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265 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
1. What is the derivation of the skin layers?
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Epidermis- ectoderm; dermis- mesoderm
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2. Describe the axilla as a four sided pyramid.
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Anterior axillary fold (pec major); posterior axillary fold (latisimus dorsi); Medial aspect (seratus anterior); lateral aspect (humerus); floor (skin)
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3. What is responsible for the shape of the breast?
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Fat
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4. The breast can be described as a modified _________________.
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Sweat gland
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5. What is the purpose of the secretions of the areola?
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Assist in breast feeding (two glass surfaces with liquid in between)
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6. Where in the breast is the milk stored?
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Ampullas (swellings in the ducts)
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7. How is the breast organized?
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Organized by septa
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8. Describe the suspensory ligaments of Cooper.
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Septa found in the upper portion of the breast opposing the forces of gravity
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9. Where does 60% of the blood flow to the breast come from?
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Internal thoracic artery
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10. Where does 30% of the blood flow to the breast come from?
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Lateral thoracic artery
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11. What portion of blood flow do the intercostal arteries supply to the breast?
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10%
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12. Where is the bulk of the lymphatic drainage of the breast?
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Axillary lymph nodes (anterior)
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13. What quadrant of the breast is most susceptible to cancer?
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Upper outer quadrant
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14. Where specifically in the breast is cancer most likely?
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Ducts and ampulla
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15. What structure introduces complications involving removal of breast cancer? Why?
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Axillary tail; Vessels and nerves that are associated with the structure (lateral thoracic artery, long thoracic nerve, thoracodorsal artery and nerve, etc.)
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16. What other structure makes this breast surgery difficult?
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Fascia- tough membranous
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17. Describe the appearance of skin involving a breast with pathology?
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Normally raised over the nipple; would also be raised over the mass; reduced lymphatic drainage from the mass pushing against
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18. What CT structure is always deep to the skin and may have membranous and fatty layers such as in the breast?
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Superficial fascia
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19. What are the two locations where a breast implant may be placed?
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Retromammary space- anterior to the deep fascia along pec major; behind the pec major
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20. What is the advantage to each location of implantation?
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Retromammary- quicker recovery time; Behind the pec major- shape looks more natural
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21. What are the three points of origin of the pectoralis major?
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Medial third of the clavicle; the sternum; cartilaginous portion of the ribs
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22. What is the point of insertion of the pectoralis major?
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Lateral lip of the intertubercular groove of the humerus
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23. What results from contraction of the pec major?
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Adduction= arm across the midline
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24. What is the origin of the pectoralis minor?
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Combination of ribs 2,3,4 or 3,4,5 etc
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25. What is the point of insertion of the pec minor?
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Coracoid process of the scapula
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26. What results from contraction of the pec minor?
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Depression of the scapula
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27. What two nerves innervate the pec major?
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Medial and lateral pectoral nerve
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28. What does the medial innervate?
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Lower portion
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29. What does the lateral innervate?
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Superior portion
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30. Describe the naming of these nerves?
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Not based on location; medial is actually located lateral to the pectoral nerve; named based on branching from brachial plexus- lateral and medial cords
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31. What does the paracromiotrunk branch into? Which of these vascularizes the pectoralis major?
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Deltoid, Acromial, Clavicular, Pectoral- obviously the pectoral muscle will be from this one
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32. Describe the venous drainage of the pectoralis major?
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Cephalic vein into the subclavian vein
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33. What is the name of the nerves above the pectoralis major muscle?
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Cutaneous
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34. What are the three layers of the intercostal muscles?
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External, internal, innermost
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35. How would you describe the fiber direction of the external intercostals muscles?
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Hands in your pocket.
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36. Describe the fiber direction of the internal compared to the external.
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90 degrees
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37. Where do the external intercostals run from?
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Junction of cartilage/bone ribs posteriorly around to the vertebral column
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38. Where do the internal intercostals muscles run?
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Sternum to the costal angle of the ribs
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39. Where are the innermost intercostals muscles found?
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Occupy a space in between the external and internal; don’t go to either sternum or vertebral column
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40. Do any of the intercostals muscles go completely from sternum to vertebral column?
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No
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41. The intercostal arteries and veins are branches of what vessels?
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Internal thoracic
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42. Where are the intercostals vessels/nerves housed and protected in the rib?
