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200 Cards in this Set
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1.What is the primary method used to ensure the widest dissemination of maintenance crosstell information to highlight trends or safety conditions?
a.SMS b.DMS c.MMS d.DREAMS system |
b.DMS
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b.DMS c.MMS d.DREAMS system |
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2. An IREP meeting is held at least?
a.annually b.quarterly c.monthly d.weekly |
b.quarterly
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3. What off/ equipment level of maintenance consists primarily of testing and repair or replacement of component parts?
a. Depot b. schedules c. intermediate d. organizational |
c. intermediate
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4. What type of maintenance is a hybrid of 3 LM and 2 LM that combines intermediate level maintenance from multiple bases at one location?
a. centralized intermediate repair faucility b. Two level maintenance c. regional repair center d. depot |
c. regional repair center
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5. Reguarding the reliability and maintain ability program, who is responsible for developing a proactive program to analyze collective data and act accoringly to implement solutions for those systems under their control?
a. maintainers b. single managers c. group commanders d. squadron commanders |
b. single managers
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6. Who is responsible for co-chairing products improvement working group meetings with the lead command executive agent?
a. MAJCOM functional manager b. career field manager c. single manager d. leading engineer |
c. single managers
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7. What level of OI is published when responsiblities apply to both operations group and MXG?
a. wing b. group c. MAJCOM d. number AF |
a. wing
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8. Who does the OPR designate to meet daily responsibilities for administering an OI?
a. section NCOIC b. information security program manager c. point of contact POC d. flight chief |
c. POC
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9. Which MXG organization acts as the OPR for maintanence policy guidance as it pertains to OI's?
a. maintanence operations center b. programs and resource flight c. maintanence training flight d. quality assurance |
d. quality assurance
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10. What type of support agreement is developed when two or more branches of the military are involved?
a. intra-service b. inter-service c. international d. inter-command |
b. inter-service
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11. Which of the following is a general rule you should follow while developing support agreements?
a. it should cover only one reciever b. it should clearly state two suppliers c. it may hinder mission accomplishment d. it voids excisting contracts when they perform the same service |
a. it should cover only one receiver
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12. Once a formal aircraft modifications proposal has been submitted, who- in addition to a single point manager and the lead command configuration review board-must approve it?
a. HQ/USAF/A4M b. AF Chief of Staff c. Secratery of the AF d. MAJCOM command chief |
a. HQ/USA/A4M
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13. In addition to MAJCOM system functional manager, who is consulted in desposition instructions for a serially controlled item that does not have a readable cerial number?
a. HQ/USAF/A4M b. chief/ lead engineer c. MAJCOM command chief d. air logisticts center item manager |
d. air logisticts center item manager
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14. Historical air craft records are normally centerally located within the processing unit. Who, if any one, may autherize the files to be decenteralized?
a. operations officer b. squadron commander c. MXG/ CC c. AMU/OIC |
c. MXG/CC
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15. Which of the following may authorize special application usage for the AFTO IMT 95?
a. AMO/UIC b. MXG/CC c. squadron commandor d. operations officer |
b. MXG/CC
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16. Which AFMC agency is the primary user of engine inventory management data entered into the comprehensive engine management system?
a. ogden air logistics center b. Oklahoma City logistics center c. Warner Robins air logistics center d. Arrow Space maintenance and regeneration center |
b. Oklahoma City air logistics center
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17. Which MXG section is responsible for leading the data integrity team?
a. engine management b. maintenance operations center c. maintenance data system analysis d. plans, scheduling and documentation |
c. maintenance data system analysis
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18. What is the common standard interval used for calculating the fixed rate on non-fighter type aircraft?
a. 4 hrs b. 8 hrs c. 12 hrs d. 16 hrs |
c. 12 hrs
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19. How is an aircraft flight malfunction classified if an identical malfunction occured on this same aircraft four sorties?
a. recur b. repeat c. not classified d. CND |
a. recur
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20. What maintenance priority designator is assigned to the repair of AGE needed to support primary mission aircraft within 6 work hrs of a scheduled launch?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 |
b. 2
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21. What maintenance priority designator is assigned to primary mission aircraft under going scheduled maintenance that if not accomplished would prevent or delay mission accomplishment?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 |
c. 3
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22. What maintenance priority designator is assigned to non primary mission aircraft undergoing extensive repair?
a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 7 |
b. 5
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23. Weekly maintenance sheduling meetings forecast and monitor maintenance requirements for the current month as well as, how many months in the future?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 |
b. 2
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24. In support of the weekly maintenance scheduling meeting each aircraft maintenance unit is required to provide one week forecast of all scheduled maintenance by sixteen hundred on?
a. Tuesday b. Wednesday c. Thursday d. Friday |
d. Friday
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25. Who has sole responsibility and authority to develop and implement MESL's for RDT&E missions and aircraft in support of RDT&E?
a. head quarters AF b. owning corporization c. AF flight test center d. AF material command |
d. AF material command
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26. What status is reported for an aircraft that has degraded system, sub system, or component performance but is capable of full mission performance?
a. NMC b. FMC c. PMC d. NMC air worthy |
d. NMC air worthy
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27. What overall C-level is reported for a unit that pocesses the require resources and is trained to undertake many, but not all, portions of war time missions for which it was organized or designed?
