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368 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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In what year was the PR rate established?
A. 1922 B. 1924 C. 1942
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1942 |
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The air permeability of 1.1-ounce ripstop nylon must be ______________.
A. 40 to 50 cubic feet per second B. 60 to 70 cubic feet per minute C. 70 to 80 cubic feet per second D. 80 to 100 cubic feet per minute |
80 to 100 cubic feet per minute |
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The sections used in a parachute canopy are cut at a 45-degree angle to the centerline of the gore. This is know as what type of construction?
A. Off-center B. Bias C. Filler D. Warp |
Bias
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Which of the following components is NOT housed in the parachute container?
A. Harness B. Main canopy C. Suspension lines D. Pilot chute |
Harness |
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What is the total amount of naphthalene flakes that should be sprinkled throughout the parachute assembly prior to sealing it into a shipping container?
A. 1/4 pound B. 3/8 pound C. 1/2 pound D. 5/8 pound |
3/8 pound |
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Periodic maintenance for parachute falls under the direction and control of the ____________.
A. shop supervisor B. quality assurance officer C. maintenance control officer D. maintenance officer |
Maintenance Control Officer |
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The original issue inspection on a parachute assembly is performed ____________.
A. every 14 days B. at each postcombat inspection C. at the time the assembly is placed into service D. at each calendar/phased inspection |
At the time the assembly is placed into service
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If a canopy used in an emergency fails to show a start-of-service data, what will be the service life of the canopy from the date of manufacture?
A. 15 years B. 12 years C. 10 years D. 7 years |
7 years |
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If a harness assembly has two broken stitches, what action, if any, should be taken?
A. Repair it using 6-cord B. Repair it using 3-cord C. Repair it using FF D. None |
Repair it using 6-cord |
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What method is used to remove sand or dirt from canopy quick-release fittings?
A. High-pressure air (1599-1800 psi) B. Low-pressure air (50 psi) C. Clean with toluene D. Soak in dry cleaning solvent |
Low-pressure air (50 psi) |
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Who was the first person credited for successfully jumping from an aircraft using a parachute?
A. Jodaki Kuparento B. Albert Berry C. Arnold Appleby D. Andre-Jacques Garnerin |
Albert Berry |
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When did it become mandatory for all Army and Navy aircrew to wear the standard back-type parachute while in flight?
A. 1919 B. 1924 C. 1922 D. 1918 |
1924 |
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Where can the date of manufacture be found on a 28-foot canopy?
A. Section D of gore 28 B. Section C of gore 28 C. Section A of gore 28 D. Section B of gore 28 |
Section A of gore 28 |
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What part of a parachute prevents rupture to the canopy during opening shock?
A. Vent hem B. Skirt hem C. Vent D. Gore |
Vent |
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All machine stitching on a parachute canopy (except zigzag) should conform to (a) what type and (b) what federal standard?
A. (a) 301 (b) 750 B. (a) 301 (b) 751 C. (a) 302 (b) 750 D. (a) 302 (b) 751 |
(a) 301 (b) 751 |
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Personnel parachute harness webbing has a T/S of ____________.
A. 4,000 to 5,000 pounds B. 6,000 to 7,800 pounds C. 6,000 to 8,700 pounds D. 4,000 to 5,800 pounds |
6,000 to 8,700 pounds |
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Ripcord pins are swaged in place and tested at __________.
A. 100 pounds B. 200 pounds C. 300 pounds D. 400 pounds |
300 pounds |
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After a parachute is used in an emergency situation, __________.
A. it is shipped to the Naval Weapons Center, China Lake, CA B. it is shipped to the Naval Air Development Center, Warminster, PA C. it is shipped to the Naval Safety Center, Norfolk, VA D. it is disposed of locally
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it is shipped to the Naval Weapons Center, China Lake, CA |
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Who is responsible for initiating the Parachute Configuration Inspection and History Record?
A. Manufacture B. Controlling custodians C. IMA placing the parachute into service D. Squadron PR |
IMA placing the parachute into service |
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Whenever a canopy is inspected and needs repairs, what form is initiated?
A. Parachute Configuration Inspection and History Record B. Canopy Damage Chart C. Multi-copy MAF D. NAVAIR-2650 |
Canopy Damage Chart |
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What is the maximum pull force on a ripcord pull test?
A. 22 pounds B. 25 pounds C. 27 pounds D. 36 pounds |
27 pounds |
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When testing for acid and/or alkaline contamination, what is the safe zone on pH test paper?
A. 0 to 5.0 B. 5.0 to 9.0 C. 9.0 to 14.0 D. 14.0 to 20.0 |
5.0 to 9.0 |
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When inspecting suspension lines during an original issue inspection, how much tension is applied to the line?
A. 5 pounds B. 10 pounds C. 15 pounds D. 20 pounds |
20 pounds |
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How many stitches per inch are used to sew a parachute harness?
A. 12 to 14 B. 10 to 12 C. 6 to 8 D. 4 to 6 |
4 to 6 |
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When are local modifications permitted on a parachute assembly?
A. When directed by maintenance control B. When directed by the maintenance officer C. When directed by the squadron CO D. When approved by proper authority |
When approved by proper authority |
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The Model 7000 APRR is designed to __________.
A. automatically send a signal on guard when the parachute is deployed B. provide a mechanical parachute release option should the primary method fail C. automatically open the parachute at a preset time after leaving an aircraft D. open the parachute at a preset altitude |
open the parachute at a preset altitude |
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When the firing mechanism of the APRR is installed in a parachute, it is locked by which of the following parts?
A. Arming pin B. Sear C. Aneroid mechanism D. Locking pin |
Arming pin |
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When an aircrewman makes an emergency ejection at an altitude above that for which the ripcord release is set to open, what causes the aneroid to contract?
A. A preset timer set for a specific number of seconds after ejection B. The mechanical interlock between the parachute assembly and the APRR C. The rapid deceleration that occurs after the ejection process D. Increasing air pressure as the aircrewman falls |
Increasing air pressure as the aircrewman falls |
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As the APRR piston is forced forward in the barrel, the power cable travels a total of __________ inches.
A. 2.5 inches B. 2.0 inches C. 3.5 inches D. 3.75 inches |
3.75 inches |
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Maintenance on any automatic ripcord release assembly in service must be performed at which times?
A. At least once every year B. Only at the original issue inspection C. Every time its parachute assembly is repacked D. Every six months starting with the date received |
Every time its parachute assembly is repacked |
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The automatic parachute ripcord release test set has a test chamber that can withstand a vacuum equivalent to what altitude?
A. 20,000 feet B. 30,000 feet C. 40,000 feet D. 50,000 feet |
30,000 feet |
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The purpose of the CYPRES (2) is to __________ when specific parameters are sensed.
A. cut the reserve pilot parachute, closing the loop and allowing the parachute to deploy B. prevent inadvertent opening of the reserve parachute C. automatically transmit an emergency signal on guard D. alert the user that the unit is nearing maintenance |
cut the reserve pilot parachute, closing the loop and allowing the parachute to deploy |
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Switch the CYPRES (2) unit on by pressing the push-button __________ times.
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 |
4 |
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In order for the CYPRES (2) unit to maintain its calibration to precise ground level, how often does the unit measure the air pressure?
A. Every minute B. Twice a minute C. Every five minutes D. Every ten minutes |
Twice a minute |
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The CYPRES (2) automatically runs a self-test every time it is switched on. If the self-test detects an error, which of the following occurs?
A. The unit stays on, displaying a flashing error code B. The unit displays an error code with a flashing red LED light C. The unit will display the error and turn itself off D. The unit turns off with no error code |
The unit will display the error code and turn itself off |
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The model 7000 APRR is available in two different altitude settings. What are the two settings?
A. 8,000 and 12,000 feet B. 10,000 and 12,000 feet C. 10,000 and 14,000 feet D. 12,000 and 14,000 feet |
10,000 and 14,000 feet |
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Before the APRR preset altitude has been reached, which component(s) of the release assembly prevent the firing mechanism from firing?
A. Actuator stop B. Firing safety lock C. Gear assembly lock D. Aneroid and sear mechanism |
Aneroid and sear mechanism |
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During APRR operation, what action results from the forward movement of the piston and its attached power cable?
A. Aneroid sear releases the firing mechanism B. Main powder charge in the cartridge explodes C. Arming cable is pulled below the preset altitude D. Locking pins are pulled and the parachute opening sequence begins |
Locking pins are pulled and the parachute opening sequence begins |
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If any defect is found while inspecting the APRR ripcord release assembly, what action should you take?
A. Affix a tag to the assembly denoting "NOT FOR USE" B. Remove and scrap the entire assembly C. Return the assembly to its manufacture D. Salvage any workable parts from the assembly |
Affix a tag to the assembly denoting "NOT FOR USE" |
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What manual gives you information on the APRR cartridge service life/total life?
A. NAVAIR 11-10-100 B. NAVAIR 11-100-1.1 C. NAVAIR 11 13-1-6.9 D. NAVAIR 11-3710 |
NAVAIR 11-100-1.1 |
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To perform maintenance on the APRR assembly, you must follow the procedures outlined in __________.