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Costal groove
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43. Where is the transversus thoracis found?
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Posteriorly between the 3rd and 5th ribs at the level of the innermost intercostals muscles
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44. Where are the sensory cells bodies of the somatic nervous system located?
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Dorsal root ganglia
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45. Where do the cell bodies for the somatomotor nerves sit?
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Ventral horn
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46. At what levels are the preganglionic cell bodies (symp) of the lateral horn (gray matter) located?
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Between T1 and L2
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47. Where does the internal thoracic artery branch from?
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Subclavian artery
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48. What does the internal thoracic vein become?
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Brachiocephalic vein
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49. At the 6th rib, the internal thoracic artery becomes what?
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Epigastric (rectus abdominus); musculophrenic (to 10th rib)
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50. Do the 11th and 12th ribs receive vascularization from an anterior intercostal?
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No; don’t make all the way anterior
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51. Which is longer, the sternum or vertebral column?
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Vertebral column
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52. Ribs 1-7 are true ribs for what reason?
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They attach directly to the sternum
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53. Ribs 8-12 are called what? Why?
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False ribs; attach the rib above; don’t attach to sternum directly
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54. What is the classification of ribs 11-12?
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Floating ribs
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55. Describe the development of the sternum.
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From 6 bones; middle 4 fuse during puberty to form the body
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56. What is the superior portion of the sternum called?
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Manubrium
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57. What is the sternal angle?
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Point where the body of the sternum and manubrium join
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58. What vertebral level is at the sterna angle?
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Intervertebral disc of the 4th and 5th thoracic vertebra
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59. What does rib 1 articulate with?
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Manubrium
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60. What does rib 2 articulate with?
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Sternal angle
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61. What do ribs 3-6 articulate with?
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The body of the sternum
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62. Where does rib 7 articulate?
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Xiphoid process
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63. What part of the rib articulates with the vertebral body?
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Head
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64. What does the tubercle of the rib articulate with?
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Transverse process of the vertebra
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65. What is the most common point of fracture/breakage in the ribs?
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Costal angle
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66. What ligaments hold the rib against the vertebral body?
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Radiate ligaments
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67. What is the role of the costotransverse ligaments?
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Hold the rib to the transverse process
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68. What is mostly responsible for changing the vertical dimensions of the rib cage?
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Diaphragm
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69. What motion of the ribs helps with inspiration?
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Bucket handle motion
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70. What intercostals muscle have been shown to aid in inspiration?
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External and interchondral part of internal intercostals
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71. At what time in development does the trachea bud off of the gut tube (esophagus)?
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Four to six weeks
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72. Where does this diverticulum differentiate from in the 4th week?
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Pharyngeal arch
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73. What does the developing lung grow into?
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Splanchnic mesenchyme
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74. What is the pleura derived from?
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Splanchnic mesenchyme
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75. Describe the difference between visceral and parietal pleur
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a. Visceral is immediately surrounding the lung while the parietal surrounds the ribs. These two surfaces with rub against each other.
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76. How is the parietal pleura anchored to the ribs?
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Endothoracic fascia
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77. How many lobes on the right lung? What are they?
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Three; upper (superior), middle, lower (inferior)
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78. What does the horizontal fissure separate? What about the oblique fissure?
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Upper and middle lobe; middle and lower lobe
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79. Which lung is shorter, the right or left? Why?
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Right; liver pushes up on it
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80. Which lung is more voluminous?
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Right
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81. How many lobes on the left lung and what separates the lobes?
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2; oblique fissure
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82. Where does visceral pleura oppose visceral pleura?
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The fissures
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83. What structure in the left lung is formed by the cramping of the heart?
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Cardiac notch
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84. What is the anterior projection of the left lung and what lobe is it’s equivalent on the right?
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Lingula; middle lobe
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85. Where are pericardial taps performed and for what reason?
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5th intercostals space next to the sternum. There is no pleura present here, thus preventing a pneumothorax.
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86. Describe the level of the lungs during quiet breathing?
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6, 8, 10; midclavicular= 6th rib; midaxillary= 8th rib; midscapular= 10th rib
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87. Describe the level of the lungs during deep breathing?
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8, 10, 12; midclavicular =8th rib; midaxillary= 10th rib; midscapular= 12th rib
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88. What is the term for the inferior of both the lungs?
