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385 Cards in this Set

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What are the objectives of the NAMP
Achieve and maintain maximum material readiness, safety and conservation of material in the maintenance of aircraft.
What is the purpose of the Aircraft Maintenance Department within an orgainzization?
To maintain assigned aircraft in a state of full mission capability (FMC).
What are the major types of aircraft maintenance?
Rework and Upkeep
The restorative or additive work performed on aircraft, equipment, or support equipment is what type of maintenance?
Rework maintenance
Standard rework is also known as what type of maintenance?
Standard depot-level maintenance (SDLM)
What is special rework?
Work done to aircraft, equipment, or support equipment to improve or change its capability to perform special functions.
Upkeeping maintenance is performed by what activities?
Operating units and SE activities.
Standard upkeep is also known as what type of maintenance?
Scheduled
Maintenance performed on aircraft without regard to operating hours or calendar is known as what type of maintenance?
Special upkeep or unscheduled maintenance.
Aircraft maintenance functions are divided into how many distinct levels?
Three
What are the distinct levels of aircraft maintenance?
Organizational, intermediate and depot.
Describe organizational-level maintenance.
Work performed by an operating activity on a day-to-day basis in support of its own operations.
What level of maintenance includes the manufacture of non-available parts?
Intermediate level
Depot-level maintenance is performed in what type of facility?
Industrial type
The Chief of Naval Operations (CNO) has what responsibilities to the Naval Avaiation Maintenance Program?
The CNO sponsors and directs the NAMP.
Who is responsible for providing material in support of the operation and maintenance of aeronautical equipment?
Naval Supply Systems Command (NAVSUP)
What is a "line" relationship?
A relationship that exists between a superior and subordinate within both staff and line segments of the organization.
A relationship that exists between an advisory staff supervisor and a production line supervisor is known as what type of relationship?
A staff relationship
Who is responsible to the commanding officer for the accomplishment of the maintenance department's mission?
The aircraft maintenance officer
What are the functional management responsibilities of the aircraft maintenance officer?
Planning, control, or production
What subordinate officers assist the aircraft maintenance officer in the management of the maintenance department?
Assistant aircraft maintenance officer (AAMPO), maintenance/material control officer (MMCO), and aircraft division and branch officers.
What officer is responsible for ensuring that staff divisions conform to established policies?
Assistant aircraft maintenance officer
In addition to material support, what is the maintenance material control officer's direct responsibility?
The overall productive effort of the maintenance department.
What is the concept of quality assurance?
To prevent defects from occurring from the onset of a maintenance operation through its completion.
The acheivement of quality assurance depends on what factors?
Prevention, knowledge, and special skills
What is the purpose of the system administrator/analyst at the organizational maintenance level?
Monitor, control, and apply the Maintenance Data System within the activity.
Who has the responsibility, as well as many other responsibilities, to identify material deficiencies and high man-hour consumption trends?
System administrator/analyst
What work center plans, schedules, and provides positive control of all maintenance performed on or in support of the activities assigned aircraft?
Maintenance Control.
What branches or work centers make up the aircraft division?
Power plants, airframes, and aviators life support systems (some activities also have an inspection or phase branch and a corrosion branch)
The avionics/armament division consists of what work centers?
Electronics branch, electrical and instrument branch, and the armament branch.
What is the purpose of the production control work center?
Production control, the central point of the entire maintenance effort, plans and schedules the IMA's workload.
At the intermediate maintenance activity, who provides qualitative and quantitative analytical information to the AMO?
The maintenance data base administrator/analyst.
At the I-level, power plants, airframes, avionics, armament equipment, support equipment, and aviator's life support equipment are known as what type of division?
Production divisions
What is the purpose of NALCOMIS?
NALCOMIS provides OMA, IMA and ASD activities with a modern real time, responsive, computer based management information system.
What are the three basic objectives of NALCOMIS?
1. To increase aircraft readiness by providing local maintenance and supply managers with timely and accurate information required in their day-to-day management and decision making process.
2. To reduce the administrative burden to the fleet.
3. To improve the quality of up-line reported data.
If an I- or O-level activity does not yet operate under NALCOMIS, under what system do they document their maintenance?
Visual Information Display System (VIDS)
What element is important to ensure successful operation of the Visual Information Display System (VIDS)?
Communication between maintenance/production control, work centers, and material control.
With regard to the VIDS board, what action should take place with maintenance control on a daily basis?
VIDS board verification
Upon initiation of a VIDS/MAF at the organizational level, which copies are forwarded to the work center?
Copies 1 and 5 are forwarded to the work center.
What must be done if a maintenance action results in the requirement of a check flight?
Notify quality assurance
Upon the completion of a maintenance action and when the VIDS/MAF is completed, which copy is forwarded to maintenance control?
Copy 1 of the VIDS/MAF is sent to maintenance control.
What does a red signal tab on an I-level VIDS board or VIDS/MAF indicate?
The component inducted is expeditious repair
Upon induction of a non-RFI component to an I-level activity, where are copies 1, 4, and 5 of the VIDS/MAF routed?
To the work center receiving the non-RFI component for repair.
At the I-level, what happens to a repairable component for which parts have been ordered?
The component should be properly preserved, packaged and sent to the AWP unit managed by supply personnel.
What is the result of inaccurate or incomplete information documented in the Maintenance Data System (MDS)?
Loss of effectiveness of the data and the MDS in general.
At both the I and O levels of maintenance, what is the purpose of NALCOMIS or VIDS/MAFS?
Documentation of on-equipment maintenance actions.
What is the "look phase" of an inspection?
The portion of a special, conditional, corrosion, periodic, phase, acceptance or transfer inspection that involves the search for defects.