A. NAVAIR 11-10-100 B. NAVAIR 11-100-1.1 C. NAVAIR 13-1-6.2 D. NAVAIR 13-1-6.9 |
NAVAIR 13-1-6.2 |
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Before using the test set, what must the test chamber altimeter barometer pressure read?
A. 29.29 inches B. 29.87 inches C. 29.90 inches D. 29.92 inches |
29.92 inches |
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The CYPRES (2) unit is waterproof for up to 24 hours to a depth of __________ feet.
A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20 |
5 |
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After __________ hours have passed, the CYPRES (2) unit will switch itself off automatically, regardless of whether jumper is in freefall.
A. 12 B. 14 C. 18 D. 24 |
14 |
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On the CYPRES (2) unit, what number is initially displayed when the unit goes on self-test?
A. 0 B. 5 C. 10 D. 15 |
10 |
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General maintenance on the CYPRES (2) is outlined in the __________.
A. AG-500AO-MME-000 B. AG-500SL-MRC-100 C. NAVAIR 13-1-32 D. NAVSEA SS400-AX-MMO-010 Rev 1 |
NAVSEA SS400-AX-MMO-010 Rev 1 |
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Which of the following parachute assemblies is packed into a rigid metal container?
A. A/P28S-32 B. MT-2XX/SL C. MC-6 D. G-12 |
A/P28S-32 |
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The A/P28S-32 canopy consists of how many gores?
A. 7 B. 8 C. 20 D. 28 |
20 |
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What is the maximum aircraft exit altitude for the MT-2XX/SL parachute assembly?
A. 2,500 feet AGL B. 3,500 feet AGL C. 25,000 feet MSL D. 35,000 feet MSL |
25,000 feet MSL |
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Which of the following is not a component of the deployment system of the MT-2XX/SL parachute assembly configured for free-fall?
A. Bridle B. Static line C. Deployment bag D. Pilot parachute assembly |
Static line |
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Which of the following parachute assemblies uses seven dual-opening cells on the leading edge of the canopy?
A. A/P28S-32 B. MT-2XX/SL C. MC-6 D. G-12 |
MT-2XX/SL |
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What is the purpose of the crossports openings in the MT-2XX/SL canopy?
A. To reduce weight B. To increase frame rigidity C. To allow spanwise air flow D. To provide steering capability |
To allow spanwise air flow |
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Which lines are attached to the trailing edge of the MT-2XX/SL canopy?
A. A suspension lines B. B suspension lines C. Static lines D. Steering lines |
Steering lines |
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The MT-2XX/SL reserve parachute is packed into which compartment of the pack/harness assembly?
A. Lower compartment B. Upper compartment C. Inner deployment bag D. Metal rigid container |
Upper compartment |
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The MT-2XX/SL reserve parachute uses what type of canopy?
A. 5-cell ram air canopy B. 7-cell ram air canopy C. 20-gore aero-conical D. 20-gore aero-conical with a single drive vent |
7-cell ram air canopy |
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What is the minimum exit height for the MC-6 parachute assembly?
A. 500 feet AGL B. 500 feet MSL C. 2,500 feet AGL D. 2,500 feet MSL |
500 feet AGL |
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How fast can an MC-6 parachute assembly complete a 360-degree turn?
A. 5 seconds B. 10 seconds C. 15 seconds D. 20 seconds |
5 seconds |
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Which MC-6 canopy component allows positive airflow through providing forward drive?
A. Crossports B. Drive vents C. Extended gores D. Anti-inversion netting |
Drive vents |
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Which of the following parachute assemblies was designed to decelerate and stabilize bulky platform loads?
A. A/P28S-32 B. MT-2XX/SL C.MC-6 D. G-12 |
G-12 |
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How many variants are there of the A/P28S-32 parachute?
A. Two B. Three C. Four D.Five |
Three |
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Which of the following parachute assemblies uses a rocket motor attached to the withdrawal line? A. A/P28S-32 B. MT-2XX/SL C. MC-6 D. G-12 |
A/P28S-32 |
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Which of the following parachute assemblies is a seven-cell ram-air design? A. A/P28S-32 B. MT-2XX/SL C. MC-6 D. G-12 |
MT-2XX/SL |
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What is the maximum total all-up weight for the MT-2XX/SL parachute assembly? A. 320 pounds B. 360 pounds C. 400 pounds D. 440 pounds |
360 pounds |
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What function does the slider provide on the MT-2XX/SL parachute? A. Hauling B. Reaching C. Reefing D. Steering |
Reefing |
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Which of the following parachute assemblies uses a wing-shaped canopy? A. A/P28S-32 B. MT-2XX/SL C. MC-6 D. G-12 |
MT-2XX/SL |
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How many crossports are in the ribs of the MT-2XX/SL canopy? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four |
Two |
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Which of the suspension lines on the MT-2XX/SL is one continuous line running from the canopy attachment point to the connector link and then back to the canopy? A. Lines 1C and 1D B. Lines 5A and 5B C. Cascaded steering lines D. Drogue/slider lines |
Lines 5A and 5B |
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Which lines are attached to the leading edge of the MT-2XX/SL canopy? A. A suspension lines B. B suspension lines C. Static lines D. Steering lines |
A suspension lines |
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The MC-6 parachute system is capable of supporting how many pounds? A. 320 B. 360 C. 400 D. 440 |
400 |
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What is the decent rate of the MC-6 parachute assembly? A. 10.5 to 14.5 feet per second B. 12.0 to 16.0 feet per second C. 14.5 to 18.5 feet per second D. 15.5 to 20.5 feet per second |
14.5 to 18.5 feet per second |
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Where are the drive vents located on the MC-6 canopy? A. On the canopy hem B. On gores 2, 26, and 28 C. On gores 4, 5, 6, and 7 D. On gore 9, 11, 13, 15, 17, and 19 |
On gores 2, 26, and 28 |
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Which of the following parachute assemblies is capable of supporting 2,200 pounds? A. A/P28S-32 B. MT-2XX/SL C. MC-6 D. G-12 |
G-12 |
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How much does the G-12 parachute assembly weigh? A. 12 pounds B. 24 pounds C. 42 pounds D. 128 pounds |
128 pounds |
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What is the primary function of flight clothing? A. Appearance B. Comfort C. Protection D. All of the above |
Protection |
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What purpose is emphasized when designing materials used to manufacture flight clothing? A. Lengthen service life B. Provide comfort C. Improve survival chances D. Provide a nice appearance |
Improve survival chances |
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Flight clothing maintenance is divided into how many categories? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four |
Two |
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Who schedules preventive maintenance for all aircrew personal protective equipment within a squadron? A. Maintenance/material control officer B. Production control chief C. Shop chief D. Quality assurance |
Maintenance/material control officer |
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When signing a maintenance document, you are required to perform which of the following actions? A. Print your name B. Use your initials only C. Sign your full name D. Any of the above |
Sign your full name |
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The Aircrew Personal Protective Equipment History Card is divided into how many sections? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four
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Three |
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Which of the following is the only authority that can authorize modification to survival equipment? A.NMPC B. OPNAV C. COMFAIR D. NAVAIRSYSCOM |
NAVAIRSYSCOM |
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The CWU-27/P and CWU-73/P summer flying coveralls are made from an aramid cloth. This material will not support combustion, but will begin to char a what temperature? |
700° to 800°F |
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What are the available sizes for the GS/FRP-2 flyer's gloves? A. 4 through 12 B. 6 through 12 C. 7 through 14 D. 8 through 14 |
4 through 12 |
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The CMU series survival vest provides maximum storage for survival equipment. In addition, it facilitates integration of which of the following items? A. A life preserver B. Anti-g coveralls C. A chest-mounted oxygen regulator D. All of the above |
All of the above |
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What air temperature requires that anti-exposure suits be worn?
