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87 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
What FAD is assigned to most fleet operating activities?
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FAD II or III
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Aircraft repair usage statistics are used by the supply department for what purpose?
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Usage statistics justify stocking replenishment parts.
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What are the two types of part numbers?
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Definitive and nondefinitive.
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What is the correct nomenclature for what is
commonly referred to as the "manufacturer’s code"? |
Commercial and Government Entity Code (CAGE).
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What term is used for a part, component, or system in which the requisitioned part is used?
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Next higher assembly.
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What are the two primary technical manuals used by the maintenance technician to order replacement parts?
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The illustrated parts breakdown (IPB) and the maintenance instruction
manual (MIM). |
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What information is contained in the "Introduction" of the IPB?
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General information and instructions for using the publication.
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What part of the IPB contains information concerning detailed parts that make up a
component? |
The group assembly parts list.
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Which NAVSUP publication provides cross-reference information from a reference number to its national stock number (NSN)?
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Master Cross-Reference List (MCRL).
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What NAVSUP publication provides information on exceptions to the one-for-one turn-in rule?
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Consolidated Remain in Place List (CRIPL).
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How often is the ICRL-A revised?
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Quarterly.
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What is the purpose of the Aviation Consolidated
Allowance List (AVCAL)? |
AVCAL lists the items and quantities of aeronautical material authorized to
be stocked by and aircraft carrier to support the maintenance and operations of embarked aircraft. |
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What are the first two-digits of the nine-digit
NIIN called? |
The National Codification Bureau (NCB) code.
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What two instructions describe the procedures
for allowance and inventory of the AMMRL program? |
NAVAIRINST 13650. I for IMRL items and NAVAIRINST 13630. I for TOL
items. |
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How is Naval Air Systems Command (NAVAIRSYSCOM) involved in the AMMRL program?
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NAVAIRSYSCOM exercises overall program management and
authority. |
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What are the major sections of the IMRL?
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Employment data, change list, index, main body, and the activity inventory
record. |
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What section of the IMRL lists all of the items allowed for the activity along with allowance
quantities? |
The IMRL main body.
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How often is the IMRL Activity Inventory Record reissued?
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It is reissued in its entirety each month.
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What work center is the point-of-contact for parts and material at the organizational
maintenance level? |
Material control.
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DD form 1348, Standard Form 44, and an identiplate (DD 1896 or 1897) are all issued as
part of what package? |
A flight packet.
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What level of maintenance orders the greater volume of parts?
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Intermediate level.
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The Individual Component Repair List (ICRL) is
used by what work center to determine the repair capability of a component received by supply? |
Aeronautical material screening unit (AMSU).
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What are the two sections of the Aviation Support
Division/Supply Support Center (ASD/SSC)? |
Supply Response Section (SRS) and Component Control Section (CCS).
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If apart is listed in the CRIPL, the maintenance
activity has how many hours after receipt of the replacement component to furnish the unserviceable part? |
24 hours.
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What items are maintained in the pre-expended bins (PEBs)?
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High usage, low-cost, maintenance-related consumable materials that have a minimum demand frequency of three per month.
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How often does supply review stock records for the PEB?
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Quarterly.
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What section of ASD/SSC manages local repair
cycle assets? |
Component control section (CCS).
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How many workload priorities can be assigned to a LRCA storage unit?
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Four.
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If a squadron requisitions an NMCS component
from supply and, except for the turn-in, the only other part on station is in the IMA for repair, what priority will be assigned to the component received from the squadron? |
Priority 1, and the part would be designated "EXREP" or expeditious repair.
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Which of the following numbers is a supply Project code?
1. 6RX-4920-00-237-97934X 2. AN6227-7 3. AK7 4. 63425 |
3. AK7
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Your squadron is categorized as a FAD II activity and you require a mission essential
part. What is the highest priority that can be assigned to your request? 1. 1 2. 2 3. 7 4. 13 |
2. 2
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When a FAD III is assigned to your activity, what is the highest priority you should use to order routine replenishment stock?
1. 5 2. 2 3. 10 4. 13 |
4. 13
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Information from which of the following sources is used by supply department personnel as justification for stocking
material? 1. Forecasted flights 2. Usage statistics 3. Management decisions 4. Monthly maintenance plans |
2. Usage statistics
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Which of the following numbers is listed first in an alphanumeric parts listing?
1. 899T1384 2. AN6437 3. 216849 4. 0836948 |
2. AN6437
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Which of the following part numbers follows sequence number 08643759 in an
alphanumeric listing? 1. 943762 2. P46843 3. ZB4738 4. 064795 |
1. 943762
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What type of code identifies the agent or agency that has design control over an item?
1. CAGE 2. H4/H8 3. MCRL 4. ML-N |
1. CAGE
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Which of the following is a purpose of an illustrated parts breakdown?