What components create the Job Control Number (JCN)?
The orgainization code, the last three digits of the Julian date, and an activity assigned sequence number.
What is indicated by a JCN suffix?
A subassembly or subassembly repair action completed separately from the major component repair action.
What is a Work Unit Code (WUC)?
A one, three, five, or seven character numeric or alphanumeric code which indentifies the system, subsystem, set, component or part of the end item being worked on.
What code describes the maintenance performed on an item identified by a WUC?
Action Taken Code
What is the proper name for what most technicians refer to as the Manufacturer's code?
Commercial and Government Entity (CAGE)
What is a Malfunction code?
A three character, alphanumeric code used to describe the malfunction occurring on or in an end item.
How many positions complete the Time/Cycle block on a VIDS/MAF?
Five, a prefix and four numbers
What form is used to document preservation of support equipment?
SE Custody and Maintenance History Record, OPNAV 4790/51
Are SE Custody and Maintenance History Records, OPNAV 4790/51, used to document rework maintenance on an engine test cell?
No. Test cells have their own records.
Who retains the latest completed copy of the SE Custody and Maintenance History Record, OPNAV 4790/51?
Reporting custodian
What is the major provision of the Monthly Maintenance Plan?
The MMP provides scheduled control of all predictable maintenance.
At the O level, when is the Monthly Maintenance Plan for March required to be distributed?
By the 25th of February
Where can you find a list of current I-level collateral duty inspectors?
The IMA Monthly Maintenance Plan
What is the purpose of the Maintenance Training Improvement Program (MTIP)?
The MTIP identifies training deficiencies, at both the O and I levels of maintenance, through diagnostic testing procedures.
As a technician, if you are to maintain complex weapons systems, where must you obtain the required information?
Technical publications
What manual provides guidance on maintaining technical manuals?
NAVAIR 00-25-100, Naval Air Systems command, Technical Manual Program.
What are the two general styles of technical manuals?
Military Specifications and Commercial
Technical manuals are divided into how many major types and what are they?
Two major types-operational and maintenance
How are work package (WP) manuals divided?
By function and task
What are the three primary elements for usability in a manual?
Visible lock-on format, logical arrangement structure, and quick understanding
In a work package type manual, what is the information that appears in the upper right corner of each page?
The 7-digit WP number and the page within the work package.
What is the difference between a change and a revision of a technical manual?
A change issues correction pages for an existing technical manual, and a revision is the complete reissue of the entire technical manual with the changes incorporated.
What reporting system allows fleet input to technical manual changes?
Technical publication deficiency reporting program.
What are the two types of publication changes?
Routine and Rapid Action Change
What is the purpose of the "A" page in a manual?
To help the user insert new pages and maintain a record of current pages.
Difference data sheets are used for what purpose?
To allow data to be added or changed without making a direct impact on existing information.
In a WP manual, where can you find information for all changed revised, added or deleted work packages?
The numerical index of effective work packages.
How are illustrations and tables added between existing items and how are they numbered?
Capital letter suffixes are added to the number of the preceding illustration or table.
What is the function of the Rapid Action Change (RAC)?
To expedite the dissemination of urgent operation and maintenance change information.
How many numbering systems are currently in use by the NAVAIR and what are they?
Two. The NAVAIR (NA) numbering system and the newer Technical Manual Identification Numbering System (TMINS).
What part of the NAVAIR numbering system can the category of the publication be found?
Part I
The standard TMINS number is made up of how many distinct parts and what are they?
Two. The publication identifier (PI) and the suffix.
The two-digit subject serial number is what group of the PI?
The third group
What are the last six positions in the publication identifier (PI) called?
The technical manual TM identifier.
In the NAVAIR publication number NA 01-75PAA-2-4, what does the number "2" designate?
That this publication is a maintenance instruction manual.
How are quality assurance inspection requirements identified in maintenance instruction manuals (MIM)?
In most cases the QA required inspections are shown in italics; in some cases those requirements are underlined.
What technical publication is most helpful in identifying and ordering replacement parts?
Illustrated Parts Breakdown (IPB)
The Naval Aeronautic Publication Index (NAPI) has how many sections?
Six
Where are all NAVAIR aeronautical publications changes, technical directives, and forms cataloged?
Naval Aeronautical Publication Index (NAPI)
What division maintains a complete Naval Aeronautic Publications Index (NAPI) in its library?
Quality assurance division
What is the purpose of the "Technical Documentation List"?
To provide information concerning the availability and applicability of technical manuals for maintenance of a particular aircraft model.
What information does the NATOPS Flight Manual contain?
Complete operating instructions for a specific aircraft and its operational equipment.
What type of manual describes how to "fight" an aircraft?
Tactical manual
Which manuals prevent the need for duplication of standard practices in other manuals?
General engineering series manuals (01-1A)
What does the "-3" in the publication number 01-75PR4-3-1 indicate?
Part III is the "type manual". "a"-3" in this position indicates a structural repair manual.
Aeronautical component and equipment manuals, 03 series, cover information on what type of equipment?
Accessories
MRCs, PMCs, and SSCs provide a basis for planning, scheduling, and complying with scheduled maintenance requirements under what system?
Planned Maintenance System (PMS)
Periodic Maintenance Information Cards (PMICs) identify what information?
Scheduled or forced removal items and their replacement intervals.
What are the only documents authorized for operational or maintenance performance on naval aircraft and related equipment?
Technical manuals or publications issued through the NAVAIR distribution system.
What is the purpose of the Naval Aviation Safety Program, OPNAVINST 3750.6?
To preserve human and material resources.