A. 32°F or below B. 40°F or below C. 45°F or below D. 50°F or below |
32°F or below |
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What is the only difference between the A/P22P-6(V)2 and the A/P22P-6A(V)2 anti-exposure assemblies? A. The type of coveralls B. The type of material C. The type of gloves D. The type of liner |
The type of liner |
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The CWU-23/P liner is supplied in how many sizes? A. 8 B. 10 C. 12 D. 14 |
12 |
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What magnitude of g-force causes the blood pressure between the head and the heart to approximately equal the arterial blood pressure? A. Four B. Five C. Six D. Seven |
Five |
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What is the primary system component of the anti-g garment that applies pressure to the lower extremities during increased g-forces? A. Bladder B. Compressor C. Eductor D. Turbine |
Bladder |
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When are preflight inspections required for anti-g garments? A. After every flight and not to exceed 14 days B. After every flight and not to exceed 180 days C. Before every flight and not to exceed 14 days D. Before every flight and not to exceed 180 days |
Before every flight and not to exceed 14 days |
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The PCU-26/P and PCU-26A/P torso harness assemblies are exclusively designed for use by which of the following squadrons? A. Amphibious assault squadron B. Fleet air reconnaissance squadron C. Flight demonstration squadron D. Mine countermeasures squadron |
Flight demonstration squadron |
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What is the construction composition of the HGU-84/P helmet shell? A. High-impact plastic molded over a flexible composite alloy frame B. Interwoven Kevlar fabric laced with synthetic fiberglass C. Multi-layer mixed composite of graphite fabric and ballistic nylon fabric D. Teflon-coated krypton shell integrated with a carbon fiber skeleton |
Multi-layer mixed composite of graphite fabric and ballistic nylon fabric |
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Which of the following is a lightweight inner helmet liner constructed of five preformed plastic layers that can be custom fitted by heating the liner and forming to the aircrew member’s head? A. Anti-exposure liner assembly B. Helmet shell assembly C. Integrated ear cup assembly D. Thermoplastic liner assembly |
Thermoplastic liner assembly |
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Which of the following is a reason why a retainer is used to secure the terminal end of the internal NVIIS wiring harness to the left side of the helmet mounting block? A. Allows for voice activation of the NVIIS night vision system B. Prevents incorrect connection of the wiring harness C. Provides a stow position for the communications boom microphone D. Provides a test port for performing NVIIS testing and diagnostics |
Prevents incorrect connection of the wiring harness |
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Which of the following special use visors offers protection from laser devices? A. Amber lens B. Gradient lens C. Neodymium lens D. Radon lens |
Neodymium lens |
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The MBU-12/P oxygen mask will continue to function at a depth of A. 10 feet underwater B. 12 feet underwater C. 16 feet underwater D. 20 feet underwater |
16 feet underwater |
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Which of the following is the g-application oxygen mask that was specifically developed for high-performance aircraft? A. HGU-84 B. MBU-12 C. MBU-23 D. TTU-489 |
MBU-23 |
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What factor decides the difference between protection and comfort? A. Aircraft design B. Operational requirements C. Size of the aircrew member D. Type of material |
Operational requirements |
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Planned maintenance for flight clothing is performed at what level of maintenance? A. O-level B. I-level C. Depot level D. The level set forth in the COMNAVAIRFORINST 4790.2 |
The level set forth in the COMNAVAIRFORINST 4790.2 |
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When you clean a helmet, what type of maintenance are you performing? A. Calendar B. Corrective C. Phase D. Preventive |
Preventive |
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Which of the following may be used to make entries on a maintenance document? A. A blue pen B. A black pen C. A typewriter D. Any of the above |
Any of the above |
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What document is used to record personal protective equipment that has been issued to an aircrew member? A. DD 1348 B. Aircrew Personal Protective History Card C. NAVAIR 1348 D. Form 4790/2E |
Aircrew Personal Protective History Card |
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When you are working with personal protective equipment, which of the following NAVAIR manuals is most helpful? A. 13-1-6.7 B. 1-1-6.5 C. 17-1-6.4 D. 13-1-6.2 |
13-1-6.7 |
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What field activity has cognizance over most life support and survival equipment? A. NWC, China Lake, Ca B. NAVAIRDEVCEN, Warminster, PA C. NAEC, Lakehurst, NJ D. NAEC, San Diego, CA |
NAVAIRDEVCEN, Warminster, PA |
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If you are requested to sew a group of patches on a flight jacket, you would be allowed to sew up to how many square inches of patches? A. 150 square inches B. 100 square inches C. 50 square inches D. There is no limit. |
50 square inches |
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The CWU-27/P and CWU-73/P coveralls can be washed and dried in up to which of the following temperatures before damage or shrinkage occurs? A. 100°F water and 120°F drying temperature B. 120°F water and 160°F drying temperature C. 110°F water and 140°F drying temperature D. 140°F water and 180°F drying temperature |
140°F water and 180°F drying temperature |
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Flyers’ boots come in which of the following size ranges? A. 4 narrow through 14 1/2 extra wide B. 5 1/2 wide through 13 regular C. 5 1/2 narrow through 15 1/2 narrow D. 6 regular through 16 wide |
4 narrow through 14 1/2 extra wide |
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Anti-exposure suits must be worn in what maximum water temperature? A. 32°F or below B. 40°F or below C. 50°F or below D. 65°F or below |
50°F or below |
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Which of the following are design characteristics of the A/P22P series anti-exposure assemblies? A. Continuous wear type B. Quick-donning type C. Both A and B above D. None of the above |
Both A and B above |
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What size criteria should be used to fit anti-exposure assemblies to aircrew members? A. Suit size B. Height, weight, and chest measurements C. Chest and height measurements D. Torso measurement |
Height, weight, and chest measurements |
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The CWU-62/P anti-exposure coverall is supplied in how many sizes? A. 9 B. 10 C. 11 D. 12 |
12 |
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What type of garment provides protection from the effects of high g-forces experienced by aircrew assigned to high performance aircraft? A. Anti-exposure B. Anti-g C. Survival vest D. Torso harness |
Anti-g |
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Which technical manual provides the fitting guidelines for the CSU-13B/P anti-g garment? A. NAVAIR 13-1-6.7-2 B. NAVSEA SS400-A1-MMO-010 C. OPNAV 5510.34A D. SECNAV 1000.10A |
NAVAIR 13-1-6.7-2 |
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Where is the gated D-ring attached to the PCU-56 harness? A. Left and right shoulders B. Right shoulder C. Left shoulder D. Cross-connector strap |
Right shoulder |
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Which manual would you use to find authorized aircraft applications for the PCU-26 harness? A. NAVAIR 13-1-6.2 B. NAVAIR 13-1-6.3 C. NAVAIR 13-1-6.5 D. NAVAIR 13-1-6.7 |
NAVAIR 13-1-6.2 |
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In which of the following technical manuals would you find the helmet configuration and application matrix? A. NAVAIR 00-25-100 B. NAVAIR 00-35QH-2 C. NAVAIR 13-1-6.7-3 D. NAVAIR A6-215PC-MEB-000 |
NAVAIR 13-1-6.7-3 |
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Which of the following visor assemblies affords enhanced visual acuity during flights conducted in overcast or hazy conditions? A. Amber visor B. Gradient visor C. Neodymium visor D. Optical density visor |
Amber visor |
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Which of the following helmet assembly series was designed to replace the HGU-33/P series helmet? A. HGU-52/P B. HGU-55/P C. HGU-68(V)/P D. HGU-89/P22P-16 |
HGU-68(V)/P |
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Before and after each mission, who is responsible for performing the preflight and postflight inspections on the helmet assembly? A. The plane captain B. The aircrew member C. The maintenance control chief D. The aircrew survival equipmentman |
The aircrew member |
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Which of the following manuals provides complete information on MBU-12/P oxygen mask configuration buildups? A. NAVAIR 13-1-6.1 B. NAVAIR 13-1-6.4 C. NAVAIR 13-1-6.7-3 D. NAVAIR 00-80T-101 |
NAVAIR 13-1-6.7-3 |
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When fitting the mask to an aviator, how far are the bayonet fittings inserted into the receiver assembly? A. Until it is snug B. To the first locking position C. To the third locking position D. To the second locking position |
To the second locking position |
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Which of the following manuals covers rescue and survival equipment? A. NAVAIR 13-1-6.7 B. NAVAIR 13-1-6.5 C. NAVAIR 13-1-6.2 D. NAVAIR 13-1-6.1 |
NAVAIR 13-1-6.5 |
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The dye marker ceases to be a good target after __________. A. 1 hour B. 2 hours C. 45 minutes D. 30 minutes |
1 hour |
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On a bright sunny day, the flashes from a signal mirror can be seen from a distance of __________ miles. A. 10 B. 20 C. 40 D. 50 |
40 |
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The minimum duration of the Mk 79 Mod 0 signal kit is __________ seconds. A. 4 B. 4 1/2 C. 5 D. 5 1/2 |
4 1/2 |
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Which of the following distress signals is commonly called a strobe light? A. SL-5/E B. LT-65 C. SLT-73/E D. SDU-39/N |
