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186 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Model Law on Illustrations |
Provides standards to be followed to protect applicants. Requires: Name of insurer; Name and business address of the producer; Name, age, and sex of the proposed insured; Underwriting or rating classification; Generic name of the policy, company product name, and form number; Initial death benefit; dividend option election or application of non–guaranteed elements. |
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Model Law on Illustrations |
Provides standards to be followed to protect applicants. Requires: Name of insurer; Name and business address of the producer; Name, age, and sex of the proposed insured; Underwriting or rating classification; Generic name of the policy, company product name, and form number; Initial death benefit; dividend option election or application of non–guaranteed elements.
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Model Law on Illustrations |
Provides standards to be followed to protect applicants. Requires: Name of insurer; Name and business address of the producer; Name, age, and sex of the proposed insured; Underwriting or rating classification; Generic name of the policy, company product name, and form number; Initial death benefit; dividend option election or application of non–guaranteed elements.
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CLHIA |
Canadian Life and Health Insurance Compensation Corporation.
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HIPAA |
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996. Impacts the process of obtaining attending physicians' reports. Includes description of info to be used/disclosed, Name of the entity(ies) authorized to use/disclose protected health info, exp. date, signature and date, right to revoke authorization in writing, name of recipient, purpose of the request. |
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_______________ requires financial institutions to set up anti–money laundering programs and put into place procedures for training and auditing the program. a. HIPPA b. The USA Patriot Act c. FCRA d. ERISA |
b. The USA Patriot Act
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What is the name of Canada's Privacy Act? A. HIPAA B. CIPAA C. GLB D. PIPEDA |
d. PIPEDA
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The Gramm–Leach–Bliley Act (GLB) requires companies to inform a customer: A. What their premiums will be before they sign off on the contract. B. How to pull their credit report C. of their privacy policy at the issuance of a contract. D. Where to locate their terms and conditions online. |
C. of their privacy policy at the issuance of a contract. |
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What is Insurable Interest? |
When someone has a substantial financial interest in the continued life of the insured and would suffer a significant financial loss in the event of his or her death. |
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What is Insurable Value? |
a measure of the financial consequences and obligations created by the insured’s death and determine the upper limits of the acceptable death benefit.
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What is Slayer’s Rule? |
prevents beneficiaries and their heirs or representatives from profiting from murder. Individual states have amended this common law with slayer’s statutes that expand upon the rule and address unique situations, such as what to do if the beneficiary/murderer is a minor, or insane, or kills in self–defense. |
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Model Law on Illustrations |
Provides standards to be followed to protect applicants. Requires: Name of insurer; Name and business address of the producer; Name, age, and sex of the proposed insured; Underwriting or rating classification; Generic name of the policy, company product name, and form number; Initial death benefit; dividend option election or application of non–guaranteed elements. |
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Model Law on Illustrations |
Provides standards to be followed to protect applicants. Requires: Name of insurer; Name and business address of the producer; Name, age, and sex of the proposed insured; Underwriting or rating classification; Generic name of the policy, company product name, and form number; Initial death benefit; dividend option election or application of non–guaranteed elements.
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Model Law on Illustrations |
Provides standards to be followed to protect applicants. Requires: Name of insurer; Name and business address of the producer; Name, age, and sex of the proposed insured; Underwriting or rating classification; Generic name of the policy, company product name, and form number; Initial death benefit; dividend option election or application of non–guaranteed elements.
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CLHIA |
Canadian Life and Health Insurance Compensation Corporation.
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HIPAA |
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996. Impacts the process of obtaining attending physicians' reports. Includes description of info to be used/disclosed, Name of the entity(ies) authorized to use/disclose protected health info, exp. date, signature and date, right to revoke authorization in writing, name of recipient, purpose of the request.
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_______________ requires financial institutions to set up anti–money laundering programs and put into place procedures for training and auditing the program. a. HIPPA b. The USA Patriot Act c. FCRA d. ERISA |
b. The USA Patriot Act
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What is the name of Canada's Privacy Act? A. HIPAA B. CIPAA C. GLB D. PIPEDA |
d. PIPEDA
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The Gramm–Leach–Bliley Act (GLB) requires companies to inform a customer: A. What their premiums will be before they sign off on the contract. B. How to pull their credit report C. of their privacy policy at the issuance of a contract. D. Where to locate their terms and conditions online. |
C. of their privacy policy at the issuance of a contract.
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What is Insurable Interest? |
When someone has a substantial financial interest in the continued life of the insured and would suffer a significant financial loss in the event of his or her death.