What safety-related publication provides guidance on the administration of the NAVGOSH program Navy wide?
Navy Occupational Safety and Health (NAVOSH) Program, OPNAVINST 5100.23
What information is contained in OPNAVYINST 5100.19?
Safety precautions applicable to forces afloat.
What is the purpose of the manual NAVAIROSH Requirements for the Shore Establishment, NAVAIRAI-NAOSH-SAF-00/P5100-I?
To provide guidance on acceptable work place safety and health standards ashore within the Naval Air Systems Command.
What is the purpose of the Technical Directive System?
It controls and issues all technical directives.
What are the two styles of Technical Directives (TDS)?
Formal TDs (letter) and interim TDs (message).
What are the four types of instructions to be distributed under the Technical Directive System?
Change, interim change, bulletin, and rapid action minor engineering change (RAMEC)
A technical directive issued by message or message format letter that dictates urgent dissemination is known as what type of change?
Interim change
An interim document that directs a onetime inspection to determine if a given condition exists is known as what type of technical directive?
A bulletin
What is a rapid action minor engineering change (RAMEC)?
A message TD, which provides for quick action on minor changes that offer significant advantages to the operating forces.
What are the two methods of updating a technical directive?
An amendment and a revision.
Define a rescission.
The process by which TDs are removed from active files after requirements have been incorporated.
How long should an activity maintain a TD on file?
Until it is deleted from the NAVSUP 2002 index.
How are TDs concelled?
By an amendment to the TD.
What activity assigns the numbers for changes and bulletins?
The Technical Directive Control Center at the Naval Air Technical Services Facility.
When an uncorrected, unsafe condition exists that could result in serious injury to personnel or damage or destruction of property, what category of TD is issued?
Immediate action TD
What category of technical directive is issued to complete an action that, if uncorrected, could constitute a hazard through prolonged use?
Routine action TD
What category of TD is used to confirm that a modification has been completely incorporated by the contractor or in-house activity in all accepted equipment?
Record purpose
What division has overall management responsibility for the technical library?
The quality assurance division.
In an activity with more than one publications library, who is responsible for determining the activity's publication needs?
The central technical publication library (CTPL)
When a central library has other technical libraries within the command, these libraries are known as what type of libraries?
Dispersed technical publications libraries (DTPL)
What list includes publications and directives of a general nature that have no application to a specific weapons system?
General Aeronautical Publication by Weapons System List
What list includes publications and directives that apply to a specific weapons system or equipment?
The Aeronautical Publication by Weapons System List.
What is the purpose of the central technical publications library stamp?
The stamp identifies and numbers all controlled publications.
What is a rapid action minor engineering change (RAMEC)?
A message TD, which provides for quick action on minor changes that offer significant advantages to the operating forces.
What are the two methods of updating a technical directive?
An amendment and a revision.
Define a rescission.
The process by which TDs are removed from active files after requirements have been incorporated.
How long should an activity maintain a TD on file?
Until it is deleted from the NAVSUP 2002 index.
How are TDs concelled?
By an amendment to the TD.
What activity assigns the numbers for changes and bulletins?
The Technical Directive Control Center at the Naval Air Technical Services Facility.
When an uncorrected, unsafe condition exists that could result in serious injury to personnel or damage or destruction of property, what category of TD is issued?
Immediate action TD
What category of technical directive is issued to complete an action that, if uncorrected, could constitute a hazard through prolonged use?
Routine action TD
What category of TD is used to confirm that a modification has been completely incorporated by the contractor or in-house activity in all accepted equipment?
Record purpose
What division has overall management responsibility for the technical library?
The quality assurance division.
In an activity with more than one publications library, who is responsible for determining the activity's publication needs?
The central technical publication library (CTPL)
When a central library has other technical libraries within the command, these libraries are known as what type of libraries?
Dispersed technical publications libraries (DTPL)
What list includes publications and directives of a general nature that have no application to a specific weapons system?
General Aeronautical Publication by Weapons System List
What list includes publications and directives that apply to a specific weapons system or equipment?
The Aeronautical Publication by Weapons System List.
What is the purpose of the central technical publications library stamp?
The stamp identifies and numbers all controlled publications.
What is a rapid action minor engineering change (RAMEC)?
A message TD, which provides for quick action on minor changes that offer significant advantages to the operating forces.
What are the two methods of updating a technical directive?
An amendment and a revision.
Define a rescission.
The process by which TDs are removed from active files after requirements have been incorporated.
How long should an activity maintain a TD on file?
Until it is deleted from the NAVSUP 2002 index.
How are TDs concelled?
By an amendment to the TD.
What activity assigns the numbers for changes and bulletins?
The Technical Directive Control Center at the Naval Air Technical Services Facility.
When an uncorrected, unsafe condition exists that could result in serious injury to personnel or damage or destruction of property, what category of TD is issued?
Immediate action TD
What category of technical directive is issued to complete an action that, if uncorrected, could constitute a hazard through prolonged use?
Routine action TD
What category of TD is used to confirm that a modification has been completely incorporated by the contractor or in-house activity in all accepted equipment?
Record purpose
What division has overall management responsibility for the technical library?
The quality assurance division.
In an activity with more than one publications library, who is responsible for determining the activity's publication needs?
The central technical publication library (CTPL)
When a central library has other technical libraries within the command, these libraries are known as what type of libraries?
Dispersed technical publications libraries (DTPL)
What list includes publications and directives of a general nature that have no application to a specific weapons system?
General Aeronautical Publication by Weapons System List
What list includes publications and directives that apply to a specific weapons system or equipment?
The Aeronautical Publication by Weapons System List.