SDU-39/N |
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What person/activity is responsible for the medical items that are contained in packet number one of the SRU-31/P? A. Squadron supply officer B. Local medical department C. Squadron PR D. Aircrew member |
Local medical department |
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A bag of Emergency Drinking Water contains approximately __________ ounces of drinking water. A. 4 B. 6 C. 8 D. 10 |
4 |
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A survivor should never touch a rescue device until it has touched the ground or water for what reason? A. The device must be stopped first B. The device has to be grounded to prevent electrical shock C. To ensure the device will not release unexpectedly D. The survivor must be sure the helicopter is on the proper wind line |
The device has to be grounded to prevent electrical shock |
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Rescue slings are subject to a calendar inspection upon issue and at intervals not to exceed __________ days. A. 60 B. 90 C. 120 D. 225 |
225 |
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The TRISAR harness assembly provides a minimum of __________ pounds of buoyancy. A. 25 B. 30 C. 35 D. 40 |
35 |
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The cable grip is an emergency condition device that is capable of supporting __________ pounds. A. 1,000 B. 1,500 C. 2,000 D. 2,500 |
1,000 |
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After cleaning the pneumatic rescue hand tool, you should lightly coat the cutting edge of the blade with __________. A. light weight oil B. bearing grease C. pneumatic grease D. heavy weight oil |
pneumatic grease |
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Rescue and survival items may be carried in which of the following places? A. Life rafts B. Droppable kits C. On aircrewmen D. All of the above |
All of the above |
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How long does it take to exhaust a dye marker? A. 1 hour B. 10 to 15 minutes C. 20 to 30 minutes D. 30 to 50 minutes |
20 to 30 minutes |
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How far can the dye marker be seen from an altitude of 3,000 feet? A. 3 miles B. 5 miles C. 8 miles D. 10 miles |
10 miles |
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The signaling mirror can produce a light equivalent to __________ candlepower. A. 6,000,000 B. 8,000,000 C. 10,000,000 D. 11,000,000 |
8,000,000 |
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How many Mk 80 cartridges are in a Mk 79 Mod 0 signal kit? A. 7 B. 8 C. 10 D. 12 |
7 |
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How many feet can the Mk 80 signal flare travel when propelled upward? A. 100 B. 150 C. 200 D. 250 |
250 |
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Each end of the Mk 124 Mod 0 signal flare will burn for approximately __________ seconds. A. 10 B. 20 C. 30 D. 40 |
20 |
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The SDU-39/N distress light should be inspected __________. A. annually B. semi-annually C. each time the aircrewman’s flight gear is inspected D. every 120 days |
each time the aircrewman’s flight gear is inspected |
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How many times per minute for each 2-minute duration is the SDU-39/N required to flash? A. 50 plus or minus 10 B. 40 plus or minus 5 C. 30 plus or minus 10 D. 20 plus or minus 5 |
50 plus or minus 10 |
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The eye ointment of the SRU-31/P survival kit has an expiration date of __________ years. A. 7 B. 2 C. 3 D. 5 |
2 |
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What is the purpose of the rations carried by aircrew personnel? A. To provide subsistence B. To alleviate thirst C. To provide nourishment D. To provide quick energy only |
To provide quick energy only |
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The service/shelf life of bagged drinking water is __________ years from the date of manufacture. A. 4 B. 5 C. 6 D. 8 |
5 |
|
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What publication would you refer to for information on search and rescue procedures at sea? A. COMNAVAIRFORINST 4790.2 B. NAVAIR 80T-101 C. NWP 19-1 D. OPNAV 3710.7 |
NWP 19-1 |
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The rescue strop is a buoyant device consisting of a __________ filling. A. closed-cell foam B. styrofoam C. foam rubber D. polyurethane |
closed-cell foam |
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The rescue strop is identified by what color(s)? A. Red B. Orange C. Yellow D. Red and white |
Orange |
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The rescue sling is designed to accommodate __________ survivor(s) at a time. A. 4 B. 3 C. 2 D. 1 |
1 |
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What is inserted in the base of the rescue seat to minimize roll and provide the proper degree of submergence in the water? A. Sand B. Lead C. Copper D. Stainless steel |
Lead |
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How much weight does the large rescue hook support? A. 1,000 pounds B. 1,500 pounds C. 3,000 pounds D. 4,000 pounds |
3,000 pounds |
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How much weight does the small rescue hook support? A. 500 pounds B. 600 pounds C. 800 pounds D. 1,000 pounds |
1,000 pounds |
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The ring at the bottom of the rescue hook supports __________ pounds. A. 1,000 B. 1,500 C. 2,000 D. 3,000 |
1,500 |
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What is the distance between the rescue hook and the hoist quick-splice plate? A. 4 inches B. 6 inches C. 8 inches D. 12 inches |
6 inches |
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The pneumatic rescue hand tool operates on a nitrogen gas cylinder with a pressure of __________ psi. A. 1,000 B. 1,500 C. 2,000 D. 3,000 |
3,000 |
|
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What is the maximum diameter of stainless steel cable that the pneumatic rescue hand tool can cut? A. 1/8 inch B. 1/4 inch C. 5/8 inch D. 7/32 inch |
7/32 inch |
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When performing a leakage test on a life raft, you must wait a minimum of how many hours to check and record the test pressure again? A. 2 B. 4 C. 8 D. 24 |
4 |
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How often are CO2 cylinders for multiplace life rafts required to be hydrostatically tested? A. Yearly B. Every 2 years C. Every 3 years D. Every 5 years |
Every 5 years |
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The CNO has established that life rafts will carry enough equipment for an aircrew member to be capable of surviving for how long? A. 12 hours B. 24 hours C. 72 hours D. 96 hours |
24 hours |
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When applying cement to a patch for a life raft, approximately how long should you wait between the first and the second coat? A. 10 minutes B. 15 minutes C. 20 minutes D. 25 minutes |
10 minutes |
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You must scallop the edge of a patch that is larger than what maximum size? A. 2 inches B. 3 inches C. 5 inches D. 6 inches |
5 inches |
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What is the buoyancy rating of a properly inflated LPU-34/P series life preserver? A. 40 pounds B. 60 pounds C. 65 pounds D. 70 pounds |
65 pounds |
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Which of the following is the primary means of inflating an LPU-36/P series life preserver? A. Firing the SEAWARS system B. Pulling the beaded handles C. Actuating the explosives primer D. FLU-8 automatic inflation water sensor |
Pulling the beaded handles |
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Which of the following is the preferred life preserver to be used by a passenger on a Naval aircraft? A. LPU-32/P B. LPU-34/P C. LPU-36/P D. LPU-37/P |
LPU-32/P |
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What size CO2 cylinders are used with the LPU-32/P life preserver? A. 12 gram B. 16 gram C. 33 gram D. 38 gram |
16 gram |
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How long should you wait for the FLU-8 circuit to stabilize before you take the voltage readings? A. 10 seconds B. 15 seconds C. 20 seconds D. 25 seconds |
15 seconds |
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How many times should you operate the beaded inflation handles to ensure the piercing pin moves properly? A. Two or three B. Three or four C. Five or six D. Eight |
Three or four |
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What shall you use to clean the threads on a life preserver’s CO2 inflation cylinder? A. A wire brush B. A thread chaser die C. A jeweler’s file D. A soft cloth |
A thread chaser die |
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When replacing a CO2 cylinder in a FLU-8 inflation device, you must ensure that the CO2 cylinder weighs no less than how many grams of its minimum stamped weight? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 |
2 |
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To clean a life raft you would use a cleaning compound mixed with water. This mixture should consist of one part of compound to how many parts of water? A. Three B. Four C. Five D. Six |
Three |
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When installing an inflation valve onto a CO2 cylinder that will be used on a multiplace life raft, you would torque it to how many inch-pounds? A. 400 ± 40 B. 600 ± 60 C. 800 ± 80 D. 900 ± 90 |
600 ± 60 |
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When repairing a loose or missing seam tape on a life raft, you must overlap the seam tape on other seams at least how many inches? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 |
1 |
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How many coats of cement are applied to the life raft when you make a repair? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four |
Two |
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How long must you wait before applying talcum powder to the patch area? A. 12 hours B. 24 hours C. 36 hours D. 48 hours |
48 hours |
|
|
How much does the LPU-34/P series life preserver weigh? A. 3.00 pounds B. 3.25 pounds C. 4.00 pounds D. 4.50 pounds |
3.25 pounds |
|
|
The LPU-34/P series life preserver has how many inflatable bladders? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four |
Two |
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|