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Costodiaphragmatic recess
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89. Where does parietal pleura oppose parietal pleura?
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Costodiaphragmatic recess; Costosternal recess
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90. What is the costosternal recess?
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Medial extension of the pleura surrounding the left lung
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91. Past what rib, does a puncture injury begin to include both the thorax and abdomen?
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The 7th intercostal space
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92. Describe the danger of a kidney biopsy.
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Safe below the 12th rib, but often times, it may be vestigial and may be in fact palpating the 11th rib. If too high, then could puncture the pleura leading the pneumothorax.
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93. Is it possible for the right lung to only have two lungs?
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Yes
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94. What is found at the root of the lung?
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Pulmonary artery, bronchial apparatus, pulmonary veins, bronchial arteries/veins, lymphatics and innervation
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95. What term refers to the plane of this root of the lung?
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Hilus
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96. What color is the pulmonary artery and why?
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Blue, deoxygenated blood to the lungs
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97. How can you use the anterior and posterior properties to differentiate between the lungs?
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Posteriorly, the surface is rounded; anterior has a sharp edge
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98. What are the three surfaces of the lung?
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Diaphramatic, mediastinal, costal
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99. What innervates the mediastinal parietal pleura?
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Phrenic nerve
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100. What innervates the costal and diaphragmatic parietal pleura?
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Intercostal nerves
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101. What innervates the visceral pleura?
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Nothing; it is insensitive
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102. What impression on the left lung are you most likely to see?
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Impression from the aortic arch
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103. What is the role of the pulmonary ligament?
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Accomodates the movement of the lung up and down
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104. If looking at a CT scan and noticed a mass posteriorly, which lobe is it most likely found?
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Lower lobe
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105. What is the relation between the pulmonary artery and primary bronchus in the hilus of the right lung?
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Side by side (Pulmonary Artery is Anterior to the Bronchus)
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106. Where is the pulmonary vein found in relation to the pulmonary artery and bronchus in the hilus of the right lung?
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Found anterior and inferior
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107. What is the relation between the pulmonary artery and bronchus in the left lung?
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Pulmonary artery found superior to the primary bronchus.
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108. In a CT scan, if you see a mass in the middle of the right lung, which lobe is it found?
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Middle lobe; anything posterior would be the lower lobe.
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109. If you inhale a foreign object would it preferentially enter the left or right primary bronchus? What are the three reasons why?
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Right; There is a corina the tilts to the left; the right primary bronchus is wider; the right primary bronchus is 25 degrees off vertical while the left is 45 degrees.
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110. Which primary bronchus is longer?
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Left
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111. What does the right primary bronchus divide into?
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Superior (upper), middle, and inferior (lower) lobar bronchi
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112. What does the left primary bronchus divide into?
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Superior and inferior lobar bronchi.
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113. How many segmental bronchi are found in each lung?
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10 in each lung
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114. What does the superior lobar bronchus divide into (right lung)?
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Apical, posterior, and anterior segmental bronchi
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115. What does the middle lobar bronchus divide into (right lung)?
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Lateral and medial segmental bronchi
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116. What does the inferior lobar bronchus divide into (right lung)?
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Superior, medialbasal, anteriorbasal, lateralbasal, and posteriorbasal segmental bronchi
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117. What does the inferior lobar bronchus divide into (left lung)
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Superior, medialbasal, anteriorbasal, lateralbasal, and posteriorbasal segmental bronchi
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118. What does the superior lobar bronchus of the left lung immediately divide into?
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Superior and inferior (lingular) divisions
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119. What does the superior division of the left lung divide into?
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Apical, posterior, and anterior segmental division (as on right side)
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120. What does the inferior lingular division divide into?
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Superior lingular segmental and inferior lingular segmental bronchus
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121. What is the derivate of both hyaline cartilage and smooth muscle of the respiratory system?
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Splanchnic mesenchyme
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122. What is the vascular supply for the lung tissue itself?
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Bronchial arteries and veins
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123. What vessels are responsible for gas exchange?
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Pulmonary arteries and veins
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124. Why is it possible for a segmentectomy to be performed?
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Each segment has its own segmental artery, bronchus and vein; they can be removed without compromising other segments
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125. How many openings are there in the heart to receive the pulmonary veins?