What is the purpose of the central technical publications library stamp?
The stamp identifies and numbers all controlled publications.
What position(s) of the SM&R code indicate(s) the source from which you can acquire the item?
The first position
Which NAVSUP publication provides cross-reference information from a reference number to its national stock number (NSN)?
Master Cross-Reference List (MCRL)
What NAVSUP publication provides information on exceptions to the one-for-one turn-in rule?
Consolidated Remain in Place List (CRIPL)
How often is the ICRL-A revised?
Quarterly
What is the purpose of the Aviation Consolidated Allowance List (AVCAL)?
AVCAL lists the items and quantities of aeronautical material authorized to be stocked by and aircraft carrier to support the maintenance and operations of embarked aircraft.
What are the first two-digits of the nine-digit NIIN called?
The National Codification Bureau (NCB) code.
What two instructions describe the procedures for allowance and inventory of the AMMRL program?
NAVAIRINST 13650.1 for IMRL items and NAVAIRINST 13630.1 for TOL items.
How is Naval Air Systems command (NAVAIRSYSCOM) involved in the AMMRL program?
NAVAIRSYSCOM exercises overall program management and authority.
What are the major sections of the IMRL?
Employment data, change list, index, main body, and the activity inventory record.
What section of the IMRL lists all of the items allowed for the activity along with allowance quantities?
The IMRL main body.
How often is the IMRL Activity Inventory Record reissued?
It is reissued in its entirety each month.
What work center is the point-of-contact for parts and material at the organizational maintenance level?
Material control
DD Form 1348, Standard Form 44, and an identiplate (DD 1896 or 1897) are all issued as part of what package?
A flight packet
What level of maintenance orders the greater volume of parts?
Intermediate level
The Individual Component Repair List (ICRL) is used by what work center to determine the repair capability of a component received by supply?
Aeronautical material screening unit (AMSU)
What are the two sections of the Aviation Support Division/Supply Support Center (ASD/SSC)?
Supply Response Section (SRS) and Component Control Section (CCS)
If apart is listed in the CRIPL, the maintenance activity has how many hours after receipt of the replacement component to furnish the unserviceable part?
24 hours
What items are maintained in the pre-expended bins(PEBs)?
High usage, low-cost, maintenance-related consumable materials that have a minimum demand frequency of three per month.
How often does supply review stock records for the PEB?
Quarterly
What section of ASD/SSC manages local repair cycle assets?
Component control section (CCS)
How many workload priorities can be assigned to a LRCA storage unit?
Four
If a squadron requisitions an NMCS component from supply and, except for the turn-in, the only other part on station is in the IMA for repair, what priority will be assigned to the component received from the squadron?
Priority I, and the part would be designated "EXREP" or expeditious repair.
How does corrosion endanger aircraft or reduce the margin of safety?
Corrosion reduces the strength and changes the mechanical characteristics of the material.
All maintenance personnel must be formally trained in what program?
Corrosion control
What is the primary factor to consider when selecting materials for constructing an aircraft?
Weight-to-strength ratio.
The decay of metals as they combine with oxygen is known as what type of corrosion?
Metal Corrosion
What does an intact coat of paint provide to naval aircraft?
Protection from corrosive environments
In an electrochemical attack, electron flow is established in which direction?
Electron flow is established from the cathode to the anode.
How will heat, humidity, and moisture affect the electrochemical reactions that cause metal to corrode?
They speed the corrosion process.
Why are thick structural sections most susceptible to corrosive attack?
Thick sections are more likely to have variations in their composition, particularly if heat-treated during fabrication.
In relation to corrosion, what affect does mositure have on avionics equipment?
Moisture is the single largest contributor to avionics corrosion.
Which NAVAIR publication is entitled Aircraft Weapons Systems Cleaning and Corrosion Control?
NAVAIR 01-1A-509
NAVAIR 16-1-540 provides what information?
NAVAIR 16-1-540 provides information on cleaning and corrosion prevention and control of avionics equipment.
Information on the preservation of Naval aircraft and aircraft engines can be found in what publication?
NAVAIR 15-01-500, Preservation of Naval Aircraft.
What information can you find in NAVAIR 01-1A-507?
General uses for cements, sealants, and coatings
What should happen to a good corrosion preventive program when carrier-based aircraft return to a shore activity after a deployment?
A period of intensive care should follow the deployment cycle to bring the aircraft back up to standard.
Operating units that have the best safety records, maximum use of aircraft, and lowest operating costs will also have what program?
A good corrosion prevention program.
At a minimum, how often must aircraft be cleaned?
Every 14 days
List the conditions that require the affected areas of an aircraft to be cleaned immediately.
1. Aircraft is exposed to corrosive fire-extinguishing materials.
2. Spilled electrolyte and corrosive deposits are found around battery terminals and battery area.
3. The aircraft has been exposed to significant amounts of salt water.
4. Salt deposits, relief tube waste, or other contaminants are apparent.
5. Fungus growth is apparent
6. Chemical, biological, or radiological contaminants are detected.
What must be done on a daily basis with unpainted aircraft surfaces and actuating rods?
They must be cleaned or wiped down.
What are the most serious hazards in handling, using, and storing aircraft cleaning materials?
Flammability and toxity
Why is there a requirement to use a respirator when working with solvents?
Inhaling toxic vapors can seriously affect the brain and central nervous system.
What must be done specifically when storing solvents that contain more than 24% chlorinated materials?
They must be kept in specially marked containers.
Where must flammable liquids be stored when not in use?
In a separate building or-flammable liquids storeroom.
By what means is dry-cleaning solvent applied?
It is applied by spraying, dipping, brushing, or wiping.