How many times can the FLU-8 automatic inflator be used before it must be replaced? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four |
One |
|
|
What is the buoyancy rating of a properly inflated LPU-32/P life preserver? A. 32 pounds B. 40 pounds C. 50 pounds D. 65 pounds |
40 pounds |
|
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Which of the following test equipment is required to perform a battery voltage test on a life preserver inflation device? A. Analog Multimeter B. Continuity Tester C. Digital Multimeter D. Non-contact Voltage Tester |
Digital Multimeter |
|
|
What would a multimeter reading of -12V indicate when performing a battery voltage test on a FLU-8 inflation device? A. The battery is fully charged B. The battery charge is depleted C. The battery is installed backwards D. The multimeter is on the wrong setting |
The battery is installed backwards |
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How much force is applied to an actuating lanyard of a life preserver when performing an inflation lanyard pull test? A. 10 pounds B. 15 pounds C. 20 pounds D. 25 pounds |
25 pounds |
|
|
To ensure a firm seat in the FLU-8 valve body, the CO2 cylinder must have a minimum of how many threads? A. 5 B. 6 C. 7 D. 8 |
7 |
|
|
How much torque is applied to install the sensor plug cap on an FLU-8? A. 5 inch-pounds B. 6 inch-pounds C. 7 inch-pounds D. 8 inch-pounds |
5 inch-pounds |
|
|
The two yellow manual deployment handles used to release the rucksack are located where on the SKU-10 seat survival kit assembly? A. Rear of the assembly B. Front of the assembly C. Left side of the assembly D. Bottom of the assembly |
Rear of the assembly |
|
|
What component prevents oxygen from the emergency oxygen system from flowing into the aircraft O2 system? A. Aircraft O2 pressure B. Poppet valve C. Check valve in the O2 mask D. Check valve in the O2 line |
Check valve in the O2 line |
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|
A hard landing would warrant which of the following inspections on a seat kit? A. Conditional B. SDLM C. Turnaround D. Postflight |
Conditional |
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|
When charging an O2 system, each filling stage should take at least __________. A. 5 minutes B. 2 minutes C. 3 minutes D. 4 minutes |
3 minutes |
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How long of a cooling period is required between each filling stage? A. 1 minute B. 2 minutes C. 3 minutes D. 4 minutes |
2 minutes |
|
|
When recharging an SKU-10 seat kit, what should the oxygen gauge display after stage 3? A. 1,000 B. 1,500 C. 1,800 D. 2,000 |
1,500 |
|
|
The emergency oxygen cylinder is mounted to which component of the SKU-10 seat survival kit assembly? A. Seat cushion B. Seat lid assembly C. Survival kit unit D. Lower container |
Seat lid assembly |
|
|
If the automatic actuation lanyard fails to activate the emergency oxygen system, what component should the aircrew member pull to manually operate the system? A. Yellow "O" ring B. Green knob C. Green handle D. Yellow release handle |
Green handle |
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Which of the following work centers is responsible for doing a 7- or 14-day inspection on a survival kit installed in an aircraft? A. QA division B. Aircraft division C. Aviator’s equipment branch D. Plane captain branch |
Aviator’s equipment branch |
|
|
What is the maximum time that can elapse between phase inspections on a seat kit? A. 28 days B. 91 days C. 12 months D. 24 months |
24 months |
|
|
You must purge the emergency O2 system when the system meets which of the following criteria? A. Falls below 5 psi B. Falls below 15 psi C. Has remained empty for less than 2 hours D. Has remained empty for more than 2 hours |
Has remained empty for more than 2 hours |
|
|
What component is used to release pressure in the oxygen bottle before purging? A. Filler valve B. Manual emergency oxygen operating handle C. Beacon/emergency oxygen lanyard D. Oxygen hose assembly |
Manual emergency oxygen operating handle |
|
|
If a seat kit is to be stored, __________ psi should remain in the O2 system. A. 200 B. 500 C. 900 D. 1,200 |
200 |
|
|
What color is CO2? A. Pale gray B. Dark gray C. Pale blue D. Colorless |
Colorless |
|
|
In its gaseous form, CO2 is how many times heavier than air? A. 1.50 B. 1 .53 C. 1.60 D. 1.63 |
1 .53 |
|
|
In its dry ice form, CO2 has what temperature? A. -32°F B. -40°F C. -90°F D. -110°F |
-110°F |
|
|
A CO2 recharge unit will pump CO2 in which of the following forms? A. Liquid or gas B. Liquid only C. Gas only D. Liquid, gas, or solid |
Liquid only |
|
|
All CO2 inflation cylinders must be painted _________. A. gray B. green C. red D. yellow |
gray |
|
|
A standard supply cylinder will contain how many pounds of CO2 gas? A. 10 B. 40 C. 50 D. 80 |
50 |
|
|
At a temperature of 88°F, CO2 gas can be converted into a liquid by applying a pressure of how many psi? A. 400 B. 500 C. 600 D. 700 |
600 |
|
|
Depending on temperature and pressure, CO2 can take on how many different stages? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four |
Three |
|
|
What effect does 3 percent of CO2 in the atmosphere have on the human body? A. It causes distorted vision B. It causes panting C. It causes unconsciousness D. It doubles a person’s breathing effort |
It doubles a person’s breathing effort |
|
|
If a person breathes air that has 10 percent CO2, what is the effect on the human body? A. It would cause blurred vision B. It would cause panting C. It would cause unconsciousness D. It would cause marked distress |
It would cause unconsciousness |
|
|
A standard CO2 supply cylinder will contain approximately how many pounds of liquid CO2 at a temperature of 70°F? A. 12 B. 28 C. 38 D. 50 |
38 |
|
|
Why is it a recommended procedure to invert the CO2 supply cylinder when recharging? A. It will prevent the hose fitting from freezing shut. B. The cylinder will remain cooler, allowing it to be filled faster. C. It allows the siphon tube to accept the gas. D. It allows the siphon tube to accept the liquid. |
The cylinder will remain cooler, allowing it to be filled faster. |
|
|
What should you do with a CO2 cylinder with a discernible bulge? A. Monitor carefully when filling B. Check the hydrostatic test date to ensure it has not expired before filling C. Fill only if approved by your supervisor D. Do not fill. Return to supply |
Do not fill. Return to supply |
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|
The hydrostatic test date is expired if it precedes the current date by how many years? A. More than 5 B. Less than 6 C. More than 3 D. Less than 4 |
More than 5 |
|
|
What does the term "tare weight" mean? A. The weight of a completely filled cylinder B. The weight of the empty cylinder before preparing for filling C. The weight of the empty cylinder and the value and cable assembly D. The weight of a partially filled cylinder before refilling |
The weight of the empty cylinder and the value and cable assembly |
|
|
The single-needle, compound-feed sewing machine makes which of the following federal standard stitches? A. 103 B. 200 C. 301 D. 400 |
301 |
|
|
The Consew 206RB sewing machine may be operated to what maximum number of stitches per minute (SPM)? A. 2200 B. 2800 C. 3500 D. 4000 |
3500 |
|
|
What is the proper measurement between the hook point and the upper end of the needle eye? A. 2.5 mm B. 2.4 mm C. 4.2 mm D. 1.2 mm |
2.4 mm |
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|
Where on the needle scarf should the sewing hook be located? A. Top B. Center C. Bottom D. Tip |
Center |
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|
The Consew 206RB is equipped with how many different presser feet? A. Two B. Four C. One D. Three |
Two |
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|
The size of the needle to be used should be determined by the size of the thread, which passes freely through the eye of the needle. CONSEW 206RB is set up to use which standard style needle? A. DPx17 B. DPx15 C. DPx12 D. DPx13 |
DPx17 |
|
|
New sewing machines should be cleaned to remove corrosion preventive substances that were applied at the factory. What substance is used to remove corrosion preventive substances? A. Stoddard solvent B. Freon 113 C. Diesel fuel D. JP-5 |
Diesel fuel |
|
|
What is the maximum psi of compressed air that can be used to clean a sewing machine? A. 25 B. 20 C. 22 D. 20.5 |
25 |
|
|
Hard to reach places on the sewing machine may be cleaned with _________. A. a medium soft bristle brush only B. low-pressure air only C. a medium soft bristle brush and low-pressure air D. a hard bristle bush only |
a medium soft bristle brush and low-pressure air |
|
|
A clean dust cloth should be used to clean all sewing machine parts EXCEPT the _________. A. head B. oil pan C. motor casing D. arm shaft |
arm shaft |
|
|
If the thread does not wind evenly on the bobbin, the first step to take is to _________. A. move the tension bracket to the right B. move the tension bracket to the left C. loosen the tension bracket screws D. tighten the tension bracket screws |
loosen the tension bracket screws |
|
|
After threading the machine, what is the purpose of holding the end of thread with your left hand and turning the machine pulley with your right hand? A. Allows the needle thread to pick up the bobbin thread. B. The presser foot will begin to operate. C. The bobbin will wind correctly. D. The tension bracket will set correctly. |
Allows the needle thread to pick up the bobbin thread. |
|
|
To time the sewing hook and the needle bar on the sewing machine, you should remove which of the following parts? A. Throat plate B. Feed dogs C. Presser feet D. All of the above |
All of the above |
|
|
What should determine the height of the lift of the alternating presser feet? A. Presser foot B. Lifting cam C. Material thickness D. Stitch type |
Material thickness |
|
|
If you cannot properly adjust the thread tension with the upper thread tension thumbnut, what action should you take? A. Change the size of thread. B. Change the needle size. C. Adjust the bobbin tension. D. Adjust the presser foot tension. |
Adjust the bobbin tension. |
|
|
The 31-15 sewing machine will sew canvas up to how many ounces? A. 4 B. 6 C. 8 D. 10 |
8 |
|
|
What is the clearance between the presser foot and the throat plate on the 31-15 sewing machine? A. One-fourth inch B. One-eighth inch C. Seven-sixteenths inch D. Five-sixteenths inch |
Five-sixteenths inch |
|
|
When you set the needle bar on the 31-15 and it starts its upstroke, what is the distance of the hook in relation to the eye of the needle? A. One-sixteenth inch above B. One-sixteenth inch below C. One-eighth inch above D. One-eighth inch below |
One-sixteenth inch above |