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What is Insurable Value? |
a measure of the financial consequences and obligations created by the insured’s death and determine the upper limits of the acceptable death benefit.
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What is Slayer’s Rule? |
prevents beneficiaries and their heirs or representatives from profiting from murder. Individual states have amended this common law with slayer’s statutes that expand upon the rule and address unique situations, such as what to do if the beneficiary/murderer is a minor, or insane, or kills in self–defense.
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What is the standard Incontestability period? |
This provision provides that after a policy has been in force for a period of two years (Missouri limits the contestable period to one year) during the lifetime of the insured, the policy becomes incontestable – that is, the insurance company cannot contest the policy’s validity.
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What method IS NOT used to calculate Face Amount for individual coverage, and which one is the choice method? A. Multiple of Salary B. Human Life Value Model C. Needs Analysis D. Risk IQ |
D. Risk IQ
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Which method is used to identify the Face value for a non–working spouse? A. Multiple of Salary B. Human Life Value Model C. Needs Analysis D. Risk IQ |
C. Needs Analysis
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Which of the following is/are the reason(s) one might choose elect Life Insurance to address Estate Planning needs? 1. life insurance can be used to compensate the estate for the payment of estate taxes 2. to provide cash for use by the estate in situations where the estate is made up of assets that cannot be easily or quickly sold 3. to offset probate costs, which are expenses paid by the estate to hire and retain the lawyers, accountants, and appraisers who work on the estate’s valuation and legal representation. Possible Answers: A. 1 B. 1 and 3 C. 2 D. 3 E. All of the above |
E. All of the Above
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What helps differentiates larger taxable estates from smaller non–taxable estates? |
The Exclusion Amount: a limit set by the US Federal government
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True or False: Canada has estate taxes similar to that of the United States |
False: In Canada, there are no estate taxes.
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What constitutes a charity for charitable gifting? |
In the United States, nonprofit organizations that are organized and operated to further one of the following areas of public interest:
religion, education, assistance to the government, promotion of health, relief of poverty or distress and other purposes that benefit the community, but not any individual. |
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The person a company would wish to insure to indemnify the organization against their death is known as a _______ _________. A. Personal Asset B. Key Partner C. Key Person D. Key Contributor |
C. Key Person
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What is not a factor or consideration when an underwriter is trying to determine if someone qualifies as a Key Person? A. the company’s succession plan B. the proposed insured’s level of expertise C. the age of the proposed insured D. the business history of the proposed insured E. the number of key employees F. the business history of the company G. stability of earnings over time H. the current financial picture |
A. The Company's Succession Plan
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What are the two calculations used to determine the face amount for a Key Person? A. Multiple of Earnings Approach B. Business Life Value Model C. Mulitple of Salary Approach D. Business Loss Approach |
A & D
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What is the Multiple–of–Earnings Approach and what is the benefit used for? |
The multiple–of–earnings approach is predicated on the idea that the insurable value of an employee is directly related to the income he or she receives.
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Creditor Insurance is used for: |
replace the funds the insured would have provided for the repayment of a loan, had he or she lived. Creditor insurance is not designed to act as a financial failsafe in the event that the business purpose for which the loan was taken out is unsuccessful.
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Explain Buy–Sell Insurance and what it's used for? |
In situations where the heirs are neither willing nor able to take over the management responsibilities for the share of the business owned by the deceased or the other business partners do not want them to, buy–sell insurance allows the remaining business owners to purchase the business interest from the estate of the deceased. The result is that the company remains under the control and ownership of the remaining owners and the estate gets a cash equivalent, which can be of much more use to the heirs of the estate.
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Explain the 2 types of Buy–Sell Agreements and describe them briefly. |
1. Cross–purchase agreements: Each partner or stockholder is obligated to purchase buy–sell coverage on every other partner or stockholder.