Safety solvent is currently referred to by what name?
1, 1, 1-trichloroethane
List the application procedures and restrictions that apply to ML-C-81302, types I and II.
1. Apply by wiping or scrubbing the affected area with an acid brush or toothbrush.
2. Air dry or oven dry as applicable.
3. Do not use on acrylic plastics or acrylic conformal coatings.
4. Do not use on unsealed aluminum electrolytic capacitors. Damage may result to end caps and cause leakage.
What material must be avoided as a substitute to aluminum oxide abrasive cloth and why?
Silicon carbide paper because it is sharp and the individual grains can penetrate steel surfaces.
Why is the conformable applicator cleaning pad better than a mop or bristle brush when cleaning aircraft surfaces?
Because it conforms to the surface, the applicator allows easier application of a constant scrubbing pressure on curved skin panels.
Types I, II, and IV of what cleaning compound are to be used on tactical paint schemes?
MIL-C-85570
What is the first step in efficiently cleaning an aircraft?
Select the proper cleaning agent for the method of cleaning chosen.
When cleaning an aircraft what are th two directions in which cleaning compounds and rinsing are applied?
Upward and outward.
What substance may be used to spot-clean lightly soiled areas?
Dry-cleaning solvent
Why should dry-cleaning solvent not be used in oxygen areas or around oxygen equipment?
It is not oxygen compatible and will cause explosion or fire.
In emergencies when regular waterproof canvas covers are not available, what materials can you use as covers and shrouds?
A polyethylene sheet, polyethylene-coated cloth, or metal foil barrier materials.
The ground handling requirements for an aircraft can be found in what publication?
The maintenance instructions manual (MIM)
What technical publication covers emergency reclamation procedures for naval aircraft?
NAVAIR 01-1A-509
State the levels and terms of preservation used for naval aircraft.
Level I-Short term, up to 60 days
Level II-60 days to 1 yr
Level III-Long term, 1 to 8 yrs
What level of preservation is required if an aircraft is scheduled to remain idle for more than 14 days but less than 28 days?
Level I preservation
MIL-C-16173, corrosion preventive compound, is available in three grades. Which grade(s) is/are easily removed with dry-cleaning solvent?
All three, Grades I, IL and IV
Corrosion-preventive petroleum, class 3, provides protection for what type of surfaces?
Antifriction bearings, shock-strut pistons, and other bright metal surfaces.
When is general-purpose lubrication oil VV-L-800 used?
It is used when a water-displacing, low temperature, lubricating oil is required.
What type of corrosion-preventive compound MIL-C-81309 is used on avionics and electrical equipment?
Type III
What level of engine preservation requires the fuel system to remain at least 95% full of fuel for a period not to exceed 60 days?
Level I
What technical corrosion manual should you use for support equipment?
Ground Support Equipment Cleaning and Corrosion Control, NAVAIR 17-1-125
What are the two sealants recommended for use on support equipment?
Silicone sealant MIL-A-46146, type I, and polysulfide sealant MIL-S-81733 or MIL-S-8802
The tarnishing of silver is a common example of what type of corrosion?
Uniform or direct surface attack.
Pitting is the most common effect of corrosion on what alloys?
Aluminum and magnesium alloys.
Pitting corrosion is first noticeable as what color deposit on a metal surface?
White or gray powdery deposit.
How can concentration cell corrosion be controlled or even prevented?
Avoid the creation of crevfices during repair work.
Define intergranular corrosion.
Intergranular corrosion is an attack on the grain boundaries of alloys under specific conditions.
What is usually the cause of dissimilar metal corrosion?
It is usually the result of faulty design or improper maintenance practices.
What are some examples of internal stress corrosion?
Stress induced by press-and-shrink fits and those in rivets and bolts.
What causes fatigue corrosion?
Fatigue corrosion is caused by the combined effect of corrosion and stress applied in cycles to a component.
What is the cause of fretting corrosion?
A slight vibration, friction, or slippage between two contacting surfaces that are under stress or heavy load.
Filiform corrosion occurs on what types of metals?
Steel, aluminum, and magnesium.
The corrosion-prone areas for each specific aircraft are derailed in what publication?
Applicable periodic maintenance information cards (PMICs)
What are the three requirements for a corrosion cell to form?
A cathode, an anode, and an electrolyte
Cockpit fasteners should be touched up with what color paint?
Black paint to prevent glare.
In water entrapment areas of an aircraft, drains are required to be inspected how often?
Daily
What publication should you refer to for information about structural corrosion?
NAVAIR 01-1A-509
Hydrated ferric oxide is commonly known as what kind of corrosion?
Iron rust
What are the three types of aluminum surfaces insofar as corrosion removal is concerned?
Clad, anodized, and exfoliated
How should you remove corrosion from clad aluminum surfaces?
Hand polish the corroded areas with MIL-P-6888 metal polish.
What is the primary type of aluminum used on naval aircraft?
Nonclad aluminum alloys
What are the approved tools for cleaning anodized aluminum surfaces?
Aluminum wool or fiber bristle brushes.
Who should evaluate any loss of structural strength in critical areas of an aircraft?
An aeronautical engineer.
What manual should you refer to for tolerance limits for dimensions of critical structural members?
Structural repair manuals for the specific aircraft model
Copper and copper-based alloys are used in avionic systems for what purpose?
Contacts, springs, connectors, printed circuit board runs, and wires.
Where is titanium most often used on a aircraft?
In the engine exhaust areas.
What must you do before starting corrosion removal?
Conduct an inspection and evaluation of the suspected area.
How should you remove moderate corrosion?
Extensive hand sanding or light mechanical sanding.