|
|
To set the feed-driving eccentric, the set regulator must be set to _________. A. center point B. highest point C. lowest point D. stopping point |
lowest point |
|
|
The feeding action of the Consew 206BR sewing machine allows which components to move in unison? A. The lifting presser foot, the pinion gear, and the feed dogs B. The vibrating presser, the needle, and the feed dogs C. The lifting presser, the needle bar, and the feed dogs D. The vibrating presser, the lifting presser, the needle, and the feed dogs |
The vibrating presser, the needle, and the feed dogs |
|
|
The Consew 206BRsewing machine has a stitch per inch (SPI) range of _________. A. 3 1/2 to 30 B. 5 to 32 C. 3 1/2 to 32 D. 5 to 30 |
3 1/2 to 32 |
|
|
What is the proper clearance between the hoot point and the needle hollow for the hook and needle bar to be considered in time? A. .05 to .1mm B. .1 to .15mm C. .05 to 2mm D. .02 to .25mm |
.05 to .1mm |
|
|
The Consew 206BR sewing machine is classified as what type of sewing machine? A. Swing-type B. Rotar-type C. Oscillating-type D. Serger-type |
Rotar-type |
|
|
The Singer 31-15 is an oscillating shuttle machine. The descriptive term oscillating shuttle refers to _________. A. the action of the sewing hook B. the way it makes a stitch in uneven with the needle C. the established route of the shuttle D. the action of the needle bar |
the action of the sewing hook |
|
|
An accumulation of dust and lint will cause the same sluggish operation problem as which other part? A. Loose power belt B. Loose stitch regulator C. Loose rotating hook D. Loose bobbin wind |
Loose power belt |
|
|
After using a sewing machine, you should always _________. A. clean and oil the machine B. empty the oil pan C. change the machine stand D. change the belt |
clean and oil the machine |
|
|
An excessive amount of oil on the working parts of any sewing machine will probably result in which of the following conditions? A. The oil will dry out and cause grease to form on friction surfaces B. The oil will drip on materials being sewn and soil the project C. The oil will accumulate in the drip pan and overflow on the drive motor D. The oil will cause condensation that will drip into the drive motor |
The oil will drip on materials being sewn and soil the project |
|
|
At what minimum interval should sewing machines be given a thorough cleaning and oiling? A. Every 3 mo B. Every 6 mo C. Every 12 mo D. Every 18 mo |
Every 12 mo |
|
|
If unable to obtain the recommended types of oil required by the manufacturer, what oil substitute can be used? A. Cod oil B. Turbine oil C. Mineral oil D. STP oil treatment |
Mineral oil |
|
|
When removing and inserting the bobbin, what step must be done to keep the bobbin from dropping out of the case when it is turned with the open side down? A. Keep the hinged latch at the back of the bobbin case open B. Keep the hinged latch at the front of the bobbin case open C. Keep the tension spring at the back of the bobbin case open D. Keep the tension spring at the front of the bobbin case open |
Keep the hinged latch at the front of the bobbin case open |
|
|
Which of the following actions allows you to adjust the movement of the feed dogs? A. Loosen the feed dog fork B. Loosen the feed driving crank pinch screw C. Remove the throat plate D. Remove the feed driving cam |
Loosen the feed driving crank pinch screw |
|
|
Which of the following parts control the feeding motion provided by the alternating pressers? A. Lifting (rear) presser foot B. Feed driving rock shaft C. Vibrating (front) presser foot D. Feed driving cam |
Vibrating (front) presser foot |
|
|
What is the purpose of the thread controller spring? A. It prevents the bobbin thread from breaking B. It prevents the upper thread from breaking C. It prevents the sewing hook from piercing the thread D. It prevents the needle from piercing the thread |
It prevents the needle from piercing the thread |
|
|
If your machine is hard to turn after you time and adjust it, which of the following actions must be performed first? A. Check the feeding action B. Remove the arm shaft connection belt C. Remove the throat plate and set the stitches to zero D. Turn the balance wheel |
Check the feeding action |
|
|
What is the stitch range on the 31-15? A. 5 to 30 SPI B. 7 to 32 SPI C. 5 to 27 SPI D. 7 to 27 SPI |
7 to 32 SPI |
|
|
Which of the following is the main timing point on a 31-15 sewing machine? A. Hook drive gear B. Hook pinion gear C. Needle bar D. Balance wheel |
Needle bar |
|
|
To set the feeding action on a 31-15 sewing machine, you must loosen which of the following screws? A. Feed dogs setscrew B. Feed dog cam fork setscrew C. Feed-driving rock shaft crank pinch screw D. Feed-driving rock shaft connection pinch screw |
Feed-driving rock shaft crank pinch screw |
|
|
The first step in setting the press bar is to turn the balance wheel until the feed dogs are just below the top of the _________. A. throat plate B. press bar guide C. feed-driving rockshaft D. guide lever |
throat plate |
|
|
What term describes the edge of a fabric that has a woven finish to prevent raveling? A. Material edge B. Manufactured edge C. Finished edge D. Selvage edge |
Selvage edge |
|
|
Which of the following terms are alternative names for filling thread? A. Woof B. Pick C. Weft D. All of the above |
All of the above |
|
|
What is the purpose of a bias cut? A. Save material B. Prevent tearing between two sections C. Provide elasticity D. All of the above |
All of the above |
|
|
The term ―cloth‖ describes any material that is more than _________ inches from one selvage edge to the other. A. 10 B. 12 C. 14 D. 18 |
12 |
|
|
The ideal area for storing textile material would be dry, out of direct sunlight, and _________. A. 50°F B. 60°F C. 70°F D. 80°F |
70°F |
|
|
Military specifications for parachute assemblies require that after 50 hours of exposure to sunlight, parachute fabrics must have retained _________ of their original strength. A. 30% B. 40% C. 50% D. 60% |
50% |
|
|
Nylon has a melting point of _________. A. 382°F B. 482°F C. 540° F D. 600° F |
482°F |
|
|
If the bead on the slide fastener is torn, you should _________. A. repair the bead B. replace the bead C. replace the entire fastener D. replace only the broken side |
replace the entire fastener |
|
|
Why should you use yellow beeswax on hand sewing thread? A. Contains no oil B. Prevents fraying and untwisting C. Strengthens thread D. Both A and B |
Both A and B |
|
|
Which of the following knots is used to secure the parachute suspension lines to the connector links? A. Clove hitch B. Sheepshank C. Bowline D. Binder’s |
Clove hitch |
|
|
What is the basic unit used in the fabrication of textile yarns and fabrics? A. Staple B. Fiber C. Filler D. Warp |
Fiber |
|
|
Which threads in a fabric run lengthwise and are parallel to the selvage edge? A. Warp B. Filling C. Locking D. Basic |
Warp |
|
|
Bias cuts are made at a _________-degree angle to the filling threads. A. 180 B. 45 C. 90 D. 15 |
45 |
|
|
Which term describes the amount of force a material can withstand without breaking? A. Breaking strength B. Warp strength C. Tensile strength D. Filler strength |
Tensile strength |
|
|
The term "webbing" describes any material that that is less than _________ inches from one selvage edge to the other and weighs more than 15 ounces per square yard. A. 6 B. 8 C. 10 D. 12 |
12 |
|
|
NOMEX fabric will begin to _________ at approximately 700°F. A. burn B. char C. melt D. disintegrate |
char |
|
|
Which of the following is most detrimental to nylon fabric? A. Mildew B. Direct sunlight C. Salt water D. Insects |
Direct sunlight |
|
|
Air permeability directly affects which of the following attributes of parachute assemblies? A. Opening time B. Opening force C. Stability D. All of the above |
All of the above |
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Which of the following describes the term "moisture regain"? A. A measure of static electricity B. The percentage of moisture a fabric absorbs from the air C. The degree to which a fabric repels water D. The water permeability of a fabric |
The percentage of moisture a fabric absorbs from the air |
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What is the percentage of elasticity in nylon? A. 50% B. 75% C. 90% D. 100% |
100% |
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Nylon has what percent moisture regain? A. 2.5% B. 3.2% C. 4.2% D. 5.5% |
4.2% |
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When installing the chuck and die into a snap fastener press, the chuck is the _________ tool and the die is the _________. A. forward / rear B. rear / forward C. lower / upper D. upper / lower |
upper / lower |
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Which of the following grommet sizes is the smallest? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 |
1 |
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Which of the following methods is used to clean grease and dirt from a slide fastener? A. MEK B. Toluene C. Soap and water D. Stoddard solvent |
Stoddard solvent |
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After cleaning a slide fastener, it should be lubricated with _________. A. oil B. graphite C. oil or graphite, depending on the fabric D. silicone gel |
oil or graphite, depending on the fabric |
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When shortening an interlocking slide fastener, the chain should be how much shorter than the opening in the material? A. 1/4 inch B. 1/2 inch C. 3/4 inch D. 1 inch |
1/2 inch |
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Slide fasteners are supplied in how many sizes? A. Four B. Five C. Six D. Seven |
Five |
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Which of the following stitches is used to hold plies together temporarily before machine sewing? A. Basting B. Baseball C. Running D. Overthrow |
Basting |
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Which of the following stitches is used to sew an eyelet onto a parachute’s container? A. Baseball B. Overthrow C. Running D. Lock 301 |
Overthrow |
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Which hand stitch should you use when a neat appearance is required? A. Baseball B. Running C. Lock 301 D. Hidden |
Hidden |
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Sewing a hidden stitch requires a _________. A. 1 1/2-inch curved needle B. 2-inch straight needle C. 1 1/2-inch straight needle D. 2 1/2-inch curved needle |
2 1/2-inch curved needle |
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Which of the following are advantages of machine-sewn seams over hand-sewn seams? A. Uniform tension B. Fast completion C. Neat appearance D. All of the above |
All of the above |
