomponent that is genetically continuous from one cell generation to the next is:
- nuclear membrane
- Golgi complex
- central bodies
- chromatin

Back 625

chromatin

Front 626

The combined layers of stomodeum ectoderm and foregut endoderm comprise the:
- buccopharyngeal membrane
- first pharyngeal arch
- mandibular process
- primitive palate

Back 626

buccopharyngeal membrane

Front 627

DNA is found primarily in:
- a nucleolus
- the nucleus
- the cytoplasm
- the mitochondria
- the cell membrane

Back 627

the nucleus

Front 628

The normal gingival sulcus is bounded by the:
- tooth surface and epithelial covering of attached gingiva
- tooth surface and epithelial covering of free gingiva
- epithelial covering of free and attached gingiva
- free gingival groove and mucogingival junction
- tooth surface and gingival lamina propria

Back 628

tooth surface and epithelial covering of free gingiva

Front 629

The pillars of the fauces are formed by mucosa and the underlying:
- palatoglossus and styloglossus muscles
- palatoglossus and stylopharyngeus muscles
- palatoglossus and palatopharyngeal muscles
- None of the above

Back 629

palatoglossus and palatopharyngeal muscles

Front 630

The space between the jaws into which the teeth erupt is provided by growth at the:
- alveolar processes
- mandibular condyles
- intermaxillary suture and the mental symphysis
- sphenomaxillary, the frontomaxillary and the zygomaticomaxillary sutures

Back 630

mandibular condyles

Front 631

The function of the posterior lobe of the hypophysis involves the storage and release of:
- thyrotropic hormone and gonadotropic hormone
- thyrotropic hormone and vasopressin (ADH)
- oxytocin and gonadotropic hormone
- vasopressin (ADH) and oxytocin

Back 631

vasopressin (ADH) and oxytocin

Front 632

The cribiform plater (alveolar bone proper) reveals minute openings which represent:
- areas of osteoclastic activity
- regions of hematopoietic activity
- resorption sites of the spongiosa
- attachment sites of Sharpey's fibers
- regions for passage of vascular and nerve elements

Back 632

regions for passage of vascular and nerve elements

Front 633

The parotid ducts pierces the buccinator muscle opposite the:
- mandibular first premolar
- maxillary first premolar
- maxillary first molar
- maxillary second molar
- maxillary third molar

Back 633

maxillary second molar

Front 634

Intramembranous bone formation involves:
- mitosis of osteocytes
- hypertrophy of osteocytes
- transformation of osteoclasts to chondrocytes
- transformation of osteocytes to chondrocytes
- transformation of osteoblasts to osteocytes

Back 634

transformation of osteoblasts to osteocytes

Front 635

Smooth muscle fibers differ from striated muscle fibers in that the smooth muscle fibers are:
- longer
- demonstrably single nucleated
- incapable of hypertrophic changes
- multinucleated and of indefinite length

Back 635

demonstrably single nucleated

Front 636

In the spinal cord, white matter consists mainly of:
- perineurium
- myelinated axons
- nerve cell bodies
- loose connective tissue

Back 636

myelinated axons

Front 637

After the tooth is formed, the dental papilla remains as the:
- dentin
- dental sac
- dental pulp
- dental follicle

Back 637

dental pulp

Front 638

The esophageal branches of the right vagus nerve in the lower thorax are found mainly on the:
- left wall of the esophagus
- right wall of the esophagus
- posterior wall of the esophagus
- None of the above

Back 638

posterior wall of the esophagus

Front 639

The trachea bifurcates into right and left primary bronchi at the level of the:
- sternal angle of just below
- seventh cervical vertebra
- suprasternal notch
- xiphoid process
- first rib

Back 639

sternal angle of just below it

Front 640

The inguinal ligament runs between the:
- pubic tubercle and the iliac tubercle
- symphysis pubis and the inferior iliac spine
- anterior superior iliac spine and the pubic tubercle
- anterior and posterior superior iliac spine

Back 640

anterior superior iliac spine and the pubic tubercle

Front 641

The ligamentum arteriosum is:
- a ligament connecting the liver to the anterior abdominal wall
- the remnant of a fetal channel connecting the right atrium to the left atrium
- a fibrous remnant of a fetal channel connecting the left pulmonary artery to the aorta
- none of the above

Back 641

a fibrous remnant of a fetal channel connecting the left pulmonary artery to the aorta

Front 642

The thinnest epithelium of the oral cavity is found on the:
- soft palate
- buccal gingiva
- lingual gingiva
- sublingual mucosa
- oral surface of lip

Back 642

sublingual mucosa

Front 643

In the human kidney, a renal papilla projects directly into the:
- ureter
- minor calyx
- major calyx
- renal pyramid