What is the most desirable method of mechanical corrosion removal?
VACU-Blast dry honing portable machine
What is the preferred surface preparation method for many of the components of support equipment?
Abrasive or grit blasting.
What should you use during the abrasive process to prevent flash rusting?
Sodium Nitrite MIL-S-24531
Information regarding corrosion removal limitations can be found in what publications?
The applicable aircraft Structural Repair Manual (SRM) or the "Corrosion" section of the Maintenance Instruction Manual (MIM)
What is the purpose for chemically treating a surface for painting?
Chemical conversion coatings increase a surfaces resistance to corrosion and improve paint bonding to the surface.
When failure of the coating occurs, you should remove corrosion and touch up the bare magnesium with what chemical treatment solution?
MIL-M-3171
What is the primary purpose of any paint finish?
The protection of the exposed surfaces against decay
When using paint removers, you should wear what type of protective clothing?
you should wear eye protection, gloves, and a rubber apron.
What safety precaution must be taken before cleaning and stripping old finishes on aircraft?
Ensure the aircraft is properly grounded.
What type of motor should you use to power a flap brush?
Use a NO LOAD 3200 rpm pneumatic drill motor
Complete information on the types and applications of aircraft paint systems is contained in what publication?
NAVAIR 01-1A-509
After it is mixed, the storage life of epoxy-polyamide primer is limited to the amount that can be used in how many hours?
4 hours
What is the standard, general-purpose, exterior protective coating for aircraft surfaces?
Aliphatic polyurethane, MIL-C-85285
What are the two classes of spray guns?
Suction feed and pressure-feed spray guns
When flammable materials are used, all sources of ignition must be at least how far away from the work location?
50 feet
To what department is the line division assigned?
Maintenance department
What branch is responsible for the support equipment used by the squadron?
The Support Equipment Branch
In most squadrons, 75 to 95% of the personnel assigned to the line division are assigned to what branch?
The Plane Captain Branch
After demonstrating your abilities as a plane captain, who has the final authority to designate you a plane captain?
The commanding officer
Smoking and naked lights are not permitted within how many feet of a fueling operation?
100 feet
What type tools must be used when work is being performed on a system or unit that is designed for storing or handling combustible liquids.
Nonsparking tools
What are the four NO STEP areas on the fuselage?
Aft center body, upper speed brake, directly aft of overwing fairings and directly behind the canopy.
Why is wind direction an important consideration in fueling operations?
The wind may carry fuel vapors toward a source of ignition.
Refueling crews consist of a minimum of how many people?
Three
Before beginning refueling operations, what is the first thing the refueling crew should do?
Identify the aviation fuel
What is the advantage of pressure fueling over gravity fueling?
Pressure fueling gives aircraft a faster turnaround time.
What manuals provide detailed fueling information for a specific aircraft?
The appropriate aircraft Maintenance Instruction Manuals (MIMs) and the Aircraft Refueling NATOPS Manual, NAVAIR 00-80T-109
Define viscosity.
The internal fluid resistance to flow caused by molecular attraction.
What scale is used by both the Navy and the Air Force to determine oil viscosity?
The Saybolt scale
What is the military specification number for the hydraulic fluid presently used in the hydraulic systems of all naval aircraft?
MIL-H-83282
What should be done with the fluid remaining in the can after filling a servicing unit?
It should be properly disposed of immediately
The air pressure in aircraft tires must be checked how often?
Daily
Why is it important for the operator of the remote inflator unit to stand directly fore or aft of the tire being inflated?
This prevents the operator from being struck by debris if the tire were to fail.
Why must a tire be deflated prior to removing a wheel assembly from an aircraft?
The wheel halves may separate when the axle nut is removed.
Liquid oxygen converters are refilled by personnel from what rating?
AME rating
The high-pressure air valve, shown in figure 5-8, is used on most naval aircraft for what purpose?
It is used to service struts, accumulators, air storage bottles, and other components serviced with high-pressure air.
What purpose does the purifier serve on the nitrogen servicing trailer?
It removes moisture that may have adhered to the valves or that was accidentally introduced into the system.
What is the holding capacity of the fluid servicing unit (HSU-1)?
3 gallons, 2 gallons in the unit reservoir and 1 gallon in the can.
According to many insurance companies, what is considered the most dangerours environment in the world?
The flight deck.
When you work around aircraft with propellers, when is it safe to walk through or stand in the prop arc?
Only when actually performing maintenance on the propeller
Does a protective screen over the inlet of an operating aircraft engine eliminate the possibility of serious injury?
No! Serious injury can still result by being pulled against the protective screen.
What are the two major hazards of jet engine exhaust?
High temperature and high velocity of exhaust gases.
Any exposure, without ear protection, can cause hearing damage above what decibel (dB) level?
140 decibels (dB)
What system or mechanism should you always treat with the same respect as a loaded gun?
Ejection seats
In relation to overheated wheel brakes, what area is considered the "danger area"?
The area on both sides of the tire and wheel, in line with the axle.
What item, if used to cool overheated brakes, is likely to cause an explosion?
CO
Why is it important to keep tools, work areas, and clothing free from grease and oil when working around LOX?
LOX can explode when it comes in contact with oil or grease.
What are the primary differences between flight line and flight deck operations?
Limited space and tempo of operations.
What builds a successful FOD program?
Command support, personnel knowledge and awareness, and its integration into the total maintenance effort.
What officer coordinates the Tool Control Program?
The material control officer
What is the most significant benefit to the Tool Control Program?
Saving lives and equipment by eliminating tool FOD-related accidents
What is the prime objective of the hydraulic contamination control program?