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How many classes of seams are there? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four |
Three |
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What is the simplest knot for joining two cords or threads together? A. Binder’s knot B. Overhand knot C. Square knot D. Bowline knot |
Binder’s knot |
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What knot should you use for a safety tie on ripcord pins? A. Overhand B. Square C. Half hitch D. Bowline |
Half hitch |
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What type of equipment are aviators required to utilized above 43,000 feet? A. Positive pressure B. Demand regulator C. Negative pressure D. Fixed pressure |
Positive pressure |
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At what temperature is liquid oxygen (LOX) maintained? A. 182 F B. -182 F C. 297 F D. -297 F |
-297 F |
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How many linear flow elements can be found on the TTU-511/E test stand? A. Three B. Four C. Five D. Six |
Four |
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Weekly inspections are performed on the TTU-511/E test stand. These inspections may be broken down into operating hours. What total number of operating hours is considered a week? A. 35 hr B. 40 hr C. 50 hr D. 100 hr |
50 hr |
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Which of the following cleaning agents is used to clean external parts of the TTU-511/E test stand? A. MIL-C-81302, Type 1 B. MIL-C-6903A, Type 1 C. MIL-C-8939 D. MIL-C-2613 |
MIL-C-81302, Type 1 |
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What is the maximum pressure when using air for cleaning the TTU-511/E test stand interconnecting pipes, hoses, and fittings? A. 50 psi B. 160 psi C. 400 psi D. 500 psi |
160 psi |
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Who is responsible for calibrating the TTU-511/E test stand? A. PRs, E-6, or above B. On-site meteorology calibration team C. Martin-Baker technical representative D. Personnel assigned to depot level maintenance |
On-site meteorology calibration team |
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Which of the following items should be used to lubricate the TTU-511/E test stand bell jar o-ring after it has been cleaned? A. MIL-G-2489 B. MIL-G-2873 C. MIL-G-6903 D. MIL-G-27617 |
MIL-G-27617 |
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Which of the following TTU-511/E test stand components does NOT require a correction card? A. PG-1 B. PG-2 C. FLM-1 D. FLM-2 |
PG-2 |
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When are flow conversion entries made on the TTU-511/E test stand correction cards? A. During the leakage test B. During the daily test C. During test stand calibration D. During the test of an oxygen converter |
During test stand calibration |
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When preparing the TTU-511/E test stand differential pressure gauge correction card, you must connect the precision 0-to-100 inch H2O low-pressure gauge to which of the following components? A. Relief valve B. Flowmeter 125-250 mm C. Bell jar bottom coupling D. Pressure gauge calibration kit |
Bell jar bottom coupling |
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To complete the TTU-511/E test stand differential pressure gauge correction card after making the correction for 100 inches H2O, you must drop the pressure in what increments? A. 5 inches H2O B. 10 inches H2O C. 20 inches H2O D. 25 inches H2O |
20 inches H2O |
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The pointer of the TTU-511/E test stand low-pressure test gauge can be adjusted through which of the following methods? A. Turning the adjustment screw on the back of the gauge B. Turning the adjustment screw on the front of the gauge C. Opening the oxygen supply valve D. Closing the oxygen supply valve |
Turning the adjustment screw on the back of the gauge |
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When preparing the correction card for the TTU-511/E test stand low-pressure gauge, you make your first correction reading at 14 psig. How many other readings are required? A. Two B. Four C. Five D. Six |
Six |
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When preparing the TTU-511/E test stand linear flow elements correction card 4, oxygen supply valve V-6 is adjusted to the value for 150 lpm. Where do you observe the flow reading that is to be recorded on correction card 4? A. PG-1 B. PG-2 C. PG-3 D. PG-4 |
PG-2 |
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You should adjust TTU-511/E test stand relief valve V-11 to what value? A. 50 psi B. 90 psi C. 110 psi D. 120 psi |
110 psi |
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Where is the computer connected to the PORTS test stand? A. USB port B. Makeup port C. Connector J1 D. Output pressure sensing line |
USB port |
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Which of the following ports allows flow into and out of the chamber in order to control altitude on the PORTS test set? A. Anti-g B. Makeup C. High pressure D. Altitude sensing |
Makeup |
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The PORTS step down pressure system reduces the nitrogen source to approximately what pressure? A. 25 psig B. 50 psig C. 125 psig D. 250 psig |
250 psig |
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The PORTS pressure leak regulator is fixed at what pressure? A. 45 psi B. 55 psi C. 65 psi D. 75 psi |
55 psi |
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The PORTS makeup flow system is used during which of the following tests? A. Relief flow tests B. UUT outlet flow test C. Dilution regulator tests D. Inward and outward leak flow tests |
Dilution regulator tests |
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In what position are the flow, vacuum, and pressure valves placed when starting to use the PORTS? A. ON B. OFF C. OPEN D. CLOSED |
OFF |
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Who manufactures the CRU-103 regulator? A. RTD Ltd. B. Martin-Baker Ltd. C. East/West Industries Inc. D. Carleton Technologies Inc. |
Carleton Technologies Inc. |
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Up to what altitude does the CRU-103 regulator maintain a positive mask pressure between 0.5 and 1.8 inches H2O? A. 34,000 feet B. 43,000 feet C. 45,000 feet D. 50,000 feet |
34,000 feet |
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What type of regulator is the CRU-121(V)/A? A. Mini B. Demand C. Panel-mounted D. Forced breathing |
Panel-mounted |
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At what minimum altitude is it necessary to use a positive pressure breathing regulator? A. 18,000 ft B. 20,000 ft C. 25,000 ft D. 35,000 ft |
18,000 ft |
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A demand (inhalation) regulator CANNOT supply enough oxygen for the user above what maximum altitude? A. 32,000 ft B. 33,000 ft C. 35,000 ft D. 43,000 ft |
35,000 ft |
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What term is used to describe the condition when the body receives an insufficient amount of oxygen to function properly? A. Anoxia B. Asphyxia C. Hypoxia D. Suffocation |
Hypoxia |
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Which of the following terms refers to a complete lack of oxygen to the body? A. Anoxia B. Asphyxia C. Hypoxia D. Suffocation |
Anoxia |
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The atmosphere contains about what percentage of oxygen by volume? A. 10% B. 21% C. 33% D. 23% |
21% |
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Combustion is a form of rapid oxidation. Which of the following examples represents slow oxidation? A. Rusting iron B. Paint turning brittle C. Alcohol turning into vinegar D. All of the above |
All of the above |
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The atmosphere contains about what percentage of nitrogen by volume? A. 21% B. 23% C. 33% D. 78% |
78% |
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What is the weight of 2 gallons of liquid oxygen? A. 17.00 lb B. 19.08 lb C. 21.00 lb D. 21.08 lb |
19.08 lb |
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What is the expansion ratio when LOX is converted to gaseous state at atmospheric pressure? A. 520 to 1 B. 682 to 1 C. 862 to 1 D. 986 to 1 |
862 to 1 |
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With an applied pressure of 750 psi, at what temperature will oxygen begin to take on its liquid form? A. -147°F B. -182°F C. -280°F D. -297°F |
-182°F |
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Oxygen procured by the Navy and tested at a temperature of 70°F must have a purity of 99.5% and a water content of no more than how many milligrams per liter? A. 0.01 B. 0.02 C. 0.03 D. 0.04 |
0.02 |
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A deficit in oxygen is referred to as _________. A. altitude sickness B. hypoxia C. oxygen saturation D. anoxia |
hypoxia |
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Preparing the TTU-511/E test stand for use is divided into five separate tasks. Which of the following tasks is NOT accomplished by the PR? A. Installation B. Visual inspection C. Calibration D. Leakage testing |
Calibration |
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What is the inspection interval for the TTU-511/E test stand bell jar pressure relief valve? A. Daily B. Weekly C. Monthly D. Every 6 months |
Monthly |
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After removing the front panel on the TTU-511/E test stand, what maximum air pressure is used to remove dust and any foreign matter from the surfaces of the gauge tester? A. 10 psi B. 15 psi C. 25 psi D. 50 psi |
10 psi |
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Which of the following chemicals is used to clean the terminals of the liquid oxygen quantity gauge tester on the TTU-511/E test stand? A. Type I Freon B. Type II Freon C. Type I dry cleaning solvent D. Type II dry cleaning solvent |
Type I Freon |
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What should you use to clean the o-ring installed in the TTU-511/E test stand bell jar? A. Distilled water B. Natured alcohol C. Denatured alcohol D. Mild soap and water |
Distilled water |
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Which of the following manuals provides procedures for correction card preparation and for calibrating the TTU-511/E test stand? A. NAVAIR 13-1-6.4 B. NAVAIR 13-1-6.5 C. NAVAIR 17-15BC-23 D. NAVAIR 17-17CAL-2 |
NAVAIR 17-15BC-23 |
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What unit of measure is actual liter-per-minute converted to when preparing TTU-511/E test stand correction cards? A. Indicated millimeters B. psig C. Inches of water D. Inches of mercury |