1. To allow supply and maintenance personnel to identify and order replacement parts for aircraft or equipment 2. To determine interchangeables, next higher assemblies, and repairables 3. To determine source codes, CAGES, and source of supply 4. To determine units used for assembly and aircraft bureau number application |
1. To allow supply and maintenance personnel to identify and order replacement parts for aircraft or equipment
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What section in an IPB contains general information and instructions for using the
publication? 1. Introduction 2. Group assembly parts list 3. Numerical index 4. Alphabetical index |
1. Introduction
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Besides the introduction, each IPB includes which of the following information?
1. Table of contents or alphabetic index 2. Group assembly parts list 3. Numerical index 4. Each of the above |
4. Each of the above
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What section of the IPB contains an explanation of the source or SM&R codes
used in the IPB? 1. Introduction 2. Group assembly parts list 3. Numerical index 4. Alphabetical index |
1. Introduction
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What listing in the IPB lists aircraft assemblies and identifies the pages or
figure numbers where the assemblies are shown in the IPB? 1. Alphabetical index 2. Group assembly parts list 3. Numerical index 4. Introduction |
1. Alphabetical index
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What section of the IPB contains a description of a component listed in the IPB?
1. Introduction 2. Group assembly parts list 3. Numerical index 4. Alphabetical index |
2. Group assembly parts list
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What section of the IPB lists supplementary handbooks to which you may refer?
1. Introduction 2. Group assembly parts list 3. Numerical index 4. Alphabetical index |
1. Introduction
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What is the purpose of an index number in an IPB?
1. To describe a major component 2. To establish the relationship between parts in the illustration and the corresponding parts list 3. To identify items procured from a commercial source 4. To provide a reference number |
2. To establish the relationship between
parts in the illustration and the corresponding parts list |
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In what figure can the next higher assembly for the flow regulator be found?
1. 037-00 2. 019-00 3. 029-00 4. 046-00 |
3. 029-00
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Which of the following is a description of the units per assembly (callout 5 of figure
3-4)? 1. The column number in which the nomenclature of the item begins 2. The relationship of one part to another 3. A specific quantity has not been established 4. The aircraft bureau number on which the item can be used |
3. A specific quantity has not been established
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Find index No. 5. A total of how many screws (part number MS27039-1-22) are
used on the bracket assembly? 1. 5 2. 2 3. 12 4. 4 |
2. 2
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Find index No. 9. Where must the maintenanceman refer to for wheel assembly, NLG (part number 3-1328) required per aircraft?
1. The table of contents 2. The numerical index 3. Figure 046-00 in the IPB 4. The Usable-on Code index |
3. Figure 046-00 in the IPB
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Find index No. 7. The fitting assembly (part number A51G10561-1) can be used
on an aircraft with which of the following bureau numbers? 1. 148885 2. 153499 3. 159874 4. 152719 |
3. 159874
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What is the Commercial and Government Entity (CAGE) code for part number
2577818-011E<F? 1. 552847 2. 671361-101 3. 3-1089 4. 28 x 7.7 |
1. 552847
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What is the Usable-On code for Index No. 2?
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
1. A
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What is the SM&R code for the NLG shock strut?
1. PAOZZ 2. MDOZZ 3. XCOOO 4. PAOOD |
4. PAOOD
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What is the description of part number MS21042L3?
1. Screw 2. Nut 3. Bracket 4. Light |
2. Nut
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You need to order a replacement component for an aircraft, and you do not
know the part number of the item. Which of the following basic information should you be able to provide the AK so that he or she can research the IPB? 1. Type of aircraft on which the part was installed 2. The component on which the part was installed 3. The bureau number of the aircraft from which the part was removed 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
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An SM&R code is a five- or six-position alphanumeric code.
1. True 2. False |
1. True
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What part of a part’s SM&R code indicates how the part is to be acquired?
1. Source code only 2. Maintenance code only 3. Recoverability code only 4. Source, Maintenance, and Recoverability codes |
1. Source code only
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What position of the SM&R code identifies the maintenance level assigned to completely repair an item?
1. First 2. Second 3. Fourth 4. Fifth |
3. Fourth
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What information does the third position of an SM&R code provide?
1. The highest maintenance level authorized to remove, replace, and use an item 2. The maintenance level authorized to completely repair an item 3. The lowest maintenance level authorized to remove, replace, and use an item 4. The Service Option code that applies |
3. The lowest maintenance level authorized to remove, replace, and use an item
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What two instructions govern policies, procedures, and definitions applicable to
SM&R codes? 1. OPNAVINST 4790.2 and NAVSUPINST 4440.16 2. NAVSUPINST 4423.14 and NAVAIRINST 4423.3 3. OPNAVINST 4440.25 and NAVSUPINST 7300.6 4. NAVSUPINST 4700.16 and NAVAIRINST 4410.4 |
2. NAVSUPINST 4423.14 and
NAVAIRINST 4423.3 |
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When removal of a component from an aircraft is not feasible or advisable until a
replacement is on hand, supply personnel can exempt the turn-in of the component (retrograde) if its part number is listed in what document? 1. LIRSH 2. CRIPL 3. MCRL 4. MESSM |
2. CRIPL
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What ASO publication contains a completelist of Navy-managed material that isclassified as MTR?