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Four
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126. What does the right superior vein drain into the heart?
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Superior and middle lobes
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127. What are the other pulmonary veins?
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Left superior, left inferior, right inferior, right superior
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128. Describe the best location for the percussive technique?
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Right apical segment
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129. Why is performing the percussive technique on the basal segment problematic?
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Liver (right) and stomach (left) pushing up on the lungs and cold give a dull thud.
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130. Where does the phrenic nerve appear to be imbedded?
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The fat surround the heart
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131. What does the symphathetic innervation lead to?
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Bronchodilation and vasoconstriction
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132. What does the parasympathetic innervations lead to?
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Bronchoconstriction
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133. T/F, there are lymph nodes past the segmental levels of the lung?
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False
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134. What vessel/s vascularize/s the pericardium?
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Pericardiacophrenic artery
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135. Where does the pericardiacophrenic artery branch from?
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Internal thoracic artery
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136. What vessel runs along side the pericardiophrenic artery and where does it go?
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Pericardiophrenic vein to the brachiocephalic and the internal thoracic veins
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137. Where does the phrenic nerve run in relation to the lung?
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Anterior to the root of the lung
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138. What does the phrenic nerve innervate?
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Outer two layers of the pericardium
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139. What nerve innervates the inner layer of the pericardium (epicardium)?
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Nothing; it is insensitive
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140. What does the pericardium fuse with anteriorly and superiorly?
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Anteriorly= diaphragm; superiorly; the tunica adventitia of the great vessels
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141. What is the term for the fusion of the pericardium to the sternum?
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Pericardiosternal ligament
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142. What are the three layers of the pericardium?
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Outer fibrous layer; parietal serous layer; visceral serous layer (epicardium)
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143. What is found in between the visceral layer and the parietal layer?
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Pericardial space
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144. How much fluid is normally held in the pericardial space? What is purpose of this?
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30-50 cc; lubricates the mechanism for contraction
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145. What layer of the heart forms the valves?
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Endocardium
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146. Where are the pericardiacophrenic vessels found?
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Between the parietal pleura and fibrous pericardium
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147. Where can you find the transverse sinus?
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Under the aorta and the pulmonary trunk (using fingers)
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148. What is the oblique pericardial sinus?
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Sinus that gives access to the pulmonary veins and the inferior vena cava (important for surgeons)
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149. What vessels does the transverse sinus give access to?
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Superior vena cava, aorta, pulmonary trunk
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150. What makes up the base of the heart?
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The left atrium
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151. Where is the apex of the heart found?
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Bottom; the right ventricle/ left ventricle
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152. Describe why the heart is not simply mirror images of anterior and posterior?
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Frameshift so that the left side of the heart is to the left of the right and is tilted anterior
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153. Where does the right atrium receive blood from?
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Superior and inferior vena cava
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154. Describe the heart as two separate pumps?
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One gets blood from the body to the lungs; one that gets the blood from the lungs and sends it out to the body
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155. What is the coronary sulcus a surface indicator of?
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Atrioventricular septum (separating the atria and ventricles)
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156. What is the anterior/posterior interventricular sulcus a surface indicator of?
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Interventricular septum (between two ventricles)
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157. What is surface indicator for the interatrial septum?
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There is none
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158. Where does the coronary sinus drain to?
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Right atrium for subsequent deoxygenation
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159. What vessel travels directly underneath the arch of the aorta?
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Right pulmonary artery
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160. What is remnant of the foramen ovale and where is it found?
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Fossa ovalis; right atrium
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161. Describe the function of the foramen ovale?
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Shunting already oxygenated blood from the right to left atrium, therefore bypassing the lungs
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162. What structure located adjacent to the fossa ovalis/foramen ovale is the point of venous drainage of the blood of the heart?
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Osteum of the coronary sinus
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163. What muscles are found in the wall of the atria?
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Pectinate muscles
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164. Describe the wall of the atrial septa?
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Smooth wall
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165. What is the name of the vertical ridge that separates the smooth and rough parts of the atrial wall (internally)?
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Crista terminalis
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166. Where can you find the SA node?
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At the lateral end of the crista terminalis
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167. Where would the AV node be found?
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In the interatrial septum between the osium of the coronary sinus and the septal cusp of the tricuspid valve
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168. What structure tends to obscure the origins of the surface beginnings of the right coronary artery? What about for the left coronary artery?