To maintain a satisfactory level of fluid purity in hydraulic systems to provide safe and efficienct operation of naval aircraft and SE.
What publication contains detailed information on the Aircraft Fuel Surveillance Program?
The Aircraft Refueling NATOPS Manual, NAVAIR 00-80T-109
Any personnel removed from aircraft maintenance responsibilities for more than how many days must receive a egress system checkout prior to performing aircraft maintenance?
90 days
What manual outlines the hearing conservation program?
Navy Occupational Safety and Health Program Manual, OPNAVINST 5100.23
What person manages the Support Equipment Training and Licensing Program?
The assistant aircraft maintenance officer (AAMO)
Who initiates a Support Equipment Misuse/Abuse form?
Anyone witnessing the misuse or abuse.
What type inspection is performed as the time a reporting custodian accepts a newly assigned aircraft?
Acceptance inspection
What type inspection is performed to check equipment that requires a daily verification of satisfactory functioning?
Daily inspection
What type inspection is required as the result of a specific over limit condition?
Conditional inspection
A preflight inspection is valid for a period of how many hours?
24 hours, provided no flight and no maintenance have occurred during this period.
What type inspection consists of checking the aircraft for fright readiness by performing visual examinations and operational tests to discover defects and maladjustments that, if not corrected, would cause accidents or aborted missions?
Preflight inspection
What type inspections are normally performed in conjunction with other scheduled maintenance tasks by the rating assigned?
Zonal inspection
What is the primary concern of a work center supervisor?
Seeing that the job is done correctly, safely, and efficiently with no waste of materials.
The typical duties and responsibilities of the supervisor can be grouped into broad objectives. List these three objectives.
Operate with maximum efficiency and safety, operate with minimum waste an expense, and operate free from interruption and difficulty.
How does work center efficiency naturally increase?
Update equipment as old models become obsolete
How can an effective supervisor offset the loss of experienced personnel?
Through an effective and continuing training program.
Which of the three broad objectives are affected by wasted materials?
Operating with minimum expense and waste
Describe the primary purpose of delegation of authority.
A means of relieving the work center supervisor of the details of a task.
Describe scheduled and unscheduled maintenance.
Scheduled maintenance is maintenance required by hours, calendar periods (days or weeks), and starts. Unscheduled maintenance is maintenance that occurs on aircraft other than scheduled.
What is the most effective tool for ensuring a smooth flow of information regarding maintenance between shifts, other work centers, and maintenance control?
The daily maintenance meeting.
What is the purpose of the quality assurance division?
Determine deficiencies, analyze discrepancy trends, prescribe inspection procedures, and determine the quality of maintenance.
The prevention of the occurrence of defects relies on what principle?
Eliminating maintenance failures before they happen.
What are the three factors that ensure the achievement of quality assurance?
Prevention, knowledge, and special skills
State the definition of a Q/A audit.
A periodic or special evaluation of details, plans, policies, procedures, products, directives, and records.
What does the frame of mind of all personnel assigned to a department determine?
The success or failure in achieving high standards of quality
When must the production supervisor assign a collateral duty inspecttor to a task?
At the time the task is assigned
At a minimum, how often must plane captains have their qualifications monitored by Q/A?
Quarterly
Why must a QAR brief the check pilots and aircrew prior to a functional check flight (FCF)?
To ensure the purpose and objective of the check flight are clearly understood.
What division is responsible for reviewing all incoming technical publications and directives to determine their application to the maintenance department?
Quality assurance division
In relation to the organization of a quality assurance division, what determines the number of assigned personnel?
The size of the unit and the number of work shifts.
Who has the responsibility to review MDRs, NALCOMIS reports, and VIDS/MAFS to determine discrepancy trends and specific problem areas?
Quality assurance representatives
Under normal circumstances, what paygrade is usually assigned as a QAR?
Normally, an E6 or above is assigned as a QAR
How long may a CDQAR be assigned to a work center without having to notify the aircraft controlling custodian?
90 days
When may a CDI inspect his own work and sign as inspector?
Never
When a deployment period is more than 90 days and all requirements for assigning QA personnel have been met by the detachment, who may designate QA personnel?
The officer in charge
What is used to annotate an inspection on a VIDS/MAF in place of a signature at an AIMD?
A Q/A stamp
What person or activity decides if a CDI, CDQAR, or QAR is to perform inspections required by "QA" annotated on an MRC?
Local commands make the decision and annotate the master and work center MRC decks.
During a maintenance evolution, inspections normally fall into three categories.
Receiving or screening inspection, in-process inspection, and final inspection.
QAR and CDQAR are required to conduct in-process and final inspections of all maintenance tasks that require what actions?
Functional check flights
When must a QAR reinspect in-flight maintenance sign-offs?
When the discrepancy involves safety of flight
What programs are managed by quality assurance?
1. QA audits
2. CTPL
3. Department/division safety
4. NAMDRP
5. SE misuse/abuse
6. Aviation gas free engineering (AVGFE)
What are the two categories of audits performed by Q/A?
Work center audits and special audits
Upon completion of an audit, the findings are forwarded to the AMO, with a copy going where?
The cognizant division
How long are past audits maintained by Q/A?
One year
In addition to reporting naval aviation hazards in accordance with OPNAVINST 3750.6, you still must follow reporting procedures called in what manual?
NAMP, OPNAVINST 4790.2
With regard to maintenance department safety, what does the Q/A division have a responsibility to do at least monthly?
Conduct maintenance department safety meetings
What is the Naval Aviation Maintenance Discrepancy Reporting Program?
The NAMDRP is a method for reporting hazardous deficiencies in material, publications, substandard workmanship, and improper Q/A procedures.