a. C-1 b. C-2 c. C-3 d. C-4 |
c. C-3
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28. For a wings SORTS reporting, who monitors overall weapons load crew status and advises the MXG/ CC when the number of fully certified crews falls below the minimum set unit?
a. wing weapons manager b. chief of quality assurance c. armament flight commander d. maintenance operations flight commander |
a. wing weapons manager
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29. Who is responsible for the status of a units individual UTC requirements as reported by the ART?
a. wing commander b. squadron/ unit commander c. wing deployment manager d. squadron/ unit deployment manager |
a. wing commander
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30. When forecasting readiness for deployment in the ART, an individual should consisder how many months in the future?
a. 3 b. 6 c. 9 d. 12 |
b. 6
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31. The daily meeting to update the wing CC on maintenance issues is called?
a. maintenance scheduling b. maintenance production c. wing stand up d. hot wash |
c. wing stand up
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32. Which of the following is not a wing commander responsibility?
a. resolving disagreements between groups in the wing b. managing the wings FOD program c. esstablishing CDDAR capability d. publishing operating instructions with specific responsibilits for applicalbe wing agencies |
a. resolving disagreements between groups in the wing
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33.which of the following is not a MXG/CC's resposibility?
a.ensuring manpower is equitably distributed. a. ensuring manpower is equitably distributed. b. authorizing modification of assigned aircraft and equipment c. ensuring strict adherence to technical data and management directives d. approving work schedules only when compatible with local environmental conditions |
b. authorizing modification of assigned aircraft and equipment.
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34. Who is charged with overseeing the management of maintenance facilities and aircraft support equipment procurement and maintenance?
a. MXG CC b. MXG superintendent c. MXG deputy commander d. AMXS operations officer |
b. MXG superintendent
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35. Which of the following is not a MXG superintendent's responsibility?
a. act as liaison between staff and production supervisors b. resolve conflicting maintenance requirements between units c. serve as wing weapons manager and advise wing leadership on weapons issues d. ensure maintenance training programs meet the intent of HHQ instructions. |
c. serve as wing weapons manager and advise wing leadership on weapons issues
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36. The MXG superintendent is responsible for coordinating with unit leadership in rotating personnel between duty positions in order to?
a. develop individual experience and knowledge b. ensure workers having special needs are accommodated c. ensure that the most highly qualified people are moved around d. make sure that personnel are not assigned outside their specialty for too long |
a . develop individual experience and knowledge
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37. If applicable, who is responsible for managing the squadron's flying crew chief program?
a. First sergeant b. SQ/CC c. production superintendent d. maintenance superintendent |
b. SQ/ CC
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38. Which of the following is not a SQ/CC's responsibility?
a. monitoring and reporting on mission capability b. reviewing mobility, contingency, and exercise plans c. managing the squadron's AFREP d. being legally accoutable for squadron EPA compliance |
c. managing the squadron's AFREP
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39. It is important for a SQ/CC to review the squadron's DOC statement to?
a. monitor and control the daily flying production effort b. monitor and control scheduled and unscheduled maintenance c. ensure that requested aircraft configuration changes do not over task maintainers d. determine if current squadron processes are adequate to meet all tasked requirements |
d. determine if current squadron processes are adequate to meet all tasked requirements
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40. What two positions make up what is known as maintenance operations-formerly known as maintenance supervision?
a. AMU/OIC/superintendent b. Operations officer/maintenance superintendent c. Production superintendent/ flight line expediter d. squadron commander/operations officer |
b. Operations officer/maintenance superintendent
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41. Working together, the maintenance operations team is tasked with?
a. providing an up-to-the-minute record of aircraft status b. monitoring and tracking all instances of wire and tube chaffing on fleet aircraft c. ensuring at least one of the team is on the flight line while maintenance is being performed d. providing lower level administration for nearly all programs the SQ/CC is responsible for |
d. providing lower level administration for nearly all programs the SQ/CC is responsible for
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42. Who is the AMU/OIC responsible to for the leadership, supervision, and training of assigned personnel?
a. Flight commander b. Squadron operations officer c. Maintenance superintendent d. Maintenance Operations flight commander |
b. Squadron operations officer
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43. Which of the following is not normally a responsibility of the AMU/OIC/superintendent?
a. reviewing pilot reported discrepancies daily b. directing cannibalization actions for assigned aircraft c. closely monitoring the flow of aircraft into major scheduled inspections d. ensuring sufficient numbers of aircraft engine run personnel are avialable |
b. directing cannibalizations actions for assigned aircraft
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44. Who is normally responsible for chairing the AMU's daily maintenance production meeting?
a. flight line expediter b. squadron operations officer c. AMU/OIC d. squadron maintenance superintendent |
c. AMU/OIC
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45. The main person responsible for monitoring, tracking, and documenting safety and health information about assigned workers is the?
a. section NCOIC b. flight commander c. element leader d. flight chief |
a. section NCOIC
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46. Which of the following is not normally a section NCOIC's responsibility?
a. enforcing strict adherence to technical data b. monitoring the qualification and training of assigned personnel c. acting as the first-line manager and supervisor of maintenance production d. acting as the primary source of help for requesting maintenance support from other agencies |
d. acting as the primary source of help for requesting maintenance support from other agencies
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47. Which of the following is not normally an AMU production superintendent's responsibility?