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Right auricle; left auricle
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169. What are the cusps of the tricuspid valve?
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Anterior; septal; posterior
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170. Which cusp is most likely to be seen and which is sometimes missing?
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Anterior; posterior
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171. What cords connect the cusps to the papillary muscles?
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Chordae tendinae
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172. At least how many papillary muscles are associated with each cusp?
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Two
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173. What is the function of the papillary muscles?
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Contraction will prevent the inversion of the valves.
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174. What is divided by the supraventricular crest?
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The smooth and rough portions of the right ventricle.
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175. What muscles are found in the wall of the right ventricle and what does their name translate to?
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Trabeculae carne= beads of flesh
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176. What is the significance of the moderator band?
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Part of the conducting system found only in the right ventricle (from interventricular septum to the anterior wall); not just trabeculae carneae
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177. Describe the direction of blood flow in the right ventricle upon systole.
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Force above the supraventricular crest into the cornus arteriosum (infundibulum) and out through the semilunar cusps and through the pulmonary valve.
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178. Describe the development of the musculature of the heart.
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Muscle fiber handing off skeleton and formed in a spiral fold. Deep spiral muscle wraps around the trabeculae carneae and becomes more and more spiraled. When the heart contracts, it is like wringing out a dishrag
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179. What cusps do the aortic and pulmonary valves both have?
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Left and right
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180. What cusp does the aorta have that the pulmonary does not?
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Posterior cusp
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181. What cusp does the pulmonary valve have that the aorta does not?
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Anterior; remember APPA (aorta-posterior;pulmonary-anterior)
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182. What are the four features of tetralogy of Fallot?
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Stenosis of pulmonary trunk; hypertrophy of right ventricle; misplaced aorta; ventricular septal defect (VSD)
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183. What is the effect of the misplaced aorta?
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Receive both deoxygenated and oxygenated blood
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184. What is ventricular septal defect?
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Hole in the ventricular wall allowing deoxygenated blood to be sent out the aorta
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185. What happens to the blood that drops back down the pulmonary trunk and aorta?
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Cusps will catch it and send it out the coronary arteries
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186. What structure is found at the top of each cusp and contributes to the clicking sound of the valves?
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Nodule
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187. What is the lunule?
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Rest of the top lining of the shirt pocket (cusp)
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188. What is the inside of the cusp referred to as?
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Sinus
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189. Where does the right coronary artery come from and sit?
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The opening above the right cusp; will sit in the coronary sulcus
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190. Where does the right coronary artery branch?
|
Branch goes up and vascularizes the SA node (sinuatrial branch); conus branch will vascularize the conus arteriosum of the right ventricle; branch goes down to the posterior interventricular artery within the interventricular sulcus.
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191. Where does the left coronary artery come from and sit?
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From the left cusp of the aorta and sits temporarily in the coronary sulcus
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192. Where does the left coronary artery branch?
|
Splits into the circumflex branch, which continues in the coronary sulcus; the anterior interventricular (LAD) branch in the anterior interventricular sulcus.
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193. What vein sits in the anterior interventricular sulcus with the LAD and where does it move?
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Great cardiac vein moves up into the coronary sulcus and transitions into the coronary sinus.
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194. What is the significance of the oblique vein of the left atrium?
|
Point where the great cardiac vein becomes the coronary sinus and the point where the left coronary artery splits into the circumflex and LAD
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195. What vein sits in the posterior interventricular sulcus with the posterior interventricular artery?
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Middle cardiac vein
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196. What two vessels run together paralleling the inferior portion of the heart?
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Small cardiac vein and marginal artery
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197. Where does the small cardiac vein drain?
|
Coronary sinus
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198. The small cardiac veins of what vessel go directly into the wall of the right atrium and drain?
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Coronary sinus
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199. What parts of the pericardium are innervated and by what?
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Fibrous and parietal serous layer by the phrenic nerve
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200. How is the heart muscle (myocardium) capable of sensing pain?
|
Sensory innervations of the sympathetic afferents
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201. What are the stretch receptors of the heart?
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Afferents of the parasympathetic
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202. What are the branches of the vagus nerve that innervate the heart?
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Superior cardiac branch, inferior cardiac branch, thoracic cardiac branch
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203. What are responsible for increasing rate of heart contraction and dilation of the coronary vessels?