What division assists the aviation safety officer in reviewing all correspondence about aircraft, ground, flight, or flight-related mishaps and explosive mishaps?
Quality assurance division
Who has the responsibility to be alert for safety related defects or discrepancies?
All hands
OPNAVINST 3710.7 contains procedures to report discrepancies in what type of publication?
Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization (NATOPS) manuals
If a system failure or malfunction occurs because of a part design, which could allow improper installation of the part, an HMR priority precedence message must be submitted within what time frame?
Within 24 hours of discovery
What term should be used in conjunction with an HMR when an aircraft part is lost in flight?
TFOA (Things falling off aircraft)
What are the three types of engineering investigations (EIs)?
Disassembly and inspection, material analysis, and engineering assistance
What type of report provides activities with a means of reporting deficiencies in new or newly reworked material?
Quality deficiency report (QDR)
how long does the accepting activity have to submit a supplemental ADR?
Within 30 days after completion of the check flight.
Where is the original misuse/abuse report sent?
The report is forwarded to the organization that has IMRL reporting responsibility for the item abused.
Define the term "management".
The efficient attainment of objectives
What is the definition of maintenance?
Actions taken to retain material in a serviceable condition or to restore it to serviceability.
Define the term "maintenance management".
Actions taken to retain or restore material or equipment to a serviceable condition with a minimum expenditure of resources.
What work center managers and coordinates the overall production effort to maintain squadron aircraft in a mission-capable condition?
Maintenance Control
What division controls the daily workload and assign work priorities to the various work center supervisors?
Maintenance Control
What division is responsible for publishing a monthly maintenance plan?
Maintenance Control
What division is responsible for ensuring that aircraft undergo functional maintenance check flights as required?
Maintenance Control
What division maintains the Aircraft Discrepancy Book?
Maintenance Control
What is the primary purpose of the daily maintenance meeting?
It allows all the supervisors within your department or division to brief the maintenance chief on the status of equipment, components, or aircraft that currently have ongoing work or are scheduled to have maintenance performed.
What instruction provides specific guidelines on procedures for reporting your squadrons readiness and material condition to supporting commanders?
Aircraft Material Readiness Reporting (AMRR), COMNAVAIRLANT/COMNAVAIRPAC INSTRUCTION 5442.5D
When a special inspection is completed, how long must copy 3 of the controlling document be retained in the ADB?
At least 10 flights or until the completion of the next like inspection
Who is responsible for releasing an aircraft as "safe for flight"?
The aircraft maintenance officer (AMO) or his designated representative.
What is the title of OPNAV 4790/141?
Aircraft Inspection and Acceptance Record
When an aircraft is released as safe for flight, if not specified otherwise, when must fuel samples be taken?
Prior to the first flight of the day
What publication contains detailed information on aircraft historical files?
OPNAVINST 4790.2, VOL III
How long must aircraft inspection documents be maintained on file?
One inspection cycle or 6 months, whichever is greater.
A completed VIDS/MAF requesting "local manufacture of drip pans" would be maintained in what historical file?
Miscellaneous file
Equipment Operational Capability (EOC) codes are used on VIDS/MAFs or in NALCOMIS to generate what reports?
SCIR reports
The Mission Essential Subsystem Matrices (MESM) is used to select what position of the EOC code that is entered on the MAF?
The first position of the EOC code
How are the second and third position of the EOC code determined?
They are computer generated as determined by the documented Work Unit Code (WUC)
What information MUST be transcribed on both sides of each logbook page to ensure positive identification when pages are removed?
Aircraft model and bureau number
Who is responsible for maintaining aircraft logbooks?
Reporting or physical custodians of all naval aircraft
Where can information be obtained on a specific aircrafts structural life limitations?
The periodic maintenance information cards (PMCs) for that specific aircraft.
On what OPNAV record in the logbook would an overweight landing inspection be recorded?
Inspection Record OPNAV 4790/22A
On what OPNAV record in the logbook would an aircraft service period adjustment (ASPA) inspection be recorded?
Repair/Rework Record, OPNAV 4790/23A
Where and how are interim technical directives (TDs) recorded?
Interim TDs are recorded on the same sheet as formal TDs and identified by an "I" preceding the TD number.
What is the purpose of the Miscellaneous/History Record?
It provides a means of recording significant information that affects the aircraft or equipment for which no other space is provided in the logbook.
Production control works with what other work centers in the supply department to set workload priorities?
Component control section (CCS) and the aeronautical material screening unit (AMSU)
When is an entry not required on OPNAV 4790/136A for preservation of installed equipment?
If the equipment is not preserved as part of an aircraft preservation action.
When aviation life support system's components, kits, or assemblies are involved in an aircraft mishap, what must be done with the associated records?
The appropriate records are to be forwarded as required by OPNAVINST 3750.6 and NAVAIR 13-1-13 manuals for investigation.
Once an engine module is installed in a particular propulsion system, what becomes of the Module Service Record (MSR)?
It is maintained concurrently with and becomes part of the Aeronautical Equipment Service Record (AESR)
In what section of the Assembly Service Record is the removal data documented?
Section IV
What record is used to document the maintenance history data of an aeronautical component that has been determined to be life limited?
The Scheduled Removal Component (SRC) Card OPNAV 4790/28A
What system was devised to provide standardized Department of the Navy flight activity data collection information?
Naval Flight Record Subsystem (NAVFLIRS)
In the intermediate maintenance activity (IMA), what work center is responsible for maintaining positive control of all accountable material?
Production control
What action is taken at least weekly to ensure all parts on order are still required and all required parts are still on order?
Awaiting parts (AWP) validation