a. signing exceptional releases which clear aircraft to fly b. directing the maintenance effort using available resources c. maintaining a current copy of the on-base disaster map with a cordon overlay d. ensuring all maintenance information system documentation is accurate and complete |
d. ensuring all maintenance information system documentation is accurate and complete
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48. Who must the AMU production superintendent inform and coordinate with about the unit's maintenance effort, including providing aircraft status updates as required?
a. Flight line expediter b. Airfield management c. MOC d. MDSA section |
c. MOC
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49. What individual is in the best position to ensure that maintainers accomplish maintenance IAW technical data and higher level directives?
a. expediter b. flight chief c. production superintendent d. section NCOIC |
a. expediter
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50. In managing, controlling, and directing resources to accomplish scheduled/unscheduled maintenance to generate aircraft, expediters work for the?
a. aircraft section NCOIC b. AMU/OIC c. squadron operations officer d. production superintendent |
d. production superintendent
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51. Which of the following is not normally a flight line expediter's responsibility?
a. ensuring ordered parts are picked-up quickly b. signing off "Red Xs" for aircraft maintenance jobs c. maintaining copies of emergency action and functional checklists d. ensuring aircraft and equipment forms documentation is accurate and complete |
b. signing off "Red Xs" for aircraft maintenance jobs
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52. Which of the following sections is not part of the MOF?
a. quality assurance b. engine management c. maintenance operations center d. maintenance data system analysis |
a. quality assurance
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53. Which of the following sections is responsible for managing the location subsystem of the IMDS-CDB for aircraft under its control?
a. quality assurance b. engine management c. maintenance operations center d. maintenance data system analysis |
c. maintenance operations center
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54. Which of the following classes is not normally taught by a maintenance group's maintenance training flight?
a. engine run b. quality assurance c. borescope operations d. engine blade bending |
b. quality assurance
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55. UTMs are administratively assigned to the?
a. local AETC traning detachment b. squadron commander they support on a daily basis c. education and training flight d. maintenance training flight |
d. maintenance training flight
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56. The programs and resources flight is responsible for managing and controlling what IMDS-CDB subsystem for the maintenance group?
a. operational events b. maintenance events c. maintenance personnel d. status and inventory reporting |
c. maintenance personnel
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57. The SORTS data gathered and approved each month by the maintenance group is?
a. held unless it is significant b. given to the wing deployment manager c. forwarded to be combined with other wing data d. forwarded directly to HQ AETC |
c. forwarded to be combined with other wing data
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58. Which of the following does programs and resources flight maintain for the maintenance group?
a. small computers b. support agreements c. mobile and in-place radios d. DCC program |
b. support agreements
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59. Who is responsible for managing the MSEP for the maintenance group?
a. quality assurance b. Maintenance training flight c. maintenance operations flight d. maintenance operations center |
a. quality assurance
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60. When a case of aircraft chaffing is reported, what percentages of assigned like model aircraft must be inspected to determine if other aircraft are also experiencing the problem?
a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20 |
b. 10
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61. AMUs must provide inputs to the maintenance group through through the operations officer for the development of an annual maintenance plan to?
a. allow maintenance leaders to calculate future maintainence metrics goals b. develop an annual SORTS report c. ensure maintenance capabilities are not exceeded and commitments can be met d. forecast scheduled maintenance requirements with consideration for everyone's needs |
c. ensure maintenance capabilities are not exceeded and commitments can be met
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62. In an AMU, who is primarily responsible for using fault reporting manuals to identify fault codes to aid maintainers in aircraft troubleshooting?
a. degrief personnel b. flight line expediter c. production superintendent d. maintenance operations personnel |
a. debrief personnel
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63. What LSC is recorded for an aircraft that experienced a ground abort?
a. code 0 b. code 1 c. code 2 d. code 3 |
a. code 0
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64. Which of the following is not assigned to the AMU Aircraft section?
a. load crew chief b. flying crew chief c. dedicated crew chief d. assistant dedicated crew chief |
a. load crew chief
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65. Who must approve a waiver to allow maintenance personnel in non-crew chief AFSCs to be appointed as a DCC?
a. wing commander b. operations officer c. group commander d. squadron commander |
c. group commander
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66. What type of specialist is tasked to troubleshoot and repair aircraft interphone system?
a. avionics b. propulsion c. hydraulics d. electro/environmental |
a. avionics
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67. Which of the following specialists is sometimes assigned to the specialist section of an AMU?
a. corrosion control b. electronic warfare c. survival equipment d. non-destruction inspection |
b. electronic warfare
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68. In squadron-sized fighter aircraft units, the AMU's Weapons section Maintenance element is sometimes combined with the?
a. specialist section in the AMU b. munitions flight in the maintenance squadron c. armament flight in the maintenance squadron d. maintenance flight in the maintenance squadron |
c. armament flight in the maintenance squadron
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69. Load crew chiefs are normally 2W1X1 AFXC NCOs with what skill level?
a. 3 b. 5 c. 7 d. 9 |
b. 5
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70. On a weekly basis the AMU's PS&D section is required to provide a listing of scheduled maintenance job control numbers to?
a. AMU supervision b. the operations officer c. the maintenance operations flight PS&D d. the aircraft maintenance squadron commander |
c. the maintenance operations flight PS&D
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71. The AMU's PS&D section reports directly to?