2. Liquidation/Stock Redemption Agreement: allow the company as a whole to purchase the business interest from the estate, and typically the stock is kept as inactive company treasury stock. As a result, the surviving owners automatically own a greater percentage of the active ownership shares remaining. |
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_________ __________ refers to non–salary benefits/compensation for employees. Common examples include health insurance, medical plans, a company car, a travel expense account, education expense coverage, and group life insurance |
Fringe Benefits
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Each of the below items are sources of Financial Data EXCEPT: 1. Insurance Application 2. Cover Letter 3. Financial Statements 4. IRS Audit Reports 5. Buy–sell Agreement 6. Inspection Report Possible Answers: A. 4 B. 5 and 6 C. 2 and 4 D. All of the above E. None of the above |
A. (4) IRS Audit Report |
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What are the consequences of ignoring insurable interest or exceeding the insurable value limits? |
the policy beneficiary will likely receive a monetary windfall at the death of the insured. That might seem, at worst, like an unfortunate waste of money paid for unnecessary coverage. However, a substantial death benefit can serve as an incentive for homicide, suicide, or a fraudulent claim. Additionally, there can be legal consequences in certain instances that result in the policy contract being construed as void if insurable interest did not exist at inception of the policy
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In Canada, the deceased is deemed to have disposed of all property for its fair market value immediately before death. The subsequent tax paid on his or her terminal income is known as: A. Terminal Income Tax B. PEPIDA C. Capital Gains Tax D. The 50/50 Exclusion |
C. Capital Gains Tax
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What is the term used to describe the difference between an asset's purchase price and selling price, when the selling price is greater [Think Canada] |
Capital Gain
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The death benefits made available through the Multiple of Earnings Appoach are used for all of the following EXCEPT: 1. Hire a replacement. The unexpected death of a key person can cause a company to offer a salary somewhat higher than normal to get a qualified replacement quickly. 2. Offset the cost of training the replacement employee. Depending on the position, this amount can be considerable. 3. Compensate the company for the financial losses created by the key person’s death. Possible Answers: A. 1B. 2 C. 3 D. All of the above E. None of the Above |
E. None of the Above
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The measure of a test’s ability to exclude individuals who have disease or a particular condition is: 1. sensitivity 2. reliability 3. specificity 4. proficiency |
3. specificity
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Elevations of both gamma glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT) and alkaline phosphatase (AP) are associated with: 1. pancreatitis 2. osteomyelitis 3. biliary obstruction 4. osteoporosis |
3. biliary obstruction
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A positive urine cotinine test result on an insurance exam can be caused by which of the following? A. nicotine gum B. cigar use C. second hand smoke D. Herbal teas 1. A, B and D only are correct. 2. A and C only are correct. 3. A and D only are correct. 4. A, B and C are correct. |
1. A, B and D only are correct.
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Discuss the differences between acute and chronic hepatitis, including causes, typical findings and possible outcomes. |
Acute hepatitis can be caused by an infection with one of the hepatitis viruses (hepatitis A, B, C, D, or E)
A marker of acute hepatitis is liver enzymes elevated from three to ten times the upper limit of normal. With acute hepatitis, liver enzyme elevations will return to normal in less than six months. Chronic hepatitis is defined as liver enzyme elevations lasting longer than six months Typically enzyme levels are normal to three times the upper limit of normal. Hepatitis is normally detected by an increase in liver enzyme levels, but advanced fibrosis/cirrhosis can lead to low enzyme levels because few functioning liver cells remain |
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The presence of red blood cells in the urine is: A. hematuria B. glycosuria C. proteinuria D. albuminuria |
hematuria
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Name the four serum enzymes that are used as indirect measures of liver pathology and what diseases are associated with elevated test findings |
ALT(SGPT) Hepatic Disease, Fatty Liver, and Steatohepatitis
AST (SGOT) Hepatic Disease, Fatty Liver, and Steatohepatitis GGT Biliary Obstruction with AP, or stand–alone Alcohol AP Biliary Obstruction, or stand– alone bone disease |
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Name four tests that can be performed on a urine sample and the value of each. |
Creatinine less than 11 mg/dL in males or 9 mg/dL in females
Total Protein greater than 150mg/day in urine Glucose positive Urine Leukocyte Esterase and Hemoglobin –positive Cotinine positive Cocaine positive |
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Identify two tumor marker tests that can be performed as part of an insurance exam and identify what disease implications might be suggested by each. |
PSA – Screening for Prostate Cancer Risk
CEA – Screenings for solid tumors in the colon, lung, and breast BRCA1 and BRAC2 – Screening for breast and ovarian cancer |
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The best measure of renal function is: 1. glomerular filtration rate (GFR) 2. proteinuria 3. blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 4. specific gravity |
glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
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The laboratory tests used to diagnose diabetes include which of the following? A. oral glucose tolerance test B. fasting serum creatinine C. fasting blood glucose test Answer Options: 1. A only is correct. 2. C only is correct. 3. A and C only are correct. 4. A, B, and C are correct. |