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Efferents of the sympathetic
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204. What are responsible for decreasing the rate of heart contraction?
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Efferents of the parasympathetic
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205. Where do the preganglionic cell bodies of the sympathetic innervations of the heart arise?
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T1-T4
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206. Where is the point of auscultation of the aortic valve?
|
Right side- second intercostal space next to sternum
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207. Where is the point of auscultation of the tricuspid valve?
|
Left side- 4th intercostals space next to sternum
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208. Where is the point of auscultation of the mitral valve?
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Left side- 5th intercostals space at junction of cartilaginous and bony portion of ribs
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209. Where is the point of auscultation of the pulmonary valve?
|
Left side- 2nd intercostal space next to sternum
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210. Looking at a CT scan at T8, what structure is unique at this level?
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Inferior vena cava
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211. What is the mediastinum?
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Space between the pleural sacs and the lungs
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212. What are the boundaries of the mediastinum?
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Lateral= lungs and pleural sacs; anterior= sternum; posterior= vertebral column; superiorly= thoracic inlet between T1 and top of manubrium; inferiorly= diaphragm
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213. What allows for the division of superior and inferior mediastinum?
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Sternal angle at T4-T5 IV disc
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214. What are the divisions of the inferior mediastinum?
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Anterior, posterior, and middle
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215. Where is the heart located (what division of mediastinum)?
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Middle mediastinum
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216. What occurs at the sternal angle (6 things)?
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Beginning and end of the arch of the aorta; formation of superior vena cava; azygous system drains into superior vena cava; split of pulmonary trunk into left and right arteries; trachea bifurcates into the primary bronchi; the thoracic duct makes it way towards the brachiocephalic vein
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217. Where is the thymus located?
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In the superior and anterior mediastinum
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218. What is the thymus and how does it change during development?
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Lymph gland that begins to involute between 5-6 years of age and puberty; replaced by fat but the capsule that is retained allows the shape to persist.
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219. What does the superior vena cava form from?
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Left brachiocephalic and the right brachiocephalic veins coming together
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220. What does the superior vena cava drain (broad)?
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Everything superior to the diaphragm
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221. Which of the brachiocephalic veins crosses the midline?
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Left
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222. Where does the right recurrent laryngeal nerve go?
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Branch from vagus and loop around the right subclavian artery
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223. What is the first branch off the aorta?
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Coronary arteries
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224. What is the first branch off the aortic arch? Second? Third?
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Right brachiocephalic trunk; left common carotid artery; left subclavian artery
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225. What does the right brachiocephalic trunk split into?
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Right subclavian and right common carotid artery
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226. What are the three defects that can occur involving the great vessels arrangement with the trachea and esophagus?
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Double aortic arch= splitting of the arch around the trachea and esophagus
b. Retroesophageal right aortic arch= arch goes behind the trachea and esophagus instead of normally in front c. Retroesophageal right subclavian artery- Right subclavian artery wraps around the trachea and esophagus |
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227. What are the effects of these three defects?
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Swallowing becomes difficult and breathing could be impeded.
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228. What Is patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)?
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The ductus arteriosus which during fetal development shunts blood from the pulmonary trunk to the aorta does not close after birth to become the normal ligamentum arteriosum. This results in deoxygenated blood being sent out to the body.
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229. What would be done surgically to rectify PDA? What dangers are involved?
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Throw 10 ligatures around the d. a. and block flow to the aorta. Must be careful to not hit the left recurrent laryngeal nerve which swings around the arch of the aorta near the d. a (or ligamentum arteriosum)
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230. What muscles do the recurrent laryngeal nerves innervate?
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All the intrinsic muscles of the larynx except for the cricothyroid.
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231. What specific muscles are we interested in when discussing the recurrent laryngeal nerve? What do these muscles do?
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Cricoarytenoid muscles; they are the only muscles the abduct the vocal cords and, if nicked, would result in a hoarse voice
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232. What is the disorder involving a narrowing of the aortic arch?
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Coarctation of the aorta
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233. Where does the coarctation usually occur?
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At the l. arteriosum
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234. How can a coarctation persist into adulthood asymptomatically?
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Blood will go from the subclavian arteries to internal thoracic arteries and then the intercostals which can grow in size and swell in the costal grooves.