Back 643

minor calyx

Front 644

In a double vertical fracture through the mental foramina, muscle action will cause the small fragment to move:
- inferiorly only
- superiorly only
- anteriorly and superiorly
- posteriorly and inferiorly
- posteriorly and superiorly

Back 644

posteriorly and inferiorly

Front 645

The apical foramen of a fully developed permanent tooth is usually lined by:
- dentin
- cementum
- epithelial rest cells
- the epithelial diaphragm

Back 645

cementum

Front 646

The portion of the hard palate located directly posterior to the maxillary central incisors is derived from the:
- first branchial arch
- second branchial arch
- median nasal process
- lateral nasal process
- palatal processes of the maxillary processes

Back 646

median nasal process

Front 647

Retraction of the mandible is achieve by:
- posterior fibers of the temporalis muscle
- medial and lateral pterygoid muscles
- lateral pterygoid and deep portion of masseter muscles
- lateral pterygoid, geniohyoid and digastric muscles

Back 647

posterior fibers of the temporalis muscle

Front 648

The histologic feature that most readily distinguishes the aorta is the presence of:
- a clearly visible external acoustic meatus
- distinct vasa vasorum in the tunica media
- a relatively wide and distinct tunica adventitia
- a tunica media composed primarily of elastic membranes

Back 648

a tunica media composed primarily of elastic membrane

Front 649

The difference between capillaries and sinusoids is that capillaries:
- contain blood whereas sinusoids contain plasma
- have a constant lumen and a complete endothelial lining whereas sinusoids are irregular, tortuous tubes
- have a muscular wall that can contract and shut off the circulation whereas sinusoids do not
- are restricted to muscular tissue only whereas sinusoids are widely distributed in every organ

Back 649

have a constant lumen and a complete endothelial lining whereas sinusoids are irregular, tortuous tubes

Front 650

The cross striations characteristic of enamel rods represent:
- Hunter Schreger bands
- the junctional complex of ameloblasts
- the area where enamel rods branch
- incremental growth pattern

Back 650

incremental growth pattern

Front 651

Prickle cells are found in:
- skin dermis
- sweat glands
- peripheral nerve tissue
- stratified squamous epithelium

Back 651

stratified squamous epithelium

Front 652

An endocrine gland of ectodermal origin in the abdomen is the:
- liver
- corpus luteum
- medulla of the adrenal
- cortical portion of the adrenal
- interstitial cells of the testis

Back 652

medulla of the adrenal

Front 653

The lingual artery passes:
- deep to the hyoglossus muscle
- superficial to the mylohyoid muscle
- superficial to the digastric muscle
- between digastric and mylohyoid muscles

Back 653

deep to the hyoglossus muscle

Front 654

The superior orbital fissure is located between the:
- greater and lesser wings of the sphenoid
- greater wing of the sphenoid and the maxilla
- lesser wing of the sphenoid and the palatine bone
- greater wing of the sphenoid and the pterygoid process of the sphenoid
- pterygoid process of the sphenoid and the maxilla

Back 654

greater and lesser wings of the sphenoid

Front 655

Irritability is defined as the:
- ability of a cell to contract when stimulated
- property of protoplasm which enables a cell to move away from a painful stimulus
- property of a stimulated nerve cell exhibiting electrical activity
- property of protoplasm responsible for a cell's being sensitive to a stimulus

Back 655

property of protoplasm responsible for a cell's being sensitive to a stimulus

Front 656

Serum is blood plasma without:
- fibrinogen
- blood cells
- lymphocytes
- plasma colloids
- plasma crystalloids

Back 656

fibrinogen

Front 657

The lining of the terminal bronchiole consists of:
- mesothelium
- endothelium
- low columnar epithelium
- ciliated squamous epithelium
- stratified squamous epithelium

Back 657

low columnar epithelium

Front 658

The hypophysis has direct hormonal control over the:
- spleen
- pineal gland
- mammary glands
- corpus albicans
- pancreatic acini

Back 658

mammary glands

Front 659

Histologically, dentin of the root is distinguished readily from crown dentin by the presence of:
- odontoblasts
- mantle dentin
- reparative dentin
- contour lines (Owen)
- granular layer (Tomes)

Back 659

granular layer (Tomes)

Front 660

Development of the body of the mandible involves:
- Reichert's cartilage
- a complete cartilage model
- intramembranous bone development
- all of the above
- none of the above

Back 660

intramembranous bone development

Front 661

The articular disk of the temporomandibular joint consists of:
- an outer fibrous layer and an inner synovial layer
- areolar tissue covered by dense fibrous connective tissue
- an outer layer of mesothelium and an inner layer of calcified cartilage
- dense fibrous connective tissue which may be associated with chondrocytes