3. A and C only are correct.
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Which of the following statements regarding dried blood spot (DBS) testing is/are correct? A. It is a preferred testing method for samples collected internationally. B. It may be collected by insurance sales agents. C. It may be used to test hemoglobin A1c levels. Answer Options: 1. B only is correct. 2. C only is correct. 3. A and C only are correct. 4. A, B, and C are correct. |
3. A and C only are correct.
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Which test is the gold standard for evaluation of diabetic risk? 1. Fructosamine 2. Insulin levels 3. Hemoglobin A1c (Hb A1c) 4. Fasting Blood Sugar |
3. Hemoglobin A1c (Hb A1c)
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The common causes for chronic Hepatitis include A. Non–alcoholic fatty liver B. Hepatitis A, B and C C. Over the counter inflammatory drugs such as acetaminophen (Tylenol) D. Alcohol 1. All of the above 2. C and D are correct 3. A, C. and D, are correct 4. A, B and D are correct |
3. A, C. and D, are correct
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What lab level is a by–product from the breakdown of protein? 1. BUN 2. Cystatin C 3. Albumin 4. Creatinine |
1. BUN
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Which of these is not true re: Uric Acid levels: A. The independent predictive value of uric acid for mortality is controversial B. Females have higher values than males C. High values are associated with renal disease, hypertension, and gout. |
B. Females have higher values than males
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Cholesterol is present in blood in a number of physiologically different lipid particles. Which of these is not a lipid particle: A. HDL B. ADL C. LDL D. VLDL |
B. ADL
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B. HCV is the leading cause of liver failure and transplantation
C. If Hepatitis C RNA is present, the person is infected. D. You're most likely to contract Hepatitis A from contaminated food or water |
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Study of body structure
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Anatomy
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Study of how the body functions
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Physiology
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The study of disorders of body functions
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Pathophysiology
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A disorder/disruption of the normal body function
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Disease
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Procedures used to identify the cause and nature of a person’s illness
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Diagnosis
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Complex chemicals that contain the elements of carbon and hydrogen
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Organic Chemicals
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Simple molecules made of one or two elements other than carbon and hydrogen
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Inorganic Chemicals
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List the 5 levels of organization that make up the human body
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Chemical, Cellular, Tissue, Organ, Organ System
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Sheets of connective tissue covering surfaces, or acting as a boundary or separation
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Membranes
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This membrane lines closed body cavities such as pleural membrane covering lungs, pericardial heart muscle, and mesentery covering abdominal organs
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Serous
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This membrane lines areas open to the environment such as the respiratory system
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Mucous
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Cover brain and spinal cord, contain cerebrospinal fluid
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Meninges
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Covers bone
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Periosteum
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Covers cartilage
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Perichondrium
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Lines joint cavities, secretes synovial fluid for lubrication
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Synovial
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Between skin and muscle includes adipose tissue
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Superficial fascia
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Covers skeletal muscle
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Deep fascia
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Organs that secrete a chemical substance for use in the body
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Glands
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The body can be broken down into the following ___________: Head and neck, Thorax, Abdomen, Pelvis, Upper Limbs, Lower Limbs, Back, and Trunk.