a. AMU supervision b. production superintendent c. aircraft maintenance squadron commander d. maintenance operations flight PS&D section NCOIC |
a. AMU supervision
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72. the package that contains aircraft and maintenance historical documents is called the?
a. maintenance file b. aircraft jacket file c. significant historical data file d. maintenance historical package |
b. aircraft jacket file
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73. the AMU support section is not responsible for?
a. vehicles b. test equipment c. technical orders d. classified aircraft parts |
d. classified aircraft parts
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74. Why is it important for support sections to standardize procedures across the aircraft maintenance squadron?
a. inspection and validation reasons b. security, control, and accountability reasons c. standardization is mandatory across all air force support sections d. workers may be tasked to work in multiple support sections |
b. security, control, and accountability reasons
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75. Which of the following is not normally a function of the accessories flight fuel systems section?
a. repairing fuel tanks b. inspecting hydrazine systems c. functionally checking fuel systems d. installing external fuel tanks on aircraft |
d. installing external fuel tanks on aircraft
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76. Who must the AGE flight commander/chief notify when mission essential AGE level fall below a predetermined limit?
a. quality assurance b. squadron commander c. maintenance operations center d. maintenance data system analysis section |
c. maintenance operations center
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77. Which section is responsible for performing minor maintenance on AGE and preparing AGE for deployment?
a. age scheduling b. production support c. repair and inspection d. servicing, pickup, and delivery |
d. servicing, pickup, and delivery
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78. Who do AGE schedulers work for and report to on a daily basis?
a. production support section NCOIC b. repair and inspection section NCOIC c. AGE flight commander d. AGE flight chief |
a. production support section NCOIC
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79. If a CAST is formed, which section normallhy assigns personnel to support the CAST?
a. armament support b. armament maintenance c. electronic warfare systems d. alternate mission equipment |
d. alternate mission equipment
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80. Which section is tasked with performing user calibration and maintenance on TMDE for the armament flight?
a. armament support b. armament maintenance c. electronic warfare systems d. alternate mission equipment |
a. armament support
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81. A 2LM avionics section is not normally allowed to perform which of the following repairs?
a. bench-check serviceability screening b. LRU overhaul c. SRU cross-cannibalizations d. TCTOs performed at wing level |
b. LRU overhaul
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82. Which avionics flight section is responsible for performing off-equipment maintenance on pressure altimerters, engine test cell instrumentation, INS, and navigation computers?
a. sensors b. electronic warfare c. avionics intermediate d. guidance and control systems |
d. guidance and control systems
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83. If required, which fabrication flight section is responsible for manufacturing and inspecting thermal radiation barriers and soundproofing materials?
a. metals technology b. survival equipment c. aircraft structural maintenance d. NDI |
b. survival equipment
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84. Which sections is part of the maintenance squadron's maintenance flight?
a. hydraulics b. wheel and tire c. engine management d. test cell and noise suppression system |
b. wheel and tire
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85. Which maintenance flight section is often tasked with rigging and replacing landing gears and performing work that is beyond the capability of other activities?
a. refurbishment b. aircraft inspection c. repair and reclamation d. transient aircraft maintenance |
c. repair and reclamation
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86. If munitions is not established as a maintenance squadrons flight, it can be established as a?
a. flight in the aircraft maintenance squadron b. seperate squadron in the maintenance group c. flight in the maintenance operations squadron d. wing-level agency working for the wing commander |
b. seperate squadron in the maintenance group
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87. Which section is responsible for assembling, disassembling, delivering, inspecting, and maintaining assigned MMHE for munitions flight?
a. munitions systems b. munitions material c. munitions production d. electronic warfare systems |
c. munitions production
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88. Which sectionis responsible for providing broad control and support for all munitions flight activities by planning, scheduling, coordinating, controlling, and directing their activities?
a. munitions systems b. munitions material c. munitions production d. electronic warfare systems |
a. munitions systems
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89. Which propulsion flight section processes supply requests, manages bench stock, and operates tool storage areas?
a. support b. module/accessory repair c. engine equipment maintenance d. jet, turbo-shaft engine intermediate maintenance |
a. support
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90. Which section is responsible for proper tracking and completion of TCTOs for the propulsion flight?
a. support b. module/accessory repair c. engine equipment maintenance d. jet, turbo-shaft engine intermediate maintenance |
d. jet, turbo-shaft engine intermediate maintenance
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91. Which section is responsible for repairing, storing, and maintaining fuel nozzles, fuel manifolds, oil pumps, afterburners, thrust reversers, and other engine components for the propulsion flight?
a. support b. module/accessory repair c. engine equipment maintenance d. jet, turbo-shaft engine intermediate maintenance |
b. module/ accessory repair
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92. Which section is responsible for performing in-laboratory and on-site calibration and repair for the TMDE flight?
a. PMEL quality assurance b. TMDE technical order distribution office/account c. production control d. PMEL |
d. PMEL
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93. Which TMDE flight section contains the customer service element?
a. PMEL b. TMDE technical order distribution office/account c. PMEL quality assurance d. production control |
d. production control
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94. For technical order relaed duties, the TMDE TODO/TODA person or section is responsible to the?
a. PMEL quality assurance section NCOIC b. production control section NCOIC c. TMDE flight commander/ chief d. PMEL section NCOIC |
c. TMDE flight commander/ chief
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95. Where is the Ogden Air Logistics Center located?