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235. Are coarctations found anywhere other than the arch of the aorta?
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No
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236. What lymph nodes are associated with the bifurcation of the trachea?
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Corinal lymph nodes
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237. Which side of the body (thorax) is more venous?
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Right; superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, azygous system
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238. What does azygous translate to and why is this relevant?
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“Without twin”; it is not parallel on the left side
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239. Which side of the body (thorax) is dominated by arteries?
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Left; arch of aorta
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240. Where does the trachea bifurcate and how does this affect the esophagus?
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Bifurcates at T4-T5 IV disc (sternal angle) which is where the esophagus is no longer protected by the trachea. It is kicked a little to the right side.
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241. What are the 3 points of esophageal constriction?
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Pharyngoesophageal constriction
i. Cricopharyngeus muscle (point where esophagus actually starts b. Thoracic (aortobronchial) constriction i. Aorta with left primary bronchus c. Diaphragmatic constriction (inferior esophageal sphincter) i. Where the esophagus passes the diaphragm |
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242. What is the clinical significance of the points of constriction?
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Most likely to be the points of irritation and where esophageal cancer is most likely to form
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243. What vascularizes the esophagus?
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Esophageal branches of the descending aorta (above diaphragm); esophageal branches of left gastric artery (below the diaphragm)
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244. Where does the left gastric artery branch from?
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Celiac trunk
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245. What may result from portal hypertension? Why?
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Varicosities of the esophagus; there are points of anastomosis between the poral and caval systems
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246. Is the azygous system part of the caval system?
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Yes
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247. What nerves innervate the esophagus and how/why does their orientation change?
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Right and left vagus nerves become the posterior and anterior vagal plexuses (respectively); the gut rotation causes this change as they vagus nerve arborizes.
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248. What does the thoracic duct drain into? Where does that vessel drain?
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The thoracic duct to the formation of the left brachiocephalic vein to dump into either the internal jugular, subclavian, or brachiocephalic vein
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249. What does the thoracic duct drain?
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The entire body except for the upper right quadrant.
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250. What drains the upper right quadrant? What does it drain in particular? To where does it drain?
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Right lymphatic duct; Right side of head, right arm, and right side of thorax; drains to the right brachiocephalic vein
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251. All blood from the thoracic wall will drain into where?
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The azygous system
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252. Describe the venous drainage on the right side of the thoracic wall?
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Superior intercostals vein drains into the right brachiocephalic vein; remaining 11 drain into the azygous vein which drains into the superior vena cava just at the formation at the sternal angle
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253. How is the azygous vein formed?
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When the ascending lumbar vein from the abdomen coalesces with the 12th intercostals (subcostal) vein
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254. What are the 3 groups of the 4 intercostal veins on the left side of the thoracic wall?
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Superior; accessory hemiazygous; hemiazygous
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255. Where do the superior hemiazygous veins drain?
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Commonly into the right brachiocephalic vein
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256. Where do the accessory hemiazygous veins drain?
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Cross the midline over to the azygous on the right side
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257. Where do the hemiazygous veins drain?
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Over to the azygous
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258. What does the dorsal ramus of the spinal nerve innervate?
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Muscles of the back and skin
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259. What does the ventral ramus innervate?
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Somatosensory, somatomotor, sympathetic, but no parasympathetic
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260. Where do all preganglionic cell bodies for the entire body reside?
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T1-L2
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261. What are the three options for a preganglionic neuron sending its axon out to the sympathetic chain ganglia?
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Synapse at the level it came off
b. Go up/down the chain and synapse (superior cervical ganglia for the heart) c. Don’t synapse, instead they leave as preganglionic fibers to the celiac ganglia (plexus) then they become postganglionic and innervate structures of the embryonic foregut. |
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262. What are the divisions of the splanchnic nerves and where do they branch from?
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Greater splanchnic nerve; Lesser splanchnic nerve; lowest splanchnic nerve; these all come off the sympathetic chain
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263. Where are the preganglionic cell bodies of the greater splanchnic nerve located? What does it innervate?
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T5-T9; innervates the embryonic foregut
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264. Where are the preganglionic cell bodies of the lesser splanchnic nerve located?
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Between T10 and T11
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265. Where are the preganglionic cell bodies of the lowest splanchnic nerve located?
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Between T11 and T12
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