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Regions
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The smallest living unit of structure and function
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Cells
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A group of cells with similar structure
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Tissues
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The 4 types of tissue found in the human body
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Epithelial, Connective, Muscle, and Nerve
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This tissue lines body surfaces. It makes up the skin and sweat glands
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Epithelial
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This tissue connects and supports parts of the body; some even transport and store materials
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Connective
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This tissue is specialized for contraction and promotes movement
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Muscle
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A group of cells with similar structure and function
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tissue
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The four major groups of tissue
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epithelial, connective, muscle, and nerve
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True or False: An organ is composed of only 1 tissue type
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FALSE: an organ may (and many do) contain tissues from all four groups
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This type of tissue contains no capillaries; therefore, it relies on blood for oxygen and nutrients
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Epithelial
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Epithelial tissue capable of secretion
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Glands or Glandular Epithelium
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Classification of epithelial tissue is based on the type of cell of which the tissue is made its characteristic shape, and the number of layers of the cells. The three distinctive cell shapes are:
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Squamous, cuboidal, and columnar
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The term for a single layer of cells
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Simple
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The term for many layers of cells
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Stratified
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A type of epithelial tissue composed of a single layer of flat cells that is very thin and very smooth. It makes up the aveoli of the lungs, capillaries, and is a key element of the diffusion of gases.
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Simple Squamous
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A type of epithelial tissue characterized by many layers of flat cells. It makes up the epidermis of the skin where it is keratinized, the oral cavity where it is non-keratinized, and the mucous membranes of the vagina
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Stratified Squamous
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A type of stratified epithelium in which the surface cells change shape from round to squamous. It lines the bladder and allows it to stretch as it fills without tearing
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Transitional
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Type of epithelial tissue composed of one layer of cube-shaped cells (Thyroid gland, Salivary gland, Kidney Tubules)
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Cuboidal
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Type of epithelial tissue composed of one layer of column-shaped cells (Lining of stomach, lining of small intestines)
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Columnar
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Type of epithelial tissue composed of one layer of columnar-cells with cilia on their free surface (Lining of Trachea, Lining of Fallopian Tube)
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Ciliated
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Cells or organs that are multicellular or unicellular and are responsible for some form of secretion
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Glands
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This kind of gland is characterized by the inclusion of ducts responsible for carrying secretion away from the gland and to the site of function (example: Salivary, Gastric, and Sweat glands)
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Exocrine Glands
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These glands are ductless and are responsible for the secretion of hormones carried by capillaries to the rest of the body (Examples: Pituitary and Thyroid Gland)
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Endocrine Glands
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This organ is both an exocrine gland and an endocrine gland
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The Pancreas
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The _________ is a structural network or solution of non-living intercellular material and is specific to the connective tissue it is associated with
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Matrix
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Name the connective tissue: Plasma matrix (Location: Blood Vessels)
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Blood
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Name the connective tissue: Fibroblasts and a matrix of tissue fluid, collagen, and elastin fibers (Location: Subcutaneous, Mucous Membranes)
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Areolar
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Name the connective tissue: Adipocytes that store fat (little matrix) (Location: Around the Eyes and Kidneys, Brown Fat in Infants)
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Adipose
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Name the connective tissue: Mostly collagen fibers (matrix) and few fibroblasts (Location: Tendons and Ligaments (regular); Dermis (irregular))
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Fibrous
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Name the connective tissue: Mostly elastin fibers (matrix) with few fibroblasts (Location: Walls of large arteries)
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Elastic
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Name the connective tissue: Osteocytes in a matrix of calcium salts and collagen (Location: Bones)
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Bone
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Name the connective tissue: Chondrocytes in a flexible protein matrix (Location: Walls of Trachea, on joint surfaces of bones, tip of nose and outer ear)
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Cartilage
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52% to 62% of the total blood volume in the body is composed of this
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Plasma
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What is another name for blood-forming tissue responsible for producing red blood cells from stem cells?
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Hemopoietic Tissue
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Neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, monocytes, and lymphocytes are the 5 types of what?