a. Hill AFB b. Tinker AFB c. Robins AFB d. Edwards AFB |
a. Hill AFB
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96. Which agency provides management support for LANTIRN pods and system?
a. ogden air logistics center b. oklahoma city air logistics center c. warner robins air logistics center d. aerospace maintenance and regeneration center |
c. warner robins air logistics center
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97. Where is the AF flight test center located?
a. Hill AFB b. Tinker AFB c. Robins AFB d. Edwards AFB |
d. Edwards AFB
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98. The AF flight test center has played a major role in the test and development of every major weapon system in the AF inventory for how many years?
a. 20 b. 40 c. 60 d. 80 |
c. 60
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99. Which unit is not a component of the air armament center?
a. 46th test wing b. 412th test wing c. 96th air base wing d. 377th air base wing |
b. 412th test wing
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100. Where is the aerospace maintenance and regeneration center located?
a. Eglin AFB b. Kirtland AFB c. Ellsworth AFB d. Davis-Monthan AFB |
d. Davis-Monthan AFB
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101. Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM?
a. air combat command (ACC) b. air training command (ATC) c. air reserve command (AFRC) d. air education and training command (AETC) |
d. air education and training command (AETC)
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102. Air education and training command (AETC) training detachments (TDs) normally do not provide what type of training?
a. cross utilization training b. continuation training c. ancillary training d. formal training |
c. ancillary training
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103. The block training method is normally used to teach which maintenance training flight (MTF) training course?
a. any 7-level course b. weight and balance c. maintenance orientation d. general technical order system |
c. maintenance orientation
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104. Each airframe and powerplant (A&P) specialized course must be completed within how many months?
a. 11 b. 12 c. 13 d. 14 |
c. 13
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105. Which of the following is used as the cover folder for an individual's training records?
a. specialty training standard b. career field education and training plan c. AF form 623, individual training record d. AF IMT 623a, on-the-job training record continuation sheet |
c. AF form 623, individual training record
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106. All of the following can designate critical tasks that apply to a specific air force specialty code (AFSC) in a particular work center except?
a. MAJCOMs b. supervisors c. commanders d. unit training managers |
d. unit training managers
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107. Who must approve a waiver before an individual can be added to the special certification roster (SCR) for a task normally performed by a person of a higher grade?
a. squadron operations officer b. MAJCOM functional manager c. squadron commander (SQ/CC) d. maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) |
d. maintenance group commander (MXG/CC)
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108. In order to be given authority to downgrade a "Red-X" an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MGX/CC) and hold the minimum grade of?
a. chief master sergeant (CMSgt) b. senior master sergeant (SMSgt) c. master sergeant (Msgt) d. technical sergeant (TSgt) |
c. master sergeant (MSgt)
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109. What training phase has these four sub-phases: multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training?
a. I b. II c. III d. IV |
b. II
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110. What continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airman (MRA) and training detachment (TD) courses?
a. maintenance qualification b. maintenance refresher c. on-the-job cd. ancillary |
a. maintenance qualification
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111. How often does the maintenance training flight (MTF) provide a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC)?
a. monthly b. quarterly c. semiannually d. annually |
a. monthly
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112. An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated. Provided it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning before decertification is required?
a. 15 b. 30 c. 45 d. 60 |
b. 30
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113. Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC)?
a. operations officer b. group commander c. unit training manager d. maintenance training flight commander (MTF/CC) or chief |
c. unit training manager
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114. Once you have completed the master task list for your master training plan, your next step is to?
a. evaluate training b. select training strategies c. determine training needs d. determine training capabilities |
c. determine training needs
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115. In order to account for unfunded requirements and valid non-maintenance tasks, the logistics composite model (LCOM) allows what percentage of overhead manning?
a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20 |
b. 10
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116. Which element of a logistics composite model (LCOM) study considers weather modeling conditions?
a. support facilities b. support equipment c. operations requirements d. maintenance requirements |
c. operations requirements
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117. Which factor is not modeled in a logistics composite model (LCOM) manpower study?
a. spare parts b. maintenance people c. training deployments d. aerospace ground equipment |
c. training deployments
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118. Manpower authorizations are?
a. funded b. unfunded c. unvalidated d. both funded and unfunded |
a. funded
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119. A unit manpower document (UDM) does not?
a. show the AF specialty code (AFSC) required for a particular position b. provide detailed information about each manpower requirement c. show the name of person assigned to a particular position d. show the required grade for a particular position |
c. show the name of person assigned to a particular position
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120. A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) is normally held ?
a. weekly b. monthly c. quarterly d. semiannually |
b. monthly
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121. Which maintenance group (MXG) office acts as the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for maintencance analysis referrals?
a. plans, scheduling, and documentation (PS&D) b. maintenance data systems analysis (MDSA) c. Maintenance operations center (MOC) d. programs and resources flight |
b. maintenance data systems analysis (MDSA
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122. Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems?
a. maintenance supply liaison b. maintenance supply support c. maintenance operatoins center d. maintenance data systems analysis |
a. maintenance supply liaison
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123. Which of the following is not normally a maintenance supply liaison duty?
a. monitoring status of back-ordered requisitions b. advising supervisors on supply management documents c. soliciting and consolidating inputs to initiate a quick reference list d. collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets |
d. collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets
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124. The assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base's standard base supply system account after how many days?