1. CRIPL 2. MRIL 3. IMRL 4. ML-N |
2. MRIL
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What type of material is listed in the CRIPL?
1. Material essential for flight operations 2. Material exempt from the one-for-one turn-in rule 3. Material considered hazardous 4. Material subject to deterioration after a specified time |
2. Material exempt from the one-for-one turn-in rule
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The reference number on a master crossreference
list refers to what number or numbers? 1. Manufacturer’s part number only 2. Drawing numbers only 3. Drawing number and design control number only 4. Either a manufacture’s part number, a drawing number, or a design control number |
4. Either a manufacture’s part number, a drawing number, or a design control number
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The MCRL is used to provide a crossreference between what items of information?
1. Noun name and CAGE 2. CAGE and NIIN 3. NIIN and item number 4. Reference number and NSN |
4. Reference number and NSN
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What is the purpose of the ICRL-A?
1. To cross-reference numbers to NSNs 2. To provide squadrons with a list of NSNs that are exempt from the one-for-one turn-in rule 3. To provide a list of repairables and the local IMA's capability to repair them 4. To cross-reference CAGES to reference numbers |
3. To provide a list of repairables and the local IMA's capability to repair them
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An ICRL-A is revised at what specified interval?
1. Annually 2. Biannually 3. Quarterly 4. Monthly |
3. Quarterly
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What ICRL Capability code is used for check and test only?
1. Z1 2. X2 3. C1 4. A1 |
4. A1
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Within the ICRL listing, what code is equivalent to Beyond Capability of Maintenance (BCM)-3?
1. X1 2. X2 3. X3 4. X6 |
3. X3
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To what reference should you refer to obtain an NSN or reference number for an
item when you only know the description? 1. MRIL3 2. CRIPL 3. ASG 4. ML-N |
3. ASG
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What is the 13–digit number called that identifies an item of material in the supply system?
1. NSN 2. NIIN 3 . F S C 4. SMIC |
1. NSN
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What is the title of the overall program that provides the data required for effective
management of support equipment at all levels of maintenance? 1. ICRL 2. IMRL 3. AMMRL 4. AVCAL |
3. AMMRL
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What command exercises overall program management for the AMMRL program?
1. ASO 2. NAVAIRSYSCOM 3. NAVAIRENGCEN 4. NAMO |
2. NAVAIRSYSCOM
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What information is provided by the first two digits in the FSC code number?
1 . The FSC group 2. The major or broad category of the stock 3. Manager that controls the category of material 4. The detailed breakdown of a category of mate |
1 . The FSC group
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The NSN is comprised of what total number of digits?
1. 15 2. 16 3. 17 4. 13 |
4. 13
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Which of the following acronyms identifies
equipment that is required on the ground to make a system, subsystem, or end item of equipment operational? 1. IMRL 2. ATE 3. GFE 4. SE |
4. 13
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Within an activity, personnel in what rating normally maintain the IMRL?
1. AZ 2. AK 3. AS 4. AD |
2. AK
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The IMRL contains how many major sections?
1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 5 |
4. 5
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At the organizational maintenance level, the
point of contact for all material requirements generated by a squadron is located in what organization? 1. Material control center 2. ASD/SSC 3. AIMD 4. Production control |
1. Material control center
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What Material Condition code tells you that an item of supply is fast moving and in
high demand? 1. F 2. I 3. O 4. S |
1. F
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To determine whether an intermediate maintenance activity has capability to
test/check or repair an item, what I-level supply area screens all components turned into ASD/SSC? 1. AMSU 2. SRS 3 . C C S 4. SUADPS |
1. AMSU
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The ASD/SSC is composed of what section or sections?
1. CCS only 2. SRS only 3. SRS and CCS 4. ASD |
3. SRS and CCS
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The SRS limits the quantity of any item in the pre-expended bin to a 30-day supply.
1. True 2. False |
1. True
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Within an activity, what officer must approve the item of PEB stockage when it costs more than $150?
1. The supply officer 2. The aviation maintenance officer 3. The division officer 4. The commanding officer |
4. The commanding officer
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Supply will remove an item from the PEB if there has been no demand for the item
within what total period of time? 1. 1 month 2. 6 months 3. 3 months 4. 12 months |
4. 12 months
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What is the purpose of the component control section within the supply department?
1. To manage the LRCA at the ASD/SSC 2. To account for all repairables 3. To operate the rotable pool 4. To operate as a storage unit |
1. To manage the LRCA at the ASD/SSC
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A LRCA is assigned a workload priority. The priority assigned is one of what total
number of priorities that can be assigned to the LRCA? 1. Two 2. Three 3. Four 4. Five |
1. To manage the LRCA at the ASD/SSC
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An aircraft is in NMCS/PMCS status. What priority is assigned to LRCA in
support of this aircraft? 1. Priority 1 2. Priority 2 3. Priority 3 4. Priority 4 |
1. Priority 1
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