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White Blood Cells
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These WBCs mature and divide in Lymphatic Tissue
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Lymphocytes
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_______________ make up 38%-48% of the total blood volume in the body
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Blood Cells
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These blood cells carry oxygen that is bonded to iron in their hemoglobin
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RBC
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These blood cells destroy pathogens byway of phagocytosis, the production of antibodies, other chemical methods, and provide us with immunity to some diseases
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WBC
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These cells prevent blood loss and are an integral part of the blood clotting process |
Platelets |
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A group of cells with similar structure and function
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tissue
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The four major groups of tissue
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epithelial, connective, muscle, and nerve
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True or False: An organ is composed of only 1 tissue type
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FALSE: an organ may (and many do) contain tissues from all four groups
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This type of tissue contains no capillaries; therefore, it relies on blood for oxygen and nutrients
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Epithelial
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Epithelial tissue capable of secretion
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Glands or Glandular Epithelium
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Classification of epithelial tissue is based on the type of cell of which the tissue is made its characteristic shape, and the number of layers of the cells. The three distinctive cell shapes are:
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Squamous, cuboidal, and columnar
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The term for a single layer of cells
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Simple
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The term for many layers of cells
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Stratified
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A type of epithelial tissue composed of a single layer of flat cells that is very thin and very smooth. It makes up the aveoli of the lungs, capillaries, and is a key element of the diffusion of gases.
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Simple Squamous
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A type of epithelial tissue characterized by many layers of flat cells. It makes up the epidermis of the skin where it is keratinized, the oral cavity where it is non-keratinized, and the mucous membranes of the vagina
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Stratified Squamous
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A type of stratified epithelium in which the surface cells change shape from round to squamous. It lines the bladder and allows it to stretch as it fills without tearing
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Transitional
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Type of epithelial tissue composed of one layer of cube-shaped cells (Thyroid gland, Salivary gland, Kidney Tubules)
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Cuboidal
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Type of epithelial tissue composed of one layer of column-shaped cells (Lining of stomach, lining of small intestines)
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Columnar
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Type of epithelial tissue composed of one layer of columnar-cells with cilia on their free surface (Lining of Trachea, Lining of Fallopian Tube)
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Ciliated
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Cells or organs that are multicellular or unicellular and are responsible for some form of secretion
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Glands
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This kind of gland is characterized by the inclusion of ducts responsible for carrying secretion away from the gland and to the site of function (example: Salivary, Gastric, and Sweat glands)
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Exocrine Glands
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These glands are ductless and are responsible for the secretion of hormones carried by capillaries to the rest of the body (Examples: Pituitary and Thyroid Gland)
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Endocrine Glands
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This organ is both an exocrine gland and an endocrine gland
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The Pancreas
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The _________ is a structural network or solution of non-living intercellular material and is specific to the connective tissue it is associated with
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Matrix
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Name the connective tissue: Plasma matrix (Location: Blood Vessels)
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Blood
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Name the connective tissue: Fibroblasts and a matrix of tissue fluid, collagen, and elastin fibers (Location: Subcutaneous, Mucous Membranes)
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Areolar
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Name the connective tissue: Adipocytes that store fat (little matrix) (Location: Around the Eyes and Kidneys, Brown Fat in Infants)
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Adipose
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Name the connective tissue: Mostly collagen fibers (matrix) and few fibroblasts (Location: Tendons and Ligaments (regular); Dermis (irregular))
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Fibrous
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Name the connective tissue: Mostly elastin fibers (matrix) with few fibroblasts (Location: Walls of large arteries)
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Elastic
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Name the connective tissue: Osteocytes in a matrix of calcium salts and collagen (Location: Bones)
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Bone
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Name the connective tissue: Chondrocytes in a flexible protein matrix (Location: Walls of Trachea, on joint surfaces of bones, tip of nose and outer ear)
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Cartilage
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52% to 62% of the total blood volume in the body is composed of this
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Plasma
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What is another name for blood-forming tissue responsible for producing red blood cells from stem cells?
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Hemopoietic Tissue
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Neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, monocytes, and lymphocytes are the 5 types of what?