a. 15 b. 30 c. 45 d. 60 |
b. 30
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125. How often are operating commands required to review permanent readiness spares packages (RSPs)?
a. monthly b. quarterly c. annually d. biennially |
c. annually
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126. Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC) must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed on a bench stock?
a. XF3 b. XD2 c. XD1 d. XB3 |
d. XB3
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127. Shop stock should not exceed how many days of usage?
a. 30 b. 60 c. 90 d. 120 |
a. 30
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128. Provided it is still serviceable, you are allowed to inspect and re-mark with a new expiration date which type of shelf life item?
a. I b. II c. III d. IV |
b. II
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129. Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution?
a. oil sheen on standing water b. stressed vegetation c. stains on ground d. cloudy water |
d. cloudy water
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130. Who is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter?
a. operations officer b. section supervisor c. squadron commander d. squadron safety monitor |
b. section supervisor
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131. In the maintenance group (MXG), who is responsible for establishing procedures and controls for the local manufacture of tools, parts, and other items as required by technical guidance?
a. maintenance squadron (MXS) commander b. MXG vice commander c. MXG superintendent d. MXG commander |
d. MXG commander
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132. Who in the maintenance group (MXG) is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufature requirements?
a. MXG commander b. MXG superintendent c. MXG vice commander d. maintenance squadron (MXS) operations officer/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT) |
d. maintenance squadron (MXS) operations officer/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT)
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133. Who must appoint an individual to be an equiment account custodian?
a. section supervisor b. squadron commander c. flight commander/chief d. operations officer/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT) |
b. squadron commander
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134. An individual must receive what specific block of supply training before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor?
a. I b. III c. IIB d. IIA |
c. IIB
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135. Which of the following is not covered in the precious metal recovery program?
a. silver b. copper c. iridium d.rhodium |
b. copper
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136. Which precious metals indicator code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply does not contain precious metal?
a. A b. C c. G d. P |
a. A
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137. Which precious metals indicator code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals?
a. A b. C c. G d. P |
b. C
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138. Which supply tracking documents provides information on all document numbers processed during the day?
a. D18, priority monitor report b. D04, daily document register c. M-24, organization effectiveness report d. D23, repair cycle asset management list |
b. D04, daily document register
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139. Which supply tracking document is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A?
a. D18, priority monitor report b. D04, daily document register c. M-24, organization effectiveness report d. D23, repair cycle asset management list |
a. D18, priority monitor report
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140. Which supply tracking document provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support?
a. D18, priority monitor report b. D04, daily document register c. M-24, organization effectiveness report d. D23, repair cycle asset management list |
c. M-24, organization effectiveness report
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141. Which logistics readiness squadron (LRS) office accounts for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use detail records?
a. flight service center (FSC) b. equipment liaison office (ELO) c. command equipment management office (CEMO) d. defense reutilization and marketing office (DRMO) |
b. equipment liaison office (ELO)
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142. What is the special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) flag code for stand-alone spares?
a. F b. D c. B d. A |
d. A
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143. What is the special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) flag code for fault isolation spares?
a. F b. D c. B d. A |
a. F
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144. Who is the final authority for reviewing a unit's list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming?
a. flight commander/chief b. maintenance group commander c. logistics readiness squadron (LRS) chief inspector d. operations officer/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT) |
c. logistics readiness squadron (LRS) chief inspector
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145. Which of the following is not normally in the reiveiw chain for items listed as supply assets requiring locally performed functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming?
a. operations officer/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT) b. logistics readiness squadron (LRS) chief inspector c. maintenance group commander d. flight commander/chief |
c. maintenance group commander
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146. Who ultimately determines if the security provided at a transient location is adequate for classified assets installed on an aircraft?
a. aircraft commander b. host installation commander c. operations group commander d. mission support group commander |
b. host installation commander
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147. Who is responsible for the immediate security of classified equipment installed on an aircraft after it makes an emergency landing?
a. nearest military installation b. local law enforcement c. aircraft commander d. local fire chief |
c. aircraft commander
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148. When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with their aircraft, she/he must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every?
a. hour b. 2 hour c. 3 hour d. 4 hour |
c. 3 hour
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149. What supply delivery priority is appropriate for primary mission aircraft 13 hours after landing?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 |
a. 1
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150. What supply delivery priority is appropriate for bench stock requirements?
a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 7 |
b. 5
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151. Which urgency justification codes (UJCs) are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare?
a. IA or JA b. AR or BR c. AA or AM d. BM or CM |
b. AR or BR
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152. Before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance work area, who must maintenance coordinate with?
a. logistics readiness squadron (LRS) flight service center b. maintenance group (MXG) quality assurance c. MXG maintenance data system analysis d. LRS material management element |
d. LRS material management element
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153. What is the accoutability document used for supply points that shows the quantity authorized, on-hand, and due-out?
a. supply point listing b. qualified reference list c. repair cycle asset management list d. custodian authorization/custody receipt listing |
a. supply point listing
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154. When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail number bin (TNB), supply personnel notify the?
a. operations officer b. aircraft section flight chief c. maintenance operations center (MOC) d. aircraft maintenance unit's (AMU's) plans, scheduling, and documentation (PS&D) section |
c. maintenance operations center (MOC)
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155. When a back-ordered item issues and is placed in the tail number bin (TNB), supply personnel notify the?