Back 661

dense fibrous connective tissue which may be associated with chondrocytes

Front 662

Electron microscopy has revealed that each cilium is girdled by the cell membrane and that it consists of filaments. The typical arrangement of these structures is:
- nine double circumferential and two single centrally located microtubules
- nine single circumferential and two double centrally located microtubules
- nine single circumferential and two single centrally located microtubules
- nine double circumferential and two double centrally located microtubules

Back 662

nine double circumferential and two single centrally located microtubules

Front 663

Sensory loss in the skin overlying the parotid gland could be caused by damage to the:
- great auricular nerve
- greater occipital nerve
- zygomaticotemporal nerve
- transverse cervical nerve

Back 663

great auricular nerve

Front 664

The epiploic foramen is bounded anteriorly by the:
- free border of the lesser omentum
- free border of the greater omentum
- peritoneum over the inferior vena cava
- peritoneum at the beginning of the duodenum
- peritoneum on the caudate lobe of the liver

Back 664

free border of the lesser omentum

Front 665

Lymphoid tissue of the spleen has the function of filtering:
- lymph only
- blood only
- tissue fluid
- both lymph and blood

Back 665

blood only

Front 666

The articulating surface of the adult mandibular condyle is covered by:
- hyaline cartilage
- typical perichondrium
- a thin layer of synovial membrane
- a dense layer of collagenous connective tissue

Back 666

a dense layer of collagenous connective tissue

Front 667

Endochondral ossification is a procedure in the development of bone in which:
- hyaline cartilage is transformed into bone
- calcified cartilage is replaced by bone
- osteocytes of perichondrium form bone
- osteons with cartilage lamellae are formed

Back 667

calcified cartilage is replaced by bone

Front 668

The junctional epithelium of the dentogingival attachment is characterized by:
- orthokeratinization
- the presence of rete pegs
- hemidesmosomes in the cells facing the tooth surface
- all of the above
- none of the above

Back 668

hemidesmosomes in the cells facing the tooth surface

Front 669

One important collateral circulation of the hepatic portal system is via the:
- renal veins
- mesenteric veins
- esophageal veins
- external iliac veins

Back 669

esophageal veins

Front 670

The nasolacrimal duct drains into the:
- middle meatus
- inferior meatus
- superior meatus
- sphenoethmoidal recess

Back 670

inferior meatus

Front 671

The auditory tube and cavities of the middle ear are derived from the:
- first branchial arch
- second branchial arch
- third branchial arch
- first pharyngeal pouch
- second pharyngeal pouch

Back 671

first phayngeal pouch

Front 672

A terminal web delimits the odontoblast from the odontoblastic process. This aggregation of microfilaments is found:
- intracellularly at the basal aspect of the cells
- intracellularly inserting into the junctional complex of the cell
- extracellularly projecting into the predentin (Korff's fibers)
- extracellularly connecting the junctional complexes of adjacent cells
- extracellularly being continuous with fibers present in the cell free zone of Weil

Back 672

intracellularly inserting into the junctional complex of the cell

Front 673

The primary source of cranial connective tissue cells is the:
- ectoderm
- endoderm
- ectomesenchyme
- primary follicle
- None of the above

Back 673

ectomesenchyme

Front 674

A layer of cells that seems to be essential to enamel formation but does not actually secrete enamel is:
- vestibular lamina
- stratum intermedium
- inner dental epithelium

Back 674

stratum intermedium

Front 675

An upward extension from the thyroid gland may be identified as:
- a remnant of the thyroglossal duct
- a pyramidal lobe
- a muscular slip
- any of the above

Back 675

any of the above

Front 676

The osteon is a cylinder of compact bone composed of:
- basal laminae
- concentric lamellae
- interstitial lamellae
- circumferential lamellae

Back 676

concentric lamellae

Front 677

The nephron of the kidney contains all of the following structures except the:
- collecting tubule
- capsule of Bowman
- descending limb of Henle
- distal convoluted tubule
- proximal convoluted tubule

Back 677

collecting tubule

Front 678

All of the following are immediate changes that occur in the cardiovascular system at birth except:
- closure of foramen ovale
- closure of the ductus venosus
- constriction of the ductus arteriosus
- constriction of the umbilical arteries
- closure of the interventricular foramen

Back 678

closure of the interventricular foramen

Front 679

All of the following are located in the nasopharynx except the:
- piriform recess
- eustachian canal
- pharyngeal tonsil
- pharyngeal recess

Back 679

piriform recess

Front 680

Which of the following does not occur during contraction of the left ventricle of a normal heart?
- The aortic semilunar valve opens
- Blood enters the coronary arteries
- The pulmonary semilunar valve opens
- The left atrioventricular valve closes
- The right atrioventricular valve closes

Back 680

Blood enters the coronary arteries