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White Blood Cells
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These WBCs mature and divide in Lymphatic Tissue
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Lymphocytes
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_______________ make up 38%-48% of the total blood volume in the body
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Blood Cells
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These blood cells carry oxygen that is bonded to iron in their hemoglobin
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RBC
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These blood cells destroy pathogens byway of phagocytosis, the production of antibodies, other chemical methods, and provide us with immunity to some diseases
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WBC
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These cells prevent blood loss and are an integral part of the blood clotting process
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Platelets
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A group of cells with similar structure and function
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tissue
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The four major groups of tissue
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epithelial, connective, muscle, and nerve
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True or False: An organ is composed of only 1 tissue type
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FALSE: an organ may (and many do) contain tissues from all four groups
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This type of tissue contains no capillaries; therefore, it relies on blood for oxygen and nutrients
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Epithelial
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Epithelial tissue capable of secretion
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Glands or Glandular Epithelium
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Classification of epithelial tissue is based on the type of cell of which the tissue is made its characteristic shape, and the number of layers of the cells. The three distinctive cell shapes are:
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Squamous, cuboidal, and columnar
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The term for a single layer of cells
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Simple
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The term for many layers of cells
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Stratified
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A type of epithelial tissue composed of a single layer of flat cells that is very thin and very smooth. It makes up the aveoli of the lungs, capillaries, and is a key element of the diffusion of gases.
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Simple Squamous
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A type of epithelial tissue characterized by many layers of flat cells. It makes up the epidermis of the skin where it is keratinized, the oral cavity where it is non-keratinized, and the mucous membranes of the vagina
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Stratified Squamous
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A type of stratified epithelium in which the surface cells change shape from round to squamous. It lines the bladder and allows it to stretch as it fills without tearing
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Transitional
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Type of epithelial tissue composed of one layer of cube-shaped cells (Thyroid gland, Salivary gland, Kidney Tubules)
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Cuboidal
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Type of epithelial tissue composed of one layer of column-shaped cells (Lining of stomach, lining of small intestines)
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Columnar
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Type of epithelial tissue composed of one layer of columnar-cells with cilia on their free surface (Lining of Trachea, Lining of Fallopian Tube)
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Ciliated
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Cells or organs that are multicellular or unicellular and are responsible for some form of secretion
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Glands
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This kind of gland is characterized by the inclusion of ducts responsible for carrying secretion away from the gland and to the site of function (example: Salivary, Gastric, and Sweat glands)
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Exocrine Glands
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These glands are ductless and are responsible for the secretion of hormones carried by capillaries to the rest of the body (Examples: Pituitary and Thyroid Gland)
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Endocrine Glands
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This organ is both an exocrine gland and an endocrine gland
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The Pancreas
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The _________ is a structural network or solution of non-living intercellular material and is specific to the connective tissue it is associated with
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Matrix
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Name the connective tissue: Plasma matrix (Location: Blood Vessels)
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Blood
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Name the connective tissue: Fibroblasts and a matrix of tissue fluid, collagen, and elastin fibers (Location: Subcutaneous, Mucous Membranes)
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Areolar
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Name the connective tissue: Adipocytes that store fat (little matrix) (Location: Around the Eyes and Kidneys, Brown Fat in Infants)
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Adipose
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Name the connective tissue: Mostly collagen fibers (matrix) and few fibroblasts (Location: Tendons and Ligaments (regular); Dermis (irregular))
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Fibrous
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Name the connective tissue: Mostly elastin fibers (matrix) with few fibroblasts (Location: Walls of large arteries)
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Elastic
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Name the connective tissue: Osteocytes in a matrix of calcium salts and collagen (Location: Bones)
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Bone
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Name the connective tissue: Chondrocytes in a flexible protein matrix (Location: Walls of Trachea, on joint surfaces of bones, tip of nose and outer ear)
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Cartilage
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52% to 62% of the total blood volume in the body is composed of this
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Plasma
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What is another name for blood-forming tissue responsible for producing red blood cells from stem cells?
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Hemopoietic Tissue
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Neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, monocytes, and lymphocytes are the 5 types of what?
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White Blood Cells
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These WBCs mature and divide in Lymphatic Tissue
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Lymphocytes
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_______________ make up 38%-48% of the total blood volume in the body
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Blood Cells
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These blood cells carry oxygen that is bonded to iron in their hemoglobin
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RBC
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These blood cells destroy pathogens byway of phagocytosis, the production of antibodies, other chemical methods, and provide us with immunity to some diseases
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WBC
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These cells prevent blood loss and are an integral part of the blood clotting process
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Platelets
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