a. operations officer b. aircraft section flight chief c. maintenance operations center (MOC) d. aircraft maintenance unit's (AMU's) plans, sheduling, and documentation (PS&D) section |
d. aircraft maintenance unit's (AMU's) plans, sheduling, and documentation (PS&D) section
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156. When items are placed in an aircraft's tail number bin (TNB), which entry is not normally needed?
a. security classification b. date received c. status d. noun |
a. security classification
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157. When the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, what type of deficiency report is submitted?
a. deficiency report (DR) b. supply discrepancy report c. maintenance cross-tell report d. product quality deficiency report |
b. supply discrepancy report
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158. Who has the responsibility for overall deficiency report program management for the submitting organization or group?
a. originator b. action point c. screening point d. originating point |
d. originating point
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159. Who acts as the deficiency report focal point between the support point and submitting organization?
a. originator b. action point c. screening point d. originationg point |
b. action point
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160. Units cannot make local modifications to which AF publication?
a. manuals b. instructions c. policy directives d. technical orders |
d. technical orders
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161. Who is responsible for establishing a maintenance group (MXG) technical order (TO) custodian to administer TO requirements in support of assigned group missions and activities?
a. maintenance squadron commander (MXS CC) b. MXG deputy commander (MXG/CD) c. MXG superintendent (MXG/SUPT) d. MXG commander (MXG/CC) |
d. MXG commander (MXG/CC)
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162. Which is not normally a maintenance group (MXG) technical order distribution office (TODO) duty?
a. establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required b. assisting units in establishing additional TODO accounts c. advising MXG/CC on TO availability d. resolving TO availability problems |
a. establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required
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163. The product improvement manager is usually assigned to what maintenance group (MXG) section?
a. quality assurance b. engine management c. maintenance operations center d. maintenance data system analysis |
a. quality assurance
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164. Which of the following is not a technical order (TO) change priority category?
a. urgent b. routine c. standard d. emergency |
c. standard
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165. An improvement that identifies a replacement for hazardous materials or an ozone depleting substance would be submitted as what technical order (TO) change priority?
a. urgent b. routine c. standard d. emergency |
a. urgent
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166. Who is the final approval authority for waivers of technical order (TO) system policies and procedures?
a. HQ ACC/A4MT b. HQ AFMC/A4YE c. HQ USAF/A4MM d. HQ AFMC/A4BM |
c. HQ USAF/A4MM
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167. Which of the following is not an approved communication method for issuing approved technical order (TO) waivers or deviations?
a. telephone b. signed letter c. organizational e-mail d. defense massage system |
a. telephone
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168. If a serially controlled item is cannibalized (CANN), who is the CANN authority required to notify?
a. quality assurance b. programs and resources flight c. maintenance data system analysis (MDSA) d. plans, scheduling, and documentation (PS&D) |
d. plans, scheduling, and documentation (PS&D)
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169. For a unit using the extended cannibalization cycle, the standard time frame for having an aircraft down is?
a. 30-45 days b. 45-60 days c. 60-75 days d. 75-90 days |
b. 45-60 days
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70. How are radiographic inspections accomplished outside the non destructive inspection laboratory classified?
a. safe b. shielded c. unshielded d. unacceptable |
c. unshielded
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171. When calibrating navigational equipment, an external power unit is attached while towing an aircraft during what type of operation?
a. compass rose b. hot cargo pad c. radiographic inspection d. radar operational testing |
a. compass rose
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172. "Red Ball" maintenance defines a situation that requires all of the following except?
a. priority actions b. a sense of urgency c. specific local procedures d. an approved maintenance group (MXG) technical order (TO) compliance waiver |
d. an approved maintenance group (MXG) technical order (TO) compliance waiver
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173. During "Red Ball" maintenance it is important that expediters have a quick reference list (QRL) available in order to?
a. verify time change parts b. check supply delivery priorities c. reduce the time needed to research parts d. provide contact information for key personnel |
c. reduce the time needed to research parts
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174. Which of the following is not a member of the joint council on aging aircraft (JCAA)?
a. US army b. US air force c. federal aviation administration d. national transporttation safety board |
d. national transportation safety board
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175. Who appoints an officer or NCO as the maintenance group (MXG) aircraft structural integrity program (ASIP) project officer?
a. MXG commander b. MXG superintendent c. MXG vice commander d. MXS operations officer/ maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT) |
a. MXG commander
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176. What aircraft maintenance unit (AMU) section is required to ensure aircraft structural integrity program (ASIP) equipped aircraft are identified as such in weekly schedules?
a. aircraft b. specialist c. aircrew and maintenance debrief d. plans, scheduling, and documentation |
d. plans, scheduling, and documentation
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177. Who is the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for development of wing procedures for control and management of tools/equipment used on the flight line and in aerospace maintenance industrial areas?
a. wing commander (WG/CC) b. wing vice commander (WG/CV) c. maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) d. maintenance group deputy commander (MXG/CD) |
c. maintenance group commander (MXG/CC)
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178. In addition to daily accountability checks, how often must support personnel conduct and document a maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) standardized inspection of all support section tools and equipment?
a. monthly b. quarterly c. semiannually d. annually |
d. annually
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179. How many digits make up an equipment identification designator (EID) code used to identify tools and equipment?
a. 8 b. 9 c. 10 d. 11 |
b. 9
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180. In the equipment identification designator (EID) code U6JG00001, what does the third character "J" identify?