Indicated millimeters |
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How many graphs are supplied with the calibration kit for the TTU-511/E test stand? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four |
Four |
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When preparing the TTU-511/E test stand differential pressure gauge correction card, what initial pressure is used to compare the readings on the 0-to-100-inch H2O low-pressure gauge and the differential pressure gauge? A. 25 inches H2O B. 50 inches H2O C. 75 inches H2O D. 100 inches H2O |
100 inches H2O |
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To prepare the TTU-511/E test stand test pressure gauge correction card, you must connect the bell jar bottom coupling to which of the following? A. 0 to 100 psig pressure gauge B. 0 to 200 psig pressure gauge C. 0 to 500 psig pressure gauge D. Differential pressure gauge |
0 to 200 psig pressure gauge |
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When preparing the correction card for the TTU-511/E test stand low-pressure test gauge, you must use the bleed valve to reduce the pressure indicated on the precision 0-200-psig pressure test gauge. What maximum increments are used to reduce the indicated pressure? A. 2 psig B. 5 psig C. 25 psig D. 50 psig |
2 psig |
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When preparing the TTU-511/E test stand linear flow element correction cards, you should start with which of the following lpm flow elements? A. 0 to 50 B. 0 to 100 C. 0 to 150 D. 0 to 200 |
0 to 150 |
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Which of the following manuals contains parts information on the TTU-511/E test stand? A. NAVAIR 13-5-501 B. NAVAIR 17-15BC-23 C. NAVAIR 17-18BC-30 D. COMNAVAIRFORINST 4790.2A |
NAVAIR 17-15BC-23 |
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Which of the following is not a major component of the PORTS? A. Test stand B. Unit under test C. Accessories kit D. Vacuum pump assembly |
Unit under test |
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Which PORTS valve is used to stabilize bouncing output pressure? A. Damper valve B. Flow select valve C. Pressure select valve D. Auxiliary flow control valve |
Damper valve |
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What is the operating range of the PORTS high-pressure system? A. 100 to 1,500 psig B. 200 to 2,500 psig C. 300 to 3,500 psig D. 400 to 4,500 psig |
200 to 2,500 psig |
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Which PORTS system provides the overall leak and bleed flow test? A. Vacuum B. Relief flow C. Step-down pressure D. Pressure leak and control |
Pressure leak and control |
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What is the operating range of the PORTS altitude control/makeup flow system? A. Sea level to 45,000 feet B. Sea level to 75,000 feet C. Ground level to 30,000 feet D. Ground level to 50,000 feet |
Ground level to 50,000 feet |
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What is the resolution rating of the PORTS outlet flow control valve? A. < 0.5 lpm B. < 1.0 lpm C. > 3.0 lpm D. > 5.0 lpm |
< 1.0 lpm |
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When is PORTS automatically zeroed? A. When the computer boots up B. When the UUT is connected C. When the vacuum pump is turned ON D. When the test stand power switch is switched to ON |
When the computer boots up |
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The TTU-518A/E test set is capable of testing which of the following oxygen system components? A. Masks B. Regulators C. Convertors D. Concentrators |
Concentrators |
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Where is the CRU-103 regulator mounted? A. On the user’s chest B. On the user’s oxygen mask C. On the aircraft oxygen panel D. On the aircraft oxygen convertor |
On the user’s chest |
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Which of the following frequencies is designated for voice transmissions of military emergencies? A. 121.5 MHz B. 243.0 MHz C. 282.8 MHz D. 406.0 MHz |
243.0 MHz |
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What is the rated initial acquisition time of the PRC-149 radio's embedded GPS receiver? A. Less than 45 seconds B. Greater than 45 seconds C. Less than 130 seconds D. Greater than 130 seconds |
Less than 130 seconds |
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What is the optimal distance for the PRC-149 microphone to be held from the user's face? A. 1 to 3 inches B. 3 to 5 inches C. 6 to 12 inches D. 6 to 18 inches |
3 to 5 inches |
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What two types of built-in tests are used by the PRC-149 radio? A. Power-up and Continuous BIT B. Power-up and Maintenance BIT C. Periodic and Continuous BIT D. Periodic and Maintenance BIT |
Power-up and Maintenance BIT |
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What is the status of the PRC-149 radio LEDs during power-up BIT? A. All four LEDs are illuminated B. All four LEDs are extinguished C. The GPS and BCN LEDs illuminate alternately D. The LEDs illuminate sequentially from GPS to BCN |
All four LEDs are illuminated |
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What indicates that a PRC-149 power-up BIT has failed? A. All four LEDs are extinguished B. All four LEDs remain illuminated continuously C. The GPS and BCN LEDs illuminate alternately D. The LEDs illuminate sequentially from GPS to BCN |
All four LEDs remain illuminated continuously |
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Which of the following is NOT a designated CSEL segment? A. User B. Ground C. Airborne D. Over-The-Horizon |
Airborne |
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What PRQ-7 component maintains the volatile memory during PRQ-7 battery pack changes? A. Inductor B. Resistor C. Capacitor D. Transistor |
Capacitor |
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What PRQ-7 radio feature permits the user to purge the memory of crypto keys? A. Zeroize B. Traffic Encryption Key C. Immediate Auto-Sequence D. Low Probability of Exploitation |
Zeroize |
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How does a user turn OFF the PRQ-7 radio? A. Pressing and holding down the power key B. Pressing the power and IMM keys simultaneously C. Pressing any three keys on the keypad and the PTT key D. From the main menu, using the cursor keys to navigate to the power down |
Pressing any three keys on the keypad and the PTT key |
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How many unsuccessful password entries will cause the PRQ-7 radio to perform a zeroization? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four |
Three |
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How often is the PRQ-7 radio required to have a link quality check performed? A. Daily B. Weekly C. Monthly D. Annually |
Annually |
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The URT-140 beacon functions best when its antenna is positioned in what direction? A. Inverted B. Vertically C. Horizontally D. Pointed in the direction of transmission |
Vertically |
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The PRC-149 radio transmits digital messages on which of the following frequencies? A. 121.500 MHz B. 243.000 MHz C. 282.800 MHz D. 406.025 MHz |
406.025 MHz |
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What is the positional accuracy of the PRC-149 radio's embedded GPS receiver? A. 3 feet B. 50 feet C. 100 feet D. 300 feet |
300 feet |
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How should the PRC-149 antenna generally be pointed? A. Vertically and perpendicular to the LOS of the SAR aircraft B. Any position acceptable due to antenna reception characteristics C. Horizontally and perpendicular to the OTH receiving component bearing D. With the long axis of the antenna centerline toward the SAR aircraft |
Vertically and perpendicular to the LOS of the SAR aircraft |
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What is the approximate duration of the PRC-19 radio Power-up BIT? A. 2 seconds B. 20 seconds C. 1 minute D. 2 minutes |
2 seconds |
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How does a user initiate a maintenance BIT on the PRC-149 radio? A. Connecting the radio to the GEOSAR system B. Placing the mode selector switch to BIT C. Sending the radio to an intermediate- or depot-level maintenance activity D. Placing the mode selector to GPS and pressing the volume UP and DOWN buttons simultaneously for 10 seconds |
Placing the mode selector to GPS and pressing the volume UP and DOWN buttons simultaneously for 10 seconds |
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How long is the PRQ-7 radio rated to withstand salt water immersion at depth of one meter? A. 12 hours B. 24 hours C. 96 hours D. Indefinitely |
12 hours |
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What data is automatically tagged to transmissions that identify a specific PRQ-7 radio? A. COSPAS-SARSAT B. HHRID C. IFI Auto-sequence D. TCP/IP |
HHRID |
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Which of the following is NOT a function of the PRQ-7 radio power key? A. Turns radio ON B. Turns the radio OFF C. Places radio in sleep mode D. Toggles display backlighting ON and OFF |
Turns the radio OFF |
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Which of the following is NOT displayed on the PRQ-7 main menu screen? A. Battery status B. Date and ZULU time C. GPS keys loaded icon D. Satellite signal strength |
Satellite signal strength |
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How are password numerical digits selected on the PRQ-7 radio? A. Using the volume up and down keys B. Using the up and down cursor keys C. Using the left and right cursor keys D. Using the main menu key to access an on-screen keypad |
Using the up and down cursor keys |
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The URT-140 beacon is rated to be waterproof at depth of two feet for how long? A. 12 hours B. 24 hours C. 96 hours D. Indefinitely |
24 hours |
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At what setting is the URT-140 mode control switch knob placed for continuous transmission on only the 406.025 MHz frequency? A. TIMED TRIPLE B. TIMED 406 C. UNTIMED TRIPLE D. UNTIMED 406 |
UNTIMED 406 |
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What is the status of the LED indicator if the URT-140 beacon fails the power-up BIT? A. LED remains ON B. LED remains OFF C. LED flashes rapidly D. LED will turn ON for two seconds and OFF for four seconds |
LED remains ON |