a. unit b. base c. shop d. specific tool |
a. unit
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181. Without a waiver, what is the minimum position an individual must hold before clearing a red X for a lost tool that has not been found?
a. operations officer or maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT) b. flight or aircraft maintenance unit (AMU) commander (CC) c. flight or aircraft maintenance unit (AMU) chief d. squadron commander (CC) |
a. operations officer or maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT)
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182. Who is the quality assurance (QA) chief inspector directly responsible to for ensuring the required maintenance standardization and evaluation program (MSEP) functions are performed?
a. wing inspector gerneral b. MAJCOM inspector general c. maintenance group deputy commander (MXG/CD) d. quality assurance (QA) officer in charge (OIC)/superintendent (SUPT |
d. quality assurance (QA) officer in charge (OIC)/superintendent (SUPT)
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183. Personnel should normally be assigned to a unit for how many months before being selected as quality assurance (QA) inspectors?
a. 3 b. 6 c. 9 d. 12 |
b. 6
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184. What maintenance standardizatoin and evaluation team (MSET) individual assessment finding is defined as a condition that would endanger personnel or jeopardize equipment?
a. minor b. major c. category I d. category II |
d. category II
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185. What maintenance standardization and evaluation team (MSET) individual assessment is performed after a technician completes a task?
a. special inpsection b. personnel evaluation c. management inspection d. quality verification inspection |
b. personnel evaluation
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186. The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is normally located within the?
a. maintenance flight b. quality assurance section c. engine management section d. maintenance operations cener |
b. quality assurance section
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187. The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor must notify the MAJCOM FOD manager within how many hours of a FOD incident?
a. 8 b. 12 c. 24 d. 48 |
c. 24
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188. What a dollar amount of damage must be exceeded for a foreign object damage (FOD) incident to be used to calculate the FOD rate for unit?
a. $10,000 b. $20,000 c. $30,000 d. $40,000 |
b. $20,000
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189. What time-frame is used for determining whether an item that falls off an aircraft is considered a reportable dropped object?
a. take-off to landing b. taxi-out to taci-in for final park c. engine start to engine shut down d. crew-show until aircraft released to maintenance |
c. engine start to engine shut down
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190. A dropped object that has resulted in casualties or property damage must be reported IAW?
a. AFI 10-206, operational reporting b. AFI 10-2510, USAF emergency notification signals c. AFI 91-224, ground safety investigations and reports d. AFI 91-221, weapons safety investigations and reports |
a. AFI 10-206, operational reporting
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191. Which AF publication provides general guidance for executing an effective maintenance recovery operation?
a. AFTTP 3-21.1, aircraft maintenance b. AFI 10-403, deployment planning and execution c. AFI 33-103, requirements development and processing d. AFI 21-101, aircraft and equipment maintenance management |
d. AFI 21-101, aircraft and equipment maintenance management
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192. the maximum total initial duty time (including home station duty, travel time, and recovery site duty upon arrival) that a maintenance recovery team member may be worked before being given 8 hours of uninterrupted rest is?
a. 14 hrs b. 16 hrs c. 18 hrs d. 20 hrs |
b. 16 hrs
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193. Which maintenance squadron (MXS) flight is the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for the maintenance group's (MXG's) crashed, damaged, or disabled aircraft recovery (CDDAR) program operating instruction?
a. fabrication flight b. accessories flight c. maintenance flight d. aerospace ground equipment flight |
c. maintenance flight
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194. How often must the team chief for the crashed, damaged, or disabled aircraft recovery (CDDAR) program conduct a CDDAR exercise?
a. monthly b. semiannually c. quarterly d. annually |
d. annually
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195. After initial training, how often must crashed, damaged, or disabled aircraft recovery (CDDAR) team members receive additional academic and honds-on training?
a. annually b. quarterly c. semiannually d. biennially |
a. annually
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196. Which AF portal link provides access to recurring AF periodicals like airman magazine and the air & space journal?
a. AF electronic publishing (AF e-publishing) b. advanced distributed learning service (ADLS) c. AF information technology E-Learning (AF IT E-Learning) d. AF center of excellence for knowledge management (AFKM) |
a. AF electronic publishing (AF e-publishing)
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197. Which AF portal link can be used to access user manuals for various AF computer systems?
a. air & space expeditionary force (AEF) online b. AF center for electronic distribution of systems (AFCEDS) c. AF information technology E-Learning (AF IT E-Learning) d. AF center of excellence for knowledge management (AFKM) |
b. AF center for electronic distribution of systems (AFCEDS)
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198. Which of the following is responsible for coordinating the number of certified load crew team members in support of aircraft generation planning?
a. maintenance squadron (MXS) operations officer b. MXS production superintendent c. wing weapons manager d. munitions leadership |
c. wing weapons manager
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199. You are primarily concerned with answering the question: "What steps need to be taken?" during wich aircraft generation planning area?
a. aircraft generation timing b. aircraft generation actions c. aircraft generation action timing d. aircraft generation flow sequence |
b. aircraft generation actions
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200. You are primarily concerned with answering the question: "How long does each step or group of steps take?" during which aircraft generation planning area?
a. aircraft generation timing b. aircraft generation actions c. aircraft generation action timing d. aircraft generation flow seqence |
c. aircraft generation